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  • Should I be using Expression Blend to design really dynamic UIs?

    - by Robert Rossney
    My company's product is, at its core, a framework for developing metadata-driven UIs. I don't know how to characterize it less succinctly than that, and hope I won't need to for purposes of this question, but we'll see. I've been trying to come up to speed on WPF, and have been building UI prototypes here and there, and recently I decided to see if I could use Expression Blend to help with the design of these UIs. And I'm pretty mystified at this point. It appears to me as though Expresssion Blend is designed with the expectation that you already know all of the objects that are going to be present in the UI at design time. But our program generates these object dynamically at runtime. For instance, a data row might be presented in a horizontal StackPanel containing alternating TextBlocks (for captions) and TextBoxes (for data fields). The number of these objects depends on metadata about the number of columns in the data row. I can, pretty readily, write code that runs through a metadata record and populates a StackPanel dynamically, setting up the binding of all of the controls to properties in either the data or metadata. (A TextBox's Width might be bound to metadata, while its Text is bound to data.) But I can't even begin to figure out how to do something like this in Expression Blend. I can manually create all these controls, so that I have a set of controls that I can apply styles to and work out the visual design of the app, but it's really a pain to do this. I can write code that goes through my data model and emits XAML for all these controls, I suppose, and then copy and paste it. But I'm going to feel really stupid if it turns out there a way to do this sort of thing in Expression Blend and I've dropped back and punted because I'm too dim to figure out the right way to think of it. Is this enough information for someone to try formulating an answer?

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  • Populate table fields on query execution

    - by Jason
    I'm trying to build an ASP site that populates a Table based on the results of a selection in a ListBox. In order to do this, I've created a GridView table inside a div element. Currently the default behavior is to show all the items in the specified table in sortable order. However, I'd like to refine this further to allow for display of matches based on the results from the ListBox selection, but am not sure how to execute this. The ListBox fires off a OnSelectionChanged event to the method defined below and the GridView element is defined as <asp:GridView ID="dataListings" runat="server" AllowSorting="True" AutoGenerateColumns="False" DataSourceID="LinqDataSource1" OnDataBinding="ListBox1_SelectedIndexChanged"> protected void ListBox1_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { int itemSelected = selectTopics.SelectedIndex; string[] listing = null; switch (itemSelected)//assign listing the array of course numbers { case 0: break; case 1: listing = arts; break; case 2: listing = currentEvents; break; .... More cases here default: listing = arts; break; } using (OLLIDBDataContext odb = new OLLIDBDataContext()) { var q = from c in odb.tbl_CoursesAndWorkshops where listing.Contains(c.tbl_Course_Description.tbl_CoursesAndWorkshops.course_workshop_number) select c; dataListings.DataSource = q; dataListings.DataBind(); } } However, this method never gets fired. I can see a request being made when changing the selection, but setting a breakpoint at the method declaration does nothing at all. Based on this, setup, I have three related questions What do I need to modify to get the OnSelectionChanged event handler to fire? How can I alter the GridView area to be empty on page load? How do I send the results from the dataListings.DataBind() execution to show in the GridView?

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  • developing daily alarm in android

    - by zoza
    I have this piece of code that fire the alarm once by setting a time and date using the TimePicker and the DatePicker in another activity. i want to modify it in a way that whenever i set a time and a date it will fire the alarm everyday at the same time. in other words i want the alarm to be fired dialy public class M_ReminderManager { private Context mContext; private AlarmManager mAlarmManager; public M_ReminderManager(Context context) { mContext = context; mAlarmManager = (AlarmManager)context.getSystemService(Context.ALARM_SERVICE); } public void setReminder(Long reminderId, Calendar when) { Intent i = new Intent(mContext, Medicines_OnAlarmReceiver.class); i.putExtra(RemindersDbAdapter.KEY_ROWID_MEDS, (long)reminderId); PendingIntent pi = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(mContext, 0, i, PendingIntent.FLAG_ONE_SHOT); mAlarmManager.set(AlarmManager.RTC_WAKEUP, when.getTimeInMillis(), pi); } } i have tried using setRepeating function but i dont know how exactly i should set the attributes i used this line instead of the set fuction on the code but it didn't work: mAlarmManager.setRepeating(AlarmManager.RTC_WAKEUP, when.getTimeInMillis() ,AlarmManager.INTERVAL_DAY , pi); can someone help me with it? thanks in advance,

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  • Parsing data from txt file in J2ME

    - by CSFYPMAIL
    Basically I'm creating an indoor navigation system in J2ME. I've put the location details in a .txt file i.e. Locations names and their coordinates. Edges with respective start node and end node as well as the weight (length of the node). I put both details in the same file so users dont have to download multiple files to get their map working (it could become time consuming and seem complex). So what i did is to seperate the deferent details by typing out location Names and coordinates first, After that I seperated that section from the next section which is the edges by drawing a line with multiple underscores. Now the problem I'm having is parsing the different details into seperate arrays by setting up a command (while manually tokenizing the input stream) to check wether the the next token is an underscore. If it is, (in pseudocode terms), move to the next line in the stream, create a new array and fill it up with the next set of details. I found a some explanation/code HERE that does something similar but still parses into one array, although it manually tokenizes the input. Any ideas on what to do? Thanks Text File Explanation The text has the following format... <--1stSection--  /**   * Section one has the following format   * xCoordinate;yCoordinate;LocationName   */ 12;13;New York City 40;12;Washington D.C. ...e.t.c _________________________ <--(underscore divider) <--2ndSection--  /**   * Its actually an adjacency list but indirectly provides "edge" details.   * Its in this form   * StartNode/MainReferencePoint;Endnode1;distance2endNode1;Endnode2;distance2endNode2;...e.t.c   */ philadelphia;Washington D.C.;7;New York City;2 New York City;Florida;24;Illinois;71 ...e.t.c

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  • Only want "Required field" error to appear ONCE in ASP.NET Validation Summary

    - by PapillonUK
    I have a form with several fields with a RequiredFieldValidator on them. If any of these fields are not filled in I only want the message "Please enter the items marked with an asterisk" to appear once in the ValidationSummary control and an asterisk to appear next to each field. I have done this using the method here. i.e. by setting Text to "*" and ValidationSummary.HeaderText to my message. Great, but no cigar as I also have other fields with other validators e.g. a RegEx for an Email field. This means that if all the required fields are entered but the email is incorrect, the ValidationSummary with "Please enter the items marked with an asterisk" will appear along with the message for the invalid email. Crap! I then tried using a ValidationGroup called "ReqField" and have a one ValidationSummary for this group (with my HeaderText) and another for the other validators, but alas, my Submit button only allows one ValidationGroup to be triggered upon the click event. Does anyone have any ideas as to how I can get this to work? Thanks in adavnce.

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  • Problem inserting Pygames on a wxPython panel using Boa Constructor

    - by Kohwalter
    Hello, im new in Python so im hoping to to get some help to figure out what is going wrong. Im trying to run a Pygames from within wxPython panel (made on Boa Constructor). To do that i followed the instructions on the http://wiki.wxpython.org/IntegratingPyGame but still it isn't working. Here is the Panel code that was used to make the integration: class PG_panel(wx.Panel): def __init__(self, ID, name, parent, mypos, mysize): # pygame is imported in this class # make it globally available global pygame #self.Fit() wx.Panel.__init__(self, id=wxID_FRMMAINPANELTABULEIRO, name='panelTabuleiro', parent=self, pos=(16, 96), size=mysize) # pygame uses SDL, set the environment variables os.environ['SDL_WINDOWID'] = str(self.GetHandle()) os.environ['SDL_VIDEODRIVER'] = 'windib' # do the pygame stuff after setting the environment variables import pygame pygame.display.init() # create the pygame window/screen screen = pygame.display.set_mode(464, 464) #(424,450) # start the thread instance self.thread = PG_thread(screen) self.thread.start() def __del__(self): self.thread.stop() And im trying to use that panel on an interface from Boa Constructor, here is the code: class frmMain(wx.Frame): def _init_ctrls(self, prnt): # generated method, don't edit wx.Frame.__init__(self, id=wxID_FRMMAIN, name='frmMain', parent=prnt, pos=wx.Point(660, 239), size=wx.Size(815, 661), style=wx.DEFAULT_FRAME_STYLE, title='Grupo 1 - Jogo de Damas') self._init_utils() self.SetClientSize(wx.Size(799, 623)) self.SetBackgroundColour(wx.Colour(225, 225, 225)) self.SetMinSize(wx.Size(784, 650)) self.Center(wx.BOTH) self.SetMenuBar(self.menuBar1) #here begins my code mysize = (464, 464) mypos = (16, 96) self.panelTabuleiro = PG_panel(wxID_FRMMAINPANELTABULEIRO, 'panelTabuleiro', self, mypos, mysize) The original that was auto-made by the Boa Constructor is the following: self.panelTabuleiro = wx.Panel(id=wxID_FRMMAINPANELTABULEIRO, name='panelTabuleiro', parent=self, pos=wx.Point(16, 96), size=wx.Size(464, 464), style=wx.TAB_TRAVERSAL) self.panelTabuleiro.SetBackgroundColour(wx.Colour(232, 249, 240)) self.panelTabuleiro.SetThemeEnabled(True) self.panelTabuleiro.SetHelpText('Tabuleiro') The error that it gives is: Type error: in method 'new_Panel', expected argument 1 of type 'wxWindow*1 Exception AttributeError: "'PG_panel' object has no attribute 'thread' in ignored Any thoughts ? I appreciate any help. Thank you.

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  • How to validate properties across Models without repeating the validation logic

    - by Mano
    Hello All, I am building a ASP.NET Mvc app. I have a Data model say User public class user { public int userId {get; private set}; public string FirstName {get; set;} } The validation to be done is that the firstname cannot exceed 50 characters. I have another presentation model in which i have the property FirstName too. I do not want to repeat the validation logic in both the models. I want to have it in one place and that should be it. I can do it in a simpler way by adding a function which can be called while setting the property like private string firstName; public string FirstName { get { return firstName; } set { if (PropertyValidator.ValidName(value)) // assuming ValidName exists and it will throw an exception if the value is not valid { firstName = value; } } } But I am looking for something much simpler so that I do not need to add this for every property I need to have it validated. I looked at ValidationAttribute but then again I can validate this only from a controller (ModelState.IsValid). Since this model could be used by some other type of apps like console app, I could not choose that. But if there is a way to use the Mvc's ModelState.IsValid from outside of a controller, that would be awesome. Any suggestions are greatly appreciated. Thanks!!

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  • AutoMapper : Site wide usage of IValueFormatter for given types

    - by CRice
    It is my understanding I can configure AutoMapper in the following way and during mapping it should format all source model dates to the rules defined in the IValueFormatter and set the result to the mapped model. ForSourceType<DateTime>().AddFormatter<StandardDateFormatter>(); ForSourceType<DateTime?>().AddFormatter<StandardDateFormatter>(); I get no effect for my mapped class with this. It only works when I do the following: Mapper.CreateMap<Member, MemberForm>().ForMember(x => x.DateOfBirth, y => y.AddFormatter<StandardDateFormatter>()); I am mapping DateTime? Member.DateOfBirth to string MemberForm.DateOfBirth. The formatter basically creates a short date string from the date. Is there something I am missing when setting the default formatter for a given type? Thanks public class StandardDateFormatter : IValueFormatter { public string FormatValue(ResolutionContext context) { if (context.SourceValue == null) return null; if (!(context.SourceValue is DateTime)) return context.SourceValue.ToNullSafeString(); return ((DateTime)context.SourceValue).ToShortDateString(); } }

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  • When I try to pass large amounts of information using jquery $.ajax(post) method. it throws potenti

    - by dotnetrocks
    I am trying to create a preview window for my texteditor in my blog page. I need to send the content to the server to clean up the text entered before I can preview it on the preview window. I was trying to use $.ajax({ type: method, url: url, data: values, success: LoadPageCallback(targetID), error: function(msg) { $('#' + targetID).attr('innerHTML', 'An error has occurred. Please try again.'); } }); Whenever I tried to click on the preview button it returns an XMLHTTPRequest error. The error description - Description: Request Validation has detected a potentially dangerous client input value, and processing of the request has been aborted. This value may indicate an attempt to compromise the security of your application, such as a cross-site scripting attack. You can disable request validation by setting validateRequest=false in the Page directive or in the configuration section. However, it is strongly recommended that your application explicitly check all inputs in this case. The ValidateRequest for the page is set to false. Is there a way I can set validaterequest to false for the ajax call.Please advise Thank you for reading my post.

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  • Indirect property notification

    - by Carlo
    Hello, this question might look a little trivial, but it might not be. I'm just wondering which of the following two cases is better for indirect property notification, or perhaps there is an even better way. The scenario: I have two properties, the first one is an object called HoldingObject, the second one is a boolean called IsHoldingObject, which is false if HoldingObject == null, otherwise it's true. I'm just wondering what is the best notification mechanism for IsHoldingObject: Case (A) - Notify IsHoldingObject changed from the HoldingObject proeperty: public class NotifyingClass1 : INotifyPropertyChanged { private object _holdingObject; public object HoldingObject { get { return _holdingObject; } set { if (_holdingObject != value) { _holdingObject = value; NotifyPropertyChanged("HoldingObject"); // Notify from the property that is being checked NotifyPropertyChanged("IsHoldingObject"); } } } public bool IsHoldingObject { get { return this.HoldingObject == null; } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; private void NotifyPropertyChanged(string propertyName) { if (this.PropertyChanged != null) this.PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } #endregion } Case (B) - Notify IsHoldingObject changed from the IsHoldingObject directly, by setting it to false or true from HoldingObject property: public class NotifyingClass2 : INotifyPropertyChanged { private object _holdingObject; public object HoldingObject { get { return _holdingObject; } set { if (_holdingObject != value) { _holdingObject = value; NotifyPropertyChanged("HoldingObject"); // 1) Set the property here this.IsHoldingObject = _holdingObject != null; } } } private bool _isHoldingObject; public bool IsHoldingObject { get { return _isHoldingObject; } set { if (_isHoldingObject != value) { _isHoldingObject = value; // 2) Notify directly from the property NotifyPropertyChanged("IsHoldingObject"); } } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; private void NotifyPropertyChanged(string propertyName) { if (this.PropertyChanged != null) this.PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } #endregion } I personally lean to the first one because it requires less code, but I'm not sure how recommendable it is to do that. Let me know if there is another (better) way. Thanks!

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  • Link failure with either abnormal memory consumption or LNK1106 in Visual Studio 2005.

    - by Corvin
    Hello, I am trying to build a solution for windows XP in Visual Studio 2005. This solution contains 81 projects (static libs, exe's, dlls) and is being successfully used by our partners. I copied the solution bundle from their repository and tried setting it up on 3 similar machines of people in our group. I was successful on two machines and the solution failed to build on my machine. The build on my machine encountered two problems: During a simple build creation of the biggest static library (about 522Mb in debug mode) would fail with the message "13libd\ui1d.lib : fatal error LNK1106: invalid file or disk full: cannot seek to 0x20101879" Full solution rebuild creates this library, however when it comes to linking the library to main .exe file, devenv.exe spawns link.exe which consumes about 80Mb of physical memory and 250MB of virtual and spawns another link.exe, which does the same. This goes on until the system runs out of memory. On PCs of my colleagues where successful build could be performed, there is only one link.exe process which uses all the memory required for linking (about 500Mb physical). There is a plenty of hard drive space on my machine and the file system is NTFS. All three of our systems are similar - Core2Quad processors, 4Gb of RAM, Windows XP SP3. We are using Visual studio installed from the same source. I tried using a different RAM and CPU, using dedicated graphics adapter to eliminate possibility of video memory sharing influencing the build, putting solution files to different location, using different versions of VS 2005 (Professional, Standard and Team Suite), changing the amount of available virtual memory, running memtest86 and building the project from scratch (i.e. a clean bundle). I have read what MSDN says about LNK1106, none of the cases apply to me except for maybe "out of heap space", however I am not sure how I should fight this. The only idea that I have left is reinstalling the OS, however I am not sure that it would help and I am not sure that my situation wouldn't repeat itself on a different machine. Would anyone have any sort of advice for me? Thanks

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  • Mocking non-virtual methods in C++ without editing production code?

    - by wk1989
    Hello, I am a fairly new software developer currently working adding unit tests to an existing C++ project that started years ago. Due to a non-technical reason, I'm not allowed to modify any existing code. The base class of all my modules has a bunch of methods for Setting/Getting data and communicating with other modules. Since I just want to unit testing each individual module, I want to be able to use canned values for all my inter-module communication methods. I.e. for a method Ping() which checks if another module is active, I want to have it return true or false based on what kind of test I'm doing. I've been looking into Google Test and Google Mock, and it does support mocking non-virtual methods. However the approach described (http://code.google.com/p/googlemock/wiki/CookBook#Mocking_Nonvirtual_Methods) requires me to "templatize" the original methods to take in either real or mock objects. I can't go and templatize my methods in the base class due to the requirement mentioned earlier, so I need some other way of mocking these virtual methods Basically, the methods I want to mock are in some base class, the modules I want to unit test and create mocks of are derived classes of that base class. There are intermediate modules in between my base Module class and the modules that I want to test. I would appreciate any advise! Thanks, JW EDIT: A more concrete examples My base class is lets say rootModule, the module I want to test is leafModule. There is an intermediate module which inherits from rootModule, leafModule inherits from this intermediate module. In my leafModule, I want to test the doStuff() method, which calls the non virtual GetStatus(moduleName) defined in the rootModule class. I need to somehow make GetStatus() to return a chosen canned value. Mocking is new to me, so is using mock objects even the right approach?

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  • Prevent Word from Reformatting my HTML

    - by Jonathan
    I have an HTML page that needs to open in word. I created the document in word and saved the document as an HTML document. So word spits out all its nasty HTML syntax. This is the opened through internet explorer which will display the word document within the browser. When I view the page word modifies some of the tags. More specifically it adds a Width and Height tag and ignores the width and height within the style tag. If I try setting the Width and Height tags it overrides with new values. I have tested on different environments and get different results as word makes decision how to handle. A bit of background this img starts off as this, and is rendered via data rendering syntax. <asp:Image id="as" runat="server" Src"<%# ImgSource %>" style="width:178px;height:130px" /> It ends up like this in word <img width=32 height=32 id=barCodeImage src="http://myurl/BarcodeImages/1136574_129180418198008169.png" style='border-bottom-width:0px;border-left-width:0px;border-right-width:0px; border-top-width:0px;height:130px;width:178px'> I want to stop word from reformatting the HTML.

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  • How can I make VS2010 insert using statements in the order dictated by StyleCop rules.

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    The related default StyleCop rules are: Place using statements inside namespace. Sort using statements alphabetically. But ... System using come first (still trying to figure out if that means just using System; or using System[.*];). So, my use case: I find a bug and decide that I need to at least add an intelligible Assert to make debugging less painful for the next guy. So I start typing Debug.Assert( and intellisense marks it in Red. I hover mouse over Debug and between using System.Diagnostics; and System.Diagnostics.Debug I choose the former. This inserts using System.Diagnostics; after all other using statements. It would be nice if VS2010 did not assist me in writing code that won't build due to warnings as errors. How can I make VS2010 smarter? Is there some sort of setting, or does this require a full-fledged add-in of some sort?

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  • xmldocument and nested schemas

    - by Stuart
    Using c# and .net 3.5 I'm trying to validate an xml document against a schema that has includes. The schemas and there includes are as below Schema1.xsd - include another.xsd another.xsd - include base.xsd When i try to add the Schema1.xsd to the XmlDocument i get the following error. Type 'YesNoType' is not declared or is not a simple type. I believe i'm getting this error because the base.xsd file is not being included when i load the Schema1.xsd schema. I'm trying to use the XmlSchemaSet class and I'm setting the XmlResolver uri to the location of the schemas. NOTE : All schemas live under the same directory E:\Dev\Main\XmlSchemas Here is the code string schemaPath = "E:\\Dev\\Main\\XmlSchemas"; XmlDocument xmlDocSchema = new XmlDocument(); XmlSchemaSet s = new XmlSchemaSet(); XmlUrlResolver resolver = new XmlUrlResolver(); Uri baseUri = new Uri(schemaPath); resolver.ResolveUri(null, schemaPath); s.XmlResolver = resolver; s.Add(null, XmlReader.Create(new System.IO.StreamReader(schemaPath + "\\Schema1.xsd"), new XmlReaderSettings { ValidationType = ValidationType.Schema, XmlResolver = resolver }, new Uri(schemaPath).ToString())); xmlDocSchema.Schemas.Add(s); ValidationEventHandler valEventHandler = new ValidationEventHandler (ValidateNinoDobEvent); try { xmlDocSchema.LoadXml(xml); xmlDocSchema.Validate(valEventHandler); } catch (XmlSchemaValidationException xmlValidationError) { // need to interogate the Validation Exception, for possible further // processing. string message = xmlValidationError.Message; return false; } Can anyone point me in the right direction regarding validating an xmldocument against a schema with nested includes.

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  • Javascript Cookie problems IE

    - by blakey87
    Hi guys, been bagging my head over some Javascript, please help, I cant see why it simply wont find my cookie in IE 7 or 8 I am setting the cookie true through another event, but I just want to see IE pick up the cookie which I initially set. Works in firefox too, thanks in advance. var t=setTimeout("doAlert()",8000); var doAlertVar = true; document.cookie = "closed=0;expires=0;path="; function readCookie(name) { var nameEQ = name + "="; var ca = document.cookie; alert(ca); ca = ca.replace(/^\s*|\s*$/g,''); ca = document.cookie.split(';'); for(var i=0;i < ca.length;i++) { var c = ca[i]; while (c.charAt(0)==' ') c = c.substring(1,c.length); if (c.indexOf(nameEQ) == 0) return c.substring(nameEQ.length,c.length); } return null; } function doAlert(){ if(readCookie('closed')==1){ doAlertVar = false; } if(readCookie('closed')==0){ alert("unlicensed demo version\nbuy online at"); } t=setTimeout("doAlert()",5000); }

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  • echo php javascript alert?

    - by Anaes Arias
    How can I echo this javascript if the php error messages is called? I have an error message setting that when a user misses his username or password it triggers an error message. The php error message is called by a php code. Here is the code: <?php echo showmessage($msg) ?> I have an alert message in javascript that when called it will make a javascript css pop up alert box. IF the javascript code is present it will show the alert box right away after reload. Here is code: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { jqxAlert.alert('Alert Message'); }) </script> How can I incorporate so that when the php echo message comes up it will trigger the javscript alert message. I was trying an if in php, so something like this code: if ( showmessage($msg) ) { <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { jqxAlert.alert('Alert Message'); }) </script> } How can I echo my javascript message on the php call?

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  • Facebook Connect: Permissions Error [200] using "stream.publish" with PHP

    - by Sarah
    Hi all, I've been implementing Facebook Connect into a site and am using both the PHP API, to allow me to automatically post data to a user's wall, as well as the JS API, for manual posting, permissions dialogs, etc. When the user uses the manual method it works 100%...the popups are displayed correctly, and the data gets posted to their wall properly. However, when I try to use the PHP API I am getting inconsistencies. When I try posting automatically using the PHP API using one account it works perfect, every time. But for some other accounts it never works, always returning "Permissions error." The error code is 200, and I've checked the Facebook API documentation and it's pretty vague, saying only "Permissions error. The application does not have permission to perform this action." But that's not true, since it works on some accounts and doesn't work on others. First, I've made sure that the users in question have enabled the extended permission "publish_stream" and that the manual method using the JS API works, so it doesn't seem to be a problem with those specific permissions. There are no apparent differences between the Facebook accounts I've used. So my question is has anyone run into this problem and found a solution to it? Is there some sort of other permission setting that users must enable for this to work? I've been searching Google and these forums but have not found any solution. The request I am sending is: (Note: The content/image url/link url are not the actual data I use) $attachment = array( 'caption' => '{*actor*} commented on <title> "<comment>"', 'media' => array( array( 'type' => 'image', 'src' => 'http://www.test.com/image.jpg', 'href' => 'http://www.test.com' ) ) ); $Facebook->api_client->stream_publish('', $attachment); Thanks, Sarah

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  • Doxygen including methods twice doc files

    - by Maarek
    I'm having this issue where doxygen is adding the method twice in the documentation file. Is there a setting that stops auto-generation of documentation for methods within the .m file. For example in the documentation I'll see something like whats below where the first definition of + (Status *)registerUser is from the header XXXXXX.h file where the second is from XXXXXX.m. Header documentation : /** @brief Test Yada Yada @return <#(description)#> */ + (Status *)registerUser; Output: + (Status *) registerUser Test Yada Yada. Returns: <#(description)#> + (Status *) registerUser <#(brief description)#> <#(comprehensive description)#> registerUser Returns: <#(description)#> Definition at line 24 of file XXXXXX.m. Here are the build related configuration options. I've tried playing with them. EXTRACT_ALL with YES and NO... Hiding uncodumented Members and Classes. #--------------------------------------------------------------------------- # Build related configuration options #--------------------------------------------------------------------------- EXTRACT_ALL = NO EXTRACT_PRIVATE = NO EXTRACT_STATIC = NO EXTRACT_LOCAL_CLASSES = YES EXTRACT_LOCAL_METHODS = NO EXTRACT_ANON_NSPACES = NO HIDE_UNDOC_MEMBERS = YES HIDE_UNDOC_CLASSES = YES HIDE_FRIEND_COMPOUNDS = NO HIDE_IN_BODY_DOCS = NO INTERNAL_DOCS = NO CASE_SENSE_NAMES = NO HIDE_SCOPE_NAMES = NO SHOW_INCLUDE_FILES = YES FORCE_LOCAL_INCLUDES = NO INLINE_INFO = YES SORT_MEMBER_DOCS = YES SORT_BRIEF_DOCS = NO SORT_MEMBERS_CTORS_1ST = NO SORT_GROUP_NAMES = NO SORT_BY_SCOPE_NAME = NO

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  • problem in case of window service

    - by prateeksaluja20
    Hello friends, i made a windows service & add project installer.in which only contain this code. System.Diagnostics.Process.Start(@"C:\Windows\system32\notepad.exe"); inside the timer tick event & interval is 60 sec.i just wanted to try to run Windows service. 1st-serviceProcessInstaller1 i have been changed its account setting as local system. 2nd-serviceInstaller1 in this case i have been changed its start up type as Automatic. then i create a setup add another project then right click add project output then add primary output then press ok. then go to Right click on project-view-custom Action-right click on Install-Add custom Action-select Application folder & add primary output.the same thing done for all the remaining options like commit,rollback,uninstall. after that i build the setup it build succesfully then i install the setup it installed properly into program file n create one .exe file n one Instalfile. but problem is that when i search the service into "services.msc" the service is not there. means service is not showing there.i tried but not getting the ans.plz help me to solve this problem.

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  • class modifier issues in C# with "private" classes

    - by devoured elysium
    I had a class that had lots of methods: public class MyClass { public bool checkConditions() { return checkCondition1() && checkCondition2() && checkCondition3(); } ...conditions methods public void DoProcess() { FirstPartOfProcess(); SecondPartOfProcess(); ThirdPartOfProcess(); } ...process methods } I identified two "vital" work areas, and decided to extract those methods to classes of its own: public class MyClass { private readonly MyClassConditions _conditions = new ...; private readonly MyClassProcessExecution = new ...; public bool checkConditions() { return _conditions.checkConditions(); } public void DoProcess() { _process.DoProcess(); } } In Java, I'd define MyClassConditions and MyClassProcessExecution as package protected, but I can't do that in C#. How would you go about doing this in C#? Setting both classes as inner classes of MyClass? I have 2 options: I either define them inside MyClass, having everything in the same file, which looks confusing and ugly, or I can define MyClass as a partial class, having one file for MyClass, other for MyClassConditions and other for MyClassProcessExecution. Defining them as internal? I don't really like that much of the internal modifier, as I don't find these classes add any value at all for the rest of my program/assembly, and I'd like to hide them if possible. It's not like they're gonna be useful/reusable in any other part of the program. Keep them as public? I can't see why, but I've let this option here. Any other? Name it! Thanks

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  • CRM 2011 - Set/Retrieve work hours programmatically

    - by Philip Rich
    I am attempting to retrieve a resources work hours to perform some logic I require. I understand that the CRM scheduling engine is a little clunky around such things, but I assumed that I would be able to find out how the working hours were stored in the DB eventually... So a resource has associated calendars and those calendars have associated calendar rules and inner calendars etc. It is possible to look at the start/end and frequency of aforementioned calendar rules and query their codes to work out whether a resource is 'working' during a given period. However, I have not been able to find the actual working hours, the 9-5 shall we say in any field in the DB. I even tried some SQL profiling while I was creating a new schedule for a resource via the UI, but the results don't show any work hours passing to SQL. For those with the patience the intercepted SQL statement is below:- EXEC Sp_executesql N'update [CalendarRuleBase] set [ModifiedBy]=@ModifiedBy0, [EffectiveIntervalEnd]=@EffectiveIntervalEnd0, [Description]=@Description0, [ModifiedOn]=@ModifiedOn0, [GroupDesignator]=@GroupDesignator0, [IsSelected]=@IsSelected0, [InnerCalendarId]=@InnerCalendarId0, [TimeZoneCode]=@TimeZoneCode0, [CalendarId]=@CalendarId0, [IsVaried]=@IsVaried0, [Rank]=@Rank0, [ModifiedOnBehalfBy]=NULL, [Duration]=@Duration0, [StartTime]=@StartTime0, [Pattern]=@Pattern0 where ([CalendarRuleId] = @CalendarRuleId0)', N'@ModifiedBy0 uniqueidentifier,@EffectiveIntervalEnd0 datetime,@Description0 ntext,@ModifiedOn0 datetime,@GroupDesignator0 ntext,@IsSelected0 bit,@InnerCalendarId0 uniqueidentifier,@TimeZoneCode0 int,@CalendarId0 uniqueidentifier,@IsVaried0 bit,@Rank0 int,@Duration0 int,@StartTime0 datetime,@Pattern0 ntext,@CalendarRuleId0 uniqueidentifier', @ModifiedBy0='EB04662A-5B38-E111-9889-00155D79A113', @EffectiveIntervalEnd0='2012-01-13 00:00:00', @Description0=N'Weekly Single Rule', @ModifiedOn0='2012-03-12 16:02:08', @GroupDesignator0=N'FC5769FC-4DE9-445d-8F4E-6E9869E60857', @IsSelected0=1, @InnerCalendarId0='3C806E79-7A49-4E8D-B97E-5ED26700EB14', @TimeZoneCode0=85, @CalendarId0='E48B1ABF-329F-425F-85DA-3FFCBB77F885', @IsVaried0=0, @Rank0=2, @Duration0=1440, @StartTime0='2000-01-01 00:00:00', @Pattern0=N'FREQ=WEEKLY;INTERVAL=1;BYDAY=SU,MO,TU,WE,TH,FR,SA', @CalendarRuleId0='0A00DFCF-7D0A-4EE3-91B3-DADFCC33781D' The key parts in the statement are the setting of the pattern:- @Pattern0=N'FREQ=WEEKLY;INTERVAL=1;BYDAY=SU,MO,TU,WE,TH,FR,SA' However, as mentioned, no indication of the work hours set. Am I thinking about this incorrectly or is CRM doing something interesting around these work hours? Any thoughts greatly appreciated, thanks.

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  • Thread mutex behaviour

    - by Alberteddu
    Hi there, I'm learning C. I'm writing an application with multiple threads; I know that when a variable is shared between two or more threads, it is better to lock/unlock using a mutex to avoid deadlock and inconsistency of variables. This is very clear when I want to change or view one variable. int i = 0; /** Global */ static pthread_mutex_t mutex = PTHREAD_MUTEX_INITIALIZER; /** Thread 1. */ pthread_mutex_lock(&mutex); i++; pthread_mutex_unlock(&mutex); /** Thread 2. */ pthread_mutex_lock(&mutex); i++; pthread_mutex_unlock(&mutex); This is correct, I think. The variable i, at the end of the executions, contains the integer 2. Anyway, there are some situations in which I don't know exactly where to put the two function calls. For example, suppose you have a function obtain(), which returns a global variable. I need to call that function from within the two threads. I have also two other threads that call the function set(), defined with a few arguments; this function will set the same global variable. The two functions are necessary when you need to do something before getting/setting the var. /** (0) */ /** Thread 1, or 2, or 3... */ if(obtain() == something) { if(obtain() == somethingElse) { // Do this, sometimes obtain() and sometimes set(random number) (1) } else { // Do that, just obtain(). (2) } } else { // Do this and do that (3) // If # of thread * 3 > 10, then set(3*10) For example. (4) } /** (5) */ Where I have to lock, and where I have to unlock? The situation can be, I think, even more complex. I will appreciate an exhaustive answer. Thank you in advance. —Alberto

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  • form target iframe not working in IE7- in facebook fan tab

    - by greatcaesarsghost
    This issue is similar to the one discussed in this thread, only mine is in a Facebook fan page tab (FBML/FBJS). The fix described in the referenced question works fine outside of Facebook, but for whatever reason I can't get it to work in the posted FBJS. Here's a stripped down version of what I'm trying to do: <script type="text/javascript"> function doit() { document.getElementById('msg').setInnerXHTML('<iframe id="testframe" name="testframe" frameborder="0" />'); } </script> <div id="msg"></div> <form action="http://somesite.com/whatever.php" method="post" id="testform" name="testform" target="testframe"> <input type="text" id="txt1" name="txt1" /> <input type="submit" id="btn" name="btn" value="test" onclick="doit();" /> </form> -- This behaves as you'd expect in all browsers, except IE <= 7, where it opens a new window. IE's dev tool shows the iframe as having a 'submitName' attribute, but no 'name' attribute. Even by manually setting the name (document.getElementbyId('testframe').setName('testframe') fails to work the way it would outside of Facebook. Has anyone run into this same issue, and if so, is there any way around it? Thank you.

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  • [Ruby on Rails] complex model relationship

    - by siulamvictor
    I am not sure am I doing these correct. I have 3 models, Account, User, and Event. Account contains a group of Users. Each User have its own username and password for login, but they can access the same Account data under the same Account. Events is create by a User, which other Users in the same Account can also read or edit it. I created the following migrations and models. User migration class CreateUsers < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :users do |t| t.integer :account_id t.string :username t.string :password t.timestamps end end def self.down drop_table :users end end Account migration class CreateAccounts < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :accounts do |t| t.string :name t.timestamps end end def self.down drop_table :accounts end end Event migration class CreateEvents < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :events do |t| t.integer :account_id t.integer :user_id t.string :name t.string :location t.timestamps end end def self.down drop_table :events end end Account model class Account < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :users has_many :events end User model class User < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :account end Event model class Event < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :account belongs_to :user end so.... Is this setting correct? Every time when a user create a new account, the system will as for the user information, i.e. username and password. How can I add them into correct tables? How can I add a new event? I am sorry for such a long question. I am not very understand the rails way in handling such data structure. Thank you guys for answering me. :)

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