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• how to make an image appear everytime when i shake my iphone

  - by Abhishek

  Hello, i have created a shake application in iphone but i am having a problem. I want that when i shake my iphone everytime an image should appear for every shake.Can anybody help how is it possible. This is the code which i have written: CGRect myImageRect = CGRectMake(110.0f, 70.0f, 220.0f, 380.0f); //This line is for setting my tick.png image on my image view UIImageView *myImage = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithFrame:myImageRect]; [myImage setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"tick_mark.png"]]; [self.view addSubview:myImage];       //animation [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:1]; [myImage setAlpha:0.0]; [UIView commitAnimations]; [myImage release]; This is for beginning animations and I have set my image alpha to 0.0 so that my image will disappear. This code is working properly. But I want it so that when I shake my iPhone again my image should reappear for every shake. How is it possible.

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• Using the AutoComplete feature of ComboBox, while limiting values to those in the list?

  - by Schmuli

  In WinForms 2.0, a ComboBox has an Auto-Complete feature, that displays a custom Drop-Down list with only the values that start with the entered text. However, if I want to limit valid values to only those that appear in the ComboBox's list of items, I can do that by setting the DropDownStyle to DropDownList, which stops the user from entering a value. However, now I can't use the Auto-Complete feature, which requires user input. Is there another way to limit input to the list, while still allowing use of the Auto-Complete feature? Note that I have seen some custom solutions for this, but I really like the way the matching Auto-Complete items are displayed in a Drop-Down list, and sorted even though the original list may not be. EDIT: I have thought about just validating the entered value, i.e. testing user input if it is valid in, say, the TextChanged event, or even using the Validating event. The question then is what is the expected behavior? Do I clear their value (an empty value is also invalid), or do I use a default value? Closest matching value? P.s. Is there any other tags that I could add to this question?

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• Parsing data from txt file in J2ME

  - by CSFYPMAIL

  Basically I'm creating an indoor navigation system in J2ME. I've put the location details in a .txt file i.e. Locations names and their coordinates. Edges with respective start node and end node as well as the weight (length of the node). I put both details in the same file so users dont have to download multiple files to get their map working (it could become time consuming and seem complex). So what i did is to seperate the deferent details by typing out location Names and coordinates first, After that I seperated that section from the next section which is the edges by drawing a line with multiple underscores. Now the problem I'm having is parsing the different details into seperate arrays by setting up a command (while manually tokenizing the input stream) to check wether the the next token is an underscore. If it is, (in pseudocode terms), move to the next line in the stream, create a new array and fill it up with the next set of details. I found a some explanation/code HERE that does something similar but still parses into one array, although it manually tokenizes the input. Any ideas on what to do? Thanks Text File Explanation The text has the following format... <--1stSection--  /**   * Section one has the following format   * xCoordinate;yCoordinate;LocationName   */ 12;13;New York City 40;12;Washington D.C. ...e.t.c _________________________ <--(underscore divider) <--2ndSection--  /**   * Its actually an adjacency list but indirectly provides "edge" details.   * Its in this form   * StartNode/MainReferencePoint;Endnode1;distance2endNode1;Endnode2;distance2endNode2;...e.t.c   */ philadelphia;Washington D.C.;7;New York City;2 New York City;Florida;24;Illinois;71 ...e.t.c

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• How can I make VS2010 insert using statements in the order dictated by StyleCop rules.

  - by Hamish Grubijan

  The related default StyleCop rules are: Place using statements inside namespace. Sort using statements alphabetically. But ... System using come first (still trying to figure out if that means just using System; or using System[.*];). So, my use case: I find a bug and decide that I need to at least add an intelligible Assert to make debugging less painful for the next guy. So I start typing Debug.Assert( and intellisense marks it in Red. I hover mouse over Debug and between using System.Diagnostics; and System.Diagnostics.Debug I choose the former. This inserts using System.Diagnostics; after all other using statements. It would be nice if VS2010 did not assist me in writing code that won't build due to warnings as errors. How can I make VS2010 smarter? Is there some sort of setting, or does this require a full-fledged add-in of some sort?

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• How to set JComboBox not to select an element when created? (Java)

  - by Alex Cheng

  Hi all. Problem: I am using JComboBox, and tried using setSelectionIndex(-1) in my code (this code is placed in caretInvoke()) suggestionComboBox.removeAllItems(); for (int i = 0; i < suggestions.length; i++) { suggestionComboBox.addItem(suggestions[i]); } suggestionComboBox.setSelectedIndex(-1); suggestionComboBox.setEnabled(true); This is the initial setting when it was added to a pane: suggestionComboBox = new JComboBox(); suggestionComboBox.setEditable(false); suggestionComboBox.setPreferredSize(new Dimension(25, 25)); suggestionComboBox.addActionListener(new SuggestionComboBoxListener()); When the caretInvoke triggers the ComboBox initialisation, even before the user selects an element, the actionPerformed is already triggered (I tried a JOptionPane here): First popup (notice that "flow byte_jump" is selected): Second popup (I think the setSelectionIndex is executed) Then in the end: The problem is: My program autoinserts the selected text when the user selects an element from the ComboBox. So without the user selecting anything, it is automatically inserted already. How can I overcome the problem in this situation? Thanks.

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• problem in case of window service

  - by prateeksaluja20

  Hello friends, i made a windows service & add project installer.in which only contain this code. System.Diagnostics.Process.Start(@"C:\Windows\system32\notepad.exe"); inside the timer tick event & interval is 60 sec.i just wanted to try to run Windows service. 1st-serviceProcessInstaller1 i have been changed its account setting as local system. 2nd-serviceInstaller1 in this case i have been changed its start up type as Automatic. then i create a setup add another project then right click add project output then add primary output then press ok. then go to Right click on project-view-custom Action-right click on Install-Add custom Action-select Application folder & add primary output.the same thing done for all the remaining options like commit,rollback,uninstall. after that i build the setup it build succesfully then i install the setup it installed properly into program file n create one .exe file n one Instalfile. but problem is that when i search the service into "services.msc" the service is not there. means service is not showing there.i tried but not getting the ans.plz help me to solve this problem.

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• OO Design: use Properties or Overloaded methods?

  - by Robert Frank

  Question about OO design. Suppose I have a base object vehicle. And two descendants: truck and automobile. Further, suppose the base object has a base method: FixFlatTire(); abstract; When the truck and automobile override the base object's, they require different information from the caller. Am I better off overloading FixFlatTire like this in the two descendant objects: Procedure Truck.FixFlatTire( OfficePhoneNumber: String; NumberOfAxles: Integer): Override; Overload; Procedure Automobile.FixFlatTire( WifesPhoneNumber: String; AAAMembershipID: String): Override; Overload; Or introducing new properties in each of the descendants and then setting them before calling FixFlatTire, like this: Truck.OfficePhoneNumber := '555-555-1212'; Truck.NumberOfAxles := 18; Truck.FixFlatTire(); Automobile.WifesPhoneNumber := '555-555-2323'; Automobile.AAAMembershipID := 'ABC'; Automobile.FixFlatTire();

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• How do I execute queries upon DB connection in Rails?

  - by sycobuny

  I have certain initializing functions that I use to set up audit logging on the DB server side (ie, not rails) in PostgreSQL. At least one has to be issued (setting the current user) before inserting data into or updating any of the audited tables, or else the whole query will fail spectacularly. I can easily call these every time before running any save operation in the code, but DRY makes me think I should have the code repeated in as few places as possible, particularly since this diverges greatly from the ideal of database agnosticism. Currently I'm attempting to override ActiveRecord::Base.establish_connection in an initializer to set it up so that the queries are run as soon as I connect automatically, but it doesn't behave as I expect it to. Here is the code in the initializer: class ActiveRecord::Base # extend the class methods, not the instance methods class << self alias :old_establish_connection :establish_connection # hide the default def establish_connection(*args) ret = old_establish_connection(*args) # call the default # set up necessary session variables for audit logging # call these after calling default, to make sure conn is established 1st db = self.class.connection db.execute("SELECT SV.set('current_user', 'test@localhost')") db.execute("SELECT SV.set('audit_notes', NULL)") # end "empty variable" err ret # return the default's original value end end end puts "Loaded custom establish_connection into ActiveRecord::Base" sycobuny:~/rails$ ruby script/server = Booting WEBrick = Rails 2.3.5 application starting on http://0.0.0.0:3000 Loaded custom establish_connection into ActiveRecord::Base This doesn't give me any errors, and unfortunately I can't check what the method looks like internally (I was using ActiveRecord::Base.method(:establish_connection), but apparently that creates a new Method object each time it's called, which is seemingly worthless cause I can't check object_id for any worthwhile information and I also can't reverse the compilation). However, the code never seems to get called, because any attempt to run a save or an update on a database object fails as I predicted earlier. If this isn't a proper way to execute code immediately on connection to the database, then what is?

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• Can g++ fill uninitialized POD variables with known values?

  - by Bob Lied

  I know that Visual Studio under debugging options will fill memory with a known value. Does g++ (any version, but gcc 4.1.2 is most interesting) have any options that would fill an uninitialized local POD structure with recognizable values? struct something{ int a; int b; }; void foo() { something uninitialized; bar(uninitialized.b); } I expect uninitialized.b to be unpredictable randomness; clearly a bug and easily found if optimization and warnings are turned on. But compiled with -g only, no warning. A colleague had a case where code similar to this worked because it coincidentally had a valid value; when the compiler upgraded, it started failing. He thought it was because the new compiler was inserting known values into the structure (much the way that VS fills 0xCC). In my own experience, it was just different random values that didn't happen to be valid. But now I'm curious -- is there any setting of g++ that would make it fill memory that the standard would otherwise say should be uninitialized?

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• Is it possible to auto update only selected properties on an existent entity object without touching the others

  - by LaserBeak

  Say I have a bunch of boolean properties on my entity class public bool isActive etc. Values which will be manipulated by setting check boxes in a web application. I will ONLY be posting back the one changed name/value pair and the primary key at a time, say { isActive : true , NewsPageID: 34 } and the default model binder will create a NewsPage object with only those two properties set. Now if I run the below code it will not only update the values for the properties that have been set on the NewsPage object created by the model binder but of course also attempt to null all the other non set values for the existent entity object because they are not set on NewsPage object created by the model binder. Is it possible to somehow tell entity framework not to look at the properties that are set to null and attempt to persist those changes back to the retrieved entity object and hence database ? Perhaps there's some code I can write that will only utilize the non-null values and their property names on the NewsPage object created by model binder and only attempt to update those particular properties ? [HttpPost] public PartialViewResult SaveNews(NewsPage Np) { Np.ModifyDate = DateTime.Now; _db.NewsPages.Attach(Np); _db.ObjectStateManager.ChangeObjectState(Np, System.Data.EntityState.Modified); _db.SaveChanges(); _db.Dispose(); return PartialView("MonthNewsData"); } I can of course do something like below, but I have a feeling it's not the optimal solution. Especially considering that I have like 6 boolean properties that I need to set. [HttpPost] public PartialViewResult SaveNews(int NewsPageID, bool isActive, bool isOnFrontPage) { if (isActive != null) { //Get entity and update this property } if (isOnFontPage != null) { //Get entity and update this property } }

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• Flash Player: Any remedy for the stale video image data problem (in a reused NetStream object)?

  - by amn

  Has anyone experienced stale stills of a previous playback for a reused NetStream object? If so, what are the workarounds for this, except re-creating the object (which eats performance and time)? It is hard to reuse NetStream objects because of a (in my opinion) fundamental issue with NetStream objects - when you 'close' a playing stream and at a later point issue a 'play' call on it again with a different name, the stream appears to still contain a stale image lingering from previous playback, and this is of course displayed in the Video object for a moment - the moment I assume it takes for new stream data to become available from server. Because of this behavior, to improve my users' visual experience, I simply discard a NetStream object after a playback session, and assign a new NetStream object to the same variable, set it up, and play something else. It appears to work - no stale image - but what bugs me is that it's a work around and costs performance (construction and setting up the object again - event listeners and 'client' delegates and more memory usage - NetStream objects are not garbage collected immediately, it takes some time). It would be really nice to REALLY be able to reuse a stream. I am thinking of something akin to Video.clear method, but for the NetStream class. Am I missing something?

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• jquery mobile - loading content into a div

  - by Robbiegod

  Jquery Mobile works by “hijacking” a page and loading content and injecting it into the page. It seems that this creates a problem when i try to inject other content into the page. I have my index.html and then a page2.html file. I'm setting up jquery mobile in the normal fashion wrapping the contents of each page in a div like so: <div id="container" data-role="page"> // my content <a href="page2.html">go to page 2</a> </div> when the user taps go to page 2, it does the nice slide effect. The url in the location bar looks like this: index.html#page2.html jquery mobile inject the content of the page using the anchors and applies the transition. nice so everthing works great up to the next part. On page2.html, i have a section that is loading some external data and injecting it into a div. <a href="http://www.somedomain.com/myata.php" class="ajaxtrigger" data-role="none">mydata</a> <div id="target"></div> <script src="js/code.js"></script> <script src="js/loader.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('.ajaxtrigger').trigger('click'); }); </script> The problem i am having is that when i enable the transitions in jquery mobile this script doesn't work. It won't load the data into the div. bummer. Anyone know what i need to do to get it to trigger and load the content into that div?

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• VB.net/Excel- "Backwards" tab index For Each iteration with textboxes.

  - by MSD

  Hi there, I have a form with 3 textboxes and 1 button. textbox1 has tab index 0, and it's text = 1 textbox2 has tab index 1, and it's text = 2 textbox3 has tab index 2, and it's text = 3 I want to iterate thru the textboxes and place their values into cells so that... range("A1").value = txtbox1.text (ie: A1 = "1") range("A2").value = txtbox2.text (ie: A2 = "2") range("A3").value = txtbox3.text (ie: A3 = "3") but what I am getting is... range("A1").value = txtbox1.text (ie: A1 = "3") range("A2").value = txtbox2.text (ie: A2 = "2") range("A3").value = txtbox3.text (ie: A3 = "1") I have tried reversing the tab index for the text boxes, but it doesn't change the "backwards iteration". Is there something I can do to change this so that the loop runs from lowest tab index to highest? Thanks! Public Class Form1 Private Sub Button1_Click_1(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim objExcel As New Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.Application 'Declaring the object. objExcel.Visible = True 'Setting Excel to visible. Dim cntrl As Control With objExcel .Workbooks.Add() 'Adding a workbook. .Range("A1").Select() 'Selecting cell A1. End With 'Form contains 3 text boxes, with one number in each (1,2,3), and one button to fire the code in this sub. For Each cntrl In Me.Controls 'For every control on the form... If TypeOf (cntrl) Is TextBox Then 'If the control is a textbox, then... With objExcel .ActiveCell.Value = cntrl.Text 'place the control's text in the active cell and... .ActiveCell.Offset(1, 0).Activate() 'offset down one row. End With End If 'If the control is not a textbox (if it's the button), do nothing. Next 'Go to the next control. objExcel = Nothing 'Release the object. GC.Collect() 'Clean up. End Sub End Class

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• Help me refactor my World Cup Challenge Script

  - by kylemac

  I am setting up a World Cup Challenge between some friends, and decided to practice my Ruby and write a small script to automate the process. The Problem: 32 World Cup qualifiers split into 4 tiers by their Fifa ranking 8 entries Each entry is assigned 1 random team per tier Winner takes all :-) I wrote something that suffices yet is admittedly brute force. But, in my attempt to improve my Ruby, I acknowlege that this code isn't the most elegant solution around - So I turn to you, the experts, to show me the way. It may be more clear to check out this gist - https://gist.github.com/91e1f1c392bed8074531 My Current (poor) solution: require 'yaml' @teams = YAML::load(File.open('teams.yaml')) @players = %w[Player1 Player2 Player3 Player4 Player5 Player6 Player7 Player8] results = Hash.new players = @players.sort_by{rand} players.each_with_index do |p, i| results[p] = Array[@teams['teir_one'][i]] end second = @players.sort_by{rand} second.each_with_index do |p, i| results[p] << @teams['teir_two'][i] end third = @players.sort_by{rand} third.each_with_index do |p, i| results[p] << @teams['teir_three'][i] end fourth = @players.sort_by{rand} fourth.each_with_index do |p, i| results[p] << @teams['teir_four'][i] end p results I am sure there is a better way to iterate through the tiers, and duplicating the @players object ( dup() or clone() maybe?) So from one Cup Fan to another, help me out.

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• cakephp isAuthorized() not being called

  - by Jack B Nimble

  I am trying to use the isAuthorized() method to do a check for an admin flag, but the function never seems to be called. Even when I set the function to always return false, it allows any user. It just seems like it isn't being called. Do I need to do something more than setting $this-Auth-authorize = 'controller' ? from /app/app_controller.php class AppController extends Controller { var $components = array('Auth'); function beforeFilter() { $this->Auth->loginAction = array('controller' => 'users', 'action' => 'login'); $this->Auth->loginRedirect = array('controller' => 'pages', 'display' => 'home'); $this->Auth->logoutRedirect = '/'; $this->Auth->authorize = 'controller'; $this->Auth->userScope = array('User.active' => 1); } function isAuthorized() { if (strpos($this->action, "admin_") != false) { if ($this->Auth->user('isAdmin') == '0') { return false; } } return true; } }

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• change postgres date format

  - by Jay

  Is there a way to change the default format of a date in Postgres? Normally when I query a Postgres database, dates come out as yyyy-mm-dd hh:mm:ss+tz, like 2011-02-21 11:30:00-05. But one particular program the dates come out yyyy-mm-dd hh:mm:ss.s, that is, there is no time zone and it shows tenths of a second. Apparently something is changing the default date format, but I don't know what or where. I don't think it's a server-side configuration parameter, because I can access the same database with a different program and I get the format with the timezone. I care because it appears to be ignoring my "set timezone" calls in addition to changing the format. All times come out EST. Additional info: If I write "select somedate from sometable" I get the "no timezone" format. But if I write "select to_char(somedate::timestamptz, 'yyyy-mm-dd hh24:mi:ss-tz')" then timezones work as I would expect. This really sounds to me like something is setting all timestamps to implicitly be "to_char(date::timestamp, 'yyyy-mm-dd hh24:mi:ss.m')". But I can't find anything in the documentation about how I would do this if I wanted to, nor can I find anything in the code that appears to do this. Though as I don't know what to look for, that doesn't prove much.

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• jsf and eclipse setup. Lib in Explorer is different than lib in tomcat. How come?

  - by user384706

  Hi, I am starter in JSF2.0, and I have a question related to Eclipse (I am using Helios). 1)I create a Dynamic Project 2)I add JSF project facet. 3)I choose JSF user library (I have created it using MyFaces) All ok so far. I notice though that in the Project Explorer in WebContent/WEB-INF/lib the lib directory is empty instead of having MyFaces jars. The application works fine though. I looked into this and the jars are actually being placed in the corresponding lib directory of the app deployed under wtpwebapps of the Tomcat instance of eclipse in the .pluggins directory. Ok, it works but IMHO it is incorrect to have the Project Explorer inconsistent with the directories actually deployed. I.e. lib is shown empty in Project Explorer but with jars under wtpwebapps. Am I wrong to dislike this inconsistency? Is this how it should work or am I doing something wrong in the way I am setting my project? Thanks!

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• Integrated Security on Reporting Services XML Datasource

  - by Nathan

  Hey all, I am working on setting up my report server to use a web service as an XML datasource. I seem to be having authentication issues between the web service and the report with I choose to use Integrated security. Here's what I have: 1) I have a website w/ an exposed service. This website is configured to run ONLY on Integrated Security. This means that we have all other modes turned off AND Enabled anonymous access turned off under directory security. 2) Within the Web.config of the website, I have the authentication mode set to Windows. 3) I have the report datasource set to being an XML data source. I have the correct URL to the service and have it set to Windows Integrated Security. Since I am making a hop from the Browser to the Reporting Server to the Web Service, I wonder if I am having an issue w/ Kerberos, but I am not sure. When I try to access the service, I get a 401 error. Here are the IIS logs that I am generating: 2011-01-07 14:52:12 W3SVC IP_ADDY POST /URL.asmx - 80 - IP_ADDY - 401 1 0 2011-01-07 14:52:12 W3SVC IP_ADDY POST /URL.asmx - 80 - IP_ADDY - 401 1 5 Has anyone worked out this issue before? Thanks!

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• Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection

  - by Tony_Henrich

  My web service app on my Windows XP box is trying to log in to my sql server 2005 database on the same box. The machine is part of a domain. I am logged in in the domain and I am an admin on my machine. I am using Windows Authentication in my connection string as in "Server=myServerAddress;Database=myDataBase;Trusted_Connection=True". SQLServer is configured for both types of authentication (mixed mode) and accepts remote connections and accepts tcp and named pipes protocols. Integrated authentication is enabled in IIS and with and without anonymous access. 'Everyone' has access to computer from network setting in local security settings. ASPNET is a user in the sql server and has access to the daatabase. user is mapped to the login. The app works fine for other developers which means the app shouldn't be changed (It's not new code). So it seems it's my machine which has an issue. I am getting the error "Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection" Note the blank user name. Why am I getting this error when both the app and database are on my machine? I can use SQL Server authentication but don't want to. I can connect to the database using SSMS and my Windows credentials. It might be related to setspn, kerberos, delegation, AD. I am not sure what further checks to make?

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• INSERT..ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE - but NOT using the duplicate key to compare.

  - by calumbrodie

  I am trying to solve a problem I have inherited with poor treatment of different data sources. I have a user table that contains BOTH good and evil users. create table `users`( `user_id` int(13) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , `email` varchar(255) , `name` varchar(255) , PRIMARY KEY (`user_id`) ); In this table the primary key is currently set to be user_id. I have another table ('users_evil') which contains ONLY the evil users (all the users from this table are included in the first table) - the user_id's on this table do NOT correspond to those in the first table. I want to have all my users in one table, and simply flag which are good and which are evil. What I want to do is alter the user table and add a column ('evil') which defaults to 0. I then want to dump the data from my 'users_evil') table and then run an INSERT..ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE with this data into the first table (setting 'evil'=1 where the emails match) The problem is that the 'PK' is set to the user_id and not the 'email'. Any suggestions, or even another strategy to successfully achive this. Can I run this statement but treat another column as PK only for the duration of the statement.

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• Benefits of "Don't Fragment" on TCP Packets?

  - by taspeotis

  One of our customers is having trouble submitting data from our application (on their PC) to a server (different geographical location). When sending packets under 1100 bytes everything works fine, but above this we see TCP retransmitting the packet every few seconds and getting no response. The packets we are using for testing are about 1400 bytes (but less than 1472). I can send an ICMP ping to www.google.com that is 1472 bytes and get a response (so it's not their router/first few hops). I found that our application sets the DF flag for these packets, and I believe a router along the way to the server has an MTU less than/equal to 1100 and dropping the packet. This affects 1 client in 5000, but since everybody's routes will be different this is expected. The data is a SOAP envelope and we expect a SOAP response back. I can't justify WHY we do it, the code to do this was written by a previous developer. So... Are there are benefits OR justification to setting the DF flag on TCP packets for application data? I can think of reasons it is needed for network diagnostics applications but not in our situation (we want the data to get to the endpoint, fragmented or not). One of our sysadmins said that it might have something to do with us using SSL, but as far as I know SSL is like a stream and regardless of fragmentation, as long as the stream is rebuilt at the end, there's no problem. If there's no good justification I will be changing the behaviour of our application. Thanks in advance.

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• Facebook Connect: Permissions Error [200] using "stream.publish" with PHP

  - by Sarah

  Hi all, I've been implementing Facebook Connect into a site and am using both the PHP API, to allow me to automatically post data to a user's wall, as well as the JS API, for manual posting, permissions dialogs, etc. When the user uses the manual method it works 100%...the popups are displayed correctly, and the data gets posted to their wall properly. However, when I try to use the PHP API I am getting inconsistencies. When I try posting automatically using the PHP API using one account it works perfect, every time. But for some other accounts it never works, always returning "Permissions error." The error code is 200, and I've checked the Facebook API documentation and it's pretty vague, saying only "Permissions error. The application does not have permission to perform this action." But that's not true, since it works on some accounts and doesn't work on others. First, I've made sure that the users in question have enabled the extended permission "publish_stream" and that the manual method using the JS API works, so it doesn't seem to be a problem with those specific permissions. There are no apparent differences between the Facebook accounts I've used. So my question is has anyone run into this problem and found a solution to it? Is there some sort of other permission setting that users must enable for this to work? I've been searching Google and these forums but have not found any solution. The request I am sending is: (Note: The content/image url/link url are not the actual data I use) $attachment = array( 'caption' => '{*actor*} commented on <title> "<comment>"', 'media' => array( array( 'type' => 'image', 'src' => 'http://www.test.com/image.jpg', 'href' => 'http://www.test.com' ) ) ); $Facebook->api_client->stream_publish('', $attachment); Thanks, Sarah

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• cURL Affects Cookie Retrieval in PHP?

  - by CJ

  I'm not sure if I'm asking this properly. I have two PHP pages located on the same server. The first PHP page sets a cookie with an expiration and the second one checks to see if that cookie was set. if it is set, it returns "on". If it isn't set, it returns "off". If I just run the pages like "www.example.com/set_cookie.php" AND "www.example.com/is_cookie_set.php" I get an "on" from is_cookie_set.php. Heres the problem, on the set_cookie.php file I have a function called is_set. This function executes the following cURL and returns the contents ("on" or "off"). Unfortunately, the contents are always returned as "off". however, if I check the file manually ("www.example.com/is_cookie_set.php") I can see that the cookie was set. Heres the function : <?php function is_set() { $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, 'http://example.com/is_cookie_set.php'); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); $contents = curl_exec ($ch); curl_close ($ch); echo $contents; } ?> Please note, I'm not using cURL to GET or SET cookies, only to check a page that checks if the cookie was set. I've looked into CURLOPT_COOKIEJAR, and CURLOPT_COOKIEFILE, but I believe those are for setting cookies via cURL and I don't want to do this.

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• C++: inheritance problem

  - by Helltone

  It's quite hard to explain what I'm trying to do, I'll try: Imagine a base class A which contains some variables, and a set of classes deriving from A which all implement some method bool test() that operates on the variables inherited from A. class A { protected: int somevar; // ... }; class B : public A { public: bool test() { return (somevar == 42); } }; class C : public A { public: bool test() { return (somevar > 23); } }; // ... more classes deriving from A Now I have an instance of class A and I have set the value of somevar. int main(int, char* []) { A a; a.somevar = 42; Now, I need some kind of container that allows me to iterate over the elements i of this container, calling i::test() in the context of a... that is: std::vector<...> vec; // push B and C into vec, this is pseudo-code vec.push_back(&B); vec.push_back(&C); bool ret = true; for(i = vec.begin(); i != vec.end(); ++i) { // call B::test(), C::test(), setting *this to a ret &= ( a .* (&(*i)::test) )(); } return ret; } How can I do this? I've tried two methods: forcing a cast from B::* to A::*, adapting a pointer to call a method of a type on an object of a different type (works, but seems to be bad); using std::bind + the solution above, ugly hack; changing the signature of bool test() so that it takes an argument of type const A& instead of inheriting from A, I don't really like this solution because somevar must be public.

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• Entity Framework 4 Entity with EntityState of Unchanged firing update

  - by Andy

  I am using EF 4, mapping all CUD operations for my entities using sprocs. I have two tables, ADDRESS and PERSON. A PERSON can have multiple ADDRESS associated with them. Here is the code I am running: Person person = (from p in context.People where p.PersonUID == 1 select p).FirstOrDefault(); Address address = (from a in context.Addresses where a.AddressUID == 51 select a).FirstOrDefault(); address.AddressLn2 = "Test"; context.SaveChanges(); The Address being updated is associated with the Person I am retrieveing - although they are not explicitly linked in any way in the code. When the context.SaveChanges() executes not only does the Update sproc for my Address entity get fired (like you would expect), but so does the Update sproc for the Person entity - even though you can see there was no change made to the Person entity. When I check the EntityState of both objects before the context.SaveChanges() call I see that my Address entity has an EntityState of "Modified" and my Person enity has an EntityState of "Unchanged". Why is the Update sproc being called for the Person entity? Is there a setting of some sort that I can set to prevent this from happening?

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