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  • How to cancel a deeply nested process

    - by Mystere Man
    I have a class that is a "manager" sort of class. One of it's functions is to signal that the long running process of the class should shut down. It does this by setting a boolean called "IsStopping" in class. public class Foo { bool isStoping void DoWork() { while (!isStopping) { // do work... } } } Now, DoWork() was a gigantic function, and I decided to refactor it out and as part of the process broke some of it into other classes. The problem is, Some of these classes also have long running functions that need to check if isStopping is true. public class Foo { bool isStoping void DoWork() { while (!isStopping) { MoreWork mw = new MoreWork() mw.DoMoreWork() // possibly long running // do work... } } } What are my options here? I have considered passing isStopping by reference, which I don't really like because it requires there to be an outside object. I would prefer to make the additional classes as stand alone and dependancy free as possible. I have also considered making isStopping a property, and then then having it call an event that the inner classes could be subscribed to, but this seems overly complex. Another option was to create a "Process Cancelation Token" class, similar to what .net 4 Tasks use, then that token be passed to those classes. How have you handled this situation? EDIT: Also consider that MoreWork might have a EvenMoreWork object that it instantiates and calls a potentially long running method on... and so on. I guess what i'm looking for is a way to be able to signal an arbitrary number of objects down a call tree to tell them to stop what they're doing and clean up and return.

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  • What would be a better implementation of shared variable among subclass

    - by Churk
    So currently I have a spring unit testing application. And it requires me to get a session cookie from a foreign authentication source. Problem what that is, this authentication process is fairly expensive and time consuming, and I am trying to create a structure where I am authenticate once, by any subclass, and any subsequent subclass is created, it will reuse this session cookie without hitting the authentication process again. My problem right now is, the static cookie is null each time another subclass is created. And I been reading that using static as a global variable is a bad idea, but I couldn't think of another way to do this because of Spring framework setting things during run time and how I would set the cookie so that all other classes can use it. Another piece of information. The variable is being use, but is change able during run time. It is not a single user being signed in and used across the board. But more like a Sub1 would call login, and we have a cookie. Then multiple test will be using that login until SubX will come in and say, I am using different credential, so I need to login as something else. And repeats. Here is a outline of my code: public class Parent implements InitializingBean { protected static String BASE_URL; public static Cookie cookie; ... All default InitializingBean methods ... afterPropertiesSet() { cookie = // login process returns a cookie } } public class Sub1 extends Parent { @resource public String baseURL; @PostConstruct public void init() { // set parents with my baseURL; BASE_URL = baseURL; } public void doSomething() { // Do something with cookie, because it should have been set by parent class } } public class Sub2 extends Parent { @resource public String baseURL; @PostConstruct public void init() { // set parents with my baseURL; BASE_URL = baseURL; } public void doSomethingElse() { // Do something with cookie, because it should have been set by parent class } }

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  • Facebook Connect: Permissions Error [200] using "stream.publish" with PHP

    - by Sarah
    Hi all, I've been implementing Facebook Connect into a site and am using both the PHP API, to allow me to automatically post data to a user's wall, as well as the JS API, for manual posting, permissions dialogs, etc. When the user uses the manual method it works 100%...the popups are displayed correctly, and the data gets posted to their wall properly. However, when I try to use the PHP API I am getting inconsistencies. When I try posting automatically using the PHP API using one account it works perfect, every time. But for some other accounts it never works, always returning "Permissions error." The error code is 200, and I've checked the Facebook API documentation and it's pretty vague, saying only "Permissions error. The application does not have permission to perform this action." But that's not true, since it works on some accounts and doesn't work on others. First, I've made sure that the users in question have enabled the extended permission "publish_stream" and that the manual method using the JS API works, so it doesn't seem to be a problem with those specific permissions. There are no apparent differences between the Facebook accounts I've used. So my question is has anyone run into this problem and found a solution to it? Is there some sort of other permission setting that users must enable for this to work? I've been searching Google and these forums but have not found any solution. The request I am sending is: (Note: The content/image url/link url are not the actual data I use) $attachment = array( 'caption' => '{*actor*} commented on <title> "<comment>"', 'media' => array( array( 'type' => 'image', 'src' => 'http://www.test.com/image.jpg', 'href' => 'http://www.test.com' ) ) ); $Facebook->api_client->stream_publish('', $attachment); Thanks, Sarah

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  • Isn't an Iterator in c++ a kind of a pointer?

    - by Bilthon
    Ok this time I decided to make a list using the STL. I need to create a dedicated TCP socket for each client. So everytime I've got a connection, I instantiate a socket and add a pointer to it on a list. list<MyTcp*> SocketList; //This is the list of pointers to sockets list<MyTcp*>::iterator it; //An iterator to the list of pointers to TCP sockets. Putting a new pointer to a socket was easy, but now every time the connection ends I should disconnect the socket and delete the pointer so I don't get a huge memory leak, right? well.. I thought I was doing ok by setting this: it=SocketList.begin(); while( it != SocketList.end() ){ if((*it)->getClientId() == id){ pSocket = it; // <-------------- compiler complains at this line SocketList.remove(pSocket); pSocket->Disconnect(); delete pSocket; break; } } But the compiler is saying this: error: invalid cast from type ‘std::_List_iterator<MyTcp*>’ to type ‘MyTcp*’ Can someone help me here? i thought I was doing things right, isn't an iterator at any given time just pointing to one of the elements of the set? how can I fix it?

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  • INSERT..ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE - but NOT using the duplicate key to compare.

    - by calumbrodie
    I am trying to solve a problem I have inherited with poor treatment of different data sources. I have a user table that contains BOTH good and evil users. create table `users`( `user_id` int(13) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , `email` varchar(255) , `name` varchar(255) , PRIMARY KEY (`user_id`) ); In this table the primary key is currently set to be user_id. I have another table ('users_evil') which contains ONLY the evil users (all the users from this table are included in the first table) - the user_id's on this table do NOT correspond to those in the first table. I want to have all my users in one table, and simply flag which are good and which are evil. What I want to do is alter the user table and add a column ('evil') which defaults to 0. I then want to dump the data from my 'users_evil') table and then run an INSERT..ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE with this data into the first table (setting 'evil'=1 where the emails match) The problem is that the 'PK' is set to the user_id and not the 'email'. Any suggestions, or even another strategy to successfully achive this. Can I run this statement but treat another column as PK only for the duration of the statement.

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  • Change css property in chain - JavaScript

    - by SilverDeveloper
    I'm using MooTools 1.4.5 and I want to change cursor before calling function that takes some time and after finished same function set cursor to default. I was not successful. After that I made simple example to change background color via plain JavaScript (no jQuery or MooTools plugin) and again I was not successful. Here is my code. <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> </div> </form> </body> <script type="text/javascript"> <!-- document.body.style.background = 'red'; setTimeout(function () { }, 1250); document.body.style.background = 'yellow'; //--> </script> </html> First at all I set background color to red, and after delay to yellow. I assumed that the background color will bi set to red and after delay to yellow. It doesn't work. When page is loaded background color is yellow (last line). If I insert alert function in a middle of lines where sets background color everything works fine (background color is red, click to message box, background color is yellow). Why it works so? Only last changing style is affected. I need something like that to change pointer before calling function that takes 10 seconds and setting cursor to default value after function is done.

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  • C++: inheritance problem

    - by Helltone
    It's quite hard to explain what I'm trying to do, I'll try: Imagine a base class A which contains some variables, and a set of classes deriving from A which all implement some method bool test() that operates on the variables inherited from A. class A { protected: int somevar; // ... }; class B : public A { public: bool test() { return (somevar == 42); } }; class C : public A { public: bool test() { return (somevar > 23); } }; // ... more classes deriving from A Now I have an instance of class A and I have set the value of somevar. int main(int, char* []) { A a; a.somevar = 42; Now, I need some kind of container that allows me to iterate over the elements i of this container, calling i::test() in the context of a... that is: std::vector<...> vec; // push B and C into vec, this is pseudo-code vec.push_back(&B); vec.push_back(&C); bool ret = true; for(i = vec.begin(); i != vec.end(); ++i) { // call B::test(), C::test(), setting *this to a ret &= ( a .* (&(*i)::test) )(); } return ret; } How can I do this? I've tried two methods: forcing a cast from B::* to A::*, adapting a pointer to call a method of a type on an object of a different type (works, but seems to be bad); using std::bind + the solution above, ugly hack; changing the signature of bool test() so that it takes an argument of type const A& instead of inheriting from A, I don't really like this solution because somevar must be public.

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  • Behavior of Struts2 and convention-plugin when there is Index(extends ActionSupport)

    - by hanishi
    We have an Action class named 'Index' immediately under com.example.common.action and is annotated @ParentPackage('default') which is declared in package directive in struts.xml and has "/" for its namespace and extends "struts-default". It also declares @Result so that it responses with jsp files corresponding the string values returned by its execute() method. In our struts.xml, the following struts setting is configured along with other necessary configurations that are needed for convention-plugin. <constant name="struts.action.extension" value=","/> When accessing /my_context/none_existing_path, the request apparently hits this Index class and the contents of the jsp declared in the Index's @Result section gets returned. However, if we provide /my_context/, we receive the following error: HTTP Status 404-There is no Action mapped for namespace[/] and action name [] associated with context path [/my_context]. We want to know the reason why accessing /my_context/none_existing_path, where none_existing_path has no matching action, can fallback to Index class, but error is returned when when the URL requested is just /my_context/. Currently, our convention-plugin settings are declared as follows: <constant name="struts.convention.package.locators.basePackage" value="com.example"/> <constant name="struts.convention.package.locators" value="action"/> Strangely, if we changed the value of the struts.convention.package.locators.basePackage to om.example.common, in which the aforementioned Index file can be immediately found by narrowing the search scope, requesting /my_context/ displays the content of the jsps declared in @Result section of the Index class. However, as our action classes are distributed throughout the com.example.[a-z].action packages, where [a-z] represents the large volume of directories we have in our package structure, we cannot use this trick as a workaround. We have also tried placing index.jsp at the top level of the class path, and have the index.jsp redirect to /my_context/index, which worked but not what we want. Could this be a bug? We appreciate your responses. Thank you in advance. EDIT: JIRA registered, problem solved (from Struts 2.3.12 up)

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  • SELECT SQL Variable - should i avoid using this syntax and always use SET?

    - by Sholom
    Hi All, This may look like a duplicate to here, but it's not. I am trying to get a best practice, not a technical answer (which i already (think) i know). New to SQL Server and trying to form good habits. I found a great explanation of the functional differences between SET @var = and SELECT @var = here: http://vyaskn.tripod.com/differences_between_set_and_select.htm To summarize what each has that the other hasn't (see source for examples): SET: ANSI and portable, recommended by Microsoft. SET @var = (SELECT column_name FROM table_name) fails when the select returns more then one value, eliminating the possibility of unpredictable results. SET @var = (SELECT column_name FROM table_name) will set @var to NULL if that's what SELECT column_name FROM table_name returned, thus never leaving @var at it's prior value. SELECT: Multiple variables can be set in one statement Can return multiple system variables set by the prior DML statement SELECT @var = column_name FROM table_name would set @var to (according to my testing) the last value returned by the select. This could be a feature or a bug. Behavior can be changed with SELECT @j = (SELECT column_name FROM table_name) syntax. Speed. Setting multiple variables with a single SELECT statement as opposed to multiple SET/SELECT statements is much quicker. He has a sample test to prove his point. If you could design a test to prove the otherwise, bring it on! So, what do i do? (Almost) always use SET @var =, using SELECT @var = is messy coding and not standard. OR Use SELECT @var = freely, it could accomplish more for me, unless the code is likely to be ported to another environment. Thanks

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  • How do I execute queries upon DB connection in Rails?

    - by sycobuny
    I have certain initializing functions that I use to set up audit logging on the DB server side (ie, not rails) in PostgreSQL. At least one has to be issued (setting the current user) before inserting data into or updating any of the audited tables, or else the whole query will fail spectacularly. I can easily call these every time before running any save operation in the code, but DRY makes me think I should have the code repeated in as few places as possible, particularly since this diverges greatly from the ideal of database agnosticism. Currently I'm attempting to override ActiveRecord::Base.establish_connection in an initializer to set it up so that the queries are run as soon as I connect automatically, but it doesn't behave as I expect it to. Here is the code in the initializer: class ActiveRecord::Base # extend the class methods, not the instance methods class << self alias :old_establish_connection :establish_connection # hide the default def establish_connection(*args) ret = old_establish_connection(*args) # call the default # set up necessary session variables for audit logging # call these after calling default, to make sure conn is established 1st db = self.class.connection db.execute("SELECT SV.set('current_user', 'test@localhost')") db.execute("SELECT SV.set('audit_notes', NULL)") # end "empty variable" err ret # return the default's original value end end end puts "Loaded custom establish_connection into ActiveRecord::Base" sycobuny:~/rails$ ruby script/server = Booting WEBrick = Rails 2.3.5 application starting on http://0.0.0.0:3000 Loaded custom establish_connection into ActiveRecord::Base This doesn't give me any errors, and unfortunately I can't check what the method looks like internally (I was using ActiveRecord::Base.method(:establish_connection), but apparently that creates a new Method object each time it's called, which is seemingly worthless cause I can't check object_id for any worthwhile information and I also can't reverse the compilation). However, the code never seems to get called, because any attempt to run a save or an update on a database object fails as I predicted earlier. If this isn't a proper way to execute code immediately on connection to the database, then what is?

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  • initialise a var in scala

    - by user unknown
    I have a class where I like to initialize my var by reading a configfile, which produces intermediate objects/vals, which I would like to group and hide in a method. Here is the bare minimum of the problem - I call the ctor with a param i, in reality a File to parse, and the init-method generates the String s, in reality more complicated than here, with a lot of intermediate objects being created: class Foo (val i: Int) { var s : String; def init () { s = "" + i } init () } This will produce the error: class Foo needs to be abstract, since variable s is not defined. In this example it is easy to solve by setting the String to "": var s = "";, but in reality the object is more complex than String, without an apropriate Null-implementation. I know, I can use an Option, which works for more complicated things than String too: var s : Option [String] = None def init () { s = Some ("" + i) } or I can dispense with my methodcall. Using an Option will force me to write Some over and over again, without much benefit, since there is no need for a None else than to initialize it that way I thought I could. Is there another way to achieve my goal?

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  • OO Design: use Properties or Overloaded methods?

    - by Robert Frank
    Question about OO design. Suppose I have a base object vehicle. And two descendants: truck and automobile. Further, suppose the base object has a base method: FixFlatTire(); abstract; When the truck and automobile override the base object's, they require different information from the caller. Am I better off overloading FixFlatTire like this in the two descendant objects: Procedure Truck.FixFlatTire( OfficePhoneNumber: String; NumberOfAxles: Integer): Override; Overload; Procedure Automobile.FixFlatTire( WifesPhoneNumber: String; AAAMembershipID: String): Override; Overload; Or introducing new properties in each of the descendants and then setting them before calling FixFlatTire, like this: Truck.OfficePhoneNumber := '555-555-1212'; Truck.NumberOfAxles := 18; Truck.FixFlatTire(); Automobile.WifesPhoneNumber := '555-555-2323'; Automobile.AAAMembershipID := 'ABC'; Automobile.FixFlatTire();

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  • Benefits of "Don't Fragment" on TCP Packets?

    - by taspeotis
    One of our customers is having trouble submitting data from our application (on their PC) to a server (different geographical location). When sending packets under 1100 bytes everything works fine, but above this we see TCP retransmitting the packet every few seconds and getting no response. The packets we are using for testing are about 1400 bytes (but less than 1472). I can send an ICMP ping to www.google.com that is 1472 bytes and get a response (so it's not their router/first few hops). I found that our application sets the DF flag for these packets, and I believe a router along the way to the server has an MTU less than/equal to 1100 and dropping the packet. This affects 1 client in 5000, but since everybody's routes will be different this is expected. The data is a SOAP envelope and we expect a SOAP response back. I can't justify WHY we do it, the code to do this was written by a previous developer. So... Are there are benefits OR justification to setting the DF flag on TCP packets for application data? I can think of reasons it is needed for network diagnostics applications but not in our situation (we want the data to get to the endpoint, fragmented or not). One of our sysadmins said that it might have something to do with us using SSL, but as far as I know SSL is like a stream and regardless of fragmentation, as long as the stream is rebuilt at the end, there's no problem. If there's no good justification I will be changing the behaviour of our application. Thanks in advance.

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  • Using an embedded DB (SQLite / SQL Compact) for Message Passing within an app?

    - by wk1989
    Hello, Just out of curiosity, for applications that have a fairly complicated module tree, would something like sqlite/sql compact edition work well for message passing? So if I have modules containing data such as: \SubsystemA\SubSubSysB\ModuleB\ModuleDataC, \SubSystemB\SubSubSystemC\ModuleA\ModuleDataX Using traditional message passing/routing, you have to go through intermediate modules in order to pass a message to ModuleB to request say ModuleDataC. Instead of doing that, if we we simply store "\SubsystemA\SubSubSysB\ModuleB\ModuleDataC" in a sqlite database, getting that data is as simple as a sql query and needs no routing and passing stuff around. Has anyone done this before? Even if you haven't, do you foresee any issues & performance impact? The only concern I have right now would be the passing of custom types, e.g. if ModuleDataC is a custom data structure or a pointer, I'll need some way of storing the data structure into the DB or storing the pointer into the DB. Thanks, JW EDIT One usage case I haven't thought about is when you want to send a message from ModuleA to ModuleB to get ModuleB to do something rather than just getting/setting data. Is it possible to do this using an embedded DB? I believe callback from the DB would be needed, how feasible is this?

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  • Link failure with either abnormal memory consumption or LNK1106 in Visual Studio 2005.

    - by Corvin
    Hello, I am trying to build a solution for windows XP in Visual Studio 2005. This solution contains 81 projects (static libs, exe's, dlls) and is being successfully used by our partners. I copied the solution bundle from their repository and tried setting it up on 3 similar machines of people in our group. I was successful on two machines and the solution failed to build on my machine. The build on my machine encountered two problems: During a simple build creation of the biggest static library (about 522Mb in debug mode) would fail with the message "13libd\ui1d.lib : fatal error LNK1106: invalid file or disk full: cannot seek to 0x20101879" Full solution rebuild creates this library, however when it comes to linking the library to main .exe file, devenv.exe spawns link.exe which consumes about 80Mb of physical memory and 250MB of virtual and spawns another link.exe, which does the same. This goes on until the system runs out of memory. On PCs of my colleagues where successful build could be performed, there is only one link.exe process which uses all the memory required for linking (about 500Mb physical). There is a plenty of hard drive space on my machine and the file system is NTFS. All three of our systems are similar - Core2Quad processors, 4Gb of RAM, Windows XP SP3. We are using Visual studio installed from the same source. I tried using a different RAM and CPU, using dedicated graphics adapter to eliminate possibility of video memory sharing influencing the build, putting solution files to different location, using different versions of VS 2005 (Professional, Standard and Team Suite), changing the amount of available virtual memory, running memtest86 and building the project from scratch (i.e. a clean bundle). I have read what MSDN says about LNK1106, none of the cases apply to me except for maybe "out of heap space", however I am not sure how I should fight this. The only idea that I have left is reinstalling the OS, however I am not sure that it would help and I am not sure that my situation wouldn't repeat itself on a different machine. Would anyone have any sort of advice for me? Thanks

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  • VB.net/Excel- "Backwards" tab index For Each iteration with textboxes.

    - by MSD
    Hi there, I have a form with 3 textboxes and 1 button. textbox1 has tab index 0, and it's text = 1 textbox2 has tab index 1, and it's text = 2 textbox3 has tab index 2, and it's text = 3 I want to iterate thru the textboxes and place their values into cells so that... range("A1").value = txtbox1.text (ie: A1 = "1") range("A2").value = txtbox2.text (ie: A2 = "2") range("A3").value = txtbox3.text (ie: A3 = "3") but what I am getting is... range("A1").value = txtbox1.text (ie: A1 = "3") range("A2").value = txtbox2.text (ie: A2 = "2") range("A3").value = txtbox3.text (ie: A3 = "1") I have tried reversing the tab index for the text boxes, but it doesn't change the "backwards iteration". Is there something I can do to change this so that the loop runs from lowest tab index to highest? Thanks! Public Class Form1 Private Sub Button1_Click_1(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim objExcel As New Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.Application 'Declaring the object. objExcel.Visible = True 'Setting Excel to visible. Dim cntrl As Control With objExcel .Workbooks.Add() 'Adding a workbook. .Range("A1").Select() 'Selecting cell A1. End With 'Form contains 3 text boxes, with one number in each (1,2,3), and one button to fire the code in this sub. For Each cntrl In Me.Controls 'For every control on the form... If TypeOf (cntrl) Is TextBox Then 'If the control is a textbox, then... With objExcel .ActiveCell.Value = cntrl.Text 'place the control's text in the active cell and... .ActiveCell.Offset(1, 0).Activate() 'offset down one row. End With End If 'If the control is not a textbox (if it's the button), do nothing. Next 'Go to the next control. objExcel = Nothing 'Release the object. GC.Collect() 'Clean up. End Sub End Class

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  • Help me refactor my World Cup Challenge Script

    - by kylemac
    I am setting up a World Cup Challenge between some friends, and decided to practice my Ruby and write a small script to automate the process. The Problem: 32 World Cup qualifiers split into 4 tiers by their Fifa ranking 8 entries Each entry is assigned 1 random team per tier Winner takes all :-) I wrote something that suffices yet is admittedly brute force. But, in my attempt to improve my Ruby, I acknowlege that this code isn't the most elegant solution around - So I turn to you, the experts, to show me the way. It may be more clear to check out this gist - https://gist.github.com/91e1f1c392bed8074531 My Current (poor) solution: require 'yaml' @teams = YAML::load(File.open('teams.yaml')) @players = %w[Player1 Player2 Player3 Player4 Player5 Player6 Player7 Player8] results = Hash.new players = @players.sort_by{rand} players.each_with_index do |p, i| results[p] = Array[@teams['teir_one'][i]] end second = @players.sort_by{rand} second.each_with_index do |p, i| results[p] << @teams['teir_two'][i] end third = @players.sort_by{rand} third.each_with_index do |p, i| results[p] << @teams['teir_three'][i] end fourth = @players.sort_by{rand} fourth.each_with_index do |p, i| results[p] << @teams['teir_four'][i] end p results I am sure there is a better way to iterate through the tiers, and duplicating the @players object ( dup() or clone() maybe?) So from one Cup Fan to another, help me out.

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  • change postgres date format

    - by Jay
    Is there a way to change the default format of a date in Postgres? Normally when I query a Postgres database, dates come out as yyyy-mm-dd hh:mm:ss+tz, like 2011-02-21 11:30:00-05. But one particular program the dates come out yyyy-mm-dd hh:mm:ss.s, that is, there is no time zone and it shows tenths of a second. Apparently something is changing the default date format, but I don't know what or where. I don't think it's a server-side configuration parameter, because I can access the same database with a different program and I get the format with the timezone. I care because it appears to be ignoring my "set timezone" calls in addition to changing the format. All times come out EST. Additional info: If I write "select somedate from sometable" I get the "no timezone" format. But if I write "select to_char(somedate::timestamptz, 'yyyy-mm-dd hh24:mi:ss-tz')" then timezones work as I would expect. This really sounds to me like something is setting all timestamps to implicitly be "to_char(date::timestamp, 'yyyy-mm-dd hh24:mi:ss.m')". But I can't find anything in the documentation about how I would do this if I wanted to, nor can I find anything in the code that appears to do this. Though as I don't know what to look for, that doesn't prove much.

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  • Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection

    - by Tony_Henrich
    My web service app on my Windows XP box is trying to log in to my sql server 2005 database on the same box. The machine is part of a domain. I am logged in in the domain and I am an admin on my machine. I am using Windows Authentication in my connection string as in "Server=myServerAddress;Database=myDataBase;Trusted_Connection=True". SQLServer is configured for both types of authentication (mixed mode) and accepts remote connections and accepts tcp and named pipes protocols. Integrated authentication is enabled in IIS and with and without anonymous access. 'Everyone' has access to computer from network setting in local security settings. ASPNET is a user in the sql server and has access to the daatabase. user is mapped to the login. The app works fine for other developers which means the app shouldn't be changed (It's not new code). So it seems it's my machine which has an issue. I am getting the error "Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection" Note the blank user name. Why am I getting this error when both the app and database are on my machine? I can use SQL Server authentication but don't want to. I can connect to the database using SSMS and my Windows credentials. It might be related to setspn, kerberos, delegation, AD. I am not sure what further checks to make?

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  • TextColor not showing when row backgroundcolor set

    - by RuAware
    if my row is colored red the text wont set to green and bold italic. When debugging I can see it telling the TextView to set each textViews setting. Thanks TableRow row = new TableRow(getContext()); row.setLayoutParams(new TableRow.LayoutParams(LayoutParams.MATCH_PARENT, LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT)); String[] items = list.get(l).split(":"); for(int i=0; i < items.length; i++){ //see if i need to colour row if(items[i].startsWith("colorme_") == true) { if (items[i].substring(8).equals("red") == true) { row.setBackgroundColor(Color.RED); } } else { //create a temp textview then add to row TextView tempTV = new TextView(getContext()); tempTV.setText(items[i].toString()); //test against correct answers and colour text view green if correct if (correctAnswers != null && correctAnswers.size() > i) { if (correctAnswers.get(i).equals(items[i].toString()) == true) { tempTV.setTextColor(Color.GREEN); tempTV.setTypeface(null, Typeface.BOLD_ITALIC); } } row.addView(tempTV,lpTextView); } } //add the row tempTable.addView(row);

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  • jsf and eclipse setup. Lib in Explorer is different than lib in tomcat. How come?

    - by user384706
    Hi, I am starter in JSF2.0, and I have a question related to Eclipse (I am using Helios). 1)I create a Dynamic Project 2)I add JSF project facet. 3)I choose JSF user library (I have created it using MyFaces) All ok so far. I notice though that in the Project Explorer in WebContent/WEB-INF/lib the lib directory is empty instead of having MyFaces jars. The application works fine though. I looked into this and the jars are actually being placed in the corresponding lib directory of the app deployed under wtpwebapps of the Tomcat instance of eclipse in the .pluggins directory. Ok, it works but IMHO it is incorrect to have the Project Explorer inconsistent with the directories actually deployed. I.e. lib is shown empty in Project Explorer but with jars under wtpwebapps. Am I wrong to dislike this inconsistency? Is this how it should work or am I doing something wrong in the way I am setting my project? Thanks!

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  • Why doesn't this short php script send email?

    - by RoryG
    I can't seem to get my php script to send email. <?php echo "Does this page work?"; mail('my email address', 'test subject', 'test message'); ?> First, I have set the mail function settings in the php.ini file as follows: I checked my email account settings on outlook. It does not require authentication, its port is 25, and its type of encrypted connection is 'Auto'. Given this I configured my php.ini file accordingly: SMTP = ssl://smtp1.iis.com smtp_port = 25 Then I set: sendmail_from: my email address The echo statement prints out in the browser, so I know the php file is recognized and processed. But the browser also shows the following error: Warning: mail() [function.mail]: "sendmail_from" not set in php.ini or custom "From:" header missing in C:\xampp\htdocs\mailtest.php on line 3 I have clearly set the sendmail_from so I don't know what else to do. I have also tried removing the 'ssl://' part from the SMTP setting in the php.ini file, and configuring the php5.ini file. Which of these .ini files should I be configuring anyways?

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  • Entity Framework 4 Entity with EntityState of Unchanged firing update

    - by Andy
    I am using EF 4, mapping all CUD operations for my entities using sprocs. I have two tables, ADDRESS and PERSON. A PERSON can have multiple ADDRESS associated with them. Here is the code I am running: Person person = (from p in context.People where p.PersonUID == 1 select p).FirstOrDefault(); Address address = (from a in context.Addresses where a.AddressUID == 51 select a).FirstOrDefault(); address.AddressLn2 = "Test"; context.SaveChanges(); The Address being updated is associated with the Person I am retrieveing - although they are not explicitly linked in any way in the code. When the context.SaveChanges() executes not only does the Update sproc for my Address entity get fired (like you would expect), but so does the Update sproc for the Person entity - even though you can see there was no change made to the Person entity. When I check the EntityState of both objects before the context.SaveChanges() call I see that my Address entity has an EntityState of "Modified" and my Person enity has an EntityState of "Unchanged". Why is the Update sproc being called for the Person entity? Is there a setting of some sort that I can set to prevent this from happening?

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  • jQuery innerHTML does not work properly (!)

    - by Kayes
    I was trying to build an <a> tag and set it in a <td> of a table. The string is built perfectly but when I set this as the innerHTML using jQuery, the string gets broken. I can't figure out why this is happening? Any clues? Here's the string I want to set in the <td>: <a onclick='return EditIssueItemBatch('1c1e27a2-beac-4772-a26f-6a7e05529a65', '498ba483-ca06-4b23-b3a9-0085e4760ff1')'>Edit</a> But here is how it looks after setting as innerHTML: <A onclick="return EditIssueItemBatch(" ?498ba483-ca06-4b23-b3a9-0085e4760ff1?)? 1c1e27a2-beac-4772-a26f-6a7e05529a65?,>Edit</A> And the following is my code-snippet.. var tr = $("#itemIssueBatchListTable > tbody:last").children()[data.Index + 1]; ... ... var strBuff = []; strBuff.push("<a onclick='return EditIssueItemBatch('"); strBuff.push(data.ItemIssueBatch.ItemCode_FK); strBuff.push("', '"); strBuff.push(data.ItemIssueBatch.StockDetCode_FK); strBuff.push("')'>Edit</a>"); tr.cells[9].innerHTML = strBuff.join(""); ... ...

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  • How to configure a NSPopupButton for displaying multiple values in a TableView?

    - by jekmac
    Hi there! I'm using two entities A and B with to-many-to-many relationship. Lets say I got an entity A with attribute aAttrib and a to-many relationship aRelat to another entity B with attribute bAttrib and a to-many relationship bRelat with entity A. Now I am building an interface with two tables one for entity A and another for entity B. The table for entity B has two columns one for bAttrib and one for the relationship aRelat. The aRelat-column should be a NSPopupButtonCell to display multiple aAttrib values. I'd like to set all the bindings in InterfaceBuilder in Table Column Bindings: -- I have two NSArrayController each for one entity: Object Controller Mode:Entity Array Controller Bindings: Parameters Managed Object Context bind to File's Owner -- One Table Cloumn with a PopUpButtonCell: TableCloumnBindings Content bind to Entity A with ControllerKey arrangedObjects; Content Values bind to Entity A with ModelKeyPath aAttrib Selected Object bind to Entity B with ModelKeyPath bRelat I know that this configuration doesn't allow multiple value setting. But I don't know how to do the right one. Getting the following message: HIToolbox: ignoring exception 'Unacceptable type of value for to-many relationship: property = "bRelat"; desired type = NSSet; given type = NSCFString; value = testValue.' that raised inside Carbon event dispatch... Does anyone have any idea?

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