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• How to configure an index.htm file in IIS?

  - by salvationishere

  I am running IIS 6.0 on an XP OS using VS 2008 and SQL Server 2008 (Full install). I developed two web apps. Both of these I can run from IIS by setting them to the default website. However, now I tried adding an index.htm file. Real simple; all it has is two hyperlinks to these web apps. But now only the first web app works. The first web app is pure VS. The second web app modifies an Adventureworks database table. But now when I click the hyperlink for the second web app, it gives me the error below. However this error doesn't make sense to me cause I have the two web apps configured as two virtual directories beneath C:\inetpub\ and the index.htm file is also beneath C:\inetpub. And the default website is set to home directory C:\inetpub\ with Document index.htm on top. Also, why does the first web app work and not the second now? Server Error in '/AddFileToSQL' Application. The path '/AddFileToSQL/App_GlobalResources/' maps to a directory outside this application, which is not supported. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Web.HttpException: The path '/AddFileToSQL/App_GlobalResources/' maps to a directory outside this application, which is not supported. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below.

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• OO Design: use Properties or Overloaded methods?

  - by Robert Frank

  Question about OO design. Suppose I have a base object vehicle. And two descendants: truck and automobile. Further, suppose the base object has a base method: FixFlatTire(); abstract; When the truck and automobile override the base object's, they require different information from the caller. Am I better off overloading FixFlatTire like this in the two descendant objects: Procedure Truck.FixFlatTire( OfficePhoneNumber: String; NumberOfAxles: Integer): Override; Overload; Procedure Automobile.FixFlatTire( WifesPhoneNumber: String; AAAMembershipID: String): Override; Overload; Or introducing new properties in each of the descendants and then setting them before calling FixFlatTire, like this: Truck.OfficePhoneNumber := '555-555-1212'; Truck.NumberOfAxles := 18; Truck.FixFlatTire(); Automobile.WifesPhoneNumber := '555-555-2323'; Automobile.AAAMembershipID := 'ABC'; Automobile.FixFlatTire();

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• Why does the WCF 3.5 REST Starter Kit do this?

  - by Brandon

  I am setting up a REST endpoint that looks like the following: [WebInvoke(Method = "POST", UriTemplate = "?format=json", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.WrappedRequest, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] and [WebInvoke(Method = "DELETE", UriTemplate = "?token={token}&format=json", ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] The above throws the following error: UriTemplateTable does not support '?format=json' and '?token={token}&format=json' since they are not equivalent, but cannot be disambiguated because they have equivalent paths and the same common literal values for the query string. See the documentation for UriTemplateTable for more detail. I am not an expert at WCF, but I would imagine that it should map first by the HTTP Method and then by the URI Template. It appears to be backwards. If both of my URI templates are: ?token={token}&format=json This works because they are equivalent and it then appears to look at the HTTP Method where one is POST and the other is DELETE. Is REST supposed to work this way? Why are the URI Template Tables not being sorted first by HTTP Method and then by URI Template? This can cause some serious frustrations when 1 HTTP Method requires a parameter and another does not, or if I want to do optional parameters (e.g. if the 'format' parameter is not passed, default to XML).

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• How do I execute queries upon DB connection in Rails?

  - by sycobuny

  I have certain initializing functions that I use to set up audit logging on the DB server side (ie, not rails) in PostgreSQL. At least one has to be issued (setting the current user) before inserting data into or updating any of the audited tables, or else the whole query will fail spectacularly. I can easily call these every time before running any save operation in the code, but DRY makes me think I should have the code repeated in as few places as possible, particularly since this diverges greatly from the ideal of database agnosticism. Currently I'm attempting to override ActiveRecord::Base.establish_connection in an initializer to set it up so that the queries are run as soon as I connect automatically, but it doesn't behave as I expect it to. Here is the code in the initializer: class ActiveRecord::Base # extend the class methods, not the instance methods class << self alias :old_establish_connection :establish_connection # hide the default def establish_connection(*args) ret = old_establish_connection(*args) # call the default # set up necessary session variables for audit logging # call these after calling default, to make sure conn is established 1st db = self.class.connection db.execute("SELECT SV.set('current_user', 'test@localhost')") db.execute("SELECT SV.set('audit_notes', NULL)") # end "empty variable" err ret # return the default's original value end end end puts "Loaded custom establish_connection into ActiveRecord::Base" sycobuny:~/rails$ ruby script/server = Booting WEBrick = Rails 2.3.5 application starting on http://0.0.0.0:3000 Loaded custom establish_connection into ActiveRecord::Base This doesn't give me any errors, and unfortunately I can't check what the method looks like internally (I was using ActiveRecord::Base.method(:establish_connection), but apparently that creates a new Method object each time it's called, which is seemingly worthless cause I can't check object_id for any worthwhile information and I also can't reverse the compilation). However, the code never seems to get called, because any attempt to run a save or an update on a database object fails as I predicted earlier. If this isn't a proper way to execute code immediately on connection to the database, then what is?

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• Kohana Auth Library Deployment

  - by Steve

  My Kohana app runs perfectly on my local machine. When I deployed my app to a server (and adjust the config files appropriately), I can no longer log into the app. I've traced through the app login routine on both my local version and the server version and they both agree with each other all the way through until you get to the auth.php controller logged_in() routine where suddenly, at line 140 - the is_object($this-user) test - the $user object no longer exists!?!?!? The login() function call that calls the logged_in() function successfully passes the following test, which causes a redirect to the logged_in() function. if(Auth::instance()->login($user, $post['password'])) Yes, the password and hash, etc all work perfectly. Here is the offending code: public function logged_in() { if ( ! is_object($this->user)) { // No user is currently logged in url::redirect('auth/login'); } etc... } As the code is the same between my local installation and the server, I reckon it must be some server setting that is messing with me. FYI: All the rest of the code works because I have a temporary backdoor available that allows me to use the application (view pages of tables, etc) without being logged in. Any ideas?

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• Indirect property notification

  - by Carlo

  Hello, this question might look a little trivial, but it might not be. I'm just wondering which of the following two cases is better for indirect property notification, or perhaps there is an even better way. The scenario: I have two properties, the first one is an object called HoldingObject, the second one is a boolean called IsHoldingObject, which is false if HoldingObject == null, otherwise it's true. I'm just wondering what is the best notification mechanism for IsHoldingObject: Case (A) - Notify IsHoldingObject changed from the HoldingObject proeperty: public class NotifyingClass1 : INotifyPropertyChanged { private object _holdingObject; public object HoldingObject { get { return _holdingObject; } set { if (_holdingObject != value) { _holdingObject = value; NotifyPropertyChanged("HoldingObject"); // Notify from the property that is being checked NotifyPropertyChanged("IsHoldingObject"); } } } public bool IsHoldingObject { get { return this.HoldingObject == null; } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; private void NotifyPropertyChanged(string propertyName) { if (this.PropertyChanged != null) this.PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } #endregion } Case (B) - Notify IsHoldingObject changed from the IsHoldingObject directly, by setting it to false or true from HoldingObject property: public class NotifyingClass2 : INotifyPropertyChanged { private object _holdingObject; public object HoldingObject { get { return _holdingObject; } set { if (_holdingObject != value) { _holdingObject = value; NotifyPropertyChanged("HoldingObject"); // 1) Set the property here this.IsHoldingObject = _holdingObject != null; } } } private bool _isHoldingObject; public bool IsHoldingObject { get { return _isHoldingObject; } set { if (_isHoldingObject != value) { _isHoldingObject = value; // 2) Notify directly from the property NotifyPropertyChanged("IsHoldingObject"); } } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; private void NotifyPropertyChanged(string propertyName) { if (this.PropertyChanged != null) this.PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } #endregion } I personally lean to the first one because it requires less code, but I'm not sure how recommendable it is to do that. Let me know if there is another (better) way. Thanks!

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• UpdatePanel reloads the whole page

  - by Emil D

  Hi.I'm building an asp.net cutom control inside which I have two dropdownlists: companyIdSelection and productFamilySelection.I populate the companyIdSelection at Page_Load and in order to populate the productFamilySelection depending on the selected item in companyIdSelection.I'm using UpdatePanels to achieve this, but for some reason every time I update companyIdSelection Page_Load is being called ( which as far as I know should happen only when the entire page is reloaded ), the list is being reloaded again and the item the user selected is lost( the selected item is always the top one ).Here's the code <asp:UpdatePanel ID="updateFamilies" runat="server" UpdateMode="Always"> <ContentTemplate> Company ID:<br> <br></br> <asp:DropDownList ID="companyIdSelection" runat="server" AutoPostBack="True" OnSelectedIndexChanged="companyIdSelection_SelectedIndexChanged"> </asp:DropDownList> <br></br> Product Family: <br></br> <asp:DropDownList ID="productFamilySelection" runat="server" AutoPostBack="True" onselectedindexchanged="productFamilySelection_SelectedIndexChanged"> </asp:DropDownList> <br> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { this.companyIdSelection.DataSource = companyIds(); //companyIds returns the object containing the initial data items this.companyIdSelection.DataBind(); } protected void companyIdSelection_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Page_Load is called again for some reason before this method is called, so it // resets the companyIdSelection EngDbService s = new EngDbService(); productFamilySelection.DataSource = s.getProductFamilies(companyIdSelection.Text); productFamilySelection.DataBind(); } Also, I tried setting the UpdateMode of the UpdatePanel to "Conditional" and adding an asyncpostback trigger but the result was the same. What am I doing wrong? PS: I fixed the updating problem, by using Page.IsPostBack in the Page_Load method, but I would still want to avoid a full postback if possible

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• Ruby on Rails How do I access variables of a model inside itself like in this example?

  - by banditKing

  I have a Model like so: # == Schema Information # # Table name: s3_files # # id :integer not null, primary key # owner :string(255) # notes :text # created_at :datetime not null # updated_at :datetime not null # last_accessed_by_user :string(255) # last_accessed_time_stamp :datetime # upload_file_name :string(255) # upload_content_type :string(255) # upload_file_size :integer # upload_updated_at :datetime # class S3File < ActiveRecord::Base #PaperClip methods attr_accessible :upload attr_accessor :owner Paperclip.interpolates :prefix do |attachment, style| I WOULD LIKE TO ACCESS VARIABLE= owner HERE- HOW TO DO THAT? end has_attached_file( :upload, :path => ":prefix/:basename.:extension", :storage => :s3, :s3_credentials => {:access_key_id => "ZXXX", :secret_access_key => "XXX"}, :bucket => "XXX" ) #Used to connect to users through the join table has_many :user_resource_relationships has_many :users, :through => :user_resource_relationships end Im setting this variable in the controller like so: # POST /s3_files # POST /s3_files.json def create @s3_file = S3File.new(params[:s3_file]) @s3_file.owner = current_user.email respond_to do |format| if @s3_file.save format.html { redirect_to @s3_file, notice: 'S3 file was successfully created.' } format.json { render json: @s3_file, status: :created, location: @s3_file } else format.html { render action: "new" } format.json { render json: @s3_file.errors, status: :unprocessable_entity } end end end Thanks, any help would be appreciated.

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• Integrated Security on Reporting Services XML Datasource

  - by Nathan

  Hey all, I am working on setting up my report server to use a web service as an XML datasource. I seem to be having authentication issues between the web service and the report with I choose to use Integrated security. Here's what I have: 1) I have a website w/ an exposed service. This website is configured to run ONLY on Integrated Security. This means that we have all other modes turned off AND Enabled anonymous access turned off under directory security. 2) Within the Web.config of the website, I have the authentication mode set to Windows. 3) I have the report datasource set to being an XML data source. I have the correct URL to the service and have it set to Windows Integrated Security. Since I am making a hop from the Browser to the Reporting Server to the Web Service, I wonder if I am having an issue w/ Kerberos, but I am not sure. When I try to access the service, I get a 401 error. Here are the IIS logs that I am generating: 2011-01-07 14:52:12 W3SVC IP_ADDY POST /URL.asmx - 80 - IP_ADDY - 401 1 0 2011-01-07 14:52:12 W3SVC IP_ADDY POST /URL.asmx - 80 - IP_ADDY - 401 1 5 Has anyone worked out this issue before? Thanks!

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• Finding comma separated values with a colon delimiter

  - by iconMatrix

  I am setting values in my database for tourneyID,Selected,Paid,Entered,date then separating each selection with a colon So I have a string that may look like this 187,S,,,09-21-2013:141,S,,,06-21-2013:144,S,,,05-24-2013 but it also could look like this 145,S,,,07-12-2013:142,S,,,05-24-2013:187,S,,,09-21-2013 and some times is looks like this 87,S,,,07-11-2013:125,S,,,06-14-2013 I am trying to find this sequence: 187,S,,,09-21-2013 I have data stored like that because I paid a programmer to code it for me. Now, as I learn, I see it was not the best solution, but it is what I have till I learn more and it is working. My problem is when using LIKE it returns both the 187 and 87 values $getTeams = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM teams WHERE (team_tourney_vector LIKE '%$tid,S,P,,$tourney_start_date%' OR team_tourney_vector LIKE '%$tid,S,,,$tourney_start_date%') AND division='$division'"); I tried this using FIND_IN_SET() but it would only return the the team id for this string 187,S,,,09-21-2013:141,S,,,06-21-2013:144,S,,,05-24-2013 and does not find the team id for this string 145,S,,,07-12-2013:142,S,,,05-24-2013:187,S,,,09-21-2013 SELECT * FROM teams WHERE FIND_IN_SET('187',team_tourney_vector) AND (team_tourney_vector LIKE '%S,,,09-21-2013%') Any thoughts on how to achieve this?

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• initialise a var in scala

  - by user unknown

  I have a class where I like to initialize my var by reading a configfile, which produces intermediate objects/vals, which I would like to group and hide in a method. Here is the bare minimum of the problem - I call the ctor with a param i, in reality a File to parse, and the init-method generates the String s, in reality more complicated than here, with a lot of intermediate objects being created: class Foo (val i: Int) { var s : String; def init () { s = "" + i } init () } This will produce the error: class Foo needs to be abstract, since variable s is not defined. In this example it is easy to solve by setting the String to "": var s = "";, but in reality the object is more complex than String, without an apropriate Null-implementation. I know, I can use an Option, which works for more complicated things than String too: var s : Option [String] = None def init () { s = Some ("" + i) } or I can dispense with my methodcall. Using an Option will force me to write Some over and over again, without much benefit, since there is no need for a None else than to initialize it that way I thought I could. Is there another way to achieve my goal?

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• jquery mobile - loading content into a div

  - by Robbiegod

  Jquery Mobile works by “hijacking” a page and loading content and injecting it into the page. It seems that this creates a problem when i try to inject other content into the page. I have my index.html and then a page2.html file. I'm setting up jquery mobile in the normal fashion wrapping the contents of each page in a div like so: <div id="container" data-role="page"> // my content <a href="page2.html">go to page 2</a> </div> when the user taps go to page 2, it does the nice slide effect. The url in the location bar looks like this: index.html#page2.html jquery mobile inject the content of the page using the anchors and applies the transition. nice so everthing works great up to the next part. On page2.html, i have a section that is loading some external data and injecting it into a div. <a href="http://www.somedomain.com/myata.php" class="ajaxtrigger" data-role="none">mydata</a> <div id="target"></div> <script src="js/code.js"></script> <script src="js/loader.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('.ajaxtrigger').trigger('click'); }); </script> The problem i am having is that when i enable the transitions in jquery mobile this script doesn't work. It won't load the data into the div. bummer. Anyone know what i need to do to get it to trigger and load the content into that div?

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• C As Principal Class For Mac App

  - by CodaFi

  So, I've got a c file raring to go and be the main class behind an all-C mac-app, however, a combination of limiting factors are preventing the application from being launched. As it currently stands, the project is just a main.m and a class called AppDelegate.c, so I entered "AppDelegate" as the name of the principal class in the info.plist, and to my complete surprise, the log printed: Unable to find class: AppDelegate, exiting This would work perfectly well in iOS, because the main function accepts the name of a delegate class, and handles it automatically, but NSApplicationMain() takes no such argument. Now, I know this stems from the fact that there are no @interface/@implementation directives in C, and that's really what the OS seems to be looking for, so I wrote a simple NSApplication subclass and provided it as the Principal Class to the plist, and it launched perfectly well. My question is, how could one go about setting a c file as the principal class in a mac application and have it launch correctly? PS, don't ask what or why I'm doing this for, the foundation must be dug. For @millimoose's amusement, here be the AppDelegate.c file: #include <objc/runtime.h> #include <objc/message.h> struct AppDel { Class isa; id window; }; // This is a strong reference to the class of the AppDelegate // (same as [AppDelegate class]) Class AppDelClass; BOOL AppDel_didFinishLaunching(struct AppDel *self, SEL _cmd, void *application, void *options) { self->window = objc_msgSend(objc_getClass("NSWindow"), sel_getUid("alloc")); self->window = objc_msgSend(self->window, sel_getUid("init")); objc_msgSend(self->window, sel_getUid("makeKeyAndOrderFront:"), self); return YES; }

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• change postgres date format

  - by Jay

  Is there a way to change the default format of a date in Postgres? Normally when I query a Postgres database, dates come out as yyyy-mm-dd hh:mm:ss+tz, like 2011-02-21 11:30:00-05. But one particular program the dates come out yyyy-mm-dd hh:mm:ss.s, that is, there is no time zone and it shows tenths of a second. Apparently something is changing the default date format, but I don't know what or where. I don't think it's a server-side configuration parameter, because I can access the same database with a different program and I get the format with the timezone. I care because it appears to be ignoring my "set timezone" calls in addition to changing the format. All times come out EST. Additional info: If I write "select somedate from sometable" I get the "no timezone" format. But if I write "select to_char(somedate::timestamptz, 'yyyy-mm-dd hh24:mi:ss-tz')" then timezones work as I would expect. This really sounds to me like something is setting all timestamps to implicitly be "to_char(date::timestamp, 'yyyy-mm-dd hh24:mi:ss.m')". But I can't find anything in the documentation about how I would do this if I wanted to, nor can I find anything in the code that appears to do this. Though as I don't know what to look for, that doesn't prove much.

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• How to set JComboBox not to select an element when created? (Java)

  - by Alex Cheng

  Hi all. Problem: I am using JComboBox, and tried using setSelectionIndex(-1) in my code (this code is placed in caretInvoke()) suggestionComboBox.removeAllItems(); for (int i = 0; i < suggestions.length; i++) { suggestionComboBox.addItem(suggestions[i]); } suggestionComboBox.setSelectedIndex(-1); suggestionComboBox.setEnabled(true); This is the initial setting when it was added to a pane: suggestionComboBox = new JComboBox(); suggestionComboBox.setEditable(false); suggestionComboBox.setPreferredSize(new Dimension(25, 25)); suggestionComboBox.addActionListener(new SuggestionComboBoxListener()); When the caretInvoke triggers the ComboBox initialisation, even before the user selects an element, the actionPerformed is already triggered (I tried a JOptionPane here): First popup (notice that "flow byte_jump" is selected): Second popup (I think the setSelectionIndex is executed) Then in the end: The problem is: My program autoinserts the selected text when the user selects an element from the ComboBox. So without the user selecting anything, it is automatically inserted already. How can I overcome the problem in this situation? Thanks.

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• Benefits of "Don't Fragment" on TCP Packets?

  - by taspeotis

  One of our customers is having trouble submitting data from our application (on their PC) to a server (different geographical location). When sending packets under 1100 bytes everything works fine, but above this we see TCP retransmitting the packet every few seconds and getting no response. The packets we are using for testing are about 1400 bytes (but less than 1472). I can send an ICMP ping to www.google.com that is 1472 bytes and get a response (so it's not their router/first few hops). I found that our application sets the DF flag for these packets, and I believe a router along the way to the server has an MTU less than/equal to 1100 and dropping the packet. This affects 1 client in 5000, but since everybody's routes will be different this is expected. The data is a SOAP envelope and we expect a SOAP response back. I can't justify WHY we do it, the code to do this was written by a previous developer. So... Are there are benefits OR justification to setting the DF flag on TCP packets for application data? I can think of reasons it is needed for network diagnostics applications but not in our situation (we want the data to get to the endpoint, fragmented or not). One of our sysadmins said that it might have something to do with us using SSL, but as far as I know SSL is like a stream and regardless of fragmentation, as long as the stream is rebuilt at the end, there's no problem. If there's no good justification I will be changing the behaviour of our application. Thanks in advance.

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• NHibernate + Cannot insert the value NULL into...

  - by mybrokengnome

  I've got a MS-SQL database with a table created with this code CREATE TABLE [dbo].[portfoliomanager]( [idPortfolioManager] [int] NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY IDENTITY, [name] [varchar](45) NULL ) so that idPortfolioManager is my primary key and also auto-incrementing. Now on my Windows WPF application I'm using NHibernate to help with adding/updating/removing/etc. data from the database. Here is the class that should be connecting to the portfoliomanager table namespace PortfolioManager { [Class(Table="portfoliomanager",NameType=typeof(PortfolioManagerClass))] public class PortfolioManagerClass { [Id(Name = "idPortfolioManager")] [Generator(1, Class = "identity")] public virtual int idPortfolioManager { get; set; } [NHibernate.Mapping.Attributes.Property(Name = "name")] public virtual string name { get; set; } public PortfolioManagerClass() { } } } and some short code to try and insert something PortfolioManagerClass portfolio = new PortfolioManagerClass(); Portfolio.name = "Brad's Portfolios"; The problem is, when I try running this, I get this error: {System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Cannot insert the value NULL into column 'idPortfolioManager', table 'PortfolioManagementSystem.dbo.portfoliomanager'; column does not allow nulls. INSERT fails. The statement has been terminated... with an outer exception of {"could not insert: [PortfolioManager.PortfolioManagerClass][SQL: INSERT INTO portfoliomanager (name) VALUES (?); select SCOPE_IDENTITY()]"} I'm hoping this is the last error I'll have to solve with NHibernate just to get it to do something, it's been a long process. Just as a note, I've also tried setting Class="native" and unsaved-value="0" with the same error. Thanks! Edit: Ok removing the 1, from Generator actually allows the program to run (not sure why that was even in the samples I was looking at) but it actually doesn't get added to the database. I logged in to the server and ran the sql server profiler tool and I never see the connection coming through or the SQL its trying to run, but NHibernate isn't throwing an error anymore. Starting to think it would be easier to just write SQL statements myself :(

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• Upgrade to iPhone 3.0 sdk and now simulator shows blank screen.

  - by NoShitMcGee

  I have an iPhone app that uses an UITabBarController, which contains two UINavigationControllers, each of which in turn contains one or more TableViewControllers (actually, customized UIViewControllers implementing UITableViewDelegate and UITableViewDataSource. ) On launch, it displays the UITabBarController with one of the tableviews displayed. Everything is coded; Interface Builder was NOT used to make any of the UI stuff. It was written in SDK 2. It worked fine in sdk 2. I recently updated to SDK 3.0. In Info, I set the Base SDK setting to iPhone Simulator 3.0. Now, when I launch the application in Simulator, I see only a blank white screen with the status bar at the top. No signs of my app. However, when I exit the app, the missing tableview displays briefly as the exiting animation is playing. Also, on the blank white screen I can still click where the navigation buttons should be and find that, when I exit the app and the missing screen briefly displays, that navigation has taken me to another screen. So the buttons work, and presumably the tableviewcells are there, they just cannot be seen. Has anyone seen anything like this? Does anyone have any idea what is causing it and how I can fix it? I noticed that sample apps, such as SQLiteBooks, seem to work fine when updating to SDK 3.0. My app isn't very much different from SQLiteBooks in terms of technologies used, except that, as I said above, I do not use Interface Builder. Thanks

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• Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection

  - by Tony_Henrich

  My web service app on my Windows XP box is trying to log in to my sql server 2005 database on the same box. The machine is part of a domain. I am logged in in the domain and I am an admin on my machine. I am using Windows Authentication in my connection string as in "Server=myServerAddress;Database=myDataBase;Trusted_Connection=True". SQLServer is configured for both types of authentication (mixed mode) and accepts remote connections and accepts tcp and named pipes protocols. Integrated authentication is enabled in IIS and with and without anonymous access. 'Everyone' has access to computer from network setting in local security settings. ASPNET is a user in the sql server and has access to the daatabase. user is mapped to the login. The app works fine for other developers which means the app shouldn't be changed (It's not new code). So it seems it's my machine which has an issue. I am getting the error "Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection" Note the blank user name. Why am I getting this error when both the app and database are on my machine? I can use SQL Server authentication but don't want to. I can connect to the database using SSMS and my Windows credentials. It might be related to setspn, kerberos, delegation, AD. I am not sure what further checks to make?

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• cURL Affects Cookie Retrieval in PHP?

  - by CJ

  I'm not sure if I'm asking this properly. I have two PHP pages located on the same server. The first PHP page sets a cookie with an expiration and the second one checks to see if that cookie was set. if it is set, it returns "on". If it isn't set, it returns "off". If I just run the pages like "www.example.com/set_cookie.php" AND "www.example.com/is_cookie_set.php" I get an "on" from is_cookie_set.php. Heres the problem, on the set_cookie.php file I have a function called is_set. This function executes the following cURL and returns the contents ("on" or "off"). Unfortunately, the contents are always returned as "off". however, if I check the file manually ("www.example.com/is_cookie_set.php") I can see that the cookie was set. Heres the function : <?php function is_set() { $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, 'http://example.com/is_cookie_set.php'); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); $contents = curl_exec ($ch); curl_close ($ch); echo $contents; } ?> Please note, I'm not using cURL to GET or SET cookies, only to check a page that checks if the cookie was set. I've looked into CURLOPT_COOKIEJAR, and CURLOPT_COOKIEFILE, but I believe those are for setting cookies via cURL and I don't want to do this.

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• Is it possible to auto update only selected properties on an existent entity object without touching the others

  - by LaserBeak

  Say I have a bunch of boolean properties on my entity class public bool isActive etc. Values which will be manipulated by setting check boxes in a web application. I will ONLY be posting back the one changed name/value pair and the primary key at a time, say { isActive : true , NewsPageID: 34 } and the default model binder will create a NewsPage object with only those two properties set. Now if I run the below code it will not only update the values for the properties that have been set on the NewsPage object created by the model binder but of course also attempt to null all the other non set values for the existent entity object because they are not set on NewsPage object created by the model binder. Is it possible to somehow tell entity framework not to look at the properties that are set to null and attempt to persist those changes back to the retrieved entity object and hence database ? Perhaps there's some code I can write that will only utilize the non-null values and their property names on the NewsPage object created by model binder and only attempt to update those particular properties ? [HttpPost] public PartialViewResult SaveNews(NewsPage Np) { Np.ModifyDate = DateTime.Now; _db.NewsPages.Attach(Np); _db.ObjectStateManager.ChangeObjectState(Np, System.Data.EntityState.Modified); _db.SaveChanges(); _db.Dispose(); return PartialView("MonthNewsData"); } I can of course do something like below, but I have a feeling it's not the optimal solution. Especially considering that I have like 6 boolean properties that I need to set. [HttpPost] public PartialViewResult SaveNews(int NewsPageID, bool isActive, bool isOnFrontPage) { if (isActive != null) { //Get entity and update this property } if (isOnFontPage != null) { //Get entity and update this property } }

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• VB.net/Excel- "Backwards" tab index For Each iteration with textboxes.

  - by MSD

  Hi there, I have a form with 3 textboxes and 1 button. textbox1 has tab index 0, and it's text = 1 textbox2 has tab index 1, and it's text = 2 textbox3 has tab index 2, and it's text = 3 I want to iterate thru the textboxes and place their values into cells so that... range("A1").value = txtbox1.text (ie: A1 = "1") range("A2").value = txtbox2.text (ie: A2 = "2") range("A3").value = txtbox3.text (ie: A3 = "3") but what I am getting is... range("A1").value = txtbox1.text (ie: A1 = "3") range("A2").value = txtbox2.text (ie: A2 = "2") range("A3").value = txtbox3.text (ie: A3 = "1") I have tried reversing the tab index for the text boxes, but it doesn't change the "backwards iteration". Is there something I can do to change this so that the loop runs from lowest tab index to highest? Thanks! Public Class Form1 Private Sub Button1_Click_1(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim objExcel As New Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.Application 'Declaring the object. objExcel.Visible = True 'Setting Excel to visible. Dim cntrl As Control With objExcel .Workbooks.Add() 'Adding a workbook. .Range("A1").Select() 'Selecting cell A1. End With 'Form contains 3 text boxes, with one number in each (1,2,3), and one button to fire the code in this sub. For Each cntrl In Me.Controls 'For every control on the form... If TypeOf (cntrl) Is TextBox Then 'If the control is a textbox, then... With objExcel .ActiveCell.Value = cntrl.Text 'place the control's text in the active cell and... .ActiveCell.Offset(1, 0).Activate() 'offset down one row. End With End If 'If the control is not a textbox (if it's the button), do nothing. Next 'Go to the next control. objExcel = Nothing 'Release the object. GC.Collect() 'Clean up. End Sub End Class

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• OpenGL Pixel Format Attributes (NSOpenGLPixelFormatAttibutes) explanation?

  - by nacho4d

  Hi, I am not new to OpenGL, but not an expert. Many tutorials teach how to draw, 3D, 2D, projections, orthogonal, etc, but How about setting a the view? (NSOpenGLView in Cocoa, Macs). For example I have this: - (id) initWithFrame: (NSRect) frame { GLuint attribs[] = { //PF: PixelAttibutes NSOpenGLPFANoRecovery, NSOpenGLPFAWindow, NSOpenGLPFAAccelerated, NSOpenGLPFADoubleBuffer, NSOpenGLPFAColorSize, 24, NSOpenGLPFAAlphaSize, 8, NSOpenGLPFADepthSize, 24, NSOpenGLPFAStencilSize, 8, NSOpenGLPFAAccumSize, 0, 0 }; NSOpenGLPixelFormat* fmt = [[NSOpenGLPixelFormat alloc] initWithAttributes: (NSOpenGLPixelFormatAttribute*) attribs]; return self = [super initWithFrame:frame pixelFormat: [fmt autorelease]]; } And I don't understand very well their usage, specially when combining them. For example: If I want my view to be capable of full screen should I write NSOpenGLPFAFullScreen only ? or both? (by capable I mean not always in full screen) Regarding Double Buffer, what is this exactly? (Below: Apple's definition) If present, this attribute indicates that only double-buffered pixel formats are considered. Otherwise, only single-buffered pixel formats are considered Regarding Color: if NSOpenGLPFAColorSize is 24 and NSOpenGLPFAColorSize is 8 then it means that alpha and RGB components are treated differently? what happen if I set the former to 32 and the later to 0? Etc, etc,In general how do I learn to set my view from scratch? Thanks in advance. Ignacio.

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• Showing multiple models in a single ListView

  - by Veer

  I've three models (Contacts, Notes, Reminders). I want to search all these and produce the filtered result in a single listview and depending upon the selection I've to display the corresponding view(UserControl) to its right. I want the right way of implementing the design or atleast alternatives to this method that I've tried. Now I've tried it using a IntegratedViewModel having all the properties from all the three models. public class IntegratedViewModel { ContactModel _contactModel; NoteModel _noteModel; public IntegratedViewModel(ContactModel contactModel) { _contactModel = contactModel; } // similarly for other models also public string DisplayTitle // For displaying in ListView { get; //same as set set { If(_contactModel != null) return _contactModel.Name; If(_noteModel != null) return _noteModel.Title; } } // All other properties from the three models includin the Name/Title properties for displaying them in the corresponding views(UserControl) } Now I set the itemsSource as the List<IntegratedViewModel>. I've to now bind the visibility of the views to some properties in the MainViewModel. I tried setting bool properties like IsContactViewSelected, IsNoteViewSelected using the setter of SelectedEntity property which is bound to the ListView's SelectedItem. public SelectedEntity { //get set { oldvalue = _selectedEntity; _selectedEntity = value; // now i find the Type of model selected using oldvalue.ModelType // where ModelType is a property in the IntegratedViewModel // according to the type, i set one of the above bool properties to false // and do the same for _selectedEntity but set the property to true // so that the view corresponding to the selectedEntityType is visible // and others are collapsed } } Here is the problem: For eg: let us say, I selected an item of type ContactModel, the old selection being NoteModel. I set the property IsNoteModelSelected to false according to the oldvalue, it sets the property and then Raises the propertychanged event and does not go and check the remaining if condition where i check for _selectedEntity which is used to set the IsContactModelSelected to true.

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• Parsing data from txt file in J2ME

  - by CSFYPMAIL

  Basically I'm creating an indoor navigation system in J2ME. I've put the location details in a .txt file i.e. Locations names and their coordinates. Edges with respective start node and end node as well as the weight (length of the node). I put both details in the same file so users dont have to download multiple files to get their map working (it could become time consuming and seem complex). So what i did is to seperate the deferent details by typing out location Names and coordinates first, After that I seperated that section from the next section which is the edges by drawing a line with multiple underscores. Now the problem I'm having is parsing the different details into seperate arrays by setting up a command (while manually tokenizing the input stream) to check wether the the next token is an underscore. If it is, (in pseudocode terms), move to the next line in the stream, create a new array and fill it up with the next set of details. I found a some explanation/code HERE that does something similar but still parses into one array, although it manually tokenizes the input. Any ideas on what to do? Thanks Text File Explanation The text has the following format... <--1stSection--  /**   * Section one has the following format   * xCoordinate;yCoordinate;LocationName   */ 12;13;New York City 40;12;Washington D.C. ...e.t.c _________________________ <--(underscore divider) <--2ndSection--  /**   * Its actually an adjacency list but indirectly provides "edge" details.   * Its in this form   * StartNode/MainReferencePoint;Endnode1;distance2endNode1;Endnode2;distance2endNode2;...e.t.c   */ philadelphia;Washington D.C.;7;New York City;2 New York City;Florida;24;Illinois;71 ...e.t.c

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