Search Results

Search found 40791 results on 1632 pages for 'call display'.

Page 504/1632 | < Previous Page | 500 501 502 503 504 505 506 507 508 509 510 511  | Next Page >

  • Matplotlib canvas drawing

    - by Morgoth
    Let's say I define a few functions to do certain matplotlib actions, such as def dostuff(ax): ax.scatter([0.],[0.]) Now if I launch ipython, I can load these functions and start a new figure: In [1]: import matplotlib.pyplot as mpl In [2]: fig = mpl.figure() In [3]: ax = fig.add_subplot(1,1,1) In [4]: run functions # run the file with the above defined function If I now call dostuff, then the figure does not refresh: In [6]: dostuff(ax) I have to then explicitly run: In [7]: fig.canvas.draw() To get the canvas to draw. Now I can modify dostuff to be def dostuff(ax): ax.scatter([0.],[0.]) ax.get_figure().canvas.draw() This re-draws the canvas automatically. But now, say that I have the following code: def dostuff1(ax): ax.scatter([0.],[0.]) ax.get_figure().canvas.draw() def dostuff2(ax): ax.scatter([1.],[1.]) ax.get_figure().canvas.draw() def doboth(ax): dostuff1(ax) dostuff2(ax) ax.get_figure().canvas.draw() I can call each of these functions, and the canvas will be redrawn, but in the case of doboth(), it will get redrawn multiple times. My question is: how could I code this, such that the canvas.draw() only gets called once? In the above example it won't change much, but in more complex cases with tens of functions that can be called individually or grouped, the repeated drawing is much more obvious, and it would be nice to be able to avoid it. I thought of using decorators, but it doesn't look as though it would be simple. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Missing chars in JpGraph

    - by Álvaro G. Vicario
    I have a web site that runs on Windows and uses cp1252 (aka Win-1252) so it can display Spanish characters. The app generates some plots with JpGraph 2.3. These plots use the Tahoma Open Type font family to display text labels. Strings are provided in ANSI (i.e., cp1252) and font files support cp1252 (actually, the *.ttf files were copied from the system's font folder). It's been working fine in several setups from PHP/5.2.6 to PHP/5.3.0. Problems started when I ran the app under PHP/5.3.1: all non-ASCII are replaced by the hollow rectangle that represents missing or unknown chars. JpGraph's documentation is not very precise about how it expects international chars. Apparently, text is handled internally by the imagettftext() function, which expects UTF-8. However, encoding everything as UTF-8 breaks the app in all the systems. Where ANSI used to work fine, I get wrong characters (Ê instead of Ú). Where I got missing chars, now I get a PHP error: Warning: imagettftext(): any2eucjp(): something happen Do you have any clue about what changed in GD2 from PHP/5.3.0 to 5.3.1 that could be affecting the rendering on non-ASCII chars? How am I expected to feed JpGraph with strings in the Win-1252 charset?

    Read the article

  • ASP Classic, SQL 2008, XML Output, and DSN vs DSN-Less Produces Chinese Letters

    - by RoLYroLLs
    I've been having a problem for the past month and can't seem to figure out what is wrong. Here's the setup and a little background. Background: I have a web-host who was running my website on Windows Server 2003 and SQL Server 2000. One of my webpages returned a result set from a stored procedure from the SQL server as xml. Below is the code: Stored Procedure: select top 10 1 as tag , null as parent , column1 as [item!1!column1!element] , column2 as [item!1!column2!element] from table1 for XML EXPLICIT ASP Page: index.asp Call OpenConn Set cmd = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Command") With cmd .ActiveConnection = dbc .CommandText = "name of proc" .CommandType = adCmdStoredProc .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@RetVal", adInteger, adParamReturnValue, 4) .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@Level", adInteger, adParamInput, 4, Level) End With Set rsItems = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Recordset") With rsItems .CursorLocation = adUseClient .CursorType = adOpenStatic .LockType = adLockBatchOptimistic Set .Source = cmd .Open Set .ActiveConnection = Nothing End With If NOT rsItems.BOF AND NOT rsItems.EOF Then OutputXMLQueryResults rsItems,"items" End If Set rsItems = Nothing Set cmd = Nothing Call CloseConn Sub OpenConn() strConn = "Provider=SQLOLEDB;Data Source=[hidden];User Id=[hidden];Password=[hidden];Initial Catalog=[hidden];" Set dbc = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") dbc.open strConn End Sub Sub CloseConn() If IsObject(dbc) Then If dbc.State = adStateOpen Then dbc.Close End If Set dbc = Nothing End If End Sub Sub OutputXMLQueryResults(RS,RootElementName) Response.Clear Response.ContentType = "text/xml" Response.Codepage = 65001 Response.Charset = "utf-8" Response.Write "" Response.Write "" While Not RS.EOF Response.Write RS(0).Value RS.MoveNext WEnd Response.Write "" Response.End End Sub Present: All was working great, until my host upgraded to Windows Server 2008 and SQL Server 2008. All of the sudden I was getting results like this: From Browser: From View Source: However, I found that if I use a DSN connection strConn = "DSN=[my DSN Name];User Id=[hidden];Password=[hidden];Initial Catalog=[hidden];" it works perfectly fine! My current host is not going to support DSN any longer, but that's out of scope for this issue. Someone told me to use an ADO.Stream object instead of a Recordset object, but I'm unsure how to implement that. Question: Has anyone run into this and found a way to fix it? What about that ADO.Stream object, can someone help me with a sample that would fit my code?

    Read the article

  • Pentaho - Reporting Tool - Is the .prpt file (report template file) contains datasource information

    - by Yatendra Goel
    I am new Pentaho Reporting Tool. I have the following question: When I created a report using Pentaho Report Designer, it output a report file having .prpt extension. After that I found an example on internet where the following code were used to display the report in html format:| protected void doGet(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { ResourceManager manager = new ResourceManager(); manager.registerDefaults(); String reportPath = "file:" + this.getServletContext().getRealPath("sampleReport.prpt"); try { Resource res = manager.createDirectly(new URL(reportPath), MasterReport.class); MasterReport report = (MasterReport) res.getResource(); HtmlReportUtil.createStreamHTML(report, response.getOutputStream()); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } And the report got printed successfully. So as we haven't specified any datasource information here, I think that the .prpt file contains that information in it. If that's true than Isn't Jasper is better Reporting tool than Pentaho because when we display Jasper reports, we have to provide datasource details also so in that way our report is flexible and is not bound to any particular database.

    Read the article

  • Sync Vs. Async Sockets Performance in .NET

    - by Michael Covelli
    Everything that I read about sockets in .NET says that the asynchronous pattern gives better performance (especially with the new SocketAsyncEventArgs which saves on the allocation). I think this makes sense if we're talking about a server with many client connections where its not possible to allocate one thread per connection. Then I can see the advantage of using the ThreadPool threads and getting async callbacks on them. But in my app, I'm the client and I just need to listen to one server sending market tick data over one tcp connection. Right now, I create a single thread, set the priority to Highest, and call Socket.Receive() with it. My thread blocks on this call and wakes up once new data arrives. If I were to switch this to an async pattern so that I get a callback when there's new data, I see two issues The threadpool threads will have default priority so it seems they will be strictly worse than my own thread which has Highest priority. I'll still have to send everything through a single thread at some point. Say that I get N callbacks at almost the same time on N different threadpool threads notifying me that there's new data. The N byte arrays that they deliver can't be processed on the threadpool threads because there's no guarantee that they represent N unique market data messages because TCP is stream based. I'll have to lock and put the bytes into an array anyway and signal some other thread that can process what's in the array. So I'm not sure what having N threadpool threads is buying me. Am I thinking about this wrong? Is there a reason to use the Async patter in my specific case of one client connected to one server?

    Read the article

  • How can I render a list of objects using DisplayFor but from the controller in ASP.NET MVC?

    - by Darragh
    Here's the scenaio, I have an Employee object and a Company object which has a list of employees. I have Company.aspx which inherits from ViewPage<Company>. In Company.aspx I call Html.DisplayFor(m => m.Employees). I have an Employee.ascx partial view which inherits from ViewUserControl<Employee in my DisplayTemplates folder. Everything works fine and Company.aspx renders the Employee.ascx partial for each employee. Now I have two additional methods on my controller called GetEmployees and GetEmployee(Id). In the GetEmployee(Id) action I want to return the markup to display this one employee, and in GetEmployees() I want to render the markup to display all the employees (these two action methods will be called via AJAX). In the GetEmployee action I call return PartialView("DisplayTemplates\Employee", employee) This works, although I'd prefer something like return PartialViewFor(employee) which would determine the view name by convention. Anwyay, my question is how should I implement the GetEmployees() action? I don't want to create any more views, because frankly, I don't see why I should have to. I've tried the following which fails miserably :) return Content(New HtmlHelper<IList<Of DebtDto>>(null, null).DisplayFor(m => debts)); However if I could create an instance of an HtmlHelper object in my controller, I suppose I could get it to work, but it feels wrong. Any ideas? Have i missed something obvious?

    Read the article

  • python: how to design a container with elements that must reference their container

    - by Luke404
    (the title is admittedly not that great. Please forgive my English, this is the best I could think of) I'm writing a python script that will manage email domains and their accounts, and I'm also a newby at OOP design. My two (related?) issues are: the Domain class must do special work to add and remove accounts, like adding/removing them to the underlying implementation how to manage operations on accounts that must go through their container To solve the former issue I'd add a factory method to the Domain class that'll build an Account instance in that domain, and a 'remove' (anti-factory?) method to handle deletions. For the latter this seems to me "anti-oop" since what would logically be an operation on an Account (eg, change password) must always reference the containing Domain. Seems to me that I must add to the Account a reference back to the Domain and use that to get data (like the domain name) or call methods on the Domain class. Code example (element uses data from the container) that manages an underlying Vpopmail system: class Account: def __init__(self, name, password, domain): self.name = name self.password = password self.domain = domain def set_password(self, password): os.system('vpasswd %s@%s %s' % (self.name, self.domain.name, password) self.password = password class Domain: def __init__(self, domain_name): self.name = domain_name self.accounts = {} def create_account(self, name, password): os.system('vadduser %s@%s %s' % (name, self.name, password)) account = Account(name, password, self) self.accounts[name] = account def delete_account(self, name): os.system('vdeluser %s@%s' % (name, self.name)) del self.accounts[name] another option would be for Account.set_password to call a Domain method that would do the actual work - sounds equally ugly to me. Also note the duplication of data (account name also as dict key), it sounds logical (account names are "primary key" inside a domain) but accounts need to know their own name.

    Read the article

  • FluentNHibernate Overrides: UseOverridesFromAssemblyOf non-generic version

    - by ThiagoAlves
    Hi, I have a repository class that inherits from a generic implementation: public namespace RepositoryImplementation { public class PersonRepository : Web.Generics.GenericNHibernateRepository<Person> } The generic repository implementation uses Fluent NHibernate conventions. They're working fine. One of those conventions is that all properties are not nullable. Now I need to define that specific properties may be nullable outside the conventions. Fluent NHibernate has an interesting override mechanism: public namespace RepositoryImplementation { public class PersonMappingOverride : IAutoMappingOverride<Person> { public void Override(FluentNHibernate.Automapping.AutoMapping<Funcionario> mapping) { mapping.Map(x => x.PhoneNumber).Nullable(); } } } Now I need to register the override class into Fluent NHibernate. I have the following code in the Web.Generics.GenericNHibernateRepository generic class: AutoMap.AssemblyOf<Person>() .Where(type => type.Namespace == "Entities") .UseOverridesFromAssemblyOf<PersonMappingOverride>(); The problem is: UseOverridesFromAssemblyOf is a generic method, and I can't do something like that: .UseOverridesFromAssemblyOf<PersonMappingOverride>(); Because that would cause a circular reference. I don't want the generic repository to know the either repository or the mapping override class, because they vary from project to project. I see another solution: in the GenericNHibernateRepository class I can do this.GetType() and get the repository implementation type (e.g.: PersonRepository). However I can't call UseOverridesFromAssemblyOf() passing a type. Is there another way to configure overrides in FluentNHibernate? If not, how could I call UseOverridesFromAssemblyOf<T> without making the generic repository depend upon the repository implementation or the mapping override class? (Source: http://wiki.fluentnhibernate.org/Auto_mapping#Overrides)

    Read the article

  • Use of for_each on map elements

    - by Antonio
    I have a map where I'd like to perform a call on every data type object member function. I yet know how to do this on any sequence but, is it possible to do it on an associative container? The closest answer I could find was this: Boost.Bind to access std::map elements in std::for_each. But I cannot use boost in my project so, is there an STL alternative that I'm missing to boost::bind? If not possible, I thought on creating a temporary sequence for pointers to the data objects and then, call for_each on it, something like this: class MyClass { public: void Method() const; } std::map<int, MyClass> Map; //... std::vector<MyClass*> Vector; std::transform(Map.begin(), Map.end(), std::back_inserter(Vector), std::mem_fun_ref(&std::map<int, MyClass>::value_type::second)); std::for_each(Vector.begin(), Vector.end(), std::mem_fun(&MyClass::Method)); It looks too obfuscated and I don't really like it. Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • x86_64 Assembly Command Line Arguments

    - by Brandon oubiub
    I'm new to assembly, and I just got familiar with the call stack, so bare with me. To get the command line arguments in x86_64 on Mac OS X, I can do the following: _main: sub rsp, 8 ; 16 bit stack alignment mov rax, 0 mov rdi, format mov rsi, [rsp + 32] call _printf Where format is "%s". rsi gets set to argv[0]. So, from this, I drew out what (I think) the stack looks like initially: top of stack <- rsp after alignment return address <- rsp at beginning (aligned rsp + 8) [something] <- rsp + 16 argc <- rsp + 24 argv[0] <- rsp + 32 argv[1] <- rsp + 40 ... ... bottom of stack And so on. Sorry if that's hard to read. I'm wondering what [something] is. After a few tests, I find that it is usually just 0. However, occasionally, it is some (seemingly) random number. EDIT: Also, could you tell me if the rest of my stack drawing is correct?

    Read the article

  • boost::binding that which is already bound

    - by PaulH
    I have a Visual Studio 2008 C++ application that does something like this: template< typename Fcn > inline void Bar( Fcn fcn ) // line 84 { fcn(); }; template< typename Fcn > inline void Foo( Fcn fcn ) { // this works fine Bar( fcn ); // this fails to compile boost::bind( Bar, fcn )(); }; void main() { SYSTEM_POWER_STATUS_EX status = { 0 }; Foo( boost::bind( ::GetSystemPowerStatusEx, &status, true ) ); // line 160 } *The call to GetSystemPowerStatusEx() is just for demonstration. Insert your favorite call there and the behavior is the same. When I go to compile this, I get 84 errors. I won't post them all unless asked, but they start with this: 1>.\MyApp.cpp(99) : error C2896: 'boost::_bi::bind_t<_bi::dm_result<MT::* ,A1>::type,boost::_mfi::dm<M,T>,_bi::list_av_1<A1>::type> boost::bind(M T::* ,A1)' : cannot use function template 'void Bar(Fcn)' as a function argument 1> .\MyApp.cpp(84) : see declaration of 'Bar' 1> .\MyApp.cpp(160) : see reference to function template instantiation 'void Foo<boost::_bi::bind_t<R,F,L>>(Fcn)' being compiled 1> with 1> [ 1> R=BOOL, 1> F=BOOL (__cdecl *)(PSYSTEM_POWER_STATUS_EX,BOOL), 1> L=boost::_bi::list2<boost::_bi::value<_SYSTEM_POWER_STATUS_EX *>,boost::_bi::value<bool>>, 1> Fcn=boost::_bi::bind_t<BOOL,BOOL (__cdecl *)(PSYSTEM_POWER_STATUS_EX,BOOL),boost::_bi::list2<boost::_bi::value<_SYSTEM_POWER_STATUS_EX *>,boost::_bi::value<bool>>> 1> ] If anybody can point out what I may be doing wrong, I would appreciate it. Thanks, PaulH

    Read the article

  • WCF: How can I send data while gracefully closing a connection?

    - by mafutrct
    I've got a WCF service that offers a Login method. A client is required to call this method (due to it being the only IsInitiating=true). This method should return a string that describes the success of the call in any case. If the login failed, the connection should be closed. The issue is with the timing of the close. I'd like to send the return value, then immediately close the connection. string Login (string name, string pass) { if (name != pass) { OperationContext.Current.Channel.Close (); return "fail"; } else { return "yay"; } } The MSDN states that calling Close on the channel causes an ICommunicationObject to gracefully transition from the Opened state to the Closed state. The Close method allows any unfinished work to be completed before returning. For example, finish sending any buffered messages). This did not work for me (or my understanding is wrong), as the close is executed immediately - WCF does not wait for the Login method to finish executing and return a string but closes the connection earlier. Therefore I assume that calling Close does not wait for the running method to finish. Now, how can I still return a value, then close?

    Read the article

  • Using hash tables in racket

    - by user2963128
    Im working on an Ngrams program and im having trouble filling out my hash table. i want to write out a recursive function that will take the words and add them to the hash table. The way its supposed to work is given the data set 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 the first entry in the hash table should have a key of [1 2] and the data should be 3. The second entry should be: [2 3] and its data should be 4 and continuing on until the end of the text file. we are given a predefined function called readword that will simply return 1 word from the text. But im not sure how to make these calls overlap each other. The calls would look something like this if the data was hard coded in. (hash-set! (list "1" "2") 3 (hash-set! (list "2" "3") 4 2 calls that ive tried look like this (hash-set! Ngram-table(list((word1) (word2)) readword in))) (hash-set! Ngram-table(append((cdr data) word1)) readword in) apparently the in after readword is supposed to tell the computer that this is and input instead of an output or something like that. How would I call this to make the data in the key of the hashtable overlap like this? And what would the recursive call look like? edit: also we are not allowed to use assigment statements in this program.

    Read the article

  • How to disable Safari Reader in a web page

    - by michael
    I'm curious to know more about what triggers the Reader option in Safari and what does not. I wouldn't plan to implement anything that would disable it, but curious as a technical exercise. Here is what I've learned so far with some basic playing around: You need at least one H tag It does not go by character count alone but by the number of P tags and length Probably looks for sentence breaks '.' and other criteria Safari will provide the 'Reader' if, with a H tag, and the following: 1 P tag, 2417 chars 4 P tags, 1527 chars 5 P tags, 1150 chars 6 P tags, 862 chars If you subtract 1 character from any of the above, the 'Reader' option is not available. I should note that the character count of the H tag plays a part but sadly did not realize this when I determined the results above. Assume 20+ characters for H tag and fixed throughout the results above. Some other interesting things: Setting <p style="display:none;"> for P tags removes them from the count Setting display to none, and then showing them 230ms later with Javascript avoided the Reader option too I'd be interested if anyone can determine this in full.

    Read the article

  • SharePoint 2007 and SiteMinder

    - by pborovik
    Here is a question regarding some details how SiteMinder secures access to the SharePoint 2007. I've read a bunch of materials regarding this and have some picture for SharePoint 2010 FBA claims-based + SiteMinder security (can be wrong here, of course): SiteMinder is registered as a trusted identity provider for the SharePoint; It means (to my mind) that SharePoint has no need to go into all those user directories like AD, RDBMS or whatever to create a record for user being granted access to SharePoint - instead it consumes a claims-based id supplied by SiteMinder SiteMinder checks all requests to SharePoint resources and starts login sequence via SiteMinder if does not find required headers in the request (SMSESSION, etc.) SiteMinder creates a GenericIdentity with the user login name if headers are OK, so SharePoint recognizes the user as authenticated But in the case of SharePoint 2007 with FBA + SiteMinder, I cannot find an answer for questions like: Does SharePoint need to go to all those user directories like AD to know something about users (as SiteMinder is not in charge of providing user info like claims-based ids)? So, SharePoint admin should configure SharePoint FBA to talk to these sources? Let's say I'm talking to a Web Service of SharePoint protected by SiteMinder. Shall I make a Authentication.asmx-Login call to create a authentication ticket or this schema is somehow changed by the SiteMinder? If such call is needed, do I also need a SiteMinder authentication sequence? What prevents me from rewriting request headers (say, manually in Fiddler) before posting request to the SharePoint protected by SiteMinder to override its defence? Pity, but I do not have access to deployed SiteMinder + SharePoint, so need to investigate some question blindly. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • JQueryUI with Google's CDN help

    - by TenaciousImpy
    Hi, I'm having trouble loading JQueryUI from Google's CDN. I've got an ASP.NET application that and am using this to call the scripts: <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.7.2/jquery-ui.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <link href="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8/themes/ui-darkness/jquery-ui.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $("#accordion").accordion(); }); </script> </asp:Content> I then have a test accordion: <div id="accordion"> <h3><a href="#">First header</a></h3> <div>First content</div> <h3><a href="#">Second header</a></h3> <div>Second content</div> </div> However, this doesn't work. I used Chrome's Dev tool and I get this error: Uncaught Error: The 'accordion' plugin requires Sys.scripts.ExtendedAccordion to be loaded with a call to Sys.require() first I'm also using MS' Ajax CDN in my masterpage, so could that be causing a problem? Thanks

    Read the article

  • How to use a viewstate'd object as a datasource for controls on a user control

    - by user557325
    I've got a listview on a control. Each row comprises a checkbox and another listview. The outer listview is bound to a property on the control (via a method call, can't set a property as a SelectMethod on an ObjectDataSource it would appear) which is lazy loaded suchly: Public ReadOnly Property ProductLineChargeDetails() As List(Of WebServiceProductLineChargeDetail) Get If ViewState("WSProductLineChargeDetails") Is Nothing Then ViewState("WSProductLineChargeDetails") = GetWebServiceProductLineChargeDetails() End If Return DirectCast(ViewState("WSProductLineChargeDetails"), Global.System.Collections.Generic.List(Of Global.MI.Open.WebServiceProductLineChargeDetail)) End Get End Property The shape of the object referenced by the data source is something like this: (psuedocode) Product { bool Licenced; List<Charge> charges; } Charge { int property1; string property2; bool property3 . . . } The reason for the use of viewstate is this: When an one of the checkboxes on one of the outer list view rows is checked or unchecked I want to modify the object that the ODS represents (for example I'll add a couple of Charge objects to the relevant Product object) and then rebind. The problem I'm getting is that after every postback (specifically after checking or unchecking one of the rows' checkbox) my viewstate is empty. Thiss means that any changes I make to my viewstate'd object is lost. Now, I've worked out (after much googling and reading, amongst many others, Scott Mitchel's excellent bit on ViewState) that during initial databinding IsTrackingViewState is set to false. That means, I think, that assigning the return from GetWebServiceProductLineChargeDetails() to the ViewState item in my Property Get during the initial databind won't work. Mind you, even when the IsTrackingViewState is true and I call the Property Get, come the next postback, the viewstate is empty. So do you chaps have any ideas on how I keep the object referenced by the ObjectDataSource in ViewState between postbacks and update it and get those changes to stay in ViewState? This has been going on for a couple of days now and I'm getting fed up! Cheers in advance Steve

    Read the article

  • jackson failing to map empty array with No content to map to Object due to end of input

    - by ijabz
    I send a query to an api and map the json results to my classes using Jackson. When I get some results it works fine, but when there are no results it fails with java.io.EOFException: No content to map to Object due to end of input at org.codehaus.jackson.map.ObjectMapper._initForReading(ObjectMapper.java:2766) at org.codehaus.jackson.map.ObjectMapper._readMapAndClose(ObjectMapper.java:2709) at org.codehaus.jackson.map.ObjectMapper.readValue(ObjectMapper.java:1854) at com.jthink.discogs.query.DiscogsServerQuery.mapQuery(DiscogsServerQuery.java:382) at com.jthink.discogs.query.SearchQuery.mapQuery(SearchQuery.java:37)* But the thing is the api isn't returning nothing at all, so I dont see why it is failing. Here is the query: http://api.discogs.com/database/search?page=1&type=release&release_title=nude+and+rude+the+best+of+iggy+pop this is what I get back { "pagination": { "per_page": 50, "pages": 1, "page": 1, "urls": {}, "items": 0 }, "results": [] } and here is the top level object Im trying to map to public class Search { private Pagination pagination; private Result[] results; public Pagination getPagination() { return pagination; } public void setPagination(Pagination pagination) { this.pagination = pagination; } public Result[] getResults() { return results; } public void setResults(Result[] results) { this.results = results; } } Im guessing the problem is something to do with the results array being returned being blank, but cant see what Im doing wrong EDIT: The comment below was correct, although I usually receive { "pagination": { "per_page": 50, "pages": 1, "page": 1, "urls": {}, "items": 0 }, "results": [] } and in these cases there is no problem but sometimes I seem to just get an empty String. Now Im wondering if the problem is how I read from the inputstream if (responseCode == HttpURLConnection.HTTP_OK) InputStreamReader in= new InputStreamReader(uc.getInputStream()); BufferedReader br= new BufferedReader(in); while(br.ready()) { String next = br.readLine(); sb.append(next); } return sb.toString(); } although I dont read until I get the response code, is it possible that the first time I call br.ready() that I call it before it is ready, and therefore I don't read the input EDIT 2: Changing above code to simply String line; while ((line = br.readLine()) != null) { sb.append(line); } resolved the issue.

    Read the article

  • Using SoapExtensionAttributes on client side with async web methods

    - by Maxim Polishchuk
    Hey, I have a simple question. I implemented custom soap extension and registered it into client application configuration file. It works fine. (I would like to implement progress bar functionality like http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa480520.aspx) But I don't like some thing - custom soap extension is invoked by every call of my web service. In order to fix this situation (call WS just by required methods) I implemented custom SoapExtensionAttribute like below: [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Method)] public class CustomSoapExtensionAttribute : SoapExtensionAttribute { public override int Priority { get; set; } public CustomSoapExtensionAttribute() : this (1) { } public CustomSoapExtensionAttribute(int priority) { Priority = priority; } public override Type ExtensionType { get { return typeof(CustomSoapExtension); } } } I added this attribute to required methods of web service proxy classes (and removed registration into client configuration file). My soap extension doesn't invoke when required web methods are calling. Can someone help me to solve this problem or select any other solution? Anotherone, I don't know it is important or not - my required methods are async web methods. Best regards, Maxim

    Read the article

  • "User Friendly" .net compatible Regex/Text matching tools?

    - by Binary Worrier
    Currently in our software we provide a hook where we call a DLL built by our clients to parse information out of documents we are processing (the DLL takes in some text (or a file) and returns a list of name/value pairs). e.g. We're given a Word doc or Text file to Archive. We do various things to the file, and call a DLL that will return "pertinent" information about the file. Among other things we store that "pertinent" data for posterity. What is considered "pertinent" depends on the client and the type of the document, we don't care, we get it and store it. I've been asked to develop a user friendly "something" that will allow a non-programmer user to "configure" how to get this data from a plain text document (<humor>The user story ends with the helpful suggestion/query "We could use regex for this?"</humor>) It's safe to assume that a list of regex's isn't going to cut this, I've written some of these parsers for customers, the regex's to do these would be hedious and some of them can't be done by regex's. Also one of the requirements above is "user friendly" which negates anything that has users seeing or editing regex expressions. As you can guess, I don't have a fortune of time to do this, and am wondering is there anything out there that I can plug in to our app that has a nice front end and does exactly what I need? :) No? Whadda mean no! . . . sigh Ok then failing that, anything out there that "visually" builds regex's and/or other pattern matching expressions, and then allows one to run those expressions against some text? The MS BRE will do what I want, but I need something prettier that looks less like code. Thanks guys,

    Read the article

  • Broken flash movie player! allowFullScreen does not work with anything other than a wmode value of "

    - by lhnz
    I have a flash player on a page which plays videos. I also have modal popups which need to be able to display over the top of the flash player when they are opened, etc... I can't change either of these requirements since they are part of the spec I have been given. Flash seems to ignore z-indexes I set on it with css, and the modal popups will therefore only appear above the video player if I set the video player's wmode to opaque or transparent. However, if I do this then the full screen functionality stops working correctly: when I un-fullscreen the video it stays zoomed in. In short If you open a popup on an item page or another page containing flash the popup should be displayed above this. Flash ignores z-index values. You can stop flash ignoring z-index values by setting wmode to opaque or transparent rather than the default: window. This stops full screen from working correctly. Has anybody else faced this issue before? What can I do to fix it? I was thinking of recreating the video player with wmode=opaque whenever I opened a modal popup and then switching it back to wmode=window when the modal popup is closed, since this would mean that the popup should display above it (as wmode=opaque) and the fullscreen should work correct (as wmode=window). However, this is not ideal at all: as well as being a hack it would also mean that the video would stop playing if somebody clicked a button which opened a popup. Cheers!

    Read the article

  • Stored procedure strange error when called through php

    - by ravi
    I have been coding a registration page(login system) in php and mysql for a website. I'm using two stored procedures for the same. First stored procedure checks wether the email address already exists in database.Second one inserts the user supplied data into mysql database. User has EXECUTE permission on both the procedures.When is execute them individually from php script they work fine. But when i use them together in script second Stored procedure(insert) not working. Stored procedure 1. DELIMITER $$ CREATE PROCEDURE reg_check_email(email VARCHAR(80)) BEGIN SET @email = email; SET @sql = 'SELECT email FROM user_account WHERE user_account.email=?'; PREPARE stmt FROM @sql; EXECUTE stmt USING @email; END$$ DELIMITER; Stored procedure 2 DELIMITER $$ CREATE PROCEDURE reg_insert_into_db(fname VARCHAR(40), lname VARCHAR(40), email VARCHAR(80), pass VARBINARY(32), licenseno VARCHAR(80), mobileno VARCHAR(10)) BEGIN SET @fname = fname, @lname = lname, @email = email, @pass = pass, @licenseno = licenseno, @mobileno = mobileno; SET @sql = 'INSERT INTO user_account(email,pass,last_name,license_no,phone_no) VALUES(?,?,?,?,?)'; PREPARE stmt FROM @sql; EXECUTE stmt USING @email,@pass,@lname,@licenseno,@mobileno; END$$ DELIMITER; When i test these from php sample script insert is not working , but first stored procedure(reg_check_email()) is working. If i comment off first one(reg_check_email), second stored procedure(reg_insert_into_db) is working fine. <?php require("/wamp/mysql.inc.php"); $r = mysqli_query($dbc,"CALL reg_check_email('[email protected]')"); $rows = mysqli_num_rows($r); if($rows == 0) { $r = mysqli_query($dbc,"CALL reg_insert_into_db('a','b','[email protected]','c','d','e')"); } ?> i'm unable to figure out the mistake. Thanks in advance, ravi.

    Read the article

  • Tracking iPhone on Yahoo Web Analytics using ASIHTTPRequest

    - by Mads Mobæk
    I'm trying to track an event in my app using Yahoo Web Analytics. The code I am using looks like ASIHTTPRequest *yahooTrack = [ASIHTTPRequest requestWithURL: [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://s.analytics.yahoo.com/p.pl?a=xxxxxxxxxxxxx&js=no&b=yyyyyyyyyyyy&cf6=zzzzzzzzzzz"]]; yahooTrack.didFinishSelector = @selector(statisticsFinished:); yahooTrack.delegate = self; [yahooTrack startAsynchronous]; Then the statisticsFinished looks like: NSLog(@"Cookies: %@", request.requestCookies); NSLog(@"Redircount: %d", [request redirectCount]); NSLog(@"Responsecode %d %@\nMsg: %@", request.responseStatusCode, request.responseStatusMessage, [request responseString]); And all the information I get back looks correct. Cookies are set, redirectcount is 1 the first time (as it redirects to s.analytics.yahoo.com/itr.pl?.... a normal browser does). Then the redirectcount is 0 for subsequent request until the app is restarted and session cleared. The responseString returns GIF89a. Even if the data looks correct, Yahoo still won't track. As soon as I call the tracking url directly in my browser it works as expected. I realize Flurry is a better option, but I'm forced to use Yahoo in this case. Also, using a UIWebView probably would work, but I'm against putting in a webview just for tracking purposes. Is there any difference in how ASIHTTPRequest and Safari would handle a call to a simple URL as this? Or do you see anything else that could explain why the tracking isn't working?

    Read the article

  • GWT forced height HTMLPanel

    - by Nils
    Hello, I'm developing a GWT project, and I encountered a problematic cross-browsering problem. When using firefox, there are problems with the display of all the pages. I found the reason why : In UIBinder, each of my pages are wrapped by a "g:HTMLPanel" : at start and at the end of the xml file, to wrap the content of all the pages When doing this, the generated code of the panel goes like this : div style="width: 100%; height: 100%; .... The problem is that "height : 100%". If I remove it with firebug, the display is perfect. So my goal is to programatically remove that generated 100% height.. But no way to do it ! I tried everything : setHeight, setSize, working on the Element itself with getElement().methods()... I tried to do things like style.clear(), everything that could have a chance to work.. But in the generated code that "height: 100%" will ALWAYS be there. If I set it's height to "50%" or "50px" it has no effect at all. I even tried to give it an ID, then with pure javascript to change it's style, but no solution either.. Note : I'm sure that I'm working on the right element : adding a styleName, for example, works well. Any idea ? Your help would be really appreciated, I have no clue of how to remove this bit of generated code, and I've been looking for hours already :(:(:(:( Best regards, Nils

    Read the article

  • jQuery .animate() not animating backgroundPosition in IE

    - by mikemike
    I'm trying to animate a background image to move down a set amount of pixels but remain in the center of the page. Upon another click of an element I need it to move back to the top, but still remain in the center. Below is the current code: $(document).ready(function() { $('#email_campaigns').click(function(){ var width = $(window).width(); width = (width / 2) - 700; if($('#email_campaigns_box').css('display') == 'none'){ //$('body').css('background-position','center 119px'); $('body').animate({ backgroundPosition: (width + "px 119px") }, {duration:500}); } else { //$('body').css('background-position','center top'); $('body').animate({ backgroundPosition: (width + "px 0px") }, {duration:500}); } $('#email_campaigns_box').slideToggle("slow"); $('#client_login_box').slideUp("slow"); }); $('#client_login').click(function(){ var width = $(window).width(); width = (width / 2) - 700; alert(width); if($('#client_login_box').css('display') == 'none'){ //$('body').css('background-position','center 119px'); $('body').animate({ backgroundPosition: (width + "px 119px") }, {duration:500}); } else { //$('body').css('background-position','center top'); $('body').animate({ backgroundPosition: (width + "px 0px") }, {duration:500}); } $('#client_login_box').slideToggle("slow"); $('#email_campaigns_box').slideUp("slow"); }); }); I cannot pass 'center', as it will onyl accept numeric values. My goal is to calulate the center of the page in pixels (width = (width / 2) - 700;), and then animate to this rough position (it's normally out by a few pixels due to scrollbars, and then force to the center using a .css() call. The problem is that IE does not want to play ball. IE will not animate at all. Firefox/Safari/Chrome all work as expected. Below is a live example: http://recklessnewmedia.com/new/# (click 'email campaigns' at the top). Thanks

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 500 501 502 503 504 505 506 507 508 509 510 511  | Next Page >