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  • Silently catch windows error popups when calling System.load() in java

    - by Marcelo Morales
    I have a Java Swing application, which needs to load some native libraries in windows. The problem is that the client could have different versions of those libraries. In one recent version, either the names changed or the order on which the libraries must be loaded changed. To keep up, we iterated over all possible library names but some fail to load (due to it's nonexistence or because another must be loaded previously). This idea works on older Windows but on latter ones it shows a error popup. I saw on question 4058303 (Silently catch windows error popups when calling LoadLibrary) that I need to call SetErrorMode but I am not sure how to call SetErrorMode from jna. I tried to follow the idea from question 11038595 but I am not sure how to proceed. public interface CKernel32 extends Kernel32 { CKernel32 INSTANCE = (CKernel32) Native.loadLibrary("kernel32", CKernel32.class); // TODO: HELP: HOW define the SetErrorMode function } How do I define (from the SetErrorMode documentation): UINT WINAPI SetErrorMode( _In_ UINT uMode ); in the line marked as TODO: HELP:? Thanks in advance

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  • GWT CssResource Customization

    - by Eric Landry
    I'm writing a GWT widget using UIBinder and MVP. The widget's default styles are defined in TheWidgetView.ui.xml: <ui:style type="com.widgetlib.spinner.display.TheWidgetView.MyStyle"> .textbox { border: 1px solid #red; } .important { font-weight: bold; } </ui:style> The widget's CssResource interface is defined in TheWidgetView.java: public class TheWidgetView extends HorizontalPanel implements TheWidgetPresenter.Display { // ... some code @UiField MyStyle style; public interface MyStyle extends CssResource { String textbox(); String important(); } // ... more code } I'd like the consumer of this widget to be able to customize part of the widget's styles and to have this in their MyExample.ui.xml: <ui:style type="com.consumer.MyExample.MyStyle"> .textbox { border: 2px solid #black; } </ui:style> And this be their MyExample.java: public class MyExample extends Composite { // ... some code @UiField MyStyle style; interface MyStyle extends TheWidgetView.MyStyle{ String textbox(); } // ... more code } Is there a way that my widget can have default styles, but that the consumer of the widget can override one of them? When an interface extends TheWidgetView.MyStyle, the of the widget consumer needs to define all the styles listed in that parent interface. I've seen some widget libraries have the widget's constructor take in a ClientBundle as parameter, which I suppose could apply to CssResource. Although, I'm not sure how I'd pass in this style object in a constructor invoked by UIBinder. Thanks much in advance!

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  • Modifying UINavigation Bar Buttons in SubViews

    - by james
    I'm having trouble trying to modify the navigation bar in the subview portion of my application. self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = [[[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithBarButtonSystemItem:UIBarButtonSystemItemDone target:self action:@selector(add_Clicked:)] autorelease]; I have no issues modifying the navigation bar in any of my UIViewControllers classes. The simplified application class outline is as such: AppDelegate - UIViewControllerA (has a left and a right navigationBarButton) - Subview is displayed when a SegmentControl is selected. (Within the subview, I'm trying to modify the right NavigationBarButton that is displayed) [self.view addSubview:newControllerName.view]; Methods I have attempted: Trying to set self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem within my subview to a new UIBarButtonItem. Creating a pointer to UIViewControllerA within my AppDelegate. The UIViewControllerA contains a function setNavButton I wrote to set the rightBarButtonItem to a button. Then I am referencing the AppDelegate's reference to UIViewControllerA and attempting to call setNavButton. I included a NSLog call to see if that function is being called and it is executing but the NavigationBar isn't being modified. I'm trying to avoid having to push a UIViewController after the SegmentControl is clicked in UIViewControllerA so that I can simulate the SegmentControl as tabs. I'm not getting any errors during compile or run time. Anyone have any ideas?

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  • Terminal / Panel PC - Single Server Solution: Client/Server or RDP?

    - by StillLearning
    Hi, Our current setup involves a touch screen panel pc with embedded windows, that is connected via network to a server / dedicated pc, within the same physical location. Each of our 'units' has this hardware setup. For a quick resolution we deploy our application to the dedicated pc, and have the panel pc remote desktop to an account which then activates the application. This works but seems a little clunky / rough approach. We did this because the panel pc is rather limited. Now that we have more time, I was wondering if I should separate the application into a gui / application. Deploy the gui logic on the panel pc, and the business/database logic on the dedicated pc. The app is in Java so I was wondering what technology would be best? I was thinking of using RMI, but its not really a client/server app, as there is only one client. Should I stick with RMI, or use Sockets or something else? It will be easy to implement as the application is old, and manually wraps and unwraps data which passes through one class / method call to remote services. All I would have to do is 'RMI' this one method call, and the app will do its own stuff. Cheers.

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  • Designing bayesian networks

    - by devoured elysium
    I have a basic question about Bayesian networks. Let's assume we have an engine, that with 1/3 probability can stop working. I'll call this variable ENGINE. If it stops working, then your car doesn't work. If the engine is working, then your car will work 99% of the time. I'll call this one CAR. Now, if your car is old(OLD), instead of not working 1/3 of the time, your engine will stop working 1/2 of the time. I'm being asked to first design the network and then assign all the conditional probabilities associated with the table. I'd say the diagram of this network would be something like OLD -> ENGINE -> CAR Now, for the conditional probabilities tables I did the following: OLD |ENGINE ------------ True | 0.50 False | 0.33 and ENGINE|CAR ------------ True | 0.99 False | 0.00 Now, I am having trouble about how to define the probabilities of OLD. In my point of view, old is not something that has a CAUSE relationship with ENGINE, I'd say it is more a characteristic of it. Maybe there is a different way to express this in the diagram? If the diagram is indeed correct, how would I go to make the tables? Thanks

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  • How do you configure jax-ws to work with Spring using jax-ws commons?

    - by LES2
    In web.xml I have the following: <servlet> <description>JAX-WS endpoint - EARM</description> <display-name>jaxws-servlet</display-name> <servlet-name>jaxws-servlet</servlet-name> <servlet-class>com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.servlet.WSSpringServlet</servlet-class> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>jaxws-servlet</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/webServices/*</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> In my application context I have the following definitions: <bean id="helloService" class="com.foo.HelloServiceImpl"> <property name="regularService" ref="regularService" /> </bean> <wss:binding url="/webServices/helloService" service="#helloService" /> I get a NullPointerException when trying to access the WSDL: java.lang.NullPointerException at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.HttpAdapter.<init>(HttpAdapter.java:145) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.servlet.ServletAdapter.<init>(ServletAdapter.java:76) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.servlet.ServletAdapterList.createHttpAdapter(ServletAdapterList.java:5 0) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.servlet.ServletAdapterList.createHttpAdapter(ServletAdapterList.java:4 7) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.HttpAdapterList.createAdapter(HttpAdapterList.java:73) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.servlet.SpringBinding.create(SpringBinding.java:24) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.servlet.WSSpringServlet.init(WSSpringServlet.java:46) Strange ... appears to be a configuration error but the darn thing just dies with a NullPointerException!!!!!!!! No logging is provided. Deployed in Resin.

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  • PostSharp when using DataContractSerializer?

    - by Dan Bryant
    I have an Aspect that implements INotifyPropertyChanged on a class. The aspect includes the following: [OnLocationSetValueAdvice, MethodPointcut("SelectProperties")] public void OnPropertySet(LocationInterceptionArgs args) { var currentValue = args.GetCurrentValue(); bool alreadyEqual = (currentValue == args.Value); // Call the setter args.ProceedSetValue(); // Invoke method OnPropertyChanged (ours, the base one, or the overridden one). if (!alreadyEqual) OnPropertyChangedMethod.Invoke(args.Location.Name); } This works fine when I instantiate the class normally, but I run into problems when I deserialize the class using a DataContractSerializer. This bypasses the constructor, which I'm guessing interferes with the way that PostSharp sets itself up. This ends up causing a NullReferenceException in an intercepted property setter, but before it has called the custom OnPropertySet, so I'm guessing it interferes with setting up the LocationInterceptionArgs. Has anyone else encountered this problem? Is there a way I can work around it? I did some more research and discovered I can fix the issue by doing this: [OnDeserializing] private void OnDeserializing(StreamingContext context) { AspectUtilities.InitializeCurrentAspects(); } I thought, okay, that's not too bad, so I tried to do this in my Aspect: private IEnumerable<MethodInfo> SelectDeserializing(Type type) { return type.GetMethods(BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.NonPublic | BindingFlags.Public).Where( t => t.IsDefined(typeof (OnDeserializingAttribute), false)); } [OnMethodEntryAdvice, MethodPointcut("SelectDeserializing")] public void OnMethodEntry(MethodExecutionArgs args) { AspectUtilities.InitializeCurrentAspects(); } Unfortunately, even though it intercepts the method properly, it doesn't work. I'm thinking the call to InitializeCurrentAspects isn't getting transformed properly, since it's now inside the Aspect rather than directly inside the aspect-enhanced class. Is there a way I can cleanly automate this so that I don't have to worry about calling this on every class that I want to have the Aspect?

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  • Re-Convert timestamp DATE back to original format (when editing) PHP MySQL

    - by Jess
    Ok so I have managed to get the format of the date presented in HTML (upon display) to how I want (dd/mm/yyy)...However, the user also can change the date via a form. So this is how it's setup as present. Firstly, the conversion from YYYY-MM-DD to DD/MM/YYYY and then display in HTML: $timestamp = strtotime($duedate); echo date('d/m/Y', $timestamp); Now when the user selects to update the due date, the value already stored value is drawn up and presented in my text field (using exactly the same code as above).. All good so far. But when my user runs the update script (clicks submit), the new due date is not being stored, and in my DB its seen as '0000-00-00'. I know I need to convert it back to the correct format that MySQL wants to have it in, in order for it to be saved, but I'm not sure on how to do this. This is what I have so far in my update script (for the due date): $duedate = $_POST['duedate']; $timestamp = strtotime($duedate); date('Y/m/d', $timestamp); $query = "UPDATE films SET filmname= '".$filmname."', duedate= '".$duedate; Can somebody please point me in the right direction to have the new date, when processed, converted back to the accepted format by MySQL. I appreciate any help given! Thanks.

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  • Pydev and Django: Shell not finding certain modules?

    - by Rosarch
    I am developing a Django project with PyDev in Eclipse. For a while, PyDev's Django Shell worked great. Now, it doesn't: >>> import sys; print('%s %s' % (sys.executable or sys.platform, sys.version)) C:\Python26\python.exe 2.6.4 (r264:75708, Oct 26 2009, 08:23:19) [MSC v.1500 32 bit (Intel)] >>> >>> from django.core import management;import mysite.settings as settings;management.setup_environ(settings) Traceback (most recent call last): File "<console>", line 1, in <module> ImportError: No module named mysite.settings >>> The dev server runs just fine. What could I be doing wrong? The models module is also conspicuously absent: >>> import mysite.myapp.models Traceback (most recent call last): File "<console>", line 1, in <module> ImportError: No module named mysite.myapp.models On the normal command line, outside of PyDev, the shell works fine. Why could this be happening?

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  • Basic Tomcat Servlet error.

    - by ajay
    package mypackage; import java.io.*; import javax.servlet.http.*; import javax.servlet.*; public class Hello extends HttpServlet { public void doGet (HttpServletRequest req, HttpServletResponse res) throws ServletException, IOException { PrintWriter out = res.getWriter(); out.println("Hello, world!"); out.close(); } } web.xml file is as follows: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?> <web-app xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/j2ee" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/j2ee http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/j2ee/web-app_2_4.xsd" version="2.4"> <display-name>Hello, World Application</display-name> <description> This is a simple web application with a source code organization based on the recommendations of the Application Developer's Guide. </description> <servlet> <servlet-name>HelloServlet</servlet-name> <servlet-class>mypackage.Hello</servlet-class> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>HelloServlet</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/hello</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> </web-app> I am then doing ant all , ant reload and also /etc/init.d/tomcat restart But I get this error on browser: HTTP Status 404 - /hello/ type Status report message /hello/ description The requested resource (/hello/) is not available. Apache Tomcat/6.0.26 What could be wrong?

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  • Why not lump all service classes into a Factory method (instead of injecting interfaces)?

    - by Andrew
    We are building an ASP.NET project, and encapsulating all of our business logic in service classes. Some is in the domain objects, but generally those are rather anemic (due to the ORM we are using, that won't change). To better enable unit testing, we define interfaces for each service and utilize D.I.. E.g. here are a couple of the interfaces: IEmployeeService IDepartmentService IOrderService ... All of the methods in these services are basically groups of tasks, and the classes contain no private member variables (other than references to the dependent services). Before we worried about Unit Testing, we'd just declare all these classes as static and have them call each other directly. Now we'll set up the class like this if the service depends on other services: public EmployeeService : IEmployeeService { private readonly IOrderService _orderSvc; private readonly IDepartmentService _deptSvc; private readonly IEmployeeRepository _empRep; public EmployeeService(IOrderService orderSvc , IDepartmentService deptSvc , IEmployeeRepository empRep) { _orderSvc = orderSvc; _deptSvc = deptSvc; _empRep = empRep; } //methods down here } This really isn't usually a problem, but I wonder why not set up a factory class that we pass around instead? i.e. public ServiceFactory { virtual IEmployeeService GetEmployeeService(); virtual IDepartmentService GetDepartmentService(); virtual IOrderService GetOrderService(); } Then instead of calling: _orderSvc.CalcOrderTotal(orderId) we'd call _svcFactory.GetOrderService.CalcOrderTotal(orderid) What's the downfall of this method? It's still testable, it still allows us to use D.I. (and handle external dependencies like database contexts and e-mail senders via D.I. within and outside the factory), and it eliminates a lot of D.I. setup and consolidates dependencies more. Thanks for your thoughts!

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  • ASP.NET MVC.NET JQueryUI datepicker inside a div loaded/updated with ajax.actionlink

    - by ArjanW
    Im trying to incorporate jqueryUI's datepicker inside a partialview like this: <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("/EditData", new AjaxOptions { HttpMethod = "POST", UpdateTargetId = "div1" })) {%> Date: <%= Html.TextBox("date", String.Format("{0:g}", Model.date), new { id = "datePicker"})%> <% } %> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $("#datePicker").datepicker(); }); </script> when i directly call the url to this partial view, so it renders only this view the datepicker works perfectly. (for the purpose of testing this i added the needed jquerry and jquerryui script and css references directly to the partial view) But if i use a Ajax.Actionlink to load this partial view inside a div (called div2, submitting the above form should update div1) like this: <div id="div1"> <%= Ajax.ActionLink("Edit", "/EditData", new { id = Model.id }, new AjaxOptions { HttpMethod = "GET", UpdateTargetId = "div2" } )%> </div> <div2>placeholder for the form</div> the datepicker wont apear anymore. My best guess is the javascript included in the loaded html doesnt get executed, ($(document).ready(function() { $("#datepicker").datepicker(); }); doesnt work either if that's the case how and where should i call the $("datepicker").datepicker(); ? (putting it in the ajaxoptions of the ajax.actionlink as oncomplete = "$(function() { $('#datepicker').datepicker();});" still doesnt work. if thats not the case, then where's my problem?

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  • Jquery getJSON to external PHP page

    - by Pmarcoen
    I've been trying to make an ajax request to an external server. I've learned so far that I need to use getJSON to do this because of security reasons ? Now, I can't seem to make a simple call to an external page. I've tried to simplify it down as much as I can but it's still not working. I have 2 files, test.html & test.php my test.html makes a call like this, to localhost for testing : $.getJSON("http://localhost/OutVoice/services/test.php", function(json){ alert("JSON Data: " + json); }); and I want my test.php to return a simple 'test' : $results = "test"; echo json_encode($results); I'm probably making some incredible rookie mistake but I can't seem to figure it out. Also, if this works, how can I send data to my test.php page, like you would do like test.php?id=15 ? The test.html page is calling the test.php page on localhost, same directory I don't get any errors, just no alert ..

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  • Stored procedure strange error when called through php

    - by ravi
    I have been coding a registration page(login system) in php and mysql for a website. I'm using two stored procedures for the same. First stored procedure checks wether the email address already exists in database.Second one inserts the user supplied data into mysql database. User has EXECUTE permission on both the procedures.When is execute them individually from php script they work fine. But when i use them together in script second Stored procedure(insert) not working. Stored procedure 1. DELIMITER $$ CREATE PROCEDURE reg_check_email(email VARCHAR(80)) BEGIN SET @email = email; SET @sql = 'SELECT email FROM user_account WHERE user_account.email=?'; PREPARE stmt FROM @sql; EXECUTE stmt USING @email; END$$ DELIMITER; Stored procedure 2 DELIMITER $$ CREATE PROCEDURE reg_insert_into_db(fname VARCHAR(40), lname VARCHAR(40), email VARCHAR(80), pass VARBINARY(32), licenseno VARCHAR(80), mobileno VARCHAR(10)) BEGIN SET @fname = fname, @lname = lname, @email = email, @pass = pass, @licenseno = licenseno, @mobileno = mobileno; SET @sql = 'INSERT INTO user_account(email,pass,last_name,license_no,phone_no) VALUES(?,?,?,?,?)'; PREPARE stmt FROM @sql; EXECUTE stmt USING @email,@pass,@lname,@licenseno,@mobileno; END$$ DELIMITER; When i test these from php sample script insert is not working , but first stored procedure(reg_check_email()) is working. If i comment off first one(reg_check_email), second stored procedure(reg_insert_into_db) is working fine. <?php require("/wamp/mysql.inc.php"); $r = mysqli_query($dbc,"CALL reg_check_email('[email protected]')"); $rows = mysqli_num_rows($r); if($rows == 0) { $r = mysqli_query($dbc,"CALL reg_insert_into_db('a','b','[email protected]','c','d','e')"); } ?> i'm unable to figure out the mistake. Thanks in advance, ravi.

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  • XSL check param length

    - by AdRock
    I need to check if a param has got a value in it and if it has then do this line otherwise do this line. I've got it working whereas I don't get errors but it's not taking the right branch Here is the template which holds the html in the XSL stylesheet <xsl:call-template name="volunteer_role"> <xsl:with-param name="volrole" select="volunteer/roles" /> </xsl:call-template> and here is the template where there is a choice whether to take this brancg or that brach depending if the param is empty <xsl:template name="volunteer_role"> <xsl:param name="volrole" select="'Not Available'" /> <div class="small bold">ROLES:</div> <div class="large"> <xsl:choose> <xsl:when test="string-length($volrole)!=0"> <xsl:value-of select="$volrole" /> </xsl:when> <xsl:otherwise> <xsl:text> </xsl:text> </xsl:otherwise> </xsl:choose> </div> </xsl:template>

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  • Why is iPdb not displaying STOUT after my input?

    - by BryanWheelock
    I can't figure out why ipdb is not displaying stout properly. I'm trying to debug why a test is failing and so I attempt to use ipdb debugger. For some reason my Input seems to be accepted, but the STOUT is not displayed until I (c)ontinue. Is this something broken in ipdb? It makes it very difficult to debug a program. Below is an example ipdb session, notice how I attempt to display the values of the attributes with: user.is_authenticated() user_profile.reputation user.is_superuser The results are not displayed until 'begin captured stdout ' In [13]: !python manage.py test Creating test database... < SNIP remove loading tables nosetests ...E.. /Users/Bryan/work/APP/forum/auth.py(93)can_retag_questions() 92 import ipdb; ipdb.set_trace() ---> 93 return user.is_authenticated() and ( 94 RETAG_OTHER_QUESTIONS <= user_profile.reputation < EDIT_OTHER_POSTS or user.is_authenticated() user_profile.reputation user.is_superuser c F /Users/Bryan/work/APP/forum/auth.py(93)can_retag_questions() 92 import ipdb; ipdb.set_trace() ---> 93 return user.is_authenticated() and ( 94 RETAG_OTHER_QUESTIONS <= user_profile.reputation < EDIT_OTHER_POSTS or c .....EE...... FAIL: test_can_retag_questions (APP.forum.tests.test_views.AuthorizationFunctionsTestCase) Traceback (most recent call last): File "/Users/Bryan/work/APP/../APP/forum/tests/test_views.py", line 71, in test_can_retag_questions self.assertTrue(auth.can_retag_questions(user)) AssertionError: -------------------- begin captured stdout << --------------------- ipdb True ipdb 4001 ipdb False ipdb --------------------- end captured stdout << ---------------------- Ran 20 tests in 78.032s FAILED (errors=3, failures=1) Destroying test database... In [14]: Here is the actual test I'm trying to run: def can_retag_questions(user): """Determines if a User can retag Questions.""" user_profile = user.get_profile() import ipdb; ipdb.set_trace() return user.is_authenticated() and ( RETAG_OTHER_QUESTIONS <= user_profile.reputation < EDIT_OTHER_POSTS or user.is_superuser) I've also tried to use pdb, but that doesn't display anything. I see my test progress .... , and then nothing and not responsive to keyboard input. Is this a problem with readline?

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  • "Decompile" Javascript function? *ADVANCED*

    - by caesar2k
    [1] Ok, I don't even know how to call this, to be honest. So let me get some semi-pseudo code, to show what I'm trying to do. I'm using jquery to get an already existing script declared inside the page, inside a createDocument() element, from an AJAX call. GM_xmlhttprequest({ ... load:function(r){ var doc = document_from_string(r.responseText); script_content = $('body script:regex(html, local_xw_sig)', doc).html(); var scriptEl = document.createElement('script'); scriptEl.type = 'text/javascript'; scriptEl.innerHTML = script_content; // good till here (function(sc){ eval(sc.innerHTML); // not exactly like this, but you get the idea, errors alert('wont get here ' + local_xw_sig); // local_xw_sig is a global "var" inside the source })(scriptEl); } }); so far so good, the script indeed contains the source from the entire script block. Now, inside this "script_content", there are auto executing functions, like $(document).ready(function(){...}) that, everything I "eval" the innerHTML, it executes this code, halting my encapsulated script. like variables that doesn't exist, etc removing certain parts of the script using regex isn't really an option... what I really wanted is to "walk" inside the function. like do a (completely fictional): script = eval("function(){" + script_content + "};"); alert(script['local_xw_sig']); // a03ucc34095cw3495 is there any way to 'disassemble' the function, and be able to reach the "var"s inside of it? like this function: function hello(){ var message = "hello"; } alert(hello.message); // message = var inside the function is it possible at all? or I will have to hack my way using regex? ;P [2] also, is there any way I can access javascript inside a document created with "createDocument"?

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  • Restrict access to connection pool in Weblogic?

    - by Andrew White
    In short, how can I restrict access to connection pool X based on application name or JAR name? A simple use case might help... A business web-app (call it WEB_APP_A) uses pool Y to do basic look-up SQL. Some users of this web-app have access to also update some sensitive data in the database. This code is provided by a JAR file (call it HR_JAR) that can be dropped in where needed. This JAR uses pool X for all of it's connections. We don't want developers of WEB_APP_A using pool X. We only want HR_JAR using pool X. This is to keep devs of WEB_APP_A from accidentally or intentionally abusing the access pool X provides. Some considerations: This is legacy code so HR_JAR is here to stay We are running on Weblogic 9.2 We can not keep passwords in any from in the source code We have researched weblogic user level authn/authz for JDBC resources but then this begs the question; how do we secure the user creds we use to become a user per app/jar? Ideas? Thoughts? I can elaborate more on what I have tried, but I wanted fresh ideas.

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  • php resize image

    - by haohan
    I have a class to read and output the image content, if $width is set, it will resize the image, and then output it. If I call the function like this $image-readImage('123.jpg'); , it can output the image file correctly, but when I call $image-readImage('123.jpg'); , it just display a black image with resized width & height. And I tried to replace the code from @imagejpeg($thumb, null, 100); to @imagejpeg($image, null, 100); will works~ - protected function readImage($fileName, $width = 0) { if ($width <= 0) { return @file_get_contents($this-destination . '/' . $fileName); } else { $imageSize = @getimagesize($this-destination . '/' . $fileName); $actualWidth = $imageSize[0]; $actualHeigth = $imageSize[1]; if ($actualWidth <= $width) { return @file_get_contents($this-destination . '/' . $fileName); } $height = (100 / ($actualWidth / $width)) * .01; $height = @round($actualHeigth * $height); $image = @imagecreatefromjpeg($this-destination . '/' . $fileName); $thumb = @imagecreatetruecolor($width, $height); @imagecopyresampled($thumb, $image, 0, 0, 0, 0, $width, $height, $actualWidth, $actualHeight); ob_start(); @imagejpeg($thumb, null, 100); $bits = ob_get_contents(); ob_end_clean(); return $bits; } } Any experts know what happened and help me to solve it ? Thanks.

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  • How set accessory type when tabel view is enbled to editing?

    - by Madan Mohan
    Hi Guys, I am using the UITableView properties to edit it. theTableView.editing = YES; theTableView.allowsSelectionDuringEditing = YES; It is working fine, the row is selected and I am getting into the next controller but I need to display the the accessoryType in the row. I am using below line for that but even though it is not working. Is there any property or any thing missing to display the indiactor. cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryDisclosureIndicator; I am using the below code for table view. theTableView = [[UITableView alloc] initWithFrame:tableRect style:UITableViewStyleGrouped]; theTableView.editing = YES; theTableView.allowsSelectionDuringEditing = YES; theTableView.delegate = self; theTableView.dataSource = self; theTableView.scrollEnabled=YES; theTableView.separatorColor = [UIColor lightGrayColor]; theTableView.autoresizingMask=YES; theTableView.allowsSelection=YES; theTableView.sectionHeaderHeight=5; theTableView.sectionFooterHeight=5; [myView addSubview:theTableView]; Please help me. THank You, Madan Mohan

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  • Grouped UITableView Footer Sometimes Hidden On Quick Scroll

    - by jdandrea
    OK, this one is a puzzler. There is one similar post but it's not similar enough to count, so I'm posting this one. :) I've got a grouped UITableView with a header and footer. The footer includes two UIButton views, side-by-side. Nothing major. Now … there is a toggle button in a UIToolbar at the bottom for more/less info in this table view. So I build my index paths to delete/insert with fade row animation, all the usual ingredients, sandwiched between beginUpdates and endUpdates calls on the UITableView … and this works fine! In also happens that my footer can sometimes be pushed off past the bottom of the display. Here's where it gets weird. If I drag my finger up the display, scrolling the view upward, I should see that footer eventually, right? Well … most of the time I do. BUT, if I flick my finger up, for a faster scroll, the footer is missing. Even if you try to tap in that area - no response. However, if I scroll back down again, just to hide that footer (or rather hide the area where the footer would normally be), and then scroll back up, it's there once again! This only happens when inserting rows. If I delete rows, the footer stays put … unless of course it was already hidden and I didn't perform the aforementioned incantation to get it back. :) I am trying to trace through this, but to no avail. I suppose tracing through scroll operations is a bit of a crazy proposition! Perhaps some creative logging … suggestions, anyone? Or is this a known issue in 3.1 where row insert/deletes are concerned? (I don't recall seeing it until 3.1.)

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  • wordpress conditional statements

    - by codedude
    I am using this code in wordpress to display different content when different pages are loaded. I have 5 pages on the site called Home, Bio, Work, Contact and Notes. The Notes page is being used as a blog. Here is the code I am using. <?php if (is_page('contact')) { ?> get in touch with me <?php } elseif (is_single()) { ?> a note from me <?php } elseif (is_page('notes')) { ?> the notes of me <?php } else { ?> the <?php the_title(); ?> of me <?php } ?> So if it the contact page, it displays "get in touch with me" and if it is a single blog post page it displays "a note from me". However this is where I have a problem. The next statement should display "the notes of me" when it is on the Notes page. However, this does not happen. Instead it shows the default content which is in the "else" statement. any idea on why this is happening?

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  • CssClass and default images in ServerContol

    - by Jeff Dege
    I'm writing a ServerControl in ASP.NET 3.5, and I'm exposing CssClass, so the user can manipulate the visual appearance of the control. My problem is that I want to establish reasonable defaults, so that the user doesn't have to configure CSS unless he wants to change the defaults. My specific problem is that my control is emitting html divs, that need to display background images. I want the user to be able to specify a different image in CSS, but I want to display a default background image, and I can't make that work. The entire server control is emitted as a div, with a class name set to the value the user provided in CssClass. The div that needs the background image is enclosed within this outer div, with a class name of its own. I am currently setting the background image in CSS on the page that contains the control: <style type="text/css"> .cssClass .innerDiv { background-image: url("http://...."); } </style> With this the proper image is drawn. But if it's not there, no image is drawn. What I want is for the ServerControl to emit some CSS that will define these image urls, that would be over-ridden by any css that was added by the user, and for that default CSS to include URLs to images embedded in the ServerControl's assembly. And I'm not sure of how to do either. Nor, for that matter, am I sure this is the best approach. Any ideas?

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  • jQuery RJS inserting string vs dom.

    - by Dmitriy Likhten
    So I am trying to use jQuery to insert data from an ajax call. I actually use the jquery.form plugin, and have the ajax form submitted with a dataType: 'script'. The response is a jquery expression which contains a <%= javascript_escape(render ...) %> erb tag (similar to what the railscasts episode 136 instructs to do). However the end result is that the full text of the render is inserted as if that was the content to be inserted into the page, as text, not as dom elements. Could the fact that the render had some newlines at the beginning be the cause? Dom text: "\n \n &lt;li>....&lt;/li>" I also tried having jQuery just read the response as a script and execute it, and used the prototype-based rjs stuff, same effect, the text is inserted into the dom. Are there any reasons why such a behavior would be experienced? A bit of clarification: My response.js.erb is jQuery("#content").append("<%= escape_javascript(render(:partial => "widgets")) %>"); jQuery("#information").text("Finally, something happened!"); The full text inside the append() call is inserted as text into #content.

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  • Visual C++ Assembly link library troubles

    - by Sanarothe
    Hi. I'm having a problem having my projects built in VC++ Express 2008... I'm using a library, irvine32.inc/lib. INCLUDE Irvine32.inc works for me at school (On already configured VS environments) by default, but at home (Windows 7 x64) I'm having a boatload of issues. My original post here was that a file that irvine32.inc referenced, in the same folder, 'could not be opened.' Added irvine folder to the include path for specific project, progress. Then I was getting an error with mt.exe, but a suggestion on the MSDN suggested turn off antivirus, and now project does build but when I run a program that does NOT reference anything in irvine32, it tells me repeatedly that my project has triggered a breakpoint, and allows me to continue or break. Continue just pops the same window, break loads another popup telling me that "No symbols are loaded for any call stack frame. Source code cannot be displayed." This popup lets me view the disassembly. I tested it with and without working statements, it just throws the same breakpoint on the first line of code. Now, if I run the program when it DOES require something from the include file, in this case, DumpRegs: INCLUDE Irvine32.inc .data .code main PROC mov ebx,1000h mov eax,1000h add eax,ebx call DumpRegs main ENDP END main This gives me 1main.obj : error LNK2019: unresolved external symbol _DumpRegs@0 referenced in function _main@0 1C:\Users\Cameron\csis165\Lab8_CCarroll\Debug\Lab8_CCarroll.exe : fatal error LNK1120: 1 unresolved externals This does NOT happen when I build a project from the book author's examples, which has the same include statement. I'm baffled. :(

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