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  • Error with Property Validation in Form Submission in ASP.NET MVC

    - by Maxim Z.
    I have a simple form on an ASP.NET MVC site that I'm building. This form is submitted, and then I validate that the form fields aren't null, empty, or improperly formatted. However, when I use ModelState.AddModelError() to indicate validation errors from my controller code, I get an error when my view is re-rendered. In Visual Studio, I get that the following line is highlighted as being the location of the error: <%=Html.TextBox("Email")%> The error is the following: NullReferenceException was unhandled by user code - object reference not set to an instance of an object. My complete code for that textbox is the following: <p> <label for="Email">Your Email:</label> <%=Html.TextBox("Email")%> <%=Html.ValidationMessage("Email", "*") %> </p> Here's how I'm doing that validation in my controller: try { System.Net.Mail.MailAddress address = new System.Net.Mail.MailAddress(email); } catch { ModelState.AddModelError("Email", "Should not be empty or invalid"); } return View(); Note: this applies to all of my fields, not just my Email field, as long as they are invalid.

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  • What is the best anti-crack scheme for your trial or subscription software?

    - by gmatt
    Writing code takes time and effort and just like any other human being we need to live by making an income (save for the few that are actually self sustainable.) Here are 3 general schemes to make a living: Independent developers can offer a trial then purchase scheme. An alternative is an open source base application with pay extensions. A last (probably least popular with customers) scheme is to enforce some kind of subscription. Then the price of the software pales in comparison to the long term subscription fees. So, my question would be a hypothetical one. Suppose that you invest thousands of hours into developing an application. Now suppose you can choose any one of the three options to make a living off this application--or any other option you want--and suppose you have a very real fear of loosing 80% of your revenue to a cracked version if one can be made. To be clear this application does not require the internet to perform all its useful functions, that is, your application is a prime candidate to be a cracked release on some website. Which option would you feel most comfortable with defending yourself against this possible situation and briefly describe why this option would be the best.

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  • Django Testing: Faking User Creation

    - by Ygam
    I want to better write this test: def test_profile_created(self): self.client.post(reverse('registration_register'), data={ 'username':'ygam', 'email':'[email protected]', 'password1':'ygam', 'password2':'ygam' }) """ Test if a profile is created on save """ user = User.objects.get(username='ygam') self.assertTrue(UserProfile.objects.filter(user=user).exists()) and I just came upon this code on django-registration tests that does not actually "create" the user: def test_registration_signal(self): def receiver(sender, **kwargs): self.failUnless('user' in kwargs) self.assertEqual(kwargs['user'].username, 'bob') self.failUnless('request' in kwargs) self.failUnless(isinstance(kwargs['request'], WSGIRequest)) received_signals.append(kwargs.get('signal')) received_signals = [] signals.user_registered.connect(receiver, sender=self.backend.__class__) self.backend.register(_mock_request(), username='bob', email='[email protected]', password1='secret') self.assertEqual(len(received_signals), 1) self.assertEqual(received_signals, [signals.user_registered]) However he used a custom function for this "_mock_request": class _MockRequestClient(Client): def request(self, **request): environ = { 'HTTP_COOKIE': self.cookies, 'PATH_INFO': '/', 'QUERY_STRING': '', 'REMOTE_ADDR': '127.0.0.1', 'REQUEST_METHOD': 'GET', 'SCRIPT_NAME': '', 'SERVER_NAME': 'testserver', 'SERVER_PORT': '80', 'SERVER_PROTOCOL': 'HTTP/1.1', 'wsgi.version': (1,0), 'wsgi.url_scheme': 'http', 'wsgi.errors': self.errors, 'wsgi.multiprocess':True, 'wsgi.multithread': False, 'wsgi.run_once': False, 'wsgi.input': None, } environ.update(self.defaults) environ.update(request) request = WSGIRequest(environ) # We have to manually add a session since we'll be bypassing # the middleware chain. session_middleware = SessionMiddleware() session_middleware.process_request(request) return request def _mock_request(): return _MockRequestClient().request() However, it may be too long of a function for my needs. I want to be able to somehow "fake" the account creation. I have not much experience on mocks and stubs so any help would do. Thanks!

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  • What's the relationship between the Intel Atom Developer Program and the MeeGo operating system?

    - by Arne Evertsson
    I'm trying to understand the relationship between the Intel Atom Developer Program (IADP) and the new OS called MeeGo. IADP let's me create applications that run on both MeeGo as well as Windows devices, as long as the device is based on the Atom processor. The IADP apps are published in an app store called AppUp, which is very much like the Apple App Store. The MeeGo operating system merges Intel's Moblin and Nokia's Maemo into one OS. The purpose seems to be to make it possible to develop software that will run on Intel powered devices, Nokia-made devices, as well devices from other companies. Nokia has its Ovi Store that will support MeeGo apps. With its OS independent runtime, the question is what an IADP app really is? Is an IADP app a beast of its own, or is it just a MeeGo app that has been restricted to run only on Atom powered devices? Will it be possible to recompile my IADP app to run on all MeeGo devices? Sold in Ovi Store? Intel and Nokia have me really confused. Where should I go as a developer?

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  • NHibernate.QueryException with dynamic-component

    - by Ken
    OK, this is going to be kind of a long shot, since it's a big system (which I don't claim to fully understand, yet), and the problem might not be with NHibernate itself, and I'm even having trouble reproducing it, but... I've got a class with a <dynamic-component section, and when I run a query on it (through my ASP.NET MVC app), it fails, but only sometimes. (Yeah, the worst kind!) The exception I'm seeing is: NHibernate.QueryException: could not resolve property: Attributes.MyAttributeName of: MyClassName at NHibernate.Persister.Entity.AbstractPropertyMapping.GetColumns(String propertyName) at NHibernate.Persister.Entity.AbstractPropertyMapping.ToColumns(String alias, String propertyName) at NHibernate.Persister.Entity.BasicEntityPropertyMapping.ToColumns(String alias, String propertyName) at NHibernate.Persister.Entity.AbstractEntityPersister.ToColumns(String alias, String propertyName) at NHibernate.Loader.Criteria.CriteriaQueryTranslator.GetColumns(String propertyName, ICriteria subcriteria) at NHibernate.Loader.Criteria.CriteriaQueryTranslator.GetColumnsUsingProjection(ICriteria subcriteria, String propertyName) at NHibernate.Criterion.CriterionUtil.GetColumnNamesUsingPropertyName(ICriteriaQuery criteriaQuery, ICriteria criteria, String propertyName, Object value, ICriterion critertion) at NHibernate.Criterion.CriterionUtil.GetColumnNamesForSimpleExpression(String propertyName, IProjection projection, ICriteriaQuery criteriaQuery, ICriteria criteria, IDictionary`2 enabledFilters, ICriterion criterion, Object value) at NHibernate.Criterion.SimpleExpression.ToSqlString(ICriteria criteria, ICriteriaQuery criteriaQuery, IDictionary`2 enabledFilters) at NHibernate.Loader.Criteria.CriteriaQueryTranslator.GetWhereCondition(IDictionary`2 enabledFilters) at NHibernate.Loader.Criteria.CriteriaJoinWalker..ctor(IOuterJoinLoadable persister, CriteriaQueryTranslator translator, ISessionFactoryImplementor factory, CriteriaImpl criteria, String rootEntityName, IDictionary`2 enabledFilters) at NHibernate.Loader.Criteria.CriteriaLoader..ctor(IOuterJoinLoadable persister, ISessionFactoryImplementor factory, CriteriaImpl rootCriteria, String rootEntityName, IDictionary`2 enabledFilters) at NHibernate.Impl.SessionImpl.List(CriteriaImpl criteria, IList results) at NHibernate.Impl.CriteriaImpl.List(IList results) at NHibernate.Impl.CriteriaImpl.UniqueResult[T]() ...my code below here... Can anybody explain exactly what this QueryException means, i.e., so I can have an idea of what exactly it thinks is going wrong? Thanks!

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  • How to react when asked a question you already know during an interview

    - by DevNull
    The short story:- If you are asked a tough algorithmic/puzzle question during an interview, whose solution is already known to you, do you:- Honestly tell the interviewer that you know this question already? -- this could result in bursting the interviewer's ego and him increasing the complexity level of the subsequent questions. Do an Oscar deserving performance and act as if you are thinking and trying hard and slowly getting to the solution? -- depending on your acting skills, could majorly impress the interviewer making the rest of the interview easier. Long story:- OK, this question comes as a result of what happened to me in a recent telephonic interview that I gave - the interview was supposed to be all algorithmic. The interviewer started with an algorithmic question which I had luckily already seen here on Stackoverflow. The best solution to that problem is not very intuitive and is more of a you-get-it-if-you-know-it kind. Now, just to not disappoint the interviewer too much, I took a few seconds as if I was pondering on the problem and then blurted out the answer which I knew too well having read and admired it on SO already. But I guess that gave it away to the interviewer that I already knew this question and since then, he started asking me for more efficient solutions and I kept coming up with approaches (even if not correct or more efficient, but I did touch a lot of different data structures and algos) and he kept asking for more efficient solutions and generally seemed put off by my initial salvo which was unexpected. What should I have done? Cheers!

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  • making check boxes clickable once in javascript?

    - by OVERTONE
    Sorry but im an absolute noob with javascript. Ive made a form for a simple quiz but cant figure out how to make radio's only click once. I can select two or three buttons as my answer. i want to change this. <form name = "Beginners Quiz"> <p>Film speed refers to:</p> <p><input type="radio" name="Answer 1" id="Answer1" value = "a" onclick = "recordAnswer(1,this.value"/>How long it takes to develop film. <br/> <p><input type="radio" name="Answer 2" id="Answer2" value = "b" onclick = "recordAnswer(1,this.value"/>How fast film moves through film-transport system. <br/> <p><input type="radio" name="Answer 3" id="Answer3" value = "c" onclick = "recordAnswer(1,this.value"/> How sensitive the film is to light. <br/> <p><input type="radio" name="Answer 4" id="Answer4" value = "d" onclick = "recordAnswer(1,this.value"/> None of these makes sense. <br/> ive been rooting around w3shcools tutorials to no avail. can someone shed some light?

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  • why won't Eclipse use the compiler I specify for my project?

    - by codeman73
    I'm using Eclipse 3.3. In my project, I've set the compiler compliance level to 5.0 In the build path for the project. I've added the Java 1.5 JDK in the Installed JREs section and am referencing that System Library in my project build path. However, I'm getting compile errors for a class that implements PreparedStatement for not implementing abstract methods that only exist in Java 1.6 PreparedStatement. Specifically, the methods setAsciiStream(int, InputStream, long) and setAsciiStream(int, InputStream) Strangely enough, it worked when we were compiling it against Java 1.4, which it was originally written for. We added the JREs for Java 1.4 and referenced that system library in the project, and set the project's compiler level to 1.4, and it works fine. But when I do the same changes to try to point to Java 5.0, it instead uses Java 6. Any ideas why? I wrote a similar question earlier, here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2540548/how-do-i-get-eclipse-to-use-a-different-compiler-version-for-java I know how you're supposed to choose a different compiler but it seems Eclipse isn't taking it. It seems to be defaulting to Java 6, even though I have deleted all Java 6 JDKs and JREs that I could find. I've also updated the -vm option in my eclipse.ini to point to the Java5 JDK.

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  • Passing Object to Service in WCF

    - by hgulyan
    Hi, I have my custom class Customer with its properties. I added DataContract mark above the class and DataMember to properties and it was working fine, but I'm calling a service class's function, passing customer instance as parameter and some of my properties get 0 values. While debugging I can see my properties values and after it gets to the function, some properties' values are 0. Why it can be so? There's no code between this two actions. DataContract mark workes fine, everything's ok. Any suggestions on this issue? I tried to change ByRef to ByVal, but it doesn't change anything. Why it would pass other values right and some of integer types just 0? Maybe the answer is simple, but I can't figure it out. Thank You. <DataContract()> Public Class Customer Private Type_of_clientField As Integer = -1 <DataMember(Order:=1)> Public Property type_of_client() As Integer Get Return Type_of_clientField End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) Type_of_clientField = value End Set End Property End Class <ServiceContract(SessionMode:=SessionMode.Allowed)> <DataContractFormat()> Public Interface CustomerService <OperationContract()> Function addCustomer(ByRef customer As Customer) As Long End Interface type_of_client properties value is 6 before I call addCustomer function. After it enters that function the value is 0. UPDATE: The issue is in instance creating. When I create an instance of a class on client side, that is stored on service side, some of my properties pass 0 or nothing, but when I call a function of a service class, that returns a new instance of that class, it works fine. What's is the difference? Could that be serialization issue?

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  • Horizontally align rows in multiple tables using web user control

    - by goku_da_master
    I need to align rows in different tables that are layed out horizontally. I'd prefer to put the html code in a single web user control so I can create as many instances of that control as I want and lay them out horizontally. The problem is, the text in the rows needs to wrap. So some rows may expand vertically and some may not (see the example below). When that happens, the rows in the other tables aren't aligned horizontally. I know I can accomplish all this by using a single table, but that would mean I'd have to duplicate the name, address and phone html code instead of dynamically creating new instances of my user control (in reality there are many more fields than this, but I'm keeping it simple). Is there any way to do this whether with div's, tables or something else? Here's the problem: Mary Jane's address field expands 2 lines, causing her phone field to not align properly with John's and Bob's. Name: John Doe Name: Mary Jane Name: Bob Smith Address: 123 broadway Address: Some really long address Address: Short address Phone: 123-456 that takes up multiple lines Phone: 111-2222 Phone: 456-789 I'm not restricted in any way how to do this (other than using asp.net), but I'd prefer to use a single web control that I instantiate X times at design time (in this example, it's 3 times). I'm using VS2008, and .Net 3.5

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  • how to make a column width size fixed in datagridview asp?

    - by user306671
    Hi, i have this column in a datagridview on aspx page <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Observacion"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="lblOrderID" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("Observacion") %>'></asp:Label> </ItemTemplate> <ItemStyle Width="200px" Wrap="False" /> </asp:TemplateField> I have set up the itemstyle with and wrap to false, but anyways the width columns grows the the data is too long. i just want to change the height of the column not the width. Here us the complete code of the datagridview <asp:GridView ID="GridView1" runat="server" AutoGenerateDeleteButton="True" CellPadding="4" EnableModelValidation="True" ForeColor="#333333" GridLines="None" AutoGenerateColumns="False"> <columns> <asp:boundfield datafield="ID_OBSERVACION" visible="False" /> <asp:boundfield datafield="AUTOR" headertext="Autor" /> <asp:boundfield datafield="FECHA" headertext="Fecha" /> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Observacion"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="lblOrderID" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("Observacion") %>'></asp:Label> </ItemTemplate> <ItemStyle Width="200px" Wrap="False" /> </asp:TemplateField> </columns> <AlternatingRowStyle BackColor="White" ForeColor="#284775" Wrap="False" /> <EditRowStyle BackColor="#999999" /> <FooterStyle BackColor="#5D7B9D" Font-Bold="True" ForeColor="White" /> <HeaderStyle BackColor="#5D7B9D" Font-Bold="True" ForeColor="White" /> <PagerStyle BackColor="#284775" ForeColor="White" HorizontalAlign="Center" /> <RowStyle BackColor="#F7F6F3" ForeColor="#333333" Wrap="False" /> <SelectedRowStyle BackColor="#E2DED6" Font-Bold="True" ForeColor="#333333" /> </asp:GridView>

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  • How to mult-thread this?

    - by WilliamKF
    I wish to have two threads. The first thread1 occasionally calls the following pseudo function: void waitForThread2() { if (thread2 is not idle) { return; } notifyThread2IamReady(); while (thread2IsExclusive) { } } The second thread2 is forever in the following pseudo loop: for (;;) { Notify thread1 I am idle. while (!thread1IsReady()) { } Notify thread1 I am exclusive. Do some work while thread1 is blocked. Notify thread1 I am busy. Do some work in parallel with thread1. } What is the best way to write this such that both thread1 and thread2 are kept as busy as possible on a machine with multiple cores. I would like to avoid long delays between notification in one thread and detection by the other. I tried using pthread condition variables but found the delay between thread2 doing 'notify thread1 I am busy' and the loop in waitForThread2() on thear2IsExclusive() can be up to almost one second delay. I then tried using a volatile sig_atomic_t shared variable to control the same, but something is going wrong, so I must not be doing it correctly.

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  • Visual Studio 2010 / ASP.NET MVC / Publish

    - by SevenCentral
    I just did a clean install on Windows 7 x64 Professional with the final release of Visual Studio 2010 Premium. In order to duplicate what I'm experiencing do the following in: Create a new ASP.NET MVC 2 Web Application Right click the project and select Properties On the Web tab, select "Use Local IIS Web Server" Click on Create Virtual Directory Save all Unload the project Edit the project file Change MvcBuildViews to true Save all Reload project Right click the project and select Publish Choose the file system publish method Enter a target location Choose Delete all existing files Select Publish Right click the project Select Publish Each time I do the above I get the following errror: "It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level..." The error originates from obj\debug\package\packagetmp\web.config, relative to the project directory. I can repeat this all day long with any MVC 2 project I've built. In order to fix this problem, I need to set MvcBuildViews to false in the project file. That's not really an option. This wasn't a problem in Visual Studio 2008 and it seems to be an issue with the way the Publish command stages files beneath the project directory. Can anyone else duplicate this error? Is this a bug or by design? Is there a fix, workaround, etc...? Thanks.

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  • document.onkeyup triggers when it shouldn't

    - by vonkow
    So I have the following code, which should append 'true' to the div "test" every 25ms as long as key 68 (the d key) is being pressed, right? <html> <body> <div id="test"></div> <script type="text/javascript"> var key=false; var keyDown=function(e) { if (e.keyCode==68) { key=true; } } var keyUp=function(e) { if (e.keyCode==68) { key=false; } } document.onkeydown=keyDown; document.onkeyup=keyUp; var run=function() { document.getElementById('test').appendChild(document.createTextNode(key+'\n')); t = setTimeout('run()', 25); } var t = setTimeout('run()', 25); </script> </body> </html> Save the code, load it in a browser and hold down on the d key. If I'm not crazy, you'll see that it occasionally appends 'false' even though the d key was never released. (I've tried this in FF and Chrome in Linux and Vista). Anybody happen to know why, or have a workaround?

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  • Using map/reduce for mapping the properties in a collection

    - by And
    Update: follow-up to MongoDB Get names of all keys in collection. As pointed out by Kristina, one can use Mongodb 's map/reduce to list the keys in a collection: db.things.insert( { type : ['dog', 'cat'] } ); db.things.insert( { egg : ['cat'] } ); db.things.insert( { type : [] }); db.things.insert( { hello : [] } ); mr = db.runCommand({"mapreduce" : "things", "map" : function() { for (var key in this) { emit(key, null); } }, "reduce" : function(key, stuff) { return null; }}) db[mr.result].distinct("_id") //output: [ "_id", "egg", "hello", "type" ] As long as we want to get only the keys located at the first level of depth, this works fine. However, it will fail retrieving those keys that are located at deeper levels. If we add a new record: db.things.insert({foo: {bar: {baaar: true}}}) And we run again the map-reduce +distinct snippet above, we will get: [ "_id", "egg", "foo", "hello", "type" ] But we will not get the bar and the baaar keys, which are nested down in the data structure. The question is: how do I retrieve all keys, no matter their level of depth? Ideally, I would actually like the script to walk down to all level of depth, producing an output such as: ["_id","egg","foo","foo.bar","foo.bar.baaar","hello","type"] Thank you in advance!

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  • Uncompress a TIFF file without going through BufferedImage

    - by Gert
    I am receiving large size CCITT Group 4 compressed TIFF files that need to be written elsewhere as uncompressed TIFF files. I am using the jai_imageio TIFF reader and writer to do that and it works well as long as the product _width * height_ of the image fits in an integer. Here is the code I am using: TIFFImageReaderSpi readerSpi= new TIFFImageReaderSpi(); ImageReader imageReader = readerSpi.createReaderInstance(); byte[] data = blobManager.getObjectForIdAndVersion(id, version); ImageInputStream imageInputStream = ImageIO.createImageInputStream(data); imageReader.setInput(imageInputStream); TIFFImageWriterSpi writerSpi = new TIFFImageWriterSpi(); ImageWriter imageWriter = writerSpi.createWriterInstance(); ImageWriteParam imageWriteParam = imageWriter.getDefaultWriteParam(); imageWriteParam.setCompressionMode(ImageWriteParam.MODE_DISABLED); //bufferFile is created in the constructor ImageOutputStream imageOutputStream = ImageIO.createImageOutputStream(bufferFile); imageWriter.setOutput(imageOutputStream); //Now read the bitmap BufferedImage bufferedImage = imageReader.read(0); IIOImage iIOImage = new IIOImage(bufferedImage, null, null); //and write it imageWriter.write(null, iIOImage, imageWriteParam); Unfortunately, the files that I receive are often very large and the BufferedImage cannot be created. I have been trying to find a way to stream from the ImageReader directly to the ImageWriter but I cannot find out how to do that. Anybody with a suggestion?

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  • Implementing Model-level caching

    - by Byron
    I was posting some comments in a related question about MVC caching and some questions about actual implementation came up. How does one implement a Model-level cache that works transparently without the developer needing to manually cache, yet still remains efficient? I would keep my caching responsibilities firmly within the model. It is none of the controller's or view's business where the model is getting data. All they care about is that when data is requested, data is provided - this is how the MVC paradigm is supposed to work. (Source: Post by Jarrod) The reason I am skeptical is because caching should usually not be done unless there is a real need, and shouldn't be done for things like search results. So somehow the Model itself has to know whether or not the SELECT statement being issued to it worthy of being cached. Wouldn't the Model have to be astronomically smart, and/or store statistics of what is being most often queried over a long period of time in order to accurately make a decision? And wouldn't the overhead of all this make the caching useless anyway? Also, how would you uniquely identify a query from another query (or more accurately, a resultset from another resultset)? What about if you're using prepared statements, with only the parameters changing according to user input? Another poster said this: I would suggest using the md5 hash of your query combined with a serialized version of your input arguments. This would require twice the number of serialization options. I was under the impression that serialization was quite expensive, and for large inputs this might be even worse than just re-querying. And is the minuscule chance of collision worth worrying about? Conceptually, caching in the Model seems like a good idea to me, but it seems in practicality the developer should have direct control over caching and write it into the controller. Thoughts/ideas? Edit: I'm using PHP and MySQL if that helps to narrow your focus.

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  • GCC/X86, Problems with relative jumps

    - by Ian Kelly
    I'm trying to do a relative jump in x86 assembly, however I can not get it to work. It seems that for some reason my jump keeps getting rewritten as an absolute jump or something. A simple example program for what I'm trying to do is this: .global main main: jmp 0x4 ret Since the jmp instruction is 4 bytes long and a relative jump is offset from the address of the jump + 1, this should be a fancy no-op. However, compiling and running this code will cause a segmentation fault. The real puzzler for me is that compiling it to the object level and then disassembling the object file shows that it looks like the assembler is correctly doing a relative jump, but after the file gets compiled the linker is changing it into another type of jump. For example if the above code was in a file called asmtest.s: $gcc -c asmtest.s $objdump -D asmtest.o ... Some info from objdump 00000000 <main>: 0: e9 00 00 00 00 jmp 5 <main+0x5> 5: c3 ret This looks like the assembler correctly made a relative jump, although it's suspicious that the jmp instruction is filled with 0s. I then used gcc to link it then disassembled it and got this: $gcc -o asmtest asmtest.o $objdump -d asmtest ...Extra info and other disassembled functions 08048394 <main>: 8048394: e9 6b 7c fb f7 jmp 4 <_init-0x8048274> 8048399: c3 ret This to me looks like the linker rewrote the jmp statement, or substituted the 5 in for another address. So my question comes down to, what am I doing wrong? Am I specifying the offset incorrectly? Am I misunderstanding how relative jumps work? Is gcc trying to make sure I don't do dangerous things in my code?

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  • Reuse, Rewrite, or Refactor?

    - by Jon Purdy
    At work I inherited development of a PHP-based Web site after the consultant who originally produced it bailed out and left without a trace. Literally half of the code is ripped from online tutorials, and there are thousands of lines of cruft that, being incomplete, do precious little. Hardly any of it actually works. I've been trying to pull out the usable components, such as the layout (cleverly intermixed with code), session management (delicately seasoned with unescaped, unvalidated SQL queries), and a few other things, but it's very difficult to force all of this junk into place. Further, I don't speak idiomatic PHP, being more of a Perl user, and I'm supposed to be on this project principally for maintenance, so rewriting everything seems like it would take just as long as wrestling the existing monster back into place. As an aside, I have literally never seen anything as badly written as this. Welcome me to the world of working with other people's code, I guess, but I do hope it's not this common in the real world to have such gems as these: // WHY IS THIS NOT WORKING // I know this is bad but were going for working stuff right now... // This is a PHP code outputing Javascript code outputting HTML...do not go further // Not userful I'm looking for the best advice I can get here. What would you do if you were in my position?

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  • How/when to hire new programmers, and how to integrate them?

    - by Shaul
    Hiring new programmers, especially in a small company, can often present a Catch-22 situation. We have too much work to do, so we need to hire new programmers. But we can't hire new programmers now, because they will need mentoring and several months of learning curve in your industry/product/environment before they're useful, and none of the programmers has time to be a mentor to a new programmer, because they're all completely swamped with the current work load. That may be a slightly frivolous way of describing the situation, but nevertheless, it's difficult for a small company on a tight budget to justify hiring someone who is not only going to be unproductive for a long time, but will also take away from the performance of the current programmers. How have you dealt with this kind of situation? When is the best time to hire someone? What are the best tasks to assign to a new team member so that they can learn their way around your code base and start getting their hands dirty as quickly as possible? How do you get the new guy useful without bogging your existing programmers down in too much mentoring? Any comments & suggestions you have are much appreciated!

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  • int considered harmful?

    - by Chris Becke
    Working on code meant to be portable between Win32 and Win64 and Cocoa, I am really struggling to get to grips with what the @#$% the various standards committees involved over the past decades were thinking when they first came up with, and then perpetuated, the crime against humanity that is the C native typeset - char, short, int and long. On the one hand, as a old-school c++ programmer, there are few statements that were as elegant and/or as simple as for(int i=0; i<some_max; i++) but now, it seems that, in the general case, this code can never be correct. Oh sure, given a particular version of MSVC or GCC, with specific targets, the size of 'int' can be safely assumed. But, in the case of writing very generic c/c++ code that might one day be used on 16 bit hardware, or 128, or just be exposed to a particularly weirdly setup 32/64 bit compiler, how does use int in c++ code in a way that the resulting program would have predictable behavior in any and all possible c++ compilers that implemented c++ according to spec. To resolve these unpredictabilities, C99 and C++98 introduced size_t, uintptr_t, ptrdiff_t, int8_t, int16_t, int32_t, int16_t and so on. Which leaves me thinking that a raw int, anywhere in pure c++ code, should really be considered harmful, as there is some (completely c++xx conforming) compiler, thats going to produce an unexpected or incorrect result with it. (and probably be a attack vector as well)

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  • Emulator restarts after snapshot load

    - by reox
    I've set up a android emulator with a snapshot of a specific state i need to go back every time. the snapshot is created and is listed and i can also start directly with this snapshot with emulator -avd MyAVD -snapshot mystate -no-snapshot-save the problem is now that the emulator restart itselfs after i load the snapshot after i did my changes in the emulator. So if i use echo -e "avd snapshot load mystate\nexit" | nc localhost 5554 the snapshot is loaded correctly but then after some seconds i see the bootloader screen. Whats happening there? this phenomen is repeatable with different emulators and different snapshots. is it possible that i just misuse a feature here? edit: it seems this problem is only occuring when i load a snapshot multiple times. after starting the emulator, everything is working quite well. now i load my snapshot, also everything is working well. but when i now load the same snapshot again, it will correctly load it but then the emulator will restart. so is there any possibility to load a snapshot multiple times? otherwise i always need to restart my emulator, which takes a long time...

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  • I installed XAMPP in a virtual drive and now I can't run its services. Why?

    - by Haris
    Hi, The description is quite long. Please spend some time to read it. ^:)^ I have an old PHP application and I'm trying to test and debug it. Unfortunately, the application uses important data so I can't just click this and that. Now, what I'm trying to do is create a copy of the application in a different computer. From now on, I will call the computer running my original PHP application as 'Computer A' and the computer which I'm going to use to run the copy of the application as 'Computer B'. To prevent missing link problems since the application contains static paths, such in images or tags, I have to copy all files and folder related to my PHP application from Computer A to the same path in Computer B. Unfortunately, Computer B only has drive C while Computer A has drive D and the files of my PHP application is located in 'D:\xampp\htdocs' in Computer A. OK, now I have to create drive D in computer B. At first, I tried to create a second partition in Computer B by using PowerQuest Partition Magic 8, but somehow Partition Magic doesn't run in Computer B. I have tried to reinstall it but it still doesn't run. So, another alternative is to create a virtual drive. That is what I did. I created a virtual drive by running the 'subst' command in Command Prompt. The virtual drive is D and it refers to a directory, which is 'C:\Virtual'. After I have drive D in Computer B, I installed XAMPP there. The installation was successful. Now, I also have 'D:\xampp\htdocs' in Computer B. However, when I ran the Apache, MySQL, or Filezilla service, I receive an error message "Error 3: The system cannot find the file specified.". In Computer B, there is no IIS or process using the port 80. What should I do? Please help me. Many thanks in advance, Haris

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  • DVCS with a Windows central repository

    - by Mikko Rantanen
    We are currently using VSS for version control. Quite few of our developers are interested in a distributed model (And want to get rid of VSS). Our network is full of Windows machines and while our IT department has experience maintaining Linux machines they would prefer not to. What DVCS systems can host their central repository on Windows while providing.. Push access to the repository. Basic authentication. Mostly just a way to allow or deny access to the whole repository. No need for fine grained access. Server process so users don't need write right to the repository reducing the risk of accidentally messing with it. On the client side a GUI such as Tortoise would be more or less a requirement (Sorry, Windows shell sucks. :|). Ease of installation would be a huge plus as our IT department is already quite low on resources. And using windows credentials for authentication would be an advantage but not a requirement as long as the client is able to store the credentials. I have had a (really) quick look at Git, Mercurial and Bazaar. Git seemed to use ssh or simple WebDAV for repository access, requiring write permission for the users. Mercurial had a built in http server, but this seemed to be only for pull purposes. Update: Mercurial supports push as well. Bazaar Seemed to use sftp for repository access, again requiring a write permission for the users. Are there windows server processes for any DVCS systems and has anyone managed to set one up in a Windows land? And apologies if this is a duplicate question. I couldn't find one. Update Got Mercurial working for push purposes! Detailed list what was required can be found as an answer below.

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  • addChild, etc. using NSTreeController and NSTreeNode (snow leopard)

    - by John Velman
    I have a setup with an object (OTNodeDatum) (OT for OutlineTest) to be the represented object in NSTreeNode. NSTreeNode is the Class shown in the attributes page for NSTreeController. I have document based app, no core data. On MyDocument init, I set up content with an NSMutableArray containing one item, an NSTreeNode with a represented object which contains a single property (yes, name). Add button, Add Child button, Delete button, hooked up via interface builder to the NSTreeController add action, etc. It works up to a point. When I do an add, I get a new blank line which I can edit, but the inserted text goes away when I leave the cell. When I do a delete, things get deleted. When I do add child, nothing happens. I think I have to subclass either NSTreeNode, or NSTreeController to get the right behavior in terms of adding children and adding a new represented object in addition to adding a new tree node. IS this on the right track? If I subclass NSTreeController would I just override the add, addChild, to get the right thing to happen? And what could I mess up? I can't seem to find any guidance on this, although I've spent a long time looking. Thanks. John V

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