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• What is the common way to program action listeners?

  - by Roman

  I just started to learn how to use action listeners. To my understanding it works in the following way: There are some classes which contains "addActionListener" method by default (for example classes for buttons). Using this method we add an action listener to an object. For example: listenedObject.addActionListener(listeningObject). When an action with the "listenedObject" is performed, the "actionPerformed" method of the "listeningObject" will be called. So, it means that when we program a class for the listeningObject, we need to put there "actionPerformed" method. What is not clear to me, should we create a new class for every object that we want to listen. It does not seem to me as an elegant solution. On the other hand, if we have one action listener class for all (or at least many) object, than we have a problem since a instance of this class will not know which object is calling the "actionPerformed" method (and we need to know that since actions performed by the actionPerformed differs depending on who is called for this method). In my opinion, for every listened object we need to create are "personal" action listener and we can do it by setting a specific value to the corresponding field of the action listener. But I am not sure that it is a standard way to go? How do usually people do it?

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• Experiences wanted: producing a jar artifact in IntelliJ

  - by skiaddict1

  Developing with IntelliJ 9.0.2 Community Edition, on the Mac. This is a follow-up to this post about including jar files in an artifact, which has not received any replies. I'm hoping that the reason is that somehow, in creating my artifact (or setting my project settings), I unwittingly did something which people don't tend to do, and which is causing my problem, and that by asking people here to share how they create jar artifacts and set up projects, I will discover what it is. To recap: I have a Java project which depends on two library files. I need to package up the entire thing, with the jars inlined (such that on doing jar -tfv <filename> I see ALL the classes listed, including the ones in the two libraries), into a single jar file. I can make an artifact, I can add the library files to the Output Layout pane, but I CANNOT, no matter what I do, I cannot get the "Inline Artifact" item in the context menu to be selectable (i.e. non-grey) when I right-click on one or other library file. The thing is, making a jar which contains library files as well as the project code is NOT an unusual situation in the Java world! So I figure there are lots of IntelliJ folks out there who have done what I need to do. And I would really like to hear from you folks. What project settings do you use? (be specific, please :-) And exactly how do you set up your jar artifacts? (again, as many specific details as possible, please :-) Clearly, I'd be particularly interested to hear from folks with similar setups to mine (above) who are successfully doing what I need to do. Grateful thanks in advance, folks.

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• Perl Cookie not working

  - by grosseskino

  Hi! I already spent all day looking for an answer for this: I am using Perl with LWP::UserAgent and HTTP::Cookies. My problem is that I can't get past an cookie-base age-check. In Perl I use this code: my $browser = LWP::UserAgent->new; my $resp = $browser->get( $url, 'User-Agent' => 'MySpider/1.0' ); #Cookie Setup my $cookies = HTTP::Cookies->new(); $cookies->set_cookie(1,'age_check', '1','/','.example.com/', 80, ,0,3354512128, 0); $browser->cookie_jar($cookies); The Site is setting the Cookie with JavaScript function saveSplash(domain) { var expDate = new Date(); expDate.setTime(expDate.getTime()+(1*24*3600*1000)); setCookie("age_check", 1, expDate, '/', domain); setCookie("screen_width", getScreenWidth(), expDate, '/', domain); } This is the Cookie saved by my browser: age_check 1 example.com/ 1088 3354512128 30140182 2646218624 30139981 Any idea what I am doing wrong? Thanks in advance guys!

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• Does IE6 Really not Allow Me to set width/height from left/right/top/bottom???

  - by viatropos

  Building a site super quick and having it work on all my Mac browsers, I thought I'd take a gander on a friends old dell laptop with Windows XP and IE6. Nothing looks remotely correct. It's because I used lots of left/right/top/bottom (constraint) declarations to size elements proportionally to their parent's size (I didn't use percent sizes because the percents refer to the parent's size before margins and padding are applied, left/right/top/bottom refer to them after with position:absolute. I'm asking about that here :)). I've read lots these past few weeks on how horrible IE6 (and IE) is in general, but because of all the reasons people say to support it (large market share and the fear of installing better software), and because half the people in the company we're building a site for use IE6 (getting them to upgrade to Chrome slowly but surely), I thought if I could just get IE6 to render my constraints, that might help. So I am messing around with simple layouts here, and they work fine in my latest versions of Firefox, Safari, Chrome, and Opera, but IE6 is basically saying: If you haven't set a width or height on me, I'm assuming it's zero. But position:absolute; left:0px; right:0px; top:0px; bottom:0px; on a container that's width:1000px; height:1000px; should be the same as setting width:1000px; height:1000px on the child, no? Taking a quick look at the source for this, why won't IE6 render the constraint based absolutely positioned AND SIZED elements? (note: I will be messing around with that file for a while) Thanks

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• Unit Tests Architecture Question

  - by Tom Tresansky

  So I've started to layout unit tests for the following bit of code: public interface MyInterface { void MyInterfaceMethod1(); void MyInterfaceMethod2(); } public class MyImplementation1 implements MyInterface { void MyInterfaceMethod1() { // do something } void MyInterfaceMethod2() { // do something else } void SubRoutineP() { // other functionality specific to this implementation } } public class MyImplementation2 implements MyInterface { void MyInterfaceMethod1() { // do a 3rd thing } void MyInterfaceMethod2() { // do something completely different } void SubRoutineQ() { // other functionality specific to this implementation } } with several implementations and the expectation of more to come. My initial thought was to save myself time re-writing unit tests with something like this: public abstract class MyInterfaceTester { protected MyInterface m_object; @Setup public void setUp() { m_object = getTestedImplementation(); } public abstract MyInterface getTestedImplementation(); @Test public void testMyInterfaceMethod1() { // use m_object to run tests } @Test public void testMyInterfaceMethod2() { // use m_object to run tests } } which I could then subclass easily to test the implementation specific additional methods like so: public class MyImplementation1Tester extends MyInterfaceTester { public MyInterface getTestedImplementation() { return new MyImplementation1(); } @Test public void testSubRoutineP() { // use m_object to run tests } } and likewise for implmentation 2 onwards. So my question really is: is there any reason not to do this? JUnit seems to like it just fine, and it serves my needs, but I haven't really seen anything like it in any of the unit testing books and examples I've been reading. Is there some best practice I'm unwittingly violating? Am I setting myself up for heartache down the road? Is there simply a much better way out there I haven't considered? Thanks for any help.

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• Sharing class member data between sub components

  - by Tim Gradwell

  I have an aggregate 'main' class which contains some data which I wish to share. The main class also has other class members. I want to share the data with these other class members. What is the correct / neatest way to do this? The specific example I have is as follows. The main class is a .net Form. I have some controls (actually controls within controls) on the main form which need access to the shared data. Main Form - DataX - DataY - Control1 -- Subcontrol1 - Control2 -- SubControl2 SubControls 1 and 2 both wish to access DataX and DataY. The trouble is, I feel like better practice (to reduce coupling), would be that either subcontrols should not know about Main Form, or Main Form should not know about subcontrols - probably the former. For subcontrols not to know about Main Form, would probably mean Main Form passing references to both Controls 1 and 2, which in turn would pass the references on to SubControls 1 and 2. Lots of lines of code which just forward the references. If I later added DataZ and DataW, and Controls 3 and 4 and SubControls 3 and 4, I'd have to add lots more reference forwarding code. It seems simpler to me to give SubControls 1 and 2 member references to Main Form. That way, any sub control could just ask for MainForm.DataX or MainForm.DataY and if I ever added new data, I could just access it directly from the sub controls with no hassle. But it still involves setting the 'MainForm' member references every time I add a new Control or Subcontrol. And it gives me a gut feeling of 'wrong'. As you might be able to tell I'm not happy with either of my solutions. Is there a better way? Thanks

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• iPhone: How to run a Beta build, in addition to the App Store build?

  - by rondoagogo

  Hi, All! I have an app on the Store for which we’re readying an update. The other members of our team have the App Store version already loaded up (~purchased) on their respective iPhones -- and those contain User Data which each member needs to be able to keep. In the meantime, we need to test out a Beta version of the next version of the app. Presumably, we’d need to have the two versions (ad hoc, and app store) co-existing on each device, at least until everyone’s signed off on the beta, and it’s uploaded to the store (at which point, they'd delete the beta version). [Once it’s on the Store, of course, they can each update their main (i.e., Release) version of the app via the usual App Store 'update' mechanism -- and then delete the beta version from their devices. In that case, all their user data is still retained intact.] So assuming that’s the proper workflow ... How do I issue a Beta to the team, and have it not replace/overwrite the existing App Store version? I’ve tried customizing parameters in the beta’s “[appname]-Info.plist”, but haven’t found a setting yet that allows the two versions (beta and release) to co-exist on the same device. Any ideas? And is this this is the proper approach to them being able to keep their data? (And last, how might I do it with & without a script? I assume there's just one parameter that'd need to be changed.) I hope this all makes sense -- thank you in advance for your help!

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• Memory Leaks in pickerView using sqlite

  - by Danamo

  I'm adding self.notes array to a pickerView. This is how I'm setting the array: NSMutableArray *notesArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; [notesArray addObject:@"-"]; [notesArray addObjectsFromArray:[dbManager getTableValues:@"Notes"]]; self.notes = notesArray; [notesArray release]; The info for the pickerView is taken from the database in this method: -(NSMutableArray *)getTableValues:(NSString *)table { NSMutableArray *valuesArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; if (sqlite3_open([self.databasePath UTF8String], &database) != SQLITE_OK) { sqlite3_close(database); NSAssert(0, @"Failed to open database"); } else { NSString *query = [[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"SELECT value FROM %@", table]; sqlite3_stmt *statement; if (sqlite3_prepare_v2(database, [query UTF8String], -1, &statement, nil) == SQLITE_OK) { while (sqlite3_step(statement) == SQLITE_ROW) { NSString *value =[NSString stringWithUTF8String:(char *)sqlite3_column_text(statement, 0)]; [valuesArray addObject:value]; [value release]; } sqlite3_reset(statement); } [query release]; sqlite3_finalize(statement); sqlite3_close(database); } return valuesArray; } But I keep getting memory leaks in Instruments for these lines: NSMutableArray *valuesArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; and [valuesArray addObject:value]; What am I doing wrong here? Thanks for your help!

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• Is Using Tuples in my .NET 4.0 Code a Poor Design Decision?

  - by Jason Webb

  With the addition of the Tuple class in .net 4, I have been trying to decide if using them in my design is a bad choice or not. The way I see it, a Tuple can be a shortcut to writing a result class (I am sure there are other uses too). So this: public class ResultType { public string StringValue { get; set; } public int IntValue { get; set; } } public ResultType GetAClassedValue() { //..Do Some Stuff ResultType result = new ResultType { StringValue = "A String", IntValue = 2 }; return result; } Is equivalent to this: public Tuple<string, int> GetATupledValue() { //...Do Some stuff Tuple<string, int> result = new Tuple<string, int>("A String", 2); return result; } So setting aside the possibility that I am missing the point of Tuples, is the example with a Tuple a bad design choice? To me it seems like less clutter, but not as self documenting and clean. Meaning that with the type ResultType, it is very clear later on what each part of the class means but you have extra code to maintain. With the Tuple<string, int> you will need to look up and figure out what each Item represents, but you write and maintain less code. Any experience you have had with this choice would be greatly appreciated.

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• Grep without storing search to the "/ register in Vim

  - by Phro

  In my .vimrc I have a mapping that makes a line of text 'title capitalized': noremap <Leader>at :s/\v<(.)(\w{2,})/\u\1\L\2/g<CR> However, whenever I run this function, it highlights every word that is at least three characters long in my entire document. Of course I could get this behaviour to stop simply by appending :nohlsearch<CR> to the end of the mapping, but this is more of an awkward hack that still avoids a bigger problem: The last search has been replaced by \v<(.)(\w{2,}). Is there any way to use the search commands in Vim without storing the last search in the "/ register; a 'silent' search of sorts? That way, after running this title-making command, I can still use my previous search to navigate the document using n, N, etc. Edit Using @brettanomyces' answer, I found that simply setting the mapping: noremap <Leader>at :call setline(line('.'),substitute(getline('.'), '\v<(.)(\w{2,})', '\u\1\L\2', 'g'))<CR> will successfully perform the substitution without storing the searched text into the / register.

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• Absolutely positioned element moved by margin of another element

  - by user1505528

  Here is my jsFiddle for the following question: http://jsfiddle.net/arelia/Rruxf/ I'd like to have a header that stays at the very top of the body and a footer that stays at the very bottom of the body. I have a content div (position: relative) between the header and footer, and when I set a margin around the div my absolutely positioned header and footer move from their top/bottom positions by the height of that margin (this also happened when I tried setting a margin above and below the paragraphs in the div). In the fiddle you can see that the footer is not attached to the bottom even though it's absolutely positioned (I went ahead and made the header static since static gives the intended result). How do I position the header and footer to the top and bottom of the body and not have the content in the middle move those two elements? If the position: absolute elements are moved out of the flow why would anything affect their position at all? I've tried searching here and Google for "CSS margin affects absolute" and a few other phrases to no avail. I discovered this while playing around with it some more in developer tools: Metrics show the body is the height of the html element minus the amount of one margin (the margin that's still affecting the footer). So, the body must be stretching to the height of the content div since there is nothing else within the document flow within the body to define its height. But that height ends where the content ends instead of after the margin. Shouldn't it include the margin? If I make the height of the body 100%, the footer positions itself to the bottom of the viewport and then stays fixed in that spot when I scroll. Why isn't it attaching itself to the bottom of the body instead of the bottom of the viewport?

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• TCP/IP Implementation General Questions

  - by user2971023

  I've implemented the concepts shown here; http://wiki.unity3d.com/index.php/Simple_TCP/IP_Client_-_Server outside of unity and it works. (though i had to create the TCPIPServerApp from scratch as i could not find the base project anywhere). I have some general questions on how to use tcp/ip properly however. I've done some research on tcp/ip itself but I'm still a little confused. It seems like using the method above doesn't guarantee that I'll see the message (res). It just checks on every update to see if there is a different message in res. What if multiple messages are sent and the program lags or something, will i miss the earlier packet(s)? Should i instead do an array so it stores the last X messages? How do i know the data was received? Do I need to add a message id and build in my own ack into the data? Should i check to see if the port is in use before setting up a connection? Sorry for all the questions. This is all new to me but I enjoy this very much! ... Below already answered By Anton, Thanks It sounds like tcp uses its own packet numbering to ensure the packets end up in the right order on the other side. What if a packet is missed, are the subsequent packets thrown away? Or is this numbering and packet ordering, only for handling data that is broken out into multiple packets? TCP will automatically break the data into multiple packets if necessary right?

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• Replacing mysql user authentication with openid

  - by David

  So, I'm working with a really old system which uses a person's mysql database credentials to authenticate to a web site (the database was originally only accessed from the command line, but is now accessed from a php frontend). Because of some internal reasons (and to preserve the user's history), I have to leave the old authentication intact. I've been charged with adding openid authentication to this system. Somehow I need to be able to retrieve a users mysql username and password upon logging into the site through openid (using the Zend framework, by the way). I've thought of simply requiring registration at the first login, where the user must provide their mysql credentials, but I'd rather not store the password plain text. I've also considered blanking everyone's mysql passwords, and just setting the user's mysql username manually (rather than having the user provide this, since they could provide any username). This is turning into a security nightmare. Does anyone have any suggestions for alternatives? This is running on a Linux server, by the way. Also, I can't use mysql pluggable authentication because the mysql version is 5.0 (pluggable authentication requires mysql 5.5), and no, I can't update it.

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• Margin for select option in IE and chrome is not working

  - by Sardor

  I am setting a css class to some select options in JS. This class includes margin style. It is working in the FF but not in IE and chrome. window.onload = function() { replace('edit-field-region-tid'); replace('edit-tid'); } function replace(id) { var i = 0; var s = document.getElementById(id); for (i; i < s.options.length; i++) { if (find(s.options[i].text, id, i)) { s.options[i].setAttribute("class", "sub_options"); } } } function find(str, id, option_id) { var i; var s = document.getElementById(id); for (i = 0; i < str.length; i++) { if (str.charAt(i) == '-') { s.options[option_id].text = str.cutAt(0, ""); return true; } } return false; } String.prototype.cutAt = function(index, char) { return this.substr(index+1, this.length); } And CSS: .sub_options{ margin-left:20px; text-indent:-2px; } Any ideas thanks!

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• PHP download page: file_exists() returns true, but browser returns 'page not found'

  - by Chris

  I'm using PHP for a file download page. Here's a snippet of the problem code: if (file_exists($attachment_location)) { header($_SERVER["SERVER_PROTOCOL"] . " 200 OK"); header("Cache-Control: public"); // needed for i.e. header("Content-Type: application/zip"); header("Content-Transfer-Encoding: Binary"); header("Content-Length:".filesize($attachment_location)); header("Content-Disposition: attachment; filename=file.zip"); readfile($attachment_location); die("Hooray"); } else { die("Error: File not found."); } This code works absolutely fine when testing locally, but after deploying to the live server the browser returns a 'Page not found' error. I thought it might be an .htaccess issue, but all .htaccess files on the live server are identical to their local counterparts. My next guess would be the live server's PHP configuration, but I have no idea what PHP setting might cause this behaviour. The file_exists() function always returns true - I've checked this on the live server and it's always correctly picking up the file, its size etc., so it does have a handle on the file. It just won't perform the download! The main site is a Wordpress site, but this code isn't part of a Wordpress page - it's in a standalone directory within the site root. UPDATE: is_file() and is_readable() are both returning true for the file, so that's not the problem. The specific line that is causing the problem is: readfile($attachment_location) Everything up until that point is super happy.

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• How to set the ActiveMQ redeliveryPolicy on a queue?

  - by edbras

  How do I set the redeliveryPolicy in ActiveMQ on a Queue? 1) In the doc, see: activeMQ Redelivery, the explain that you should set it on the ConnectionFactory or Connection. But I want to use different value's for different Queue's. 2) Apart from that, I don't seem to get it work. Setting it on the connection factory in Spring (I am using activemq 5.4.2. with Spring 3.0) like this don't seem to have any effect: <amq:connectionFactory id="amqConnectionFactory" brokerURL="${jms.factory.url}" > <amq:properties> <amq:redeliveryPolicy maximumRedeliveries="6" initialRedeliveryDelay="15000" useExponentialBackOff="true" backOffMultiplier="5"/> </amq:properties> </amq:connectionFactory> I also tried to set it as property on the defined Queue, but that also seem to be ignored as the redelivery occurs sooner that the defined values: <amq:queue id="jmsQueueDeclarationSnd" physicalName="${jms.queue.declaration.snd}" > <amq:properties> <amq:redeliveryPolicy maximumRedeliveries="6" initialRedeliveryDelay="15000" useExponentialBackOff="true" backOffMultiplier="5"/> </amq:properties> </amq:queue> Thanks

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• Python "callable" attribute (pseudo-property)

  - by mgilson

  In python, I can alter the state of an instance by directly assigning to attributes, or by making method calls which alter the state of the attributes: foo.thing = 'baz' or: foo.thing('baz') Is there a nice way to create a class which would accept both of the above forms which scales to large numbers of attributes that behave this way? (Shortly, I'll show an example of an implementation that I don't particularly like.) If you're thinking that this is a stupid API, let me know, but perhaps a more concrete example is in order. Say I have a Document class. Document could have an attribute title. However, title may want to have some state as well (font,fontsize,justification,...), but the average user might be happy enough just setting the title to a string and being done with it ... One way to accomplish this would be to: class Title(object): def __init__(self,text,font='times',size=12): self.text = text self.font = font self.size = size def __call__(self,*text,**kwargs): if(text): self.text = text[0] for k,v in kwargs.items(): setattr(self,k,v) def __str__(self): return '<title font={font}, size={size}>{text}</title>'.format(text=self.text,size=self.size,font=self.font) class Document(object): _special_attr = set(['title']) def __setattr__(self,k,v): if k in self._special_attr and hasattr(self,k): getattr(self,k)(v) else: object.__setattr__(self,k,v) def __init__(self,text="",title=""): self.title = Title(title) self.text = text def __str__(self): return str(self.title)+'<body>'+self.text+'</body>' Now I can use this as follows: doc = Document() doc.title = "Hello World" print (str(doc)) doc.title("Goodbye World",font="Helvetica") print (str(doc)) This implementation seems a little messy though (with __special_attr). Maybe that's because this is a messed up API. I'm not sure. Is there a better way to do this? Or did I leave the beaten path a little too far on this one? I realize I could use @property for this as well, but that wouldn't scale well at all if I had more than just one attribute which is to behave this way -- I'd need to write a getter and setter for each, yuck.

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• How do I execute a sql statement through a variable (dyname sql) that tries to do an insert into a variable table?

  - by Testifier

  If I do what I wanna do with a TEMPORARY TABLE, it works fine: DECLARE @CTRFR VARCHAR(MAX) SET @CTRFR = 'select blah blah blah' -- <-- very long select statement. this returns a 0 or some greater number. Please note! --> I NEED THIS NUMBER. IF EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM sys.objects WHERE object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'[dbo][#CTRFRResult]') AND type IN ( N'U' ) ) DROP TABLE [dbo].[#CTRFRResult] CREATE TABLE #CTRFRResult ( CTRFRResult VARCHAR(MAX) ) SET @CTRFR = 'insert into #CTRFRResult ' + @CTRFR EXEC(@CTRFR) The above works fine. The problem is that several databases are using the same TEMP table. Therefore I need to use a VARIABLE table (instead of a temporary table). What I have below is not working because it says that the table must be declared. DECLARE @CTRFRResult TABLE ( CTRFRResult VARCHAR(MAX) ) SET @CTRFR = 'insert into @CTRFRResult ' + @CTRFR -- I think the issue is here. EXEC(@CTRFR) Setting @CTRFR to 'insert into...' is not working because I'm assuming the table name is out of scope. How would I go about mimicking the temporary table code using a variable table?

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• I have data about deadlocks, but I can't understand why they occur (MS SQL/ASP.NET MVC)

  - by Alex

  I am receiving a lot of deadlocks in my big web application. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2941233/how-to-automatically-re-run-deadlocked-transaction-asp-net-mvc-sql-server Here I wanted to re-run deadlocked transactions, but I was told to get rid of the deadlocks - it's much better, than trying to catch the deadlocks. So I spent the whole day with SQL profiler, setting the tracing keys etc. And this is what I got. There's a Users table. I have a very high usable page with the following query (it's not the only query, but it's the one that causes troubles) UPDATE Users SET views = views + 1 WHERE ID IN (SELECT AuthorID FROM Articles WHERE ArticleID = @ArticleID) And then there's the following query in ALL pages: User = DB.Users.SingleOrDefault(u => u.Password == password && u.Name == username); That's where I get User from cookies. Very often a deadlock occurs and this second LINQ TO SQL query is chosen as a victim, so it's not run, and users of my site see an error screen. I read a lot about deadlocks... And I don't understand why this is causing a deadlock. So obviously both of this queries run very often. At least once a second. Maybe even more often (300-400 users online). So they can be run at the same time very easily, but why does it cause a deadlock? Please help. Thank you

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• Management API - The request body XML was invalid or not correctly specified

  - by maartenba

  Cross posting from http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/windowsazuretroubleshooting/thread/31b6aedc-c069-4e32-8e8f-2ff4b7c30793 I'm getting this error on changing configuration through the service management API: The request body XML was invalid or not correctly specified The request body payload: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <ChangeConfiguration xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/windowsazu re"> <Configuration>PD94bWwgdmVyc2lvbj0iMS4wIj8+CjxTZXJ2aWNlQ29uZmlndX JhdGlvbiB4bWxuczp4c2k9Imh0dHA6Ly93d3cudzMub3JnLzIwMDEvWE1MU2NoZW1hLWluc3RhbmNlIi B4bWxuczp4c2Q9Imh0dHA6Ly93d3cudzMub3JnLzIwMDEvWE1MU2NoZW1hIiB4bWxucz0iaHR0cDovL3 NjaGVtYXMubWljcm9zb2Z0LmNvbS9TZXJ2aWNlSG9zdGluZy8yMDA4LzEwL1NlcnZpY2VDb25maWd1cm F0aW9uIiBzZXJ2aWNlTmFtZT0iIiBvc0ZhbWlseT0iMSIgb3NWZXJzaW9uPSIqIj4KICA8Um9sZSBuYW 1lPSJXZWJSb2xlMSI+CiAgICA8Q29uZmlndXJhdGlvblNldHRpbmdzPgogICAgICA8U2V0dGluZyBuYW 1lPSJNaWNyb3NvZnQuV2luZG93c0F6dXJlLlBsdWdpbnMuRGlhZ25vc3RpY3MuQ29ubmVjdGlvblN0cm luZyIgdmFsdWU9IlVzZURldmVsb3BtZW50U3RvcmFnZT10cnVlIi8+CiAgICA8L0NvbmZpZ3VyYXRpb2 5TZXR0aW5ncz4KICAgIDxJbnN0YW5jZXMgY291bnQ9IjIiLz4KICAgIDxDZXJ0aWZpY2F0ZXMvPgogID wvUm9sZT4KPC9TZXJ2aWNlQ29uZmlndXJhdGlvbj4K</Configuration> </ChangeConfiguration> I'm passing it the following configuration: $configuration = '<?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <ServiceConfiguration xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/ServiceHosting/2008/10/ServiceConfiguration" serviceName="" osFamily="1" osVersion="*"> <Role name="WebRole1"> <ConfigurationSettings> <Setting name="Microsoft.WindowsAzure.Plugins.Diagnostics.ConnectionString" value="UseDevelopmentStorage=true"/> </ConfigurationSettings> <Instances count="2"/> <Certificates/> </Role> </ServiceConfiguration>'; Does anyone know why this error occurs? I suspect it has something to do with encoding but not sure.

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• Specifying a DLL reference

  - by Jesse

  I'm having trouble setting the path to a DLL that is not in the same directory as the executable. I have a reference to dllA.dll. At present, everything is just copied into the same directory and all is well; however, I need to move the executable to another directory while still referencing the DLL in the original directory. So, it's setup like: C:\Original\Dir program.exe dllA.dll dllB.dll dllC.dll But I need to have it setup like: C:\New\Dir program.exe dllB.dll dllC.dl Such that it is still able to reference dllA.dll in C:\Original\dir I tried the following, but to no avail: Set the "Copy Local" value to false for dllA.dll because I want it to be referenced in its original location. Under "Tools Options Projects and Solutions VC++ Directories" I have added the path to "C:\Original\Dir" Added "C:\Original\Dir" to both the PATH and LIB environment variables At runtime, it informs me that it cannot locate dllA.dll Maybe the above steps I took only matter at compile time? I was able to find this http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1382704/c-specifying-a-location-for-dll-reference But I was thinking that my above method should've worked. Any ideas?

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• Fake location for the device (custom)

  - by AtomRiot

  I know there are a few apps out there to fake a devices location but specifically what i want to do is use a location grabbed from a url. What direction should I look for setting the location on the device. The scenario i have is a jailbroken Wi-Fi iPad tethered to a nexus one. The nexus one would host a background service that when a request is recieved, it would respond with gps data of its current location. The jailbroken ipad would have a background service that either updated the location on a time interval, or on a per request basis (depending on how i have to implement it) by submitting a request to the tethered nexus one service. That data would then be set on the ipad and an application requesting location would get the service data. The goal is to recreate the location faker app's functionality with the exception of the spoofed location comes from the nexus ones gps via the service but i have not yet found out how to set the location data for the device. I can ofcourse implement this in a per app basis but it would be awesome to have any app be able to use it.

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• Mobile site not rendering mobile within iframe

  - by user2788371

  I'm launching a mobile version of an existing corporate web application that currently loads in an iframe for corporate authentication purposes. When accessing the web app's direct link from a mobile device, it displays beautifully. The problem is that when accessing through the iframe, the site doesn't seem to scale correctly and it looks more like I'm accessing the desktop version of the site. Any suggestions on how make the site within the iframe recognize the mobile device's width and adjust appropriately? I've tried setting the viewport within the HTML and CSS of the site being loaded and even then I'm not getting the change I expect on my iPhone. I haven't had the opportunity to test an Android yet but within our company, iOS is the most important. Some of snippets of code I have tried are listed below. I've also tried 480px and device-width (which I believe I can't access because the iframe is a different domain). Unfortunately, modifying the iframe page and settings are not an option. Also, Javascript cannot be used as a solution for other reasons. Within HTML of web app site: <meta name="viewport" content="width=320px, initial-scale=1.0, user-scalable=no" /> Within CSS of web app site: @viewport { width: 320px; } The above CSS does not seem to render even when not used in device specific @media code.

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• Flash automatically names objects on stage "instance#"

  - by meowMIX3R

  Hi, I have 2 TLF text boxes already placed on my main stage. In the property inspector window I give these the instance names: "txt1" and "txt2". I am trying to have a single mouseup event, and figure out which text box it occurred on. My document class has the following code: package { import flash.display.Sprite; import flash.events.KeyboardEvent; public class SingleEvent extends Sprite{ public function SingleEvent() { // constructor code root.addEventListener(KeyboardEvent.KEY_UP, textChanged,false,0,true); } private function textChanged(e:KeyboardEvent){ trace(e.target.name); trace(" " + e.target); switch(e.target){ case txt1: trace("txt1 is active"); break; case txt2: trace("txt2 is active"); break; default: break; } } } } Example output is: instance15 [object Sprite] instance21 [object Sprite] Since the objects are already on the stage, I am not sure how to get flash to recognize them as "txt1" and "txt2" instead of "instance#". I tried setting the .name property, but it had no effect. In the publish settings, I have "Automatically declare stage instances" checked. Also, is it possible to have a single change event for multiple slider components? The following never fires: root.addEventListener(SliderEvent.CHANGE, sliderChanged,false,0,true); Thanks for any tips

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• [Ruby on Rails] how to add a new entry with a multiple has_many association?

  - by siulamvictor

  I am not sure am I doing these correct. I have 3 models, Account, User, and Event. Account contains a group of Users. Each User have its own username and password for login, but they can access the same Account data under the same Account. Events is create by a User, which other Users in the same Account can also read or edit it. I created the following migrations and models. User migration class CreateUsers < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :users do |t| t.integer :account_id t.string :username t.string :password t.timestamps end end def self.down drop_table :users end end Account migration class CreateAccounts < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :accounts do |t| t.string :name t.timestamps end end def self.down drop_table :accounts end end Event migration class CreateEvents < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :events do |t| t.integer :account_id t.integer :user_id t.string :name t.string :location t.timestamps end end def self.down drop_table :events end end Account model class Account < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :users has_many :events end User model class User < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :account end Event model class Event < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :account belongs_to :user end so.... Is this setting correct? Every time when a user create a new account, the system will ask for the user information, e.g. username and password. How can I add them into correct tables? How can I add a new event? I am sorry for such a long question. I am not very understand the rails way in handling such data structure. Thank you guys for answering me. :)

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