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• PHP Multi-Domain Sessions; ini_set Not Working?

  - by SumWon

  Hello, I'm trying to set it up so if you log in to my website the session carries over to all sub-domains of my website. For example, if you go to domain.com and log in, then go to sub.domain.com, you'll already be logged in at sub.domain.com. To my understanding, you would want to use ini_set('session.cookie_domain','.domain.com') and then session_start(), then set your session variables, but this isn't working. Example of what I'm doing: Code for domain.com: <?php ini_set('session.cookie_domain','.domain.com'); session_start(); $_SESSION['variable'] = 1; ?> Code for sub.domain.com: <?php session_start(); echo $_SESSION['variable']; ?> But $_SESSION['variable'] isn't set. I've also tried using ini_set() in the sub.domain.com code, but it made no difference. I've verified that setting session.cookie_domain is working by using ini_get(). What am I doing wrong? Thanks!

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• How to call back (like onActivityResult) after launching activity from browser by clicking url?

  - by kimilhee

  I succeded to call activity from browser link with tag like this. <a href="myapp://launch.myapp.com/activity2?var1=linkClicked">my app</a> of cource I added actvity setting in AndroidManifest.xml like this. <activity android:name=".Activity2" > <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.VIEW"></action> <category android:name="android.intent.category.DEFAULT"></category> <category android:name="android.intent.category.BROWSABLE"></category> <data android:host="launch.myapp.com" android:scheme="myapp" android:pathPrefix="/activity2"></data> </intent-filter> </activity> I want to call back from the activity2 with a value. Is there any way to receive some value from the activity that was launched by the browser like above? In other words I want do something like onActivityResult in the browser and get a value from the activity and set the value on the web page which has launched the activity.

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• C# property exactly the same, defined in two places

  - by Sarah Vessels

  I have the following classes: Defect - represents a type of data that can be found in a database FilterQuery - provides a way of querying the database by setting simple Boolean filters Both Defect and FilterQuery implement the same interface: IDefectProperties. This interface specifies particular fields that are in the database. Different classes have methods that return lists of Defect instances. With FilterQuery, you specify some filters for the particular properties implemented as part of IDefectProperties, and then you run the query and get back a list of Defect instances. My problem is that I end up implementing some properties exactly the same in FilterQuery and Defect. The two are inherently different classes, they just share some of the same properties. For example: public DateTime SubmitDateAsDate { get { return DateTime.Parse(SubmitDate); } set { SubmitDate = value.ToString(); } } This is a property required by IDefectProperties that depends on a different property, SubmitDate, which returns a string instead of a DateTime. Now SubmitDate is implemented differently in Defect and FilterQuery, but SubmitDateAsDate is exactly the same. Is there a way that I can define SubmitDateAsDate in only place, but both Defect and FilterQuery provide it as a property? FilterQuery and Defect already inherit from two different classes, and it wouldn't make sense for them to share an ancestor anyway, I think. I am open to suggestions as to my design here as well.

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• Expressjs route param as variable in main app

  - by MoDFoX

  For my app I have two route set up, app.get('/', routes.index); app.get('/:name', routes.index); I would like it to be so that if I don't specify a param, say just go to appurl.com (localhost:3000), it would load a default user, but if I do specify a param(localhost:3000/user), use that as the variable "username" in the following function (placed after my routes). (function getUser(){ var body = '', username = 'WillsonSM', options = { host: 'ws.audioscrobbler.com', port: 80, path: '/2.0/?method=user.gettopartists&user=' + username + '&format=json&limit=20&api_key=APIKEYGOESHERE' }; require('http').request(options, function(res) { res.setEncoding('utf8'); res.on('data', function(chunk) { body += chunk; }); res.on('end', function() { body = JSON.parse(body); artists = body.topartists.artist; }); }).end(); })(); Along with this I have my route set up like so: exports.index = function(req, res){ res.render('index', { title: 'LasTube' }); username = req.params.name; console.log(username); }; unfortunately setting username there to req.params.name does not seem to be accessible from the main app function. My question is: How can I set expressjs/nodejs to use the parameter set via /name when available, and just use a default - in this example "WillsonSM" if not available. I've tried taking "username" out of the main app, and just leaving it in the function, but username becomes undefined, as it is inaccessible from the route, and the app will not run. I can spit out "username" via the routes console.log, so assigning it there is not an issue, but as I am new to expressjs, I am unaware of how I should go about doing this. I have tried all I can think of and find from looking around the internet. Also, if there is a better way of doing this, or I am doing something wrong, please let me know. If I've left out any information, just throw in a comment and I'll try to address it.

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• [RAILS] Why is ssl_requirement clearing the Flash? (Chrome Mac)

  - by aaronrussell

  I am using ssl_requirement and since setting it up, my application's Flash messages are disappearing. I've modified the plugin slightly as accounts can optionally have a domain mapped to their account. In that case the non-ssl areas of the site should use the mapped domain, whereas the ssl areas should use the subdomain: def ensure_proper_protocol return true if ssl_allowed? if ssl_required? && !request.ssl? redirect_to "https://#{@account.subdomain}." + APP_CONF[:domain] + request.request_uri flash.keep return false elsif request.ssl? && !ssl_required? redirect_to "http://#{@account.sub_or_mapped_domain}" + request.request_uri flash.keep return false end end The application is broadly split into a website (front end) and an admin (back end). ALL of the admin area uses SSL so in the AdminController I have overwritten ssl_required? with: protected def ssl_required? return false if RAILS_ENV == "test" || RAILS_ENV == "development" true end Interestingly, Flash messages work fine in the development environment, where I am bypassing requiring SSL, but in my production environment where SSL is required, all Flash are gone. Any ideas? EDIT I've done some further testing and can add that this problem is ONLY occurring in Chrome on the Mac. Other Mac browsers and Chrome on windows are displaying the Flash messages as expected. This may be a bug with Chrome on the Mac then...?

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• Python "callable" attribute (pseudo-property)

  - by mgilson

  In python, I can alter the state of an instance by directly assigning to attributes, or by making method calls which alter the state of the attributes: foo.thing = 'baz' or: foo.thing('baz') Is there a nice way to create a class which would accept both of the above forms which scales to large numbers of attributes that behave this way? (Shortly, I'll show an example of an implementation that I don't particularly like.) If you're thinking that this is a stupid API, let me know, but perhaps a more concrete example is in order. Say I have a Document class. Document could have an attribute title. However, title may want to have some state as well (font,fontsize,justification,...), but the average user might be happy enough just setting the title to a string and being done with it ... One way to accomplish this would be to: class Title(object): def __init__(self,text,font='times',size=12): self.text = text self.font = font self.size = size def __call__(self,*text,**kwargs): if(text): self.text = text[0] for k,v in kwargs.items(): setattr(self,k,v) def __str__(self): return '<title font={font}, size={size}>{text}</title>'.format(text=self.text,size=self.size,font=self.font) class Document(object): _special_attr = set(['title']) def __setattr__(self,k,v): if k in self._special_attr and hasattr(self,k): getattr(self,k)(v) else: object.__setattr__(self,k,v) def __init__(self,text="",title=""): self.title = Title(title) self.text = text def __str__(self): return str(self.title)+'<body>'+self.text+'</body>' Now I can use this as follows: doc = Document() doc.title = "Hello World" print (str(doc)) doc.title("Goodbye World",font="Helvetica") print (str(doc)) This implementation seems a little messy though (with __special_attr). Maybe that's because this is a messed up API. I'm not sure. Is there a better way to do this? Or did I leave the beaten path a little too far on this one? I realize I could use @property for this as well, but that wouldn't scale well at all if I had more than just one attribute which is to behave this way -- I'd need to write a getter and setter for each, yuck.

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• How do I execute a sql statement through a variable (dyname sql) that tries to do an insert into a variable table?

  - by Testifier

  If I do what I wanna do with a TEMPORARY TABLE, it works fine: DECLARE @CTRFR VARCHAR(MAX) SET @CTRFR = 'select blah blah blah' -- <-- very long select statement. this returns a 0 or some greater number. Please note! --> I NEED THIS NUMBER. IF EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM sys.objects WHERE object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'[dbo][#CTRFRResult]') AND type IN ( N'U' ) ) DROP TABLE [dbo].[#CTRFRResult] CREATE TABLE #CTRFRResult ( CTRFRResult VARCHAR(MAX) ) SET @CTRFR = 'insert into #CTRFRResult ' + @CTRFR EXEC(@CTRFR) The above works fine. The problem is that several databases are using the same TEMP table. Therefore I need to use a VARIABLE table (instead of a temporary table). What I have below is not working because it says that the table must be declared. DECLARE @CTRFRResult TABLE ( CTRFRResult VARCHAR(MAX) ) SET @CTRFR = 'insert into @CTRFRResult ' + @CTRFR -- I think the issue is here. EXEC(@CTRFR) Setting @CTRFR to 'insert into...' is not working because I'm assuming the table name is out of scope. How would I go about mimicking the temporary table code using a variable table?

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• Show Color Picker Value Code Within Input Text Field in Wordpress

  - by Shwan Namiq

  Hi i have options page for my theme i used color picker jquery plugin in my options page as show in image below. i want when i change the color from color picker automatically show the color value code within the text field.how can do this? this is the code within my options page related to appearing the color picker and text field function to register the options setting function YPE_register_settings_sections_fields() { register_setting ( 'YPE_header_option_group', 'YPE_header_option_name', 'YPE_sanitize_validate_callback' ); add_settings_section ( 'YPE_header_section', 'Header Section', 'YPE_header_section_callback', 'YPE_menu_page_options' ); add_settings_field ( 'YPE_header_bg', 'Header Background', 'YPE_header_bg_callback', 'YPE_menu_page_options', 'YPE_header_section' ); } add_action('admin_init', 'YPE_register_settings_sections_fields'); function to appear the text field and color picker function YPE_header_bg_callback() { $YPE_options = get_option('YPE_header_option_name'); $YPE_header_bg = isset($YPE_options['YPE_header_bg']) ? $YPE_options['YPE_header_bg'] : ''; ?> <div class="input-group color-picker"> <input class="form-control" style="width:80px;" name="YPE_header_option_name[YPE_header_bg]" id="<?php echo 'YPE_header_bg'; ?>" type="text" value="<?php echo $YPE_header_bg; ?>" /> <span class="input-group-btn"> <div id="colorSelector"> <div nam style="background-color: #0000ff"> </div> </div> </span> </div> <script> $("#colorSelector").ColorPicker({ color: '#0000ff', onShow: function (colpkr) { $(colpkr).fadeIn(500); return false; }, onHide: function (colpkr) { $(colpkr).fadeOut(500); return false; }, onChange: function (hsb, hex, rgb) { $('#colorSelector div').css('backgroundColor', '#' + hex); }); </script> <?php }

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• Memory Leaks in pickerView using sqlite

  - by Danamo

  I'm adding self.notes array to a pickerView. This is how I'm setting the array: NSMutableArray *notesArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; [notesArray addObject:@"-"]; [notesArray addObjectsFromArray:[dbManager getTableValues:@"Notes"]]; self.notes = notesArray; [notesArray release]; The info for the pickerView is taken from the database in this method: -(NSMutableArray *)getTableValues:(NSString *)table { NSMutableArray *valuesArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; if (sqlite3_open([self.databasePath UTF8String], &database) != SQLITE_OK) { sqlite3_close(database); NSAssert(0, @"Failed to open database"); } else { NSString *query = [[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"SELECT value FROM %@", table]; sqlite3_stmt *statement; if (sqlite3_prepare_v2(database, [query UTF8String], -1, &statement, nil) == SQLITE_OK) { while (sqlite3_step(statement) == SQLITE_ROW) { NSString *value =[NSString stringWithUTF8String:(char *)sqlite3_column_text(statement, 0)]; [valuesArray addObject:value]; [value release]; } sqlite3_reset(statement); } [query release]; sqlite3_finalize(statement); sqlite3_close(database); } return valuesArray; } But I keep getting memory leaks in Instruments for these lines: NSMutableArray *valuesArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; and [valuesArray addObject:value]; What am I doing wrong here? Thanks for your help!

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• NHibernate lazy properties behavior?

  - by GeReV

  I've been trying to get NHibernate into development for a project I'm working on at my workplace. Since I have to put a strong emphasis on performance, I've been running a proof-of-concept stress test on an existing project's table with thousands of records, all of which contain a large text column. However, when selecting a collection of these records, the select statement takes a relatively long time to execute; apparently due to the aforementioned column. The first solution that comes to mind is setting this property as lazy: <property name="Content" lazy="true"/> But there seems to be no difference in the SQL generated by NHibernate. My question is, how do lazy properties behave in NHibernate? Is there some kind of type limitations I could be missing? Should I take a different approach altogether? Using HQL's new Class(column1, column2) approach works, but lazy properties sounds like a simpler solution. It's perhaps worth mentioning I'm using NHibernate 2.1.2GA with the Castle DynamicProxy. Thanks!

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• PHP: How to know if a user is currently downloading a file?

  - by metrobalderas

  I'm developing a quick rapidshare-like site where the user can download files. First, I created a quick test setting headers and using readfile() but then I found in the comments section there's a way to limit the speed of the download, which is great, here's the code: $local_file = 'file.zip'; $download_file = 'name.zip'; // set the download rate limit (=> 20,5 kb/s) $download_rate = 20.5; if(file_exists($local_file) && is_file($local_file)) { header('Cache-control: private'); header('Content-Type: application/octet-stream'); header('Content-Length: '.filesize($local_file)); header('Content-Disposition: filename='.$download_file); flush(); $file = fopen($local_file, "r"); while(!feof($file)) { // send the current file part to the browser print fread($file, round($download_rate * 1024)); // flush the content to the browser flush(); // sleep one second sleep(1); } fclose($file);} else { die('Error: The file '.$local_file.' does not exist!'); } But now my question is, how to limit the number of downloads at the same time? How can I check there's still a connection with some user's IP? Thanks.

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• Does IE6 Really not Allow Me to set width/height from left/right/top/bottom???

  - by viatropos

  Building a site super quick and having it work on all my Mac browsers, I thought I'd take a gander on a friends old dell laptop with Windows XP and IE6. Nothing looks remotely correct. It's because I used lots of left/right/top/bottom (constraint) declarations to size elements proportionally to their parent's size (I didn't use percent sizes because the percents refer to the parent's size before margins and padding are applied, left/right/top/bottom refer to them after with position:absolute. I'm asking about that here :)). I've read lots these past few weeks on how horrible IE6 (and IE) is in general, but because of all the reasons people say to support it (large market share and the fear of installing better software), and because half the people in the company we're building a site for use IE6 (getting them to upgrade to Chrome slowly but surely), I thought if I could just get IE6 to render my constraints, that might help. So I am messing around with simple layouts here, and they work fine in my latest versions of Firefox, Safari, Chrome, and Opera, but IE6 is basically saying: If you haven't set a width or height on me, I'm assuming it's zero. But position:absolute; left:0px; right:0px; top:0px; bottom:0px; on a container that's width:1000px; height:1000px; should be the same as setting width:1000px; height:1000px on the child, no? Taking a quick look at the source for this, why won't IE6 render the constraint based absolutely positioned AND SIZED elements? (note: I will be messing around with that file for a while) Thanks

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• Split user.config into different files for faster saving (at runtime)

  - by HorstWalter

  In my c# Windows Forms application (.net 3.5 / VS 2008) I have 3 settings files resulting in one user.config file. One setting file consists of larger data, but is rarely changed. The frequently changed data are very few. However, since the saving of the settings is always writing the whole (XML) file it is always "slow". SettingsSmall.Default.Save(); // slow, even if SettingsSmall consists of little data Could I configure the settings somehow to result in two files, resulting in: SettingsSmall.Default.Save(); // should be fast SettingsBig.Default.Save(); // could be slow, is seldom saved I have seen that I can use the SecionInformation class for further customizing, however what would be the easiest approach for me? Is this possible by just changing the app.config (config.sections)? --- added information about App.config The reason why I get one file might be the configSections in the App.config. This is how it looks: <configSections <sectionGroup name="userSettings" type="System.Configuration.UserSettingsGroup, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089" <section name="XY.A.Properties.Settings2Class" type="System.Configuration.ClientSettingsSection, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089" allowExeDefinition="MachineToLocalUser" requirePermission="false" / <section name="XY.A.Properties.Settings3Class" type="System.Configuration.ClientSettingsSection, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089" allowExeDefinition="MachineToLocalUser" requirePermission="false" / </sectionGroup </configSections I got the sections when I've added the 2nd and 3rd settings file. I have not paid any attention to this, so it was somehow the default of VS 2008. The single user.config has these 3 sections, it is absolutely transparent. Only I do not know how to tell the App.config to create three independent files instead of one. I have "played around" with the app.config above, but e.g. when I remove the config sections my applications terminates with an exception.

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• What is the common way to program action listeners?

  - by Roman

  I just started to learn how to use action listeners. To my understanding it works in the following way: There are some classes which contains "addActionListener" method by default (for example classes for buttons). Using this method we add an action listener to an object. For example: listenedObject.addActionListener(listeningObject). When an action with the "listenedObject" is performed, the "actionPerformed" method of the "listeningObject" will be called. So, it means that when we program a class for the listeningObject, we need to put there "actionPerformed" method. What is not clear to me, should we create a new class for every object that we want to listen. It does not seem to me as an elegant solution. On the other hand, if we have one action listener class for all (or at least many) object, than we have a problem since a instance of this class will not know which object is calling the "actionPerformed" method (and we need to know that since actions performed by the actionPerformed differs depending on who is called for this method). In my opinion, for every listened object we need to create are "personal" action listener and we can do it by setting a specific value to the corresponding field of the action listener. But I am not sure that it is a standard way to go? How do usually people do it?

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• MySQL datetime fields and daylight savings time -- how do I reference the "extra" hour?

  - by Aaron

  I'm using the America/New York timezone. In the Fall we "fall back" an hour -- effectively "gaining" one hour at 2am. At the transition point the following happens: it's 01:59:00 -04:00 then 1 minute later it becomes: 01:00:00 -05:00 So if you simply say "1:30am" it's ambiguous as to whether or not you're referring to the first time 1:30 rolls around or the second. I'm trying to save scheduling data to a MySQL database and can't determine how to save the times properly. Here's the problem: "2009-11-01 00:30:00" is stored internally as 2009-11-01 00:30:00 -04:00 "2009-11-01 01:30:00" is stored internally as 2009-11-01 01:30:00 -05:00 This is fine and fairly expected. But how do I save anything to 01:30:00 -04:00? The documentation does not show any support for specifying the offset and, accordingly, when I've tried specifying the offset it's been duly ignored. The only solutions I've thought of involve setting the server to a timezone that doesn't use daylight savings time and doing the necessary transformations in my scripts (I'm using PHP for this). But that doesn't seem like it should be necessary. Many thanks for any suggestions.

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• Access to SQL Server 2005 from a non-domain machine using Windows authentication

  - by user304582

  Hi, I have a Windows domain within which a machine is running SQL Server 2005 and which is configured to support only Windows authentication. I would like to run a C# client application on a machine on the same network, but which is NOT on the domain, and access a database on the SQL Server 2005 instance. I thought that it would be a simple matter of doing something like this: string connectionString = "Data Source=server;Initial Catalog=database;User Id=domain\user;Password=password"; SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(connectionString); connection.Open(); However, this fails: the client-side error is: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Login failed for user 'domain\user' and the server-side error is: Error 18456, Severity 14, State 5 I have tried various things including setting integrated security to true and false, and \ instead of \ in the User Id, but without success. In general, I know that it possible to connect to the SQL Server 2005 instance from a non-domain machine (for example, I am working with a Linux-based application which happily does this), but I don't seem to be able to work out how to do it from a Windows machine. Help would be appreciated! Thanks, Martin

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• iPhone: How to run a Beta build, in addition to the App Store build?

  - by rondoagogo

  Hi, All! I have an app on the Store for which we’re readying an update. The other members of our team have the App Store version already loaded up (~purchased) on their respective iPhones -- and those contain User Data which each member needs to be able to keep. In the meantime, we need to test out a Beta version of the next version of the app. Presumably, we’d need to have the two versions (ad hoc, and app store) co-existing on each device, at least until everyone’s signed off on the beta, and it’s uploaded to the store (at which point, they'd delete the beta version). [Once it’s on the Store, of course, they can each update their main (i.e., Release) version of the app via the usual App Store 'update' mechanism -- and then delete the beta version from their devices. In that case, all their user data is still retained intact.] So assuming that’s the proper workflow ... How do I issue a Beta to the team, and have it not replace/overwrite the existing App Store version? I’ve tried customizing parameters in the beta’s “[appname]-Info.plist”, but haven’t found a setting yet that allows the two versions (beta and release) to co-exist on the same device. Any ideas? And is this this is the proper approach to them being able to keep their data? (And last, how might I do it with & without a script? I assume there's just one parameter that'd need to be changed.) I hope this all makes sense -- thank you in advance for your help!

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• What's the point of indicating AllowMultiple=false on an abstract Attribute class?

  - by tvanfosson

  On a recent question about MVC attributes, someone asked whether using HttpPost and HttpDelete attributes on an action method would result in either request type being allowed or no requests being allowed (since it can't be both a Post and a Delete at the same time). I noticed that ActionMethodSelectorAttribute, from which HttpPostAttribute and HttpDeleteAttribute both derive is decorated with [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Method, AllowMultiple = false, Inherited = true)] I had expected it to not allow both HttpPost and HttpDelete on the same method because of this, but the compiler doesn't complain. My limited testing tells me that the attribute usage on the base class is simply ignored. AllowMultiple seemingly only disallows two of the same attribute from being applied to a method/class and doesn't seem to consider whether those attributes derive from the same class which is configured to not allow multiples. Moreover, the attribute usage on the base class doesn't even preclude your from changing the attribute usage on a derived class. That being the case, what's the point of even setting the values on the base attribute class? Is it just advisory or am I missing something fundamental in how they work? FYI - it turns out that using both basically precludes that method from ever being considered. The attributes are evaluated independently and one of them will always indicate that the method is not valid for the request since it can't simultaneously be both a Post and a Delete.

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• Absolutely positioned element moved by margin of another element

  - by user1505528

  Here is my jsFiddle for the following question: http://jsfiddle.net/arelia/Rruxf/ I'd like to have a header that stays at the very top of the body and a footer that stays at the very bottom of the body. I have a content div (position: relative) between the header and footer, and when I set a margin around the div my absolutely positioned header and footer move from their top/bottom positions by the height of that margin (this also happened when I tried setting a margin above and below the paragraphs in the div). In the fiddle you can see that the footer is not attached to the bottom even though it's absolutely positioned (I went ahead and made the header static since static gives the intended result). How do I position the header and footer to the top and bottom of the body and not have the content in the middle move those two elements? If the position: absolute elements are moved out of the flow why would anything affect their position at all? I've tried searching here and Google for "CSS margin affects absolute" and a few other phrases to no avail. I discovered this while playing around with it some more in developer tools: Metrics show the body is the height of the html element minus the amount of one margin (the margin that's still affecting the footer). So, the body must be stretching to the height of the content div since there is nothing else within the document flow within the body to define its height. But that height ends where the content ends instead of after the margin. Shouldn't it include the margin? If I make the height of the body 100%, the footer positions itself to the bottom of the viewport and then stays fixed in that spot when I scroll. Why isn't it attaching itself to the bottom of the body instead of the bottom of the viewport?

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• Windows Phone 7.1.1 Ping

  - by Matt

  I am writing an app to connect to a third party application using REST web services. I have a configuration page that asks for an IP, Port, User Name & Password, currently it just blindly assumes you enter the correct details and attempts a connection. I want to create a test routine that goes through and checks off the following steps when setting up the config information Is the IP/Hostname correct (using ping or something) Is the Port correct Is the Username & Password correct then displays the results on screen as it's going so that if it can't connect to the service it's easier to identify where the issue is. To achieve step 1 I would like to use Ping or some equivalent that does not rely on a particular port being open. So I can eliminate dodgy DNS or a typo in the IP/Hostname. I understand from previous questions asked that ping wasn't possible in 7.0 but with Mango the sockets classes have been added in, is it possible now, if so how? If it still isn't possible is there a different way I can achieve step 1?

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• System.Threading.Timer won't trigger

  - by mijatovic

  Hello guys, I am new here... I have one question, if somebody can help me. It is about timers (System.Threading.Timer). I want to break inevitable recursion: I have two columns in datarow and they are mutually dependant (price_without_VAT and price_with_VAT). Setting one of them will definitely cause StackOverflowException. So here's the idea: bool flag = true; void Reset(object state) { flag = true; } Now, wrap the method for changing value of one of the columns: { if(flag) { flag = false; System.Threading.Timer tmr = new System.Threading.Timer(new System.Threading.TimerCallback(Reset), null, 10, System.Threading.Timeout.Infinite); datarow.other_column = value; } } datarow.other_column.value line will immediately trigger the above method, but there will be no recursion because flag is false. In 10 ms flag should be back to true, and everything is back to normal. Now, when i follow the code in DEBUGGER, everything works fine, but when I start app NORMALLY Reset function simply will not trigger, flag is stuck to false forever and everything false apart. I play around with due_time parameter but nothing seems to help. Any ideas?

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• How can I get sessions to work if I'm using Google App Engine + Django 1.1?

  - by user341642

  Is there a way for me to get sessions working? I know Django has built in session management, and GAE has some tools for it if you're using their watered down version of Django 0.96, but is there a way to get sessions to work if you're trying to use GAE w/ Django 1.1 (i.e. use_library() call). I assume using a db-backed session doesn't work, and a file system backed one won't work b/c we don't have access to the filesystem if we deploy to the Google production servers. This kinda worked (as in didn't crap out) when I used SessionMiddleware backed by a local-memory backed cache and a non-persistent cache (i.e. setting SESSION_ENGINE to django.contrib.sessions.backends.cache). But the session never seems to persist in this case, no matter how I set the timeouts. A new session key is generated on every page reload. Maybe this is b/c the GAE assumes complete statelessness with each request and blows away my local cache? Apologies in advance, I'm pretty new to Python. Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated.

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• Write transparent HTTP Proxy script in PHP

  - by Leo Izen

  Is there an easy forwarding/transparent php proxy script that I can host on my web server? These are my conditions: I'm using free web hosting, so I have pretty much no control over my machine. Otherwise I could use Perl's HTTP::Proxy module. This means no root password. It does run php though. I already have a server running on port 80. What I mean is I would like to put a php script as index.php on my server that will forward all requests. I don't want a script like PHProxy or Glype where I go to the site, then enter a URL. I want a server so I can enter proxy.example.com:80 in Firefox's or IE's or whatever's proxy settings and it will forward all requests to the server. Preferably (though not fatal if not possible) I would like for it to pass on the USER_AGENT environmental variable (That's the browser) instead of setting itself to be the USER_AGENT I can't start a new Daemon. My server won't allow it. Is there a script that will do this? If so, which?

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• How to set the ActiveMQ redeliveryPolicy on a queue?

  - by edbras

  How do I set the redeliveryPolicy in ActiveMQ on a Queue? 1) In the doc, see: activeMQ Redelivery, the explain that you should set it on the ConnectionFactory or Connection. But I want to use different value's for different Queue's. 2) Apart from that, I don't seem to get it work. Setting it on the connection factory in Spring (I am using activemq 5.4.2. with Spring 3.0) like this don't seem to have any effect: <amq:connectionFactory id="amqConnectionFactory" brokerURL="${jms.factory.url}" > <amq:properties> <amq:redeliveryPolicy maximumRedeliveries="6" initialRedeliveryDelay="15000" useExponentialBackOff="true" backOffMultiplier="5"/> </amq:properties> </amq:connectionFactory> I also tried to set it as property on the defined Queue, but that also seem to be ignored as the redelivery occurs sooner that the defined values: <amq:queue id="jmsQueueDeclarationSnd" physicalName="${jms.queue.declaration.snd}" > <amq:properties> <amq:redeliveryPolicy maximumRedeliveries="6" initialRedeliveryDelay="15000" useExponentialBackOff="true" backOffMultiplier="5"/> </amq:properties> </amq:queue> Thanks

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• PHP cookies in a session handler

  - by steve

  I have run into a very interesting problem trying to debug my custom php session handler. For some reason unknown to me I can set cookies all the way through the session handler right up until the very start of the write function. As far as I know session handler calls go in this order. open - read - write - close The open function sets a cookie just fine. function open($save_path,$session_name) { require_once('database.php'); require_once('websiteinfo.php'); mysql_connect($sqllocation,$sql_session_user,$sql_session_pass); @mysql_select_db($sql_default_db); date_default_timezone_set('America/Los_Angeles'); setcookie("test","test"); return TRUE; } The read function can set a cookie right up until the very moment it returns a value. function read($session_id) { $time = time(); $query = "SELECT * FROM 'sessions' WHERE 'expires' > '$time'"; $query_result = mysql_query($query); $data = ''; /* fetch the array and start sifting through it */ while($session_array = mysql_fetch_array($query_result)) { /* strip the slashes from the session array */ $session_array = $this->strip($session_array); /* authenticate the user and if so return the session data */ if($this->auth_check($session_array,$session_id)) { $data = $session_array['data']; } } setcookie("testcookie1","value1",time()+1000,'/'); return $data; } The very first line of the write function is setting another cookie and it cannot because the headers are already sent. Any ideas anyone? Thanks in advance

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