Search Results

Search found 14745 results on 590 pages for 'setting'.

Page 513/590 | < Previous Page | 509 510 511 512 513 514 515 516 517 518 519 520  | Next Page >

  • Python "callable" attribute (pseudo-property)

    - by mgilson
    In python, I can alter the state of an instance by directly assigning to attributes, or by making method calls which alter the state of the attributes: foo.thing = 'baz' or: foo.thing('baz') Is there a nice way to create a class which would accept both of the above forms which scales to large numbers of attributes that behave this way? (Shortly, I'll show an example of an implementation that I don't particularly like.) If you're thinking that this is a stupid API, let me know, but perhaps a more concrete example is in order. Say I have a Document class. Document could have an attribute title. However, title may want to have some state as well (font,fontsize,justification,...), but the average user might be happy enough just setting the title to a string and being done with it ... One way to accomplish this would be to: class Title(object): def __init__(self,text,font='times',size=12): self.text = text self.font = font self.size = size def __call__(self,*text,**kwargs): if(text): self.text = text[0] for k,v in kwargs.items(): setattr(self,k,v) def __str__(self): return '<title font={font}, size={size}>{text}</title>'.format(text=self.text,size=self.size,font=self.font) class Document(object): _special_attr = set(['title']) def __setattr__(self,k,v): if k in self._special_attr and hasattr(self,k): getattr(self,k)(v) else: object.__setattr__(self,k,v) def __init__(self,text="",title=""): self.title = Title(title) self.text = text def __str__(self): return str(self.title)+'<body>'+self.text+'</body>' Now I can use this as follows: doc = Document() doc.title = "Hello World" print (str(doc)) doc.title("Goodbye World",font="Helvetica") print (str(doc)) This implementation seems a little messy though (with __special_attr). Maybe that's because this is a messed up API. I'm not sure. Is there a better way to do this? Or did I leave the beaten path a little too far on this one? I realize I could use @property for this as well, but that wouldn't scale well at all if I had more than just one attribute which is to behave this way -- I'd need to write a getter and setter for each, yuck.

    Read the article

  • [RAILS] Why is ssl_requirement clearing the Flash? (Chrome Mac)

    - by aaronrussell
    I am using ssl_requirement and since setting it up, my application's Flash messages are disappearing. I've modified the plugin slightly as accounts can optionally have a domain mapped to their account. In that case the non-ssl areas of the site should use the mapped domain, whereas the ssl areas should use the subdomain: def ensure_proper_protocol return true if ssl_allowed? if ssl_required? && !request.ssl? redirect_to "https://#{@account.subdomain}." + APP_CONF[:domain] + request.request_uri flash.keep return false elsif request.ssl? && !ssl_required? redirect_to "http://#{@account.sub_or_mapped_domain}" + request.request_uri flash.keep return false end end The application is broadly split into a website (front end) and an admin (back end). ALL of the admin area uses SSL so in the AdminController I have overwritten ssl_required? with: protected def ssl_required? return false if RAILS_ENV == "test" || RAILS_ENV == "development" true end Interestingly, Flash messages work fine in the development environment, where I am bypassing requiring SSL, but in my production environment where SSL is required, all Flash are gone. Any ideas? EDIT I've done some further testing and can add that this problem is ONLY occurring in Chrome on the Mac. Other Mac browsers and Chrome on windows are displaying the Flash messages as expected. This may be a bug with Chrome on the Mac then...?

    Read the article

  • MonoTouch's Soft Debugger don't connect to App on iPhone - why?

    - by smokinharp
    Hi everyone, I'm quite new on MonoTouch, so please forgive me my question in doubt... ;-) I need help with the soft-debugger, because it's not connecting to the App on the device. While with iPhone Simulator everything is working as expected, the following happens when I start debugging against my device: The is uploaded and installed to the device. MonoDevelop comes up with a window saying the following: "Waiting for debugger to connect on 127.0.0.1:10000..." Please start the application on the device" When starting the app on the device, the device vibrates indicating that the debugger is not connected.... In the settings of my App on the iPhone I have set the IP-Adress to my Mac's IP. My iPhone is connected via WIFI to my network. I can ping my Mac from my iPhone and vice versa. In several screenshots where the debugger was obviously working I saw that the debugger came up with the Mac's IP address and not the 127.0.0.1.... Do I have to configure my IP-address somewhere in MonoDevelop? BTW: I'm using the latest version of MonoDevelop - it's 2.4.1 I have tried anything.... re-installing MonoDevelop, cleaning up the project several times, setting up a new project.... nothing... Please, please help....

    Read the article

  • RegExpValidator never matches

    - by babyangel86
    Hi, I've got a class that's meant to validate input fields to make sure the value is always a decimal. I've tested the regex here: http://livedocs.adobe.com/flex/3/html/help.html?content=validators_7.html, and it looks like it does the right thing, but in my app, I can't seem to get it to match to a number format. Class Definition: public class DecimalValidator { //------------------------------- ATTRIBUTES public var isDecimalValidator:RegExpValidator; //------------------------------- CONSTRUCTORS public function DecimalValidator() { isDecimalValidator = new RegExpValidator(); isDecimalValidator.expression = "^-?(\d+\.\d*|\.\d+)$"; isDecimalValidator.flags = "g"; isDecimalValidator.required = true; isDecimalValidator.property = "text"; isDecimalValidator.triggerEvent = FocusEvent.FOCUS_OUT; isDecimalValidator.noMatchError = "Float Expected"; } } Setting the source here: public function registerDecimalInputValidator(inputBox:TextInput, valArr:Array):void { // Add Validators var dValidator:DecimalValidator = new DecimalValidator(); dValidator.isDecimalValidator.source = inputBox; dValidator.isDecimalValidator.trigger = inputBox; inputBox.restrict = "[0-9].\\.\\-"; inputBox.maxChars = 10; valArr.push(dValidator.isDecimalValidator); } And Calling it here: registerDecimalInputValidator(textInput, validatorArr); Where textInput is an input box created earlier. Clearly I'm missing something simple yet important, but I'm not entirely sure what! Any help would be much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • What's the point of indicating AllowMultiple=false on an abstract Attribute class?

    - by tvanfosson
    On a recent question about MVC attributes, someone asked whether using HttpPost and HttpDelete attributes on an action method would result in either request type being allowed or no requests being allowed (since it can't be both a Post and a Delete at the same time). I noticed that ActionMethodSelectorAttribute, from which HttpPostAttribute and HttpDeleteAttribute both derive is decorated with [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Method, AllowMultiple = false, Inherited = true)] I had expected it to not allow both HttpPost and HttpDelete on the same method because of this, but the compiler doesn't complain. My limited testing tells me that the attribute usage on the base class is simply ignored. AllowMultiple seemingly only disallows two of the same attribute from being applied to a method/class and doesn't seem to consider whether those attributes derive from the same class which is configured to not allow multiples. Moreover, the attribute usage on the base class doesn't even preclude your from changing the attribute usage on a derived class. That being the case, what's the point of even setting the values on the base attribute class? Is it just advisory or am I missing something fundamental in how they work? FYI - it turns out that using both basically precludes that method from ever being considered. The attributes are evaluated independently and one of them will always indicate that the method is not valid for the request since it can't simultaneously be both a Post and a Delete.

    Read the article

  • Does IE6 Really not Allow Me to set width/height from left/right/top/bottom???

    - by viatropos
    Building a site super quick and having it work on all my Mac browsers, I thought I'd take a gander on a friends old dell laptop with Windows XP and IE6. Nothing looks remotely correct. It's because I used lots of left/right/top/bottom (constraint) declarations to size elements proportionally to their parent's size (I didn't use percent sizes because the percents refer to the parent's size before margins and padding are applied, left/right/top/bottom refer to them after with position:absolute. I'm asking about that here :)). I've read lots these past few weeks on how horrible IE6 (and IE) is in general, but because of all the reasons people say to support it (large market share and the fear of installing better software), and because half the people in the company we're building a site for use IE6 (getting them to upgrade to Chrome slowly but surely), I thought if I could just get IE6 to render my constraints, that might help. So I am messing around with simple layouts here, and they work fine in my latest versions of Firefox, Safari, Chrome, and Opera, but IE6 is basically saying: If you haven't set a width or height on me, I'm assuming it's zero. But position:absolute; left:0px; right:0px; top:0px; bottom:0px; on a container that's width:1000px; height:1000px; should be the same as setting width:1000px; height:1000px on the child, no? Taking a quick look at the source for this, why won't IE6 render the constraint based absolutely positioned AND SIZED elements? (note: I will be messing around with that file for a while) Thanks

    Read the article

  • What is the common way to program action listeners?

    - by Roman
    I just started to learn how to use action listeners. To my understanding it works in the following way: There are some classes which contains "addActionListener" method by default (for example classes for buttons). Using this method we add an action listener to an object. For example: listenedObject.addActionListener(listeningObject). When an action with the "listenedObject" is performed, the "actionPerformed" method of the "listeningObject" will be called. So, it means that when we program a class for the listeningObject, we need to put there "actionPerformed" method. What is not clear to me, should we create a new class for every object that we want to listen. It does not seem to me as an elegant solution. On the other hand, if we have one action listener class for all (or at least many) object, than we have a problem since a instance of this class will not know which object is calling the "actionPerformed" method (and we need to know that since actions performed by the actionPerformed differs depending on who is called for this method). In my opinion, for every listened object we need to create are "personal" action listener and we can do it by setting a specific value to the corresponding field of the action listener. But I am not sure that it is a standard way to go? How do usually people do it?

    Read the article

  • How to call back (like onActivityResult) after launching activity from browser by clicking url?

    - by kimilhee
    I succeded to call activity from browser link with tag like this. <a href="myapp://launch.myapp.com/activity2?var1=linkClicked">my app</a> of cource I added actvity setting in AndroidManifest.xml like this. <activity android:name=".Activity2" > <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.VIEW"></action> <category android:name="android.intent.category.DEFAULT"></category> <category android:name="android.intent.category.BROWSABLE"></category> <data android:host="launch.myapp.com" android:scheme="myapp" android:pathPrefix="/activity2"></data> </intent-filter> </activity> I want to call back from the activity2 with a value. Is there any way to receive some value from the activity that was launched by the browser like above? In other words I want do something like onActivityResult in the browser and get a value from the activity and set the value on the web page which has launched the activity.

    Read the article

  • iPhone: How to run a Beta build, in addition to the App Store build?

    - by rondoagogo
    Hi, All! I have an app on the Store for which we’re readying an update. The other members of our team have the App Store version already loaded up (~purchased) on their respective iPhones -- and those contain User Data which each member needs to be able to keep. In the meantime, we need to test out a Beta version of the next version of the app. Presumably, we’d need to have the two versions (ad hoc, and app store) co-existing on each device, at least until everyone’s signed off on the beta, and it’s uploaded to the store (at which point, they'd delete the beta version). [Once it’s on the Store, of course, they can each update their main (i.e., Release) version of the app via the usual App Store 'update' mechanism -- and then delete the beta version from their devices. In that case, all their user data is still retained intact.] So assuming that’s the proper workflow ... How do I issue a Beta to the team, and have it not replace/overwrite the existing App Store version? I’ve tried customizing parameters in the beta’s “[appname]-Info.plist”, but haven’t found a setting yet that allows the two versions (beta and release) to co-exist on the same device. Any ideas? And is this this is the proper approach to them being able to keep their data? (And last, how might I do it with & without a script? I assume there's just one parameter that'd need to be changed.) I hope this all makes sense -- thank you in advance for your help!

    Read the article

  • Absolutely positioned element moved by margin of another element

    - by user1505528
    Here is my jsFiddle for the following question: http://jsfiddle.net/arelia/Rruxf/ I'd like to have a header that stays at the very top of the body and a footer that stays at the very bottom of the body. I have a content div (position: relative) between the header and footer, and when I set a margin around the div my absolutely positioned header and footer move from their top/bottom positions by the height of that margin (this also happened when I tried setting a margin above and below the paragraphs in the div). In the fiddle you can see that the footer is not attached to the bottom even though it's absolutely positioned (I went ahead and made the header static since static gives the intended result). How do I position the header and footer to the top and bottom of the body and not have the content in the middle move those two elements? If the position: absolute elements are moved out of the flow why would anything affect their position at all? I've tried searching here and Google for "CSS margin affects absolute" and a few other phrases to no avail. I discovered this while playing around with it some more in developer tools: Metrics show the body is the height of the html element minus the amount of one margin (the margin that's still affecting the footer). So, the body must be stretching to the height of the content div since there is nothing else within the document flow within the body to define its height. But that height ends where the content ends instead of after the margin. Shouldn't it include the margin? If I make the height of the body 100%, the footer positions itself to the bottom of the viewport and then stays fixed in that spot when I scroll. Why isn't it attaching itself to the bottom of the body instead of the bottom of the viewport?

    Read the article

  • Expressjs route param as variable in main app

    - by MoDFoX
    For my app I have two route set up, app.get('/', routes.index); app.get('/:name', routes.index); I would like it to be so that if I don't specify a param, say just go to appurl.com (localhost:3000), it would load a default user, but if I do specify a param(localhost:3000/user), use that as the variable "username" in the following function (placed after my routes). (function getUser(){ var body = '', username = 'WillsonSM', options = { host: 'ws.audioscrobbler.com', port: 80, path: '/2.0/?method=user.gettopartists&user=' + username + '&format=json&limit=20&api_key=APIKEYGOESHERE' }; require('http').request(options, function(res) { res.setEncoding('utf8'); res.on('data', function(chunk) { body += chunk; }); res.on('end', function() { body = JSON.parse(body); artists = body.topartists.artist; }); }).end(); })(); Along with this I have my route set up like so: exports.index = function(req, res){ res.render('index', { title: 'LasTube' }); username = req.params.name; console.log(username); }; unfortunately setting username there to req.params.name does not seem to be accessible from the main app function. My question is: How can I set expressjs/nodejs to use the parameter set via /name when available, and just use a default - in this example "WillsonSM" if not available. I've tried taking "username" out of the main app, and just leaving it in the function, but username becomes undefined, as it is inaccessible from the route, and the app will not run. I can spit out "username" via the routes console.log, so assigning it there is not an issue, but as I am new to expressjs, I am unaware of how I should go about doing this. I have tried all I can think of and find from looking around the internet. Also, if there is a better way of doing this, or I am doing something wrong, please let me know. If I've left out any information, just throw in a comment and I'll try to address it.

    Read the article

  • How can I get sessions to work if I'm using Google App Engine + Django 1.1?

    - by user341642
    Is there a way for me to get sessions working? I know Django has built in session management, and GAE has some tools for it if you're using their watered down version of Django 0.96, but is there a way to get sessions to work if you're trying to use GAE w/ Django 1.1 (i.e. use_library() call). I assume using a db-backed session doesn't work, and a file system backed one won't work b/c we don't have access to the filesystem if we deploy to the Google production servers. This kinda worked (as in didn't crap out) when I used SessionMiddleware backed by a local-memory backed cache and a non-persistent cache (i.e. setting SESSION_ENGINE to django.contrib.sessions.backends.cache). But the session never seems to persist in this case, no matter how I set the timeouts. A new session key is generated on every page reload. Maybe this is b/c the GAE assumes complete statelessness with each request and blows away my local cache? Apologies in advance, I'm pretty new to Python. Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Show Color Picker Value Code Within Input Text Field in Wordpress

    - by Shwan Namiq
    Hi i have options page for my theme i used color picker jquery plugin in my options page as show in image below. i want when i change the color from color picker automatically show the color value code within the text field.how can do this? this is the code within my options page related to appearing the color picker and text field function to register the options setting function YPE_register_settings_sections_fields() { register_setting ( 'YPE_header_option_group', 'YPE_header_option_name', 'YPE_sanitize_validate_callback' ); add_settings_section ( 'YPE_header_section', 'Header Section', 'YPE_header_section_callback', 'YPE_menu_page_options' ); add_settings_field ( 'YPE_header_bg', 'Header Background', 'YPE_header_bg_callback', 'YPE_menu_page_options', 'YPE_header_section' ); } add_action('admin_init', 'YPE_register_settings_sections_fields'); function to appear the text field and color picker function YPE_header_bg_callback() { $YPE_options = get_option('YPE_header_option_name'); $YPE_header_bg = isset($YPE_options['YPE_header_bg']) ? $YPE_options['YPE_header_bg'] : ''; ?> <div class="input-group color-picker"> <input class="form-control" style="width:80px;" name="YPE_header_option_name[YPE_header_bg]" id="<?php echo 'YPE_header_bg'; ?>" type="text" value="<?php echo $YPE_header_bg; ?>" /> <span class="input-group-btn"> <div id="colorSelector"> <div nam style="background-color: #0000ff"> </div> </div> </span> </div> <script> $("#colorSelector").ColorPicker({ color: '#0000ff', onShow: function (colpkr) { $(colpkr).fadeIn(500); return false; }, onHide: function (colpkr) { $(colpkr).fadeOut(500); return false; }, onChange: function (hsb, hex, rgb) { $('#colorSelector div').css('backgroundColor', '#' + hex); }); </script> <?php }

    Read the article

  • Sharing class member data between sub components

    - by Tim Gradwell
    I have an aggregate 'main' class which contains some data which I wish to share. The main class also has other class members. I want to share the data with these other class members. What is the correct / neatest way to do this? The specific example I have is as follows. The main class is a .net Form. I have some controls (actually controls within controls) on the main form which need access to the shared data. Main Form - DataX - DataY - Control1 -- Subcontrol1 - Control2 -- SubControl2 SubControls 1 and 2 both wish to access DataX and DataY. The trouble is, I feel like better practice (to reduce coupling), would be that either subcontrols should not know about Main Form, or Main Form should not know about subcontrols - probably the former. For subcontrols not to know about Main Form, would probably mean Main Form passing references to both Controls 1 and 2, which in turn would pass the references on to SubControls 1 and 2. Lots of lines of code which just forward the references. If I later added DataZ and DataW, and Controls 3 and 4 and SubControls 3 and 4, I'd have to add lots more reference forwarding code. It seems simpler to me to give SubControls 1 and 2 member references to Main Form. That way, any sub control could just ask for MainForm.DataX or MainForm.DataY and if I ever added new data, I could just access it directly from the sub controls with no hassle. But it still involves setting the 'MainForm' member references every time I add a new Control or Subcontrol. And it gives me a gut feeling of 'wrong'. As you might be able to tell I'm not happy with either of my solutions. Is there a better way? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Margin for select option in IE and chrome is not working

    - by Sardor
    I am setting a css class to some select options in JS. This class includes margin style. It is working in the FF but not in IE and chrome. window.onload = function() { replace('edit-field-region-tid'); replace('edit-tid'); } function replace(id) { var i = 0; var s = document.getElementById(id); for (i; i < s.options.length; i++) { if (find(s.options[i].text, id, i)) { s.options[i].setAttribute("class", "sub_options"); } } } function find(str, id, option_id) { var i; var s = document.getElementById(id); for (i = 0; i < str.length; i++) { if (str.charAt(i) == '-') { s.options[option_id].text = str.cutAt(0, ""); return true; } } return false; } String.prototype.cutAt = function(index, char) { return this.substr(index+1, this.length); } And CSS: .sub_options{ margin-left:20px; text-indent:-2px; } Any ideas thanks!

    Read the article

  • Why would JSP tags appear in HTML source code?

    - by Michael
    I'm a front-end web developer at a company using Java on their server. As a front-end developer, I'm concerned with the HTML structure that the server produces, but I don't have control over anything our back-end team produces. Rather than ask someone on that team, I would like to gather knowledge from the Stackoverflow community so I can communicate intelligently with the back-end team. So, I am curious as to what would cause certain JSP tags to appear in the rendered HTML that is sent to the browser. We have tags in our HTML source such as: <flow:fileRef id="vfileColor" fileId="vfile.color"/> <flow:fileRef id="StyleDir" fileId="StyleDir"/> <flow:fileRef id="vfileStylesheet" fileId="vfile.stylesheet"/> I am more interested in knowing why these appear, not as much about what they do. Is there a server setting for Tomcat/Apache/etc. that would hide these tags from the browser? Any information would be helpful. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Access to SQL Server 2005 from a non-domain machine using Windows authentication

    - by user304582
    Hi, I have a Windows domain within which a machine is running SQL Server 2005 and which is configured to support only Windows authentication. I would like to run a C# client application on a machine on the same network, but which is NOT on the domain, and access a database on the SQL Server 2005 instance. I thought that it would be a simple matter of doing something like this: string connectionString = "Data Source=server;Initial Catalog=database;User Id=domain\user;Password=password"; SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(connectionString); connection.Open(); However, this fails: the client-side error is: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Login failed for user 'domain\user' and the server-side error is: Error 18456, Severity 14, State 5 I have tried various things including setting integrated security to true and false, and \ instead of \ in the User Id, but without success. In general, I know that it possible to connect to the SQL Server 2005 instance from a non-domain machine (for example, I am working with a Linux-based application which happily does this), but I don't seem to be able to work out how to do it from a Windows machine. Help would be appreciated! Thanks, Martin

    Read the article

  • System.Threading.Timer won't trigger

    - by mijatovic
    Hello guys, I am new here... I have one question, if somebody can help me. It is about timers (System.Threading.Timer). I want to break inevitable recursion: I have two columns in datarow and they are mutually dependant (price_without_VAT and price_with_VAT). Setting one of them will definitely cause StackOverflowException. So here's the idea: bool flag = true; void Reset(object state) { flag = true; } Now, wrap the method for changing value of one of the columns: { if(flag) { flag = false; System.Threading.Timer tmr = new System.Threading.Timer(new System.Threading.TimerCallback(Reset), null, 10, System.Threading.Timeout.Infinite); datarow.other_column = value; } } datarow.other_column.value line will immediately trigger the above method, but there will be no recursion because flag is false. In 10 ms flag should be back to true, and everything is back to normal. Now, when i follow the code in DEBUGGER, everything works fine, but when I start app NORMALLY Reset function simply will not trigger, flag is stuck to false forever and everything false apart. I play around with due_time parameter but nothing seems to help. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • How to set the ActiveMQ redeliveryPolicy on a queue?

    - by edbras
    How do I set the redeliveryPolicy in ActiveMQ on a Queue? 1) In the doc, see: activeMQ Redelivery, the explain that you should set it on the ConnectionFactory or Connection. But I want to use different value's for different Queue's. 2) Apart from that, I don't seem to get it work. Setting it on the connection factory in Spring (I am using activemq 5.4.2. with Spring 3.0) like this don't seem to have any effect: <amq:connectionFactory id="amqConnectionFactory" brokerURL="${jms.factory.url}" > <amq:properties> <amq:redeliveryPolicy maximumRedeliveries="6" initialRedeliveryDelay="15000" useExponentialBackOff="true" backOffMultiplier="5"/> </amq:properties> </amq:connectionFactory> I also tried to set it as property on the defined Queue, but that also seem to be ignored as the redelivery occurs sooner that the defined values: <amq:queue id="jmsQueueDeclarationSnd" physicalName="${jms.queue.declaration.snd}" > <amq:properties> <amq:redeliveryPolicy maximumRedeliveries="6" initialRedeliveryDelay="15000" useExponentialBackOff="true" backOffMultiplier="5"/> </amq:properties> </amq:queue> Thanks

    Read the article

  • PHP cookies in a session handler

    - by steve
    I have run into a very interesting problem trying to debug my custom php session handler. For some reason unknown to me I can set cookies all the way through the session handler right up until the very start of the write function. As far as I know session handler calls go in this order. open - read - write - close The open function sets a cookie just fine. function open($save_path,$session_name) { require_once('database.php'); require_once('websiteinfo.php'); mysql_connect($sqllocation,$sql_session_user,$sql_session_pass); @mysql_select_db($sql_default_db); date_default_timezone_set('America/Los_Angeles'); setcookie("test","test"); return TRUE; } The read function can set a cookie right up until the very moment it returns a value. function read($session_id) { $time = time(); $query = "SELECT * FROM 'sessions' WHERE 'expires' > '$time'"; $query_result = mysql_query($query); $data = ''; /* fetch the array and start sifting through it */ while($session_array = mysql_fetch_array($query_result)) { /* strip the slashes from the session array */ $session_array = $this->strip($session_array); /* authenticate the user and if so return the session data */ if($this->auth_check($session_array,$session_id)) { $data = $session_array['data']; } } setcookie("testcookie1","value1",time()+1000,'/'); return $data; } The very first line of the write function is setting another cookie and it cannot because the headers are already sent. Any ideas anyone? Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • How do I execute a sql statement through a variable (dyname sql) that tries to do an insert into a variable table?

    - by Testifier
    If I do what I wanna do with a TEMPORARY TABLE, it works fine: DECLARE @CTRFR VARCHAR(MAX) SET @CTRFR = 'select blah blah blah' -- <-- very long select statement. this returns a 0 or some greater number. Please note! --> I NEED THIS NUMBER. IF EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM sys.objects WHERE object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'[dbo][#CTRFRResult]') AND type IN ( N'U' ) ) DROP TABLE [dbo].[#CTRFRResult] CREATE TABLE #CTRFRResult ( CTRFRResult VARCHAR(MAX) ) SET @CTRFR = 'insert into #CTRFRResult ' + @CTRFR EXEC(@CTRFR) The above works fine. The problem is that several databases are using the same TEMP table. Therefore I need to use a VARIABLE table (instead of a temporary table). What I have below is not working because it says that the table must be declared. DECLARE @CTRFRResult TABLE ( CTRFRResult VARCHAR(MAX) ) SET @CTRFR = 'insert into @CTRFRResult ' + @CTRFR -- I think the issue is here. EXEC(@CTRFR) Setting @CTRFR to 'insert into...' is not working because I'm assuming the table name is out of scope. How would I go about mimicking the temporary table code using a variable table?

    Read the article

  • Memory Leaks in pickerView using sqlite

    - by Danamo
    I'm adding self.notes array to a pickerView. This is how I'm setting the array: NSMutableArray *notesArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; [notesArray addObject:@"-"]; [notesArray addObjectsFromArray:[dbManager getTableValues:@"Notes"]]; self.notes = notesArray; [notesArray release]; The info for the pickerView is taken from the database in this method: -(NSMutableArray *)getTableValues:(NSString *)table { NSMutableArray *valuesArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; if (sqlite3_open([self.databasePath UTF8String], &database) != SQLITE_OK) { sqlite3_close(database); NSAssert(0, @"Failed to open database"); } else { NSString *query = [[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"SELECT value FROM %@", table]; sqlite3_stmt *statement; if (sqlite3_prepare_v2(database, [query UTF8String], -1, &statement, nil) == SQLITE_OK) { while (sqlite3_step(statement) == SQLITE_ROW) { NSString *value =[NSString stringWithUTF8String:(char *)sqlite3_column_text(statement, 0)]; [valuesArray addObject:value]; [value release]; } sqlite3_reset(statement); } [query release]; sqlite3_finalize(statement); sqlite3_close(database); } return valuesArray; } But I keep getting memory leaks in Instruments for these lines: NSMutableArray *valuesArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; and [valuesArray addObject:value]; What am I doing wrong here? Thanks for your help!

    Read the article

  • PHP download page: file_exists() returns true, but browser returns 'page not found'

    - by Chris
    I'm using PHP for a file download page. Here's a snippet of the problem code: if (file_exists($attachment_location)) { header($_SERVER["SERVER_PROTOCOL"] . " 200 OK"); header("Cache-Control: public"); // needed for i.e. header("Content-Type: application/zip"); header("Content-Transfer-Encoding: Binary"); header("Content-Length:".filesize($attachment_location)); header("Content-Disposition: attachment; filename=file.zip"); readfile($attachment_location); die("Hooray"); } else { die("Error: File not found."); } This code works absolutely fine when testing locally, but after deploying to the live server the browser returns a 'Page not found' error. I thought it might be an .htaccess issue, but all .htaccess files on the live server are identical to their local counterparts. My next guess would be the live server's PHP configuration, but I have no idea what PHP setting might cause this behaviour. The file_exists() function always returns true - I've checked this on the live server and it's always correctly picking up the file, its size etc., so it does have a handle on the file. It just won't perform the download! The main site is a Wordpress site, but this code isn't part of a Wordpress page - it's in a standalone directory within the site root. UPDATE: is_file() and is_readable() are both returning true for the file, so that's not the problem. The specific line that is causing the problem is: readfile($attachment_location) Everything up until that point is super happy.

    Read the article

  • MySQL datetime fields and daylight savings time -- how do I reference the "extra" hour?

    - by Aaron
    I'm using the America/New York timezone. In the Fall we "fall back" an hour -- effectively "gaining" one hour at 2am. At the transition point the following happens: it's 01:59:00 -04:00 then 1 minute later it becomes: 01:00:00 -05:00 So if you simply say "1:30am" it's ambiguous as to whether or not you're referring to the first time 1:30 rolls around or the second. I'm trying to save scheduling data to a MySQL database and can't determine how to save the times properly. Here's the problem: "2009-11-01 00:30:00" is stored internally as 2009-11-01 00:30:00 -04:00 "2009-11-01 01:30:00" is stored internally as 2009-11-01 01:30:00 -05:00 This is fine and fairly expected. But how do I save anything to 01:30:00 -04:00? The documentation does not show any support for specifying the offset and, accordingly, when I've tried specifying the offset it's been duly ignored. The only solutions I've thought of involve setting the server to a timezone that doesn't use daylight savings time and doing the necessary transformations in my scripts (I'm using PHP for this). But that doesn't seem like it should be necessary. Many thanks for any suggestions.

    Read the article

  • I have data about deadlocks, but I can't understand why they occur (MS SQL/ASP.NET MVC)

    - by Alex
    I am receiving a lot of deadlocks in my big web application. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2941233/how-to-automatically-re-run-deadlocked-transaction-asp-net-mvc-sql-server Here I wanted to re-run deadlocked transactions, but I was told to get rid of the deadlocks - it's much better, than trying to catch the deadlocks. So I spent the whole day with SQL profiler, setting the tracing keys etc. And this is what I got. There's a Users table. I have a very high usable page with the following query (it's not the only query, but it's the one that causes troubles) UPDATE Users SET views = views + 1 WHERE ID IN (SELECT AuthorID FROM Articles WHERE ArticleID = @ArticleID) And then there's the following query in ALL pages: User = DB.Users.SingleOrDefault(u => u.Password == password && u.Name == username); That's where I get User from cookies. Very often a deadlock occurs and this second LINQ TO SQL query is chosen as a victim, so it's not run, and users of my site see an error screen. I read a lot about deadlocks... And I don't understand why this is causing a deadlock. So obviously both of this queries run very often. At least once a second. Maybe even more often (300-400 users online). So they can be run at the same time very easily, but why does it cause a deadlock? Please help. Thank you

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 509 510 511 512 513 514 515 516 517 518 519 520  | Next Page >