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• displaying a WPF Window from a System.Configuration.Install.Installer class

  - by cbeuker

  Greetings all, I have a question. I have created a WPF application. So, I naturally created an installer (Visual Studio Install project) for it. In the Commit section of the installer I want to launch a WPF window which is my configuration wizard. So I created a Installer class, overrode the Commit method and put the following in method: Application theApp = new Application; theApp.Run (new MyWPFWizardWindow()); I keep getting the error: The calling thread must be STA, because many UI components require this. No problems, this makes as it is a GUI application. But I can't, for the life of me, get the installer to fire up my window. I have tried putting [STAThread] on the method. I have tried firing up a thread and setting the ApartmentState to STA. I am guessing it's something really simple that I am over looking. Anyone have any thoughts? Thanks in advance.. cmb..

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• splice() not working on correctly

  - by adardesign

  I am setting a cookie for each navigation container that is clicked on. It sets an array that is joined and set the cookie value. if its clicked again then its removed from the array. It somehow buggy. It only splices after clicking on other elements. and then it behaves weird. It might be that splice is not the correct method Thanks much. var navLinkToOpen; var setNavCookie = function(value){ var isSet = false; var checkCookies = checkNavCookie() setCookieHelper = checkCookies? checkCookies.split(","): []; for(i in setCookieHelper){ if(value == setCookieHelper[i]){ setCookieHelper.splice(value,1); isSet = true; } } if(!isSet){setCookieHelper.push(value)} setCookieHelper.join(",") document.cookie = "navLinkToOpen"+"="+setCookieHelper; } var checkNavCookie = function(){ var allCookies = document.cookie.split( ';' ); for (i = 0; i < allCookies.length; i++ ){ temp = allCookies[i].split("=") if(temp[0].match("navLinkToOpen")){ var getValue = temp[1] } } return getValue || false } $(document).ready(function() { $("#LeftNav li").has("b").addClass("navHeader").not(":first").siblings("li").hide() $(".navHeader").click(function(){ $(this).toggleClass("collapsed").nextUntil("li:has('b')").slideToggle(300); setNavCookie($('.navHeader').index($(this))) return false }) var testCookies = checkNavCookie(); if(testCookies){ finalArrayValue = testCookies.split(",") for(i in finalArrayValue){ $(".navHeader").eq(finalArrayValue[i]).toggleClass("collapsed").nextUntil(".navHeader").slideToggle (0); } } });

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• issue with tab bar view displaying a compound view

  - by ambertch

  I created a tab bar application, and I make the first tab a table. So I create a tableView controller, and go about setting the class identity of the view controller for the first tab to my tableView controller. This works fine, and I see the contents of the table filling up the whole screen. However, this is not what I actually want in the end goal - I would like a compound window having multiple views: - the aforementioned table - a custom view with data in it So what I do is create a nib for this content (call it contentNib), change the tab's class from the tableView controller to a generic UIViewController, and set the nib of that tab to this new contentNib. In this new contentNib I drag on a tableView and set File's Owner to the TableViewController. I then link the dataSource and delegate to file's owner (which is TableViewController). Surprisingly this does not work and I receive the error: **Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[UIViewController tableView:numberOfRowsInSection:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x3b0f910'** This is bewildering to me since the file's owner is the TableViewController, which has been assigned to be both the dataSource and delegate. Does someone have either insight into my confusions, or a link to an example of how to have a compound view include a tableView? *update* I see this in the Apple TableView programming guide: "Note: You should use a UIViewController subclass rather than a subclass of UITableViewController to manage a table view if the view to be managed is composed of multiple subviews, one of which is a table view. The default behavior of the UITableViewController class is to make the table view fill the screen between the navigation bar and the tab bar (if either are present)." <----- I don't really get what this is telling me to do though... if someone can explain or point me to an example I'd be much appreciated!

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• jQuery Mobile: How to run a callback-function before $.mobile.changePage?

  - by Jugi84

  I'm setting up a mobile app with jQuery Mobile and PhoneGap. What I want to do is that when I click link with id "news_link" I want jQuery to fetch data from database and put it to jQm's collapsible set. In my solution, I've wanted to use $.mobile.changePage inside callback functions because I want to wait until the data has been fetched and put inside the container before the code changes page. Here's the code: $(function() { $('#news_link').click(function(){ loadNewsFromDB(function(){ $.mobile.changePage( $("#news"), { transition: "slideup"} ); }); }); loadNewsFromDB is PhoneGap's SQLite database function which would fetch the data with more callback functions from database. The contents would be put to desired container with .html-function function loadNewsFromDB(){ //some code here theDB.transaction(function(tx) { tx.executeSql(sqlStr, [], onLoadNewsSuccess, onLoadNewsError); },onTxError, onTxSuccess); function onLoadNewsSuccess(tx, results){ //some code here $("#newsSet").html(htmlCodeAndContentToPut); Html is jQm's basic ui-modules: <!-- some html code here --!> <div data-role="page" id="news"> <div data-role="content"> <div id="newsSet" data-role="collapsible-set" data-mini="true"> With debugging I know that the code work up until it works very well unti it arrives to $.mobile.changePage-function. Somehow it doesn't change the page. I've checked the function it works well in other occasions, but not inside callback-functions. I would be very grateful if someone would give me a hand am I not seeing something obviously wrong or is something more specific? What other workarounds there is for fetching the data from SQLite, waiting for data to be fetched, putting the data to container and then changing the pages?

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• Major JQuery bug on IE not reproducible - What can i do in this situation to solve this bug?

  - by ming yeow

  I am hoping to get some help on this issue. Some users on IE have been reporting this javascript issue, but I have been unable to re-produce it. In essence, for some class of windows IE users, the game doesn't work (or $.ajax() is not working). What I know: I swapped out an ajax call (ajax_init_trainer) and used a standard link with some request parameters to do the initialization and ppl seemed to get passed the problem until they hit the next ajax call. I read somewhere that IE does crazy caching so you need to make the urls unique, which is why i added the _requestno parameter. However, setting the cache:false is said to also do this. This didn't fix it for someone who was complaining. function done(res, status) { var data = JSON.parse(res.responseText); hide_loading(); if (status == "success") { window.location.href="/bamo/battle/?{{ fb_sig}}"; } else { display_alert("Problem!",data.msg,$("#notifications")); } }; $(".monster_select_class").click(function() { $(this).attr("src","{{MEDIA_URL}}/bamo/button_select_click.png"); monster_class = $(this).attr("monster_class"); monster_type = $(this).attr("monster_type"); ajax_init_trainer(monster_class,monster_type); }); function ajax_init_trainer(trainer_class,monster_type) { var data = {trainer_class:trainer_class,monster_type:monster_type}; var d = new Date(); var args = { type:"POST",url:"/bamo/api/init_trainer/?_requestno="+d.getTime(),data:data,contentType:"application/json;", dataType: "json",cache:false,complete:done}; $.ajax(args); return false; };

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• How does an ASP.NET programmer go from working on/developing existing sites, to creating one from sc

  - by SLC

  I've been an ASP.NET developer for some time, always working on existing ASP.NET pages, modifying functionality, adding features, tweaking things etc. but have never built a site up from scratch. I've read books on ASP.NET, and they generally talk you through the various features of ASP.NET with a mock up site, but it's always very basic and they jump straight in. The time has come however, to write a site from scratch for a client. I've never done this before. There are design considerations, but like a lot of ASP.NET sites, the basic idea is, you have a site, where users can log in, and save some information like their name and password and address. The site has some functionality, but that's the basic design of a majority of (business-related) asp.net websites I would wager. I know how to program in ASP.NET already on an existing site, but I don't know how to design my own properly that meets the criteria above. I guess the main worry is security. I don't know the best way to handle a simple log-in system that stores user information like their name and password. I understand there are a few approaches to this, but the catch with this project is that it has to be absolutely bulletproof. Maximum security. All those good practices for security, it needs to have them all. I'm not asking what they are, but I am asking where to begin. What should be the first steps after I do File New Project ? Where can I look for information about setting up a secure ASP.NET website? I'll figure out the content and page layout later, it's the framework that is the big thing. Any and all advice would be welcome. I really want to get my first from-scratch project right from the beginning. Just to confuse things, it's possible I will be using MVC, I am not sure if this has any impact.

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• What is the worst gotcha in WPF?

  - by David

  Hi, I've started to make myself a list of "WPF gotchas": things that bug me and that I had to write down to remember because I fall for them every time.... Now, I'm pretty sure you all stumbled upon similar situations at one point, and I would like you to share your experience on the subject: What is the gotcha that gets you all the time? the one you find the most annoying? (I have a few issues that seem to be without explanation, maybe your submissions will explain them) Here are a few of my "personnal" gotchas (randomly presented): For a MouseEvent to be fired even when the click is on the "transparent" background of a control (e.g. a label) and not just on the content (the Text in this case), the control's Background has to be set to "Brushes.Transparent" and not just "null" (default value for a label) A WPF DataGridCell's DataContext is the RowView to whom the cell belong, not the CellView When inside a ScrollViewer, a Scrollbar is managed by the scrollviewer itself (i.e. setting properties such as ScrollBar.Value is without effect) Key.F10 is not fired when you press "F10", instead you get Key.System and you have to go look for e.SystemKey to get the Key.F10 ... and now you're on.

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• Installing Image_Graph and using with BASE

  - by PPowerHouseK

  Hello all, I have Windows 7 with the latest XAMPP installation. I configured BASE to work, for the most part. My problem is that in BASE, when I click on the graph alerts button, I get this error: Error loading the Graphing library: Check your Pear::Image_Graph installation! * Image_Graph can be found here:at http://pear.veggerby.dk/. Without this library no graphing operations can be performed. * Make sure PEAR libraries can be found by php at all: pear config-show | grep "PEAR directory" PEAR directory php_dir /usr/share/pear This path must be part of the include path of php (cf. /etc/php.ini): php -i | grep "include_path" include_path => .:/usr/share/pear:/usr/share/php => .:/usr/share/pear:/usr/share/php</code> I think it may have to do with the include path of the php.ini so here is what it currently says: ;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;; ; Paths and Directories ; ;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;; ; UNIX: "/path1:/path2" ;include_path = ".:/php/includes" ; ; Windows: "\path1;\path2" ;include_path = ".;c:\php\includes" ; ; PHP's default setting for include_path is ".;/path/to/php/pear" ; http://php.net/include-path include_path = ".;C:\xampp\php\PEAR" I am really at a loss as to how to resolve this. I searched for a while for some documentation but most referred to installing on ubuntu. I don't know any pear or php, so if you know how to fix this please explain thoroughly. I am willing to supply as much information as needed.

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• One-to-many Associations Empty Columns Issue (Ext on Rails)

  - by Joe

  I'm playing with rewriting part of a web application in Rails + Ext. However, I'm having trouble getting an associated models' name to display in the grid view. I've been able to successfully convert several models and arrange the views nicely using tabs and Ext's layout helpers. However, I'm in the middle of setting up an association -- I've followed along with Jon Barket's tutorial on how to do this using Ext -- and I've made all the Rails and JS changes suggested (with appropriate name changes for my models,) the result being that the combo box is now being correctly populated with the names of the associated models, and changes are actually written correctly to database, BUT the data doesn't show up in the column, it's just empty. However, the correct data is there in the 'detail' view. Really just wondering if anyone else ran into this, or had any thoughts on what could be happening. Definitely willing to post code if requested; just note that (AFAIK) my changes follow the tutorial pretty closely. Thanks in advance! UPDATE: Alright, slight progress - kind of. I can get the associated model id # displaying properly -- just by modifying the column model slightly. But I can't get the virtual attribute displayed in the main table (in Jon's example it's country_name.) It still goes blank when I change the data source for that column from dataIndex: 'model[associated_model_id]' to dataIndex: 'virtual_attributes[associated_model_name]' ANOTHER UPDATE: Bump. Has NOBODY here tried integrating Ext with Rails?

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• How to drop/restart a client connection to a flaky socket server

  - by Steve Prior

  I've got Java code which makes requests via sockets from a server written in C++. The communication is simply that the java code writes a line for a request and the server then writes a line in response, but sometimes it seems that the server doesn't respond, so I've implemented an ExecutorService based timeout which tries to drop and restart the connection. To work with the connection I keep: Socket server; PrintWriter out; BufferedReader in; so setting up the connection is a matter of: server = new Socket(hostname, port); out = new PrintWriter(new OutputStreamWriter(server.getOutputStream())); in = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(socket.getInputStream())); If it weren't for the timeout code the request/receive steps are simply: String request="some request"; out.println(request); out.flush(); String response = in.readLine(); When I received a timeout I was trying to close the connection with: in.close(); out.close(); socket.close(); but one of these closes seems to block and never return. Can anyone give me a clue why one of these would block and what would be the proper way to abandon the connection and not end up with resource leak issues?

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• Applied style in WPF ignores properties.

  - by Quenton Jones

  Here's the conundrum. In two different places in my application, I use a border with the exact same appearance. In an never-ending fight against code bloat and unmanageable code, I want to define the border's appearance in a style to use when I create the border. Strangely, several of the properties I set are being ignored. Here's the code I use to create the style. Simple enough. Style borderStyle = new Style(typeof(Border)); borderStyle.Setters.Add(new Setter(Border.BorderBrushProperty, Brushes.Black)); borderStyle.Setters.Add(new Setter(Border.BorderThicknessProperty, new Thickness(4))); borderStyle.Setters.Add(new Setter(Border.OpacityProperty, 1.0)); return borderStyle; But when I set the style, the opacity property is left at its original value of 0.7. I have also tried setting the background of the border to a brush I created. It too is ignored. Thanks for any insights you may have.

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• How to set background color of tableView

  - by Praveen

  Hi Folks, I have tried all the way but could not succeed to set backgroundColor of TableView. setting tableView.backgroundColor and/or cell.backgroundColor to clearColor didn't work when the parent view controller was UIViewContoller. My nib file structure is FileOwner View UITableView (Note: i set the TableView to groupedTable section) First attempt, I created the UIView in the code viewDidLoad UIView *view = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 160, 300)] autorelease; [view setBackgroundColor:UIColor blueColor]; // color it just to see if it is created at the right place [self.tableView sendSubViewToBack:view]; It works but it hides the content of cell. I am able to see the content of header but not cell content. (But when i change the co-ordinate of view(0,150,160,300) then i am able to see the cell's content but then it loose the backgroundColor of tableview. Second attempt, I created the imageView View ImageView UITableView and set the self.tableView.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; but did not work. I googled but did not the peaceful answer.

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• JQuery remove() not working with a two word id

  - by Programer

  I have a button <button onclick="takedown()"> take down </button> that creates a H1 and button with the id of the text in my text field and h1 at the end for the h1 and button at the end for the button the button has a onclick onclick="delete()". This is that function function takedown(){ note = document.getElementById("noteinput").value; idh1 = note + "h1"; idbutton = note + "button"; idcenter = note + "center"; $('<center id="' + idcenter + '"> <h1 id="' + idh1 + '">' + note + '</h1> <button id="'+ idbutton +'" onclick="deletenote()"> Delete </button> </center>').appendTo("body"); } For the delete function the remove() works only if the id of the button and the h1 is one word. function deletenote(){ // First setting var idbuttondelete = event.target.id; var idh1delete = idbuttondelete.replace("button", "h1"); // Removing the button, h1,center $('#' + idbuttondelete).remove(); $('#' + idh1delete).remove(); } Does anybody know whats wrong or how to use JQuery to delete something if it has a two word id.

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• CSS:Hover's problem with text that is hidden because of overflow:hidden ?

  - by Michael Harringon

  In my application i have lots of divs containing text. All divs have overflow set to hidden so that the user does not see the text if the container is not large enough to contain the writing. If the user wants to see the hidden text they are supposed to mouse over the "box". The box then expands and shows the text. Sounds simple enough, right? Well i am having problems and the solution i tried did not work. The problem is that when the user mouses over the box, the text does indeed appears but stays really narrow and comes out of the bottom box, the sameway it would if overflow was set to visible. below is the standard css applied to the div box: .newevent { overflow: hidden; z-index: 0; } I Tried to fix this by setting a hover trigger, when it is activated the box widens, i thought that this would then mean there would be more space to display the text, below is the hover effect: .newevent div:hover { width: 200px; padding: 50px; background-color:#D4D4D4; border: medium red dashed; overflow: visible; z-index: 1; } How do i go about "redrawing" the text when it is hovered over, so that the text can use the new widened area rather than behaving as it is still in a narrow box.

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• Grep without storing search to the "/ register in Vim

  - by Phro

  In my .vimrc I have a mapping that makes a line of text 'title capitalized': noremap <Leader>at :s/\v<(.)(\w{2,})/\u\1\L\2/g<CR> However, whenever I run this function, it highlights every word that is at least three characters long in my entire document. Of course I could get this behaviour to stop simply by appending :nohlsearch<CR> to the end of the mapping, but this is more of an awkward hack that still avoids a bigger problem: The last search has been replaced by \v<(.)(\w{2,}). Is there any way to use the search commands in Vim without storing the last search in the "/ register; a 'silent' search of sorts? That way, after running this title-making command, I can still use my previous search to navigate the document using n, N, etc. Edit Using @brettanomyces' answer, I found that simply setting the mapping: noremap <Leader>at :call setline(line('.'),substitute(getline('.'), '\v<(.)(\w{2,})', '\u\1\L\2', 'g'))<CR> will successfully perform the substitution without storing the searched text into the / register.

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• Replacing mysql user authentication with openid

  - by David

  So, I'm working with a really old system which uses a person's mysql database credentials to authenticate to a web site (the database was originally only accessed from the command line, but is now accessed from a php frontend). Because of some internal reasons (and to preserve the user's history), I have to leave the old authentication intact. I've been charged with adding openid authentication to this system. Somehow I need to be able to retrieve a users mysql username and password upon logging into the site through openid (using the Zend framework, by the way). I've thought of simply requiring registration at the first login, where the user must provide their mysql credentials, but I'd rather not store the password plain text. I've also considered blanking everyone's mysql passwords, and just setting the user's mysql username manually (rather than having the user provide this, since they could provide any username). This is turning into a security nightmare. Does anyone have any suggestions for alternatives? This is running on a Linux server, by the way. Also, I can't use mysql pluggable authentication because the mysql version is 5.0 (pluggable authentication requires mysql 5.5), and no, I can't update it.

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• Very Urgent :How to start a new session if a user click on the new tab in IE or mozilla on websphere

  - by ha22109

  Hi, I have one "user search" portlet on the home page of one application running on websphere portal server.Which display the matching user records as per the search criteria filled in the search form.I have requirement to have a "back to search input" link on the results page which onclick should show the filled form on the input jsp. The issue which i am facing is if i open the application in two diff tab of same IE browser and start giving some search criteria and submit and same time search for some other input from other IE tab (in the same browser)and then go back to previous tab and click on "back to search input" link then instead of showing me the first input it will show me the imput which i entered in the next IE tab. I am setting and getting the bean(form bean) through portlet session.but in the two diff tab of same IE it will be the sae user session (and may be the same portlet session..) Please tell me solution for this. The one thing to be notice here is i can access this "user search" application even without doing login also.so it must be taking the default portlet session in this case. what wil happen once i login and then search,will it going to overwrite the portlet session and http session or howz is that?

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• How to call back (like onActivityResult) after launching activity from browser by clicking url?

  - by kimilhee

  I succeded to call activity from browser link with tag like this. <a href="myapp://launch.myapp.com/activity2?var1=linkClicked">my app</a> of cource I added actvity setting in AndroidManifest.xml like this. <activity android:name=".Activity2" > <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.VIEW"></action> <category android:name="android.intent.category.DEFAULT"></category> <category android:name="android.intent.category.BROWSABLE"></category> <data android:host="launch.myapp.com" android:scheme="myapp" android:pathPrefix="/activity2"></data> </intent-filter> </activity> I want to call back from the activity2 with a value. Is there any way to receive some value from the activity that was launched by the browser like above? In other words I want do something like onActivityResult in the browser and get a value from the activity and set the value on the web page which has launched the activity.

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• Expressjs route param as variable in main app

  - by MoDFoX

  For my app I have two route set up, app.get('/', routes.index); app.get('/:name', routes.index); I would like it to be so that if I don't specify a param, say just go to appurl.com (localhost:3000), it would load a default user, but if I do specify a param(localhost:3000/user), use that as the variable "username" in the following function (placed after my routes). (function getUser(){ var body = '', username = 'WillsonSM', options = { host: 'ws.audioscrobbler.com', port: 80, path: '/2.0/?method=user.gettopartists&user=' + username + '&format=json&limit=20&api_key=APIKEYGOESHERE' }; require('http').request(options, function(res) { res.setEncoding('utf8'); res.on('data', function(chunk) { body += chunk; }); res.on('end', function() { body = JSON.parse(body); artists = body.topartists.artist; }); }).end(); })(); Along with this I have my route set up like so: exports.index = function(req, res){ res.render('index', { title: 'LasTube' }); username = req.params.name; console.log(username); }; unfortunately setting username there to req.params.name does not seem to be accessible from the main app function. My question is: How can I set expressjs/nodejs to use the parameter set via /name when available, and just use a default - in this example "WillsonSM" if not available. I've tried taking "username" out of the main app, and just leaving it in the function, but username becomes undefined, as it is inaccessible from the route, and the app will not run. I can spit out "username" via the routes console.log, so assigning it there is not an issue, but as I am new to expressjs, I am unaware of how I should go about doing this. I have tried all I can think of and find from looking around the internet. Also, if there is a better way of doing this, or I am doing something wrong, please let me know. If I've left out any information, just throw in a comment and I'll try to address it.

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• Spring MVC - Set an actionURL parameter with Javascript

  - by jeffl8n

  Is it possible to dynamically set a Spring MVC portlet:actionURL portlet:param using javascript? I have tried with the following code, but the id value always comes across as null to the controller. I have verified that setting the portlet:param manually passes the value correctly: <portlet:param name="id" value="2" /> I have also verified the value in the javascript is being set correctly and is not null. (Note: I've changed the variable names, etc. from the original code to simplify it and obfuscate it since it is my employer's code.) JSP: <portlet:actionURL var="modifyURL"> <portlet:param name="do" value="modify" /> <portlet:param name="id" value="${model.id}" /> </portlet:actionURL> ... <form:form action="${modifyURL}" id="modifyForm" modelAttribute="model"> <form:hidden path="id" id="id" /> </form:form> Javascript called when the update URL is clicked: function update() { document.forms[0]["id"].value = selectedId; document.forms[0].submit(); } Controller: @RequestMapping(params = {"do=modify"}) public void modify(@ModelAttribute("model") Model model, @RequestParam(value = "id", required=true) Long id, ActionRequest request, ActionResponse response, SessionStatus sessionStatus, ModelMap modelMap) { ....

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• CakePHP - recursive on specific fields in model?

  - by Paul

  Hi, I'm pretty new to CakePHP but I think I'm starting to get the hang of it. I'm trying to pull related table information recursively, but I want to specify which related models to recurse on. Let me give you an example to demonstrate my goal: I have a model "Customer", which has info like Company name, website, etc. "Customer" hasMany "Addresses", which contain info for individual contacts like Contact Name, Street, City, State, Country, etc. "Customer" also belongsTo "CustomerType", which is just has descriptive category info - a name and description, like "Distributor" or "Manufacturer". When I do a find on "Customer" I want to get associated "CustomerType" and "Address" info as sub-arrays, and this works fine just by setting up the hasMany and belongsTo associations properly. But now, here's my issue: I want to get associated State/Country info. So, instead of each "Address" array row just having "state_id", I want it to have "state" = array("id" = 20, "name" = "New York",...) etc. If I set $recursive to a higher value (e.g., 2) in the Partner model, I get what I want for the State/Country info in each "Address". BUT it also recurses on "CustomerType", and that results in the "CustomerType" field of my "Partner" object having a huge array of all Customer objects that match that type, which could be thousands long. So the point is, I DON'T want to recurse on "CustomerType", only on "Address". Is there a way I can set this up? Sorry for the long-winded question, and thanks in advance!

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• Absolutely positioned element moved by margin of another element

  - by user1505528

  Here is my jsFiddle for the following question: http://jsfiddle.net/arelia/Rruxf/ I'd like to have a header that stays at the very top of the body and a footer that stays at the very bottom of the body. I have a content div (position: relative) between the header and footer, and when I set a margin around the div my absolutely positioned header and footer move from their top/bottom positions by the height of that margin (this also happened when I tried setting a margin above and below the paragraphs in the div). In the fiddle you can see that the footer is not attached to the bottom even though it's absolutely positioned (I went ahead and made the header static since static gives the intended result). How do I position the header and footer to the top and bottom of the body and not have the content in the middle move those two elements? If the position: absolute elements are moved out of the flow why would anything affect their position at all? I've tried searching here and Google for "CSS margin affects absolute" and a few other phrases to no avail. I discovered this while playing around with it some more in developer tools: Metrics show the body is the height of the html element minus the amount of one margin (the margin that's still affecting the footer). So, the body must be stretching to the height of the content div since there is nothing else within the document flow within the body to define its height. But that height ends where the content ends instead of after the margin. Shouldn't it include the margin? If I make the height of the body 100%, the footer positions itself to the bottom of the viewport and then stays fixed in that spot when I scroll. Why isn't it attaching itself to the bottom of the body instead of the bottom of the viewport?

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• Can't declare an abstract method private....

  - by Zombies

  I want to do this, yet I can't. Here is my scenario and rational. I have an abstract class for test cases that has an abstract method called test(). The test() method is to be defined by the subclass; it is to be implemented with logic for a certain application, such as CRMAppTestCase extends CompanyTestCase. I don't want the test() method to be invoked directly, I want the super class to call the test() method while the sub class can call a method which calls this (and does other work too, such as setting a current date-time right before the test is executed for example). Example code: public abstract class CompanyTestCase { //I wish this would compile, but it cannot be declared private private abstract void test(); public TestCaseResult performTest() { //do some work which must be done and should be invoked whenever //this method is called (it would be improper to expect the caller // to perform initialization) TestCaseResult result = new TestCaseResult(); result.setBeginTime(new Date()); long time = System.currentTimeMillis(); test(); //invoke test logic result.setDuration(System.currentTimeMillis() - time); return result; } } Then to extend this.... public class CRMAppTestCase extends CompanyTestCase { public void test() { //test logic here } } Then to call it.... TestCaseResult result = new CRMAppTestCase().performTest();

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• ReplaceAll not working as expected

  - by Tim Kemp

  Still early days with Mathematica so please forgive what is probably a very obvious question. I am trying to generate some parametric plots. I have: ParametricPlot[{ (a + b) Cos[t] - h Cos[(a + b)/b t], (a + b) Sin[t] - h Sin[(a + b)/b t]}, {t, 0, 2 \[Pi]}, PlotRange -> All] /. {a -> 2, b -> 1, h -> 1} No joy: the replacement rules are not applied and a, b and h remain undefined. If I instead do: Hold@ParametricPlot[{ (a + b) Cos[t] - h Cos[(a + b)/b t], (a + b) Sin[t] - h Sin[(a + b)/b t]}, {t, 0, 2 \[Pi]}, PlotRange -> All] /. {a -> 2, b -> 1, h -> 1} it looks like the rules ARE working, as confirmed by the output: Hold[ParametricPlot[{(2 + 1) Cos[t] - 1 Cos[(2 + 1) t], (2 + 1) Sin[t] - 1 Sin[(2 + 1) t]}, {t, 0, 2 \[Pi]}, PlotRange -> All]] Which is what I'd expect. Take the Hold off, though, and the ParametricPlot doesn't work. There's nothing wrong with the equations or the ParametricPlot itself, though, because I tried setting values for a, b and h in a separate expression (a=2; b=1; h=1) and I get my pretty double cardoid out as expected. So, what am I doing wrong with ReplaceAll and why are the transformation rules not working? This is another fundamentally important aspect of MMA that my OOP-ruined brain isn't understanding. I tried reading up on ReplaceAll and ParametricPlot and the closest clue I found was that "ParametricPlot has attribute HoldAll and evaluates f only after assigning specific numerical values to variables" which didn't help much or I wouldn't be here. Thanks.

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• Why won't JPA delete owned entities when the owner entity loses the reference to them?

  - by Nick

  Hi! I've got a JPA entity "Request", that owns a List of Answers (also JPA entities). Here's how it's defined in Request.java: @OneToMany(cascade= CascadeType.ALL, mappedBy="request") private List<Answer> answerList; And in Answer.java: @JoinColumn(name = "request", referencedColumnName="id") @ManyToOne(optional = false) private Request request; In the course of program execution, the Request's List of Answers may have Answers added or removed from it, or the actual List object may be replaced. My problem is thus: when I merge a Request to the database, the Answer objects that used to be in the List are kept in the database -- that is, Answer objects that the Request no longer holds a reference to (indirectly, via a List) are not deleted. This is not the behaviour I desire, as if I merge a Request to the database, and then fetch it again, its Answers List may not be the same. Am I making some programming mistake? Is there an annotaion or setting that will ensure that the Answers in the database are exactly the Answers in the Request's List? A solution is to keep references to the original Answers List and then use the EntityManager to remove each old Answer before merging the Request, but it seems like there should be a cleaner way. Thank you!

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