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  • Launching and Intent from file and mime type

    - by stonedonkey
    I've reviewed all the similar questions here, but I can't for the life of me figure out what I'm doing wrong. I've written an application that tries to launch various files, sort of a file browser, when a file is clicked it tries to launch the program based on it's associated MIME type or I want it to present the "Choose Application to Launch" dialog. Here's the code I'm using to launch: File file = new File(app.mediaPath() + "/" +_mediaFiles.get(position)); Intent myIntent = new Intent(android.content.Intent.ACTION_VIEW); String extension = android.webkit.MimeTypeMap.getFileExtensionFromUrl(Uri.fromFile(file).toString()); String mimetype = android.webkit.MimeTypeMap.getSingleton().getMimeTypeFromExtension(extension); myIntent.setDataAndType(Uri.fromFile(file),mimetype); startActivity(myIntent); This fails and generates a: android.content.ActivityNotFoundException: No Activity found to handle Intent { act=android.intent.action.VIEW dat=file:///file:/mnt/sdcard/roms/nes/Baseball_simulator.nes } Now if I install OI File Manager for instance, it opens instead of this error being thrown, and then if I click the same file from within in it, it launches the approriate dialogs. I have noticed that the MIME type for that particular file fails, but other mime types like .zip do return values. Am I missing something that when the MIME type is null to call a dialog that lets the user select? I've tried other variations of launching the app, including not setting the mime type and only using .setData with no success. The action I want to happen is, a user clicks a file, if it's associated with an application that app launches, if not, the user gets the "Complete action using" dialog with a list of apps. Thanks for any advice.

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  • Replacing mysql user authentication with openid

    - by David
    So, I'm working with a really old system which uses a person's mysql database credentials to authenticate to a web site (the database was originally only accessed from the command line, but is now accessed from a php frontend). Because of some internal reasons (and to preserve the user's history), I have to leave the old authentication intact. I've been charged with adding openid authentication to this system. Somehow I need to be able to retrieve a users mysql username and password upon logging into the site through openid (using the Zend framework, by the way). I've thought of simply requiring registration at the first login, where the user must provide their mysql credentials, but I'd rather not store the password plain text. I've also considered blanking everyone's mysql passwords, and just setting the user's mysql username manually (rather than having the user provide this, since they could provide any username). This is turning into a security nightmare. Does anyone have any suggestions for alternatives? This is running on a Linux server, by the way. Also, I can't use mysql pluggable authentication because the mysql version is 5.0 (pluggable authentication requires mysql 5.5), and no, I can't update it.

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  • Switching between 2 UINavigationControllers

    - by Smikey
    Hi all, I seem to have a problem switching between 2 UINavigationControllers, i.e. one which controls the main (selection) menu of my application, and the second which controls the main session (i.e. the user can't go back to the selection menu once they're started a new session). The first works just fine, but I get into trouble when trying to load the second. I have a class called GameViewController which contains the second UINavigationController instance. I set this up as usual, linking it as an IBOutlet to the delegate and setting up the NavController in the GameViewController.xib file with its 'Class' property pointing at GameScreenViewController (my main game screen), and its NIB Name property pointing to the GameScreenViewController nib file. I then create a new instance of GameViewController and load it. In IB, the navigation controller looks fine, with its View 'loaded from "GameScreenViewController"', however when the NavigationController is loaded in the game, it actually loads the GameViewController's UIWindow instance (just a blank window). I'm not sure how to make it load the Navigation Controller's view rather than its own window? Also, another quick question. When I load the second navigation controller from the first, which makes more sense to use: [self.view addSubview:gameViewController.view]; or [self presentModalViewController:gameViewController animated:YES]; Thanks for any help, much appreciated :D Michael

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  • Vista seems to prevent .net from reading/updating file attributes.

    - by CFP
    Hello everyone! The following function copies a file from Source & Path to Dest & Path, normally setting file attributes to normal before copying. Yet, a user of my app has reported it to fail when copying readonly files, returning a permissions-related error. The user is however running the code as administrator, and the error happens - quite strangely - on the SetLastWriteTimeUtc line. Although the code reports that the file attributes are set to normal, windows explorer shows that they are set to read only. Sub CopyFile(ByVal Path As String, ByVal Source As String, ByVal Dest As String) If IO.File.Exists(Dest & Path) Then IO.File.SetAttributes(Dest & Path, IO.FileAttributes.Normal) IO.File.Copy(Source & Path, Dest & Path, True) If Handler.GetSetting(ConfigOptions.TimeOffset, "0") <> "0" Then IO.File.SetAttributes(Dest & Path, IO.FileAttributes.Normal) IO.File.SetLastWriteTimeUtc(Dest & Path, IO.File.GetLastWriteTimeUtc(Dest & Path).AddHours(Handler.GetSetting(ConfigOptions.TimeOffset, "0"))) End If IO.File.SetAttributes(Dest & Path, IO.File.GetAttributes(Source & Path)) End Sub I just fail to see the problem in this code, so after long hours of searching for the solution, I thought one of SO VB.Net Gurus might help :) Thanks a lot. Edit: The actual error is Access to the path '(..)' is denied. at System.IO.__Error.WinIOError(Int32 errorCode, String maybeFullPath) at System.IO.FileStream.Init(String path, FileMode mode, FileAccess access, Int32 rights, Boolean useRights, FileShare share, Int32 bufferSize, FileOptions options, SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES secAttrs, String msgPath, Boolean bFromProxy) at System.IO.FileStream..ctor(String path, FileMode mode, FileAccess access, FileShare share, Int32 bufferSize) at System.IO.File.OpenFile(String path, FileAccess access, SafeFileHandle& handle) at System.IO.File.SetLastWriteTimeUtc(String path, DateTime lastWriteTimeUtc)

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  • Color banding only on Android 4.0+

    - by threeshinyapples
    On emulators running Android 4.0 or 4.0.3, I am seeing horrible colour banding which I can't seem to get rid of. On every other Android version I have tested, gradients look smooth. I have a SurfaceView which is configured as RGBX_8888, and the banding is not present in the rendered canvas. If I manually dither the image by overlaying a noise pattern at the end of rendering I can make the gradients smooth again, though obviously at a cost to performance which I'd rather avoid. So the banding is being introduced later. I can only assume that, on 4.0+, my SurfaceView is being quantized to a lower bit-depth at some point between it being drawn and being displayed, and I can see from a screen capture that gradients are stepping 8 values at a time in each channel, suggesting a quantization to 555 (not 565). I added the following to my Activity onCreate function, but it made no difference. getWindow().setFormat(PixelFormat.RGBA_8888); getWindow().addFlags(WindowManager.LayoutParams.FLAG_DITHER); I also tried putting the above in onAttachedToWindow() instead, but there was still no change. (I believe that RGBA_8888 is the default window format anyway for 2.2 and above, so it's little surprise that explicitly setting that format has no effect on 4.0+.) Which leaves the question, if the source is 8888 and the destination is 8888, what is introducing the quantization/banding and why does it only appear on 4.0+? Very puzzling. I wonder if anyone can shed some light?

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  • Specifying a DLL reference

    - by Jesse
    I'm having trouble setting the path to a DLL that is not in the same directory as the executable. I have a reference to dllA.dll. At present, everything is just copied into the same directory and all is well; however, I need to move the executable to another directory while still referencing the DLL in the original directory. So, it's setup like: C:\Original\Dir program.exe dllA.dll dllB.dll dllC.dll But I need to have it setup like: C:\New\Dir program.exe dllB.dll dllC.dl Such that it is still able to reference dllA.dll in C:\Original\dir I tried the following, but to no avail: Set the "Copy Local" value to false for dllA.dll because I want it to be referenced in its original location. Under "Tools Options Projects and Solutions VC++ Directories" I have added the path to "C:\Original\Dir" Added "C:\Original\Dir" to both the PATH and LIB environment variables At runtime, it informs me that it cannot locate dllA.dll Maybe the above steps I took only matter at compile time? I was able to find this http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1382704/c-specifying-a-location-for-dll-reference But I was thinking that my above method should've worked. Any ideas?

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  • Margin for select option in IE and chrome is not working

    - by Sardor
    I am setting a css class to some select options in JS. This class includes margin style. It is working in the FF but not in IE and chrome. window.onload = function() { replace('edit-field-region-tid'); replace('edit-tid'); } function replace(id) { var i = 0; var s = document.getElementById(id); for (i; i < s.options.length; i++) { if (find(s.options[i].text, id, i)) { s.options[i].setAttribute("class", "sub_options"); } } } function find(str, id, option_id) { var i; var s = document.getElementById(id); for (i = 0; i < str.length; i++) { if (str.charAt(i) == '-') { s.options[option_id].text = str.cutAt(0, ""); return true; } } return false; } String.prototype.cutAt = function(index, char) { return this.substr(index+1, this.length); } And CSS: .sub_options{ margin-left:20px; text-indent:-2px; } Any ideas thanks!

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  • Discussion - Allowing / blocking user access to pages / Client Side Validation (Client Side Only!) -

    - by Ozaki
    TLDR Using plain HTML / Javascript (Client Side) I want to prevent viewing of certain pages. The user will have to type a username and password and depending on that they get access to different pages. Answers can NOT include server side whatsoever It does not matter if they can break it easily. There is no sensitive information etc. Also the target audience will not have access to internet OR probably know what a cookie is... At some point the user will have to type username / password.(I can define the cookie here) Currently I thought of using cookies to set a cookie for each page to say "true" / "false" but that would get messy with so many cookies. Or setting an array within a cookie for each page? I have div field "#Content" which as it looks encompasses all of my content on the page so blocking out content will be as simple as replacing it with ("sorry you don't have access") etc. For Example: $.cookie("Access","page1, page2, page3"{ expires: 1 }); I am looking for anyway to do this does not have to be with cookies. Would be nice to get a discussion of different ways this can be done. So the question is: What do YOU think would be a good way to go about doing this with client side validation? Also on another note discussion on how to make client side more secure or ways to do so are acceptable.

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  • In C/C++,how to link dynamic link lib which compiled in GCC/G++ in MS VStudio?

    - by coanor
    These days, I use Flex & Bison generated some codes to develop a SQL-parser alike tools, these code can't compiled silently(may be this another topic) in VS2005,but GCC/G++ works well, then I compiled these code with mingw in dll(in windows xp), and then linked these function facades in VS2005, but it seems can't link the dll during linking. Does MS VS2005 recognize the dll which compiled using mingw on windows? Is there anything I need to do additional? For example, adding something in the include-file that declare the exported APIs? Does any one can give some advices? The condition is, as in VS2005, if you want to export some APIs, you may show a *.def file to tell nmake which API you want to export, and then you may create a(or some) *.h file to declare somthing about these APIs(adding some stdcall alike prefix as a call protocal) and some data-type definition. But with GCC/G++, you do not need to do such boring things, just use [ar], you can get these APIs, so my *.h file do not add call protocol and no *.def, just like common function declaration. After *.dll generated, add the *.h file and [mv] generated *.dll in VS2005 project directory, then set the linking *.dll in project setting. Does these steps generated my Question? BTW, I found and tested VC6-compiled dll can be linked with mingw in Windows XP, but the reverse can't work. Anyway, forgive my poor English, and thanks for your concern.

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  • Absolutely positioned element moved by margin of another element

    - by user1505528
    Here is my jsFiddle for the following question: http://jsfiddle.net/arelia/Rruxf/ I'd like to have a header that stays at the very top of the body and a footer that stays at the very bottom of the body. I have a content div (position: relative) between the header and footer, and when I set a margin around the div my absolutely positioned header and footer move from their top/bottom positions by the height of that margin (this also happened when I tried setting a margin above and below the paragraphs in the div). In the fiddle you can see that the footer is not attached to the bottom even though it's absolutely positioned (I went ahead and made the header static since static gives the intended result). How do I position the header and footer to the top and bottom of the body and not have the content in the middle move those two elements? If the position: absolute elements are moved out of the flow why would anything affect their position at all? I've tried searching here and Google for "CSS margin affects absolute" and a few other phrases to no avail. I discovered this while playing around with it some more in developer tools: Metrics show the body is the height of the html element minus the amount of one margin (the margin that's still affecting the footer). So, the body must be stretching to the height of the content div since there is nothing else within the document flow within the body to define its height. But that height ends where the content ends instead of after the margin. Shouldn't it include the margin? If I make the height of the body 100%, the footer positions itself to the bottom of the viewport and then stays fixed in that spot when I scroll. Why isn't it attaching itself to the bottom of the body instead of the bottom of the viewport?

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  • Ensuring WPF window is on top all the time even when user clicks another maximised application

    - by mttumbledown
    Hi I am trying to ensure my WPF window stays on top as long as it is open. It is acting as a pop-up set to TopMost=true, and a call to the win32 SetWindowPos to TOPMOST. When first opened it appears on top of another running application on the desktop- maximized or not. If the user activates or uses a window in the application mine loses focus and disappears. I thought of manipulating the other application window, setting it to a lower z index. How do I find the application window? How do I iterate through all windows? (This question still stands, even if it is not the correct approach). I would be using SetWindowPos, GetForegroundWindow, GetForegroundWindow, GetDesktopWindow et cetera. I suspect that as soon as the user clicks in their application that it will still focus it regardless and I am barking up the wrong tree. At the moment, my application is a black box and I can’t handle it the other way, for example, periodically messaging my app to focus. I also thought of having a long running background thread which periodically focuses my WPF popup, but need to watch resources and processor. Kind regards,

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  • Events fired when you change the contents of a control in Silverlight

    - by nyxtom
    Assuming I change the contents of a control using a XamlReader and add the UIElement to the container of a control, what events are supposed to fire? There are times where the SizeChanged will fire, LayoutUpdated changing.. though there are other times where neither of these occur despite having changing the contents of a control. In my case, I am generating a thumbnail view of what's currently in view on a page. The user can change the content of the page and thus the thumbnail should update accordingly. Though, wiring to the LayoutUpdated, Loaded, SizeChanged aren't always reliable for when the contents have changed. I would just call my InvalidateThumbnail which uses a writeablebitmap, but it's too quick after setting the content and as a result I will get a blank thumbnail. At the moment, my hack (cringes) was to wait a few milliseconds before the UI is done rendering the actual new content and I can reliably create the thumbnail. I'd rather just trigger on an event every time though. Possible? What events should I look at? I've seen CompositeTarget.Rendering but that's not what I want.

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  • Why won't JPA delete owned entities when the owner entity loses the reference to them?

    - by Nick
    Hi! I've got a JPA entity "Request", that owns a List of Answers (also JPA entities). Here's how it's defined in Request.java: @OneToMany(cascade= CascadeType.ALL, mappedBy="request") private List<Answer> answerList; And in Answer.java: @JoinColumn(name = "request", referencedColumnName="id") @ManyToOne(optional = false) private Request request; In the course of program execution, the Request's List of Answers may have Answers added or removed from it, or the actual List object may be replaced. My problem is thus: when I merge a Request to the database, the Answer objects that used to be in the List are kept in the database -- that is, Answer objects that the Request no longer holds a reference to (indirectly, via a List) are not deleted. This is not the behaviour I desire, as if I merge a Request to the database, and then fetch it again, its Answers List may not be the same. Am I making some programming mistake? Is there an annotaion or setting that will ensure that the Answers in the database are exactly the Answers in the Request's List? A solution is to keep references to the original Answers List and then use the EntityManager to remove each old Answer before merging the Request, but it seems like there should be a cleaner way. Thank you!

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  • Stopping a SoundPlayer loop at the local level

    - by EvanRyan
    I'm working on setting up an alarm that pops up as a dialog with multiple sound file options the user can choose from. The problem I'm having is creating a sound player at the local level that I can close with a button. The problem I'm having is that the sound keeps looping when I close the form because the SoundPlayer doesn't exist within the button click event. here's what I have: void callsound() { if (SoundToggle == 0) // if sound enabled { if ((SoundFile == 0) && (File.Exists(@"attention.wav"))) { System.Media.SoundPlayer alarm = new System.Media.SoundPlayer(@"attention.wav"); alarm.PlayLooping(); } if ((SoundFile == 1) && (File.Exists(@"aahh.wav"))) { System.Media.SoundPlayer alarm = new System.Media.SoundPlayer(@"aahh.wav"); alarm.PlayLooping(); } } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //alarm.Stop(); Only works if SoundPlayer declared at class level this.Close(); } Is there a way I can do what I want to do by declaring the SoundPlayer instances where I am? Or is there a way to declare it at the class level, and still be able to change the sound file based on user settings?

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  • Experiences wanted: producing a jar artifact in IntelliJ

    - by skiaddict1
    Developing with IntelliJ 9.0.2 Community Edition, on the Mac. This is a follow-up to this post about including jar files in an artifact, which has not received any replies. I'm hoping that the reason is that somehow, in creating my artifact (or setting my project settings), I unwittingly did something which people don't tend to do, and which is causing my problem, and that by asking people here to share how they create jar artifacts and set up projects, I will discover what it is. To recap: I have a Java project which depends on two library files. I need to package up the entire thing, with the jars inlined (such that on doing jar -tfv <filename> I see ALL the classes listed, including the ones in the two libraries), into a single jar file. I can make an artifact, I can add the library files to the Output Layout pane, but I CANNOT, no matter what I do, I cannot get the "Inline Artifact" item in the context menu to be selectable (i.e. non-grey) when I right-click on one or other library file. The thing is, making a jar which contains library files as well as the project code is NOT an unusual situation in the Java world! So I figure there are lots of IntelliJ folks out there who have done what I need to do. And I would really like to hear from you folks. What project settings do you use? (be specific, please :-) And exactly how do you set up your jar artifacts? (again, as many specific details as possible, please :-) Clearly, I'd be particularly interested to hear from folks with similar setups to mine (above) who are successfully doing what I need to do. Grateful thanks in advance, folks.

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  • PHP download page: file_exists() returns true, but browser returns 'page not found'

    - by Chris
    I'm using PHP for a file download page. Here's a snippet of the problem code: if (file_exists($attachment_location)) { header($_SERVER["SERVER_PROTOCOL"] . " 200 OK"); header("Cache-Control: public"); // needed for i.e. header("Content-Type: application/zip"); header("Content-Transfer-Encoding: Binary"); header("Content-Length:".filesize($attachment_location)); header("Content-Disposition: attachment; filename=file.zip"); readfile($attachment_location); die("Hooray"); } else { die("Error: File not found."); } This code works absolutely fine when testing locally, but after deploying to the live server the browser returns a 'Page not found' error. I thought it might be an .htaccess issue, but all .htaccess files on the live server are identical to their local counterparts. My next guess would be the live server's PHP configuration, but I have no idea what PHP setting might cause this behaviour. The file_exists() function always returns true - I've checked this on the live server and it's always correctly picking up the file, its size etc., so it does have a handle on the file. It just won't perform the download! The main site is a Wordpress site, but this code isn't part of a Wordpress page - it's in a standalone directory within the site root. UPDATE: is_file() and is_readable() are both returning true for the file, so that's not the problem. The specific line that is causing the problem is: readfile($attachment_location) Everything up until that point is super happy.

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  • Is Using Tuples in my .NET 4.0 Code a Poor Design Decision?

    - by Jason Webb
    With the addition of the Tuple class in .net 4, I have been trying to decide if using them in my design is a bad choice or not. The way I see it, a Tuple can be a shortcut to writing a result class (I am sure there are other uses too). So this: public class ResultType { public string StringValue { get; set; } public int IntValue { get; set; } } public ResultType GetAClassedValue() { //..Do Some Stuff ResultType result = new ResultType { StringValue = "A String", IntValue = 2 }; return result; } Is equivalent to this: public Tuple<string, int> GetATupledValue() { //...Do Some stuff Tuple<string, int> result = new Tuple<string, int>("A String", 2); return result; } So setting aside the possibility that I am missing the point of Tuples, is the example with a Tuple a bad design choice? To me it seems like less clutter, but not as self documenting and clean. Meaning that with the type ResultType, it is very clear later on what each part of the class means but you have extra code to maintain. With the Tuple<string, int> you will need to look up and figure out what each Item represents, but you write and maintain less code. Any experience you have had with this choice would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Show Color Picker Value Code Within Input Text Field in Wordpress

    - by Shwan Namiq
    Hi i have options page for my theme i used color picker jquery plugin in my options page as show in image below. i want when i change the color from color picker automatically show the color value code within the text field.how can do this? this is the code within my options page related to appearing the color picker and text field function to register the options setting function YPE_register_settings_sections_fields() { register_setting ( 'YPE_header_option_group', 'YPE_header_option_name', 'YPE_sanitize_validate_callback' ); add_settings_section ( 'YPE_header_section', 'Header Section', 'YPE_header_section_callback', 'YPE_menu_page_options' ); add_settings_field ( 'YPE_header_bg', 'Header Background', 'YPE_header_bg_callback', 'YPE_menu_page_options', 'YPE_header_section' ); } add_action('admin_init', 'YPE_register_settings_sections_fields'); function to appear the text field and color picker function YPE_header_bg_callback() { $YPE_options = get_option('YPE_header_option_name'); $YPE_header_bg = isset($YPE_options['YPE_header_bg']) ? $YPE_options['YPE_header_bg'] : ''; ?> <div class="input-group color-picker"> <input class="form-control" style="width:80px;" name="YPE_header_option_name[YPE_header_bg]" id="<?php echo 'YPE_header_bg'; ?>" type="text" value="<?php echo $YPE_header_bg; ?>" /> <span class="input-group-btn"> <div id="colorSelector"> <div nam style="background-color: #0000ff"> </div> </div> </span> </div> <script> $("#colorSelector").ColorPicker({ color: '#0000ff', onShow: function (colpkr) { $(colpkr).fadeIn(500); return false; }, onHide: function (colpkr) { $(colpkr).fadeOut(500); return false; }, onChange: function (hsb, hex, rgb) { $('#colorSelector div').css('backgroundColor', '#' + hex); }); </script> <?php }

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  • How to call back (like onActivityResult) after launching activity from browser by clicking url?

    - by kimilhee
    I succeded to call activity from browser link with tag like this. <a href="myapp://launch.myapp.com/activity2?var1=linkClicked">my app</a> of cource I added actvity setting in AndroidManifest.xml like this. <activity android:name=".Activity2" > <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.VIEW"></action> <category android:name="android.intent.category.DEFAULT"></category> <category android:name="android.intent.category.BROWSABLE"></category> <data android:host="launch.myapp.com" android:scheme="myapp" android:pathPrefix="/activity2"></data> </intent-filter> </activity> I want to call back from the activity2 with a value. Is there any way to receive some value from the activity that was launched by the browser like above? In other words I want do something like onActivityResult in the browser and get a value from the activity and set the value on the web page which has launched the activity.

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  • Adding International support in Erlang Web 1.4

    - by Roberto Aloi
    I'm trying to add international support for a website based on the Erlang Web 1.4. I would like to have a couple of links on every page (the notorious Country flags) that allow the user to set his language session variable. What I have right now is a link like: <li><a href="/session/language/en">English</a></li> Where, in the session controller I do: language(Args) -> LanguageId = proplists:get_value(id, Args), case language_is_supported(LanguageId) of false -> ok; true -> wpart:fset("session:lang", LanguageId) end, {redirect, "/"}. The problem is that, after setting the preferred language, I would like the user to be redirected to the page he was visiting before changing the language. In this case the "__path" variable doesn't help because it contains the language request and not the "previous" one. How could I resolve this situation? I'm probably using the wrong approach but I cannot thing to anything else right now.

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  • Drupal 6: Creating "ON/OFF News Links" functionality for a block created with View Module.

    - by artmania
    Hi friends, I'm a drupal newbie who needs some advice... I have a news list block at homepage, created with View Module. It is listing all added news' title and link. Everything is cool so far. Now I need to add an ON/OFF option at admin side for homepage news block. When the setting is ON, it will work as it is. When it is OFF, only the titles will be listed with no linking to news detail page. So, now where should I add this ON/OFF option? I have only add/edit/delete pages for each news, there is no common news page to add such option. Should I create an admin page with such ON/OFF option in? Also I think I need to create a db table to keep this ON/OFF status. and controlling this value at homepage block, if it is 1 or 0, and displaying links according to db value :/ it looks too long way Create db table Create an page with ON/OFF option in add php codes to update db for admin's choice get the db value in homepage block to display links, etc. is there any shorter, better way to do what I need? Appreciate helps so much!!! Thanks a lot!!

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  • Apache's AuthDigestDomain and Rails Distributed Asset Hosts

    - by Jared
    I've got a server I'm in the process of setting up and I'm running into an Apache configuration problem that I can not get around. I've got Apache 2.2 and Passenger serving a Rails app with distributed asset hosting. This is the feature of Rails that lets you serve your static assets from assets0.example.com, assets1, assets2, and so on. The site needs to be passworded until launch. I've set up HTTP authentication on the site using Apache's mod_auth_digest. In my configuration I'm attempting to use the AuthDigestDomain directive to allow access to each of the asset URLs. The problem is, it doesn't seem to be working. I get the initial prompt for the password when I load the page, but then the first time it loads an asset from one of the asset URLs, I get prompted a 2nd, 3rd, or 4th time. In some browsers, I get prompted for every single resource on the page. I'm hoping that this is only a problem of how I'm specifying my directives and not a limitation of authorization in Apache itself. See the edited auth section below: <Location /> AuthType Digest AuthName "Restricted Site" AuthUserFile /etc/httpd/passwd/passwords AuthGroupFile /dev/null AuthDigestDomain / http://assets0.example.com/ http://assets1.example.com/ http://assets2.example.com/ http://assets3.example.com/ require valid-user order deny,allow allow from all </Location>

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  • SYN receives RST,ACK very frequently

    - by user1289508
    Hi Socket Programming experts, I am writing a proxy server on Linux for SQL Database server running on Windows. The proxy is coded using bsd sockets and in C, and it is working just fine. When I use a database client (written in JAVA, and running on a Linux box) to fire queries (with a concurrency of 100 or more) directly to the Database server, not experiencing connection resets. But through my proxy I am experiencing many connection resets. Digging deeper I came to know that connection from 'DB client' to 'Proxy' always succeeds but when the 'Proxy' tries to connect to the DB server the connection fails, due to the SYN packet getting RST,ACK. That was to give some background. The question is : Why does sometimes SYN receives RST,ACK? 'DB client(linux)' to 'Server(windows)' ---- Works fine 'DB client(linux) to 'Proxy(Linux)' to 'Server(windows)' ----- problematic I am aware that this can happen in "connection refused" case but this definitely is not that one. SYN flooding might be another scenario, but that does not explain fine behavior while firing to Server directly. I am suspecting some socket option setting may be required, that the client does before connecting and my proxy does not. Please put some light on this. Any help (links or pointers) is most appreciated. Additional info: Wrote a C client that does concurrent connections, which takes concurrency as an argument. Here are my observations: - At 5000 concurrency and above, some connects failed with 'connection refused'. - Below 2000, it works fine. But the actual problem is observed even at a concurrency of 100 or more. Note: The problem is time dependent sometimes it never comes at all and sometimes it is very frequent and DB client (directly to server) works fine at all times .

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  • Write transparent HTTP Proxy script in PHP

    - by Leo Izen
    Is there an easy forwarding/transparent php proxy script that I can host on my web server? These are my conditions: I'm using free web hosting, so I have pretty much no control over my machine. Otherwise I could use Perl's HTTP::Proxy module. This means no root password. It does run php though. I already have a server running on port 80. What I mean is I would like to put a php script as index.php on my server that will forward all requests. I don't want a script like PHProxy or Glype where I go to the site, then enter a URL. I want a server so I can enter proxy.example.com:80 in Firefox's or IE's or whatever's proxy settings and it will forward all requests to the server. Preferably (though not fatal if not possible) I would like for it to pass on the USER_AGENT environmental variable (That's the browser) instead of setting itself to be the USER_AGENT I can't start a new Daemon. My server won't allow it. Is there a script that will do this? If so, which?

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  • PHP Multi-Domain Sessions; ini_set Not Working?

    - by SumWon
    Hello, I'm trying to set it up so if you log in to my website the session carries over to all sub-domains of my website. For example, if you go to domain.com and log in, then go to sub.domain.com, you'll already be logged in at sub.domain.com. To my understanding, you would want to use ini_set('session.cookie_domain','.domain.com') and then session_start(), then set your session variables, but this isn't working. Example of what I'm doing: Code for domain.com: <?php ini_set('session.cookie_domain','.domain.com'); session_start(); $_SESSION['variable'] = 1; ?> Code for sub.domain.com: <?php session_start(); echo $_SESSION['variable']; ?> But $_SESSION['variable'] isn't set. I've also tried using ini_set() in the sub.domain.com code, but it made no difference. I've verified that setting session.cookie_domain is working by using ini_get(). What am I doing wrong? Thanks!

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