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• Mobile site not rendering mobile within iframe

  - by user2788371

  I'm launching a mobile version of an existing corporate web application that currently loads in an iframe for corporate authentication purposes. When accessing the web app's direct link from a mobile device, it displays beautifully. The problem is that when accessing through the iframe, the site doesn't seem to scale correctly and it looks more like I'm accessing the desktop version of the site. Any suggestions on how make the site within the iframe recognize the mobile device's width and adjust appropriately? I've tried setting the viewport within the HTML and CSS of the site being loaded and even then I'm not getting the change I expect on my iPhone. I haven't had the opportunity to test an Android yet but within our company, iOS is the most important. Some of snippets of code I have tried are listed below. I've also tried 480px and device-width (which I believe I can't access because the iframe is a different domain). Unfortunately, modifying the iframe page and settings are not an option. Also, Javascript cannot be used as a solution for other reasons. Within HTML of web app site: <meta name="viewport" content="width=320px, initial-scale=1.0, user-scalable=no" /> Within CSS of web app site: @viewport { width: 320px; } The above CSS does not seem to render even when not used in device specific @media code.

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• Sharing class member data between sub components

  - by Tim Gradwell

  I have an aggregate 'main' class which contains some data which I wish to share. The main class also has other class members. I want to share the data with these other class members. What is the correct / neatest way to do this? The specific example I have is as follows. The main class is a .net Form. I have some controls (actually controls within controls) on the main form which need access to the shared data. Main Form - DataX - DataY - Control1 -- Subcontrol1 - Control2 -- SubControl2 SubControls 1 and 2 both wish to access DataX and DataY. The trouble is, I feel like better practice (to reduce coupling), would be that either subcontrols should not know about Main Form, or Main Form should not know about subcontrols - probably the former. For subcontrols not to know about Main Form, would probably mean Main Form passing references to both Controls 1 and 2, which in turn would pass the references on to SubControls 1 and 2. Lots of lines of code which just forward the references. If I later added DataZ and DataW, and Controls 3 and 4 and SubControls 3 and 4, I'd have to add lots more reference forwarding code. It seems simpler to me to give SubControls 1 and 2 member references to Main Form. That way, any sub control could just ask for MainForm.DataX or MainForm.DataY and if I ever added new data, I could just access it directly from the sub controls with no hassle. But it still involves setting the 'MainForm' member references every time I add a new Control or Subcontrol. And it gives me a gut feeling of 'wrong'. As you might be able to tell I'm not happy with either of my solutions. Is there a better way? Thanks

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• Perl Cookie not working

  - by grosseskino

  Hi! I already spent all day looking for an answer for this: I am using Perl with LWP::UserAgent and HTTP::Cookies. My problem is that I can't get past an cookie-base age-check. In Perl I use this code: my $browser = LWP::UserAgent->new; my $resp = $browser->get( $url, 'User-Agent' => 'MySpider/1.0' ); #Cookie Setup my $cookies = HTTP::Cookies->new(); $cookies->set_cookie(1,'age_check', '1','/','.example.com/', 80, ,0,3354512128, 0); $browser->cookie_jar($cookies); The Site is setting the Cookie with JavaScript function saveSplash(domain) { var expDate = new Date(); expDate.setTime(expDate.getTime()+(1*24*3600*1000)); setCookie("age_check", 1, expDate, '/', domain); setCookie("screen_width", getScreenWidth(), expDate, '/', domain); } This is the Cookie saved by my browser: age_check 1 example.com/ 1088 3354512128 30140182 2646218624 30139981 Any idea what I am doing wrong? Thanks in advance guys!

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• Flash automatically names objects on stage "instance#"

  - by meowMIX3R

  Hi, I have 2 TLF text boxes already placed on my main stage. In the property inspector window I give these the instance names: "txt1" and "txt2". I am trying to have a single mouseup event, and figure out which text box it occurred on. My document class has the following code: package { import flash.display.Sprite; import flash.events.KeyboardEvent; public class SingleEvent extends Sprite{ public function SingleEvent() { // constructor code root.addEventListener(KeyboardEvent.KEY_UP, textChanged,false,0,true); } private function textChanged(e:KeyboardEvent){ trace(e.target.name); trace(" " + e.target); switch(e.target){ case txt1: trace("txt1 is active"); break; case txt2: trace("txt2 is active"); break; default: break; } } } } Example output is: instance15 [object Sprite] instance21 [object Sprite] Since the objects are already on the stage, I am not sure how to get flash to recognize them as "txt1" and "txt2" instead of "instance#". I tried setting the .name property, but it had no effect. In the publish settings, I have "Automatically declare stage instances" checked. Also, is it possible to have a single change event for multiple slider components? The following never fires: root.addEventListener(SliderEvent.CHANGE, sliderChanged,false,0,true); Thanks for any tips

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• Why would JSP tags appear in HTML source code?

  - by Michael

  I'm a front-end web developer at a company using Java on their server. As a front-end developer, I'm concerned with the HTML structure that the server produces, but I don't have control over anything our back-end team produces. Rather than ask someone on that team, I would like to gather knowledge from the Stackoverflow community so I can communicate intelligently with the back-end team. So, I am curious as to what would cause certain JSP tags to appear in the rendered HTML that is sent to the browser. We have tags in our HTML source such as: <flow:fileRef id="vfileColor" fileId="vfile.color"/> <flow:fileRef id="StyleDir" fileId="StyleDir"/> <flow:fileRef id="vfileStylesheet" fileId="vfile.stylesheet"/> I am more interested in knowing why these appear, not as much about what they do. Is there a server setting for Tomcat/Apache/etc. that would hide these tags from the browser? Any information would be helpful. Thanks in advance.

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• Overriding CSS properties for iframe width

  - by user2898989

  I'm trying to put an iframe into a webpage, but no matter what I try to put in either the iframe properties or the custom CSS section of the website builder (or how many times I try to add !important to anything from width to right-margin), I can't get the iframe to extend rightward further than the page's preset width. Here's an example of the page and iframe that I'm working with: http://fmlcapitalinvestment.com/Search_Properties.html I need that script/iframe to be wide enough to show the search area. It seems pointless to copy and paste code and attributes I've tried setting, because nothing I do seems to have any effect, but just for showing how much I have no idea what I'm doing, here's my iframe code: <iframe id="idxFrame" style="padding:0; margin:0; padding-top: 0px; overflow-x:auto; width:1000px!important; border:0px solid transparent; background-color:transparent; max-width:none!important; right-margin:-200px!important" frameborder="0" scrolling="on" src="http://www.themls.com/IDXNET/Default.aspx?wid=8MSsp7Pf9eI55yjkDuB%2blX5awn7LnnVXh5PNYhq2ImAEQL" width="1200px" height="900px"></iframe> The "Website Builder" that I'm forced to use to make these kinds of pages is infuriating, but it does have a "Custom CSS" area where I can input additional CSS information. Is there something I could generically use to set iframes to their own widths?

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• Strategies for testing reactive, asynchronous code

  - by Arne

  I am developing a data-flow oriented domain-specific language. To simplify, let's just look at Operations. Operations have a number of named parameters and can be asked to compute their result using their current state. To decide when an Operation should produce a result, it gets a Decision that is sensitive to which parameter got a value from who. When this Decision decides that it is fulfilled, it emits a Signal using an Observer. An Accessor listens for this Signal and in turn calls the Result method of the Operation in order to multiplex it to the parameters of other Operations. So far, so good, nicely decoupled design, composable and reusable and, depending on the specific Observer used, as asynchronous as you want it to be. Now here's my problem: I would love to start coding actual Tests against this design. But with an asynchronous Observer... how should I know that the whole signal-and-parameters-plumbing worked? Do I need to use time outs while waiting for a Signal in order to say that it was emitted successfully or not? How can I be, formally, sure that the Signal will not be emitted if I just wait a little longer (halting problem? ;-)) And, how can I be sure that the Signal was emitted because it was me who set a parameter, and not another Operation? It might well be that my test comes to early and sees a Signal that was emitted way before my setting a parameter caused a Decision to emit it. Currently, I guess the trivial cases are easy to test, but as soon as I want to test complex many-to-many - situations between operations I must resort to hoping that the design Just Works (tm)...

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• Switching application-wide theme programmatically?

  - by Cheezmeister

  EDIT: Related question here: Multi theme support in android app I'm attempting to get a user-chosen theme and feel like I'm frustratingly close. Defining the theme in AndroidManifest.xml works as it should, but (as best I can tell) can't change based on app preferences: <application android:theme="@style/theme_sunshine" android:icon="@drawable/icon" android:label="@string/app_name"> Alternatively, setting it dynamically in each activity also works: someChosenTheme = PreferenceManager.getDefaultSharedPreferences(this).getString("themePreference", "theme_twilight"); setTheme(someOtherChosenTheme); But that seems messy, and I'd rather set the theme for the entire app in one place. My first thought was to grab the application context as soon as my main activity launches and do it there: getApplicationContext().setTheme(R.style.theme_dummy); As best I can tell[0], this ought to do the trick, but in fact it's not doing anything--the entire app has the default Android style. Is the above valid, and if so, might I be doing something else dumb? I'm working in API level 3 if that matters. Prods in the right direction greatly appreciated! [0] http://developer.android.com/reference/android/content/Context.html#setTheme%28int%29 http://developer.android.com/reference/android/content/Context.html#getApplicationContext%28%29

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• I have data about deadlocks, but I can't understand why they occur (MS SQL/ASP.NET MVC)

  - by Alex

  I am receiving a lot of deadlocks in my big web application. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2941233/how-to-automatically-re-run-deadlocked-transaction-asp-net-mvc-sql-server Here I wanted to re-run deadlocked transactions, but I was told to get rid of the deadlocks - it's much better, than trying to catch the deadlocks. So I spent the whole day with SQL profiler, setting the tracing keys etc. And this is what I got. There's a Users table. I have a very high usable page with the following query (it's not the only query, but it's the one that causes troubles) UPDATE Users SET views = views + 1 WHERE ID IN (SELECT AuthorID FROM Articles WHERE ArticleID = @ArticleID) And then there's the following query in ALL pages: User = DB.Users.SingleOrDefault(u => u.Password == password && u.Name == username); That's where I get User from cookies. Very often a deadlock occurs and this second LINQ TO SQL query is chosen as a victim, so it's not run, and users of my site see an error screen. I read a lot about deadlocks... And I don't understand why this is causing a deadlock. So obviously both of this queries run very often. At least once a second. Maybe even more often (300-400 users online). So they can be run at the same time very easily, but why does it cause a deadlock? Please help. Thank you

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• how to create a array of labelfields

  - by sheetal_r oswal

  I have 'n' number of data which has to be added to a label field which in turn has to be added to hfm.I am setting the single data in to label field as : final LabelField desc = new LabelField("", LabelField.FOCUSABLE); final LabelField desc1 = new LabelField("", LabelField.FOCUSABLE); Vector data = (Vector) listEvent.get(keys); for (int i = 0; i < data.size(); i++) { EventData ee = (EventData) data.elementAt(i); String Summary= ee.getSummary(); if (time.getText().equals(sTime)) { desc.setText(Summary); } else{ desc1.setText(Summary); } } HorizontalFieldManager horizontalFieldManager_left18 = new HorizontalFieldManager() { horizontalFieldManager_left18.add(desc1); vfm.add(horizontalFieldManager_left18); vfm.add(new SeparatorField()); HorizontalFieldManager horizontalFieldManager_left17 = new HorizontalFieldManager() { horizontalFieldManager_left17.add(desc); vfm.add(horizontalFieldManager_left17); vfm.add(new SeparatorField()); In the above code i loop over vector and set the data into labelfield and adding the label to hfm later. Now the case is the vector data has more than one summary data,and the data is getting overridden in labelfield,i need to keep 'n' number of summary data into lablefield and add to new hfm.

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• Fake location for the device (custom)

  - by AtomRiot

  I know there are a few apps out there to fake a devices location but specifically what i want to do is use a location grabbed from a url. What direction should I look for setting the location on the device. The scenario i have is a jailbroken Wi-Fi iPad tethered to a nexus one. The nexus one would host a background service that when a request is recieved, it would respond with gps data of its current location. The jailbroken ipad would have a background service that either updated the location on a time interval, or on a per request basis (depending on how i have to implement it) by submitting a request to the tethered nexus one service. That data would then be set on the ipad and an application requesting location would get the service data. The goal is to recreate the location faker app's functionality with the exception of the spoofed location comes from the nexus ones gps via the service but i have not yet found out how to set the location data for the device. I can ofcourse implement this in a per app basis but it would be awesome to have any app be able to use it.

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• Management API - The request body XML was invalid or not correctly specified

  - by maartenba

  Cross posting from http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/windowsazuretroubleshooting/thread/31b6aedc-c069-4e32-8e8f-2ff4b7c30793 I'm getting this error on changing configuration through the service management API: The request body XML was invalid or not correctly specified The request body payload: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <ChangeConfiguration xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/windowsazu re"> <Configuration>PD94bWwgdmVyc2lvbj0iMS4wIj8+CjxTZXJ2aWNlQ29uZmlndX JhdGlvbiB4bWxuczp4c2k9Imh0dHA6Ly93d3cudzMub3JnLzIwMDEvWE1MU2NoZW1hLWluc3RhbmNlIi B4bWxuczp4c2Q9Imh0dHA6Ly93d3cudzMub3JnLzIwMDEvWE1MU2NoZW1hIiB4bWxucz0iaHR0cDovL3 NjaGVtYXMubWljcm9zb2Z0LmNvbS9TZXJ2aWNlSG9zdGluZy8yMDA4LzEwL1NlcnZpY2VDb25maWd1cm F0aW9uIiBzZXJ2aWNlTmFtZT0iIiBvc0ZhbWlseT0iMSIgb3NWZXJzaW9uPSIqIj4KICA8Um9sZSBuYW 1lPSJXZWJSb2xlMSI+CiAgICA8Q29uZmlndXJhdGlvblNldHRpbmdzPgogICAgICA8U2V0dGluZyBuYW 1lPSJNaWNyb3NvZnQuV2luZG93c0F6dXJlLlBsdWdpbnMuRGlhZ25vc3RpY3MuQ29ubmVjdGlvblN0cm luZyIgdmFsdWU9IlVzZURldmVsb3BtZW50U3RvcmFnZT10cnVlIi8+CiAgICA8L0NvbmZpZ3VyYXRpb2 5TZXR0aW5ncz4KICAgIDxJbnN0YW5jZXMgY291bnQ9IjIiLz4KICAgIDxDZXJ0aWZpY2F0ZXMvPgogID wvUm9sZT4KPC9TZXJ2aWNlQ29uZmlndXJhdGlvbj4K</Configuration> </ChangeConfiguration> I'm passing it the following configuration: $configuration = '<?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <ServiceConfiguration xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/ServiceHosting/2008/10/ServiceConfiguration" serviceName="" osFamily="1" osVersion="*"> <Role name="WebRole1"> <ConfigurationSettings> <Setting name="Microsoft.WindowsAzure.Plugins.Diagnostics.ConnectionString" value="UseDevelopmentStorage=true"/> </ConfigurationSettings> <Instances count="2"/> <Certificates/> </Role> </ServiceConfiguration>'; Does anyone know why this error occurs? I suspect it has something to do with encoding but not sure.

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• Javascript for disabling dropdown in ASP.NET

  - by Lijo

  Hi Team, I am using JScript in ASP.NET 2005. I have a page with a checkbox and a dropdown list. When the checkbox is checked the dropdown is to be disabled. During Postback of the page this should be retained. I am using a javascript function as follows if((chkOwner[1].checked==true)) { document.getElementById(ddlClientID).disabled=true; document.getElementById(ddlClientID).className = "form-disabled"; document.getElementById(ddlClientID).selectedIndex = 0; } else { document.getElementById(ddlClientID).disabled=false; document.getElementById(ddlClientID).className = "form-input"; document.getElementById(ddlClientID).selectedIndex = 0; } This works, almost. However, the dropdown selection is not retained after postback (when checkbox is not selected). Apprently the solution is to remove the last line, i.e, in the else part, remove the selectedIndex =0 setting. But, when I do that the disabling of dropdown (when check box is selected) is not working after post back. Could you please help on this? Thanks Lijo

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• Using Javascript to get URL Vars, not working when multiple values present in QueryString

  - by bateman_ap

  Hi, I am using a Javascript function to get the values of a URL to pass to jQuery using the function below: function getUrlVars() { var vars = [], hash; var hashes = window.location.href.slice(window.location.href.indexOf('?') + 1).split('&'); for(var i = 0; i < hashes.length; i++) { hash = hashes[i].split('='); vars.push(hash[0]); vars[hash[0]] = hash[1]; } return vars; } And then setting the value like this: var type = getUrlVars()["type"] This all works perfectly, however I have just come into a situation where I need to get multiple values, one of my form elements are checkboxes where multiple values can be checked, so my URL will look something like this: http://www.domain.com/test.php?type=1&cuisine[]=23&cuisine[]=43&name=test If I alert out the cuisine value using the function above I only ever get the final value: alert (getUrlVars()["cuisine[]"]); Would alert "43". What I would like it to be is a comma delimited string of all "cuisine" values. ie in the above example "23,43" Any help very welcome! In case any solution requires it I am using PHP 5.3 and Jquery 1.4

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• Unit Tests Architecture Question

  - by Tom Tresansky

  So I've started to layout unit tests for the following bit of code: public interface MyInterface { void MyInterfaceMethod1(); void MyInterfaceMethod2(); } public class MyImplementation1 implements MyInterface { void MyInterfaceMethod1() { // do something } void MyInterfaceMethod2() { // do something else } void SubRoutineP() { // other functionality specific to this implementation } } public class MyImplementation2 implements MyInterface { void MyInterfaceMethod1() { // do a 3rd thing } void MyInterfaceMethod2() { // do something completely different } void SubRoutineQ() { // other functionality specific to this implementation } } with several implementations and the expectation of more to come. My initial thought was to save myself time re-writing unit tests with something like this: public abstract class MyInterfaceTester { protected MyInterface m_object; @Setup public void setUp() { m_object = getTestedImplementation(); } public abstract MyInterface getTestedImplementation(); @Test public void testMyInterfaceMethod1() { // use m_object to run tests } @Test public void testMyInterfaceMethod2() { // use m_object to run tests } } which I could then subclass easily to test the implementation specific additional methods like so: public class MyImplementation1Tester extends MyInterfaceTester { public MyInterface getTestedImplementation() { return new MyImplementation1(); } @Test public void testSubRoutineP() { // use m_object to run tests } } and likewise for implmentation 2 onwards. So my question really is: is there any reason not to do this? JUnit seems to like it just fine, and it serves my needs, but I haven't really seen anything like it in any of the unit testing books and examples I've been reading. Is there some best practice I'm unwittingly violating? Am I setting myself up for heartache down the road? Is there simply a much better way out there I haven't considered? Thanks for any help.

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• [Ruby on Rails] how to add a new entry with a multiple has_many association?

  - by siulamvictor

  I am not sure am I doing these correct. I have 3 models, Account, User, and Event. Account contains a group of Users. Each User have its own username and password for login, but they can access the same Account data under the same Account. Events is create by a User, which other Users in the same Account can also read or edit it. I created the following migrations and models. User migration class CreateUsers < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :users do |t| t.integer :account_id t.string :username t.string :password t.timestamps end end def self.down drop_table :users end end Account migration class CreateAccounts < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :accounts do |t| t.string :name t.timestamps end end def self.down drop_table :accounts end end Event migration class CreateEvents < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :events do |t| t.integer :account_id t.integer :user_id t.string :name t.string :location t.timestamps end end def self.down drop_table :events end end Account model class Account < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :users has_many :events end User model class User < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :account end Event model class Event < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :account belongs_to :user end so.... Is this setting correct? Every time when a user create a new account, the system will ask for the user information, e.g. username and password. How can I add them into correct tables? How can I add a new event? I am sorry for such a long question. I am not very understand the rails way in handling such data structure. Thank you guys for answering me. :)

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• Memory Barrier by lock statement

  - by jalalaldeen

  I read recently about memory barrier and the reordaring issue and now I have some confusion about it. Let us have a following senario: private object _object1 = null; private object _object2 = null; private bool _usingObject1 = false; private object MyObject { get { if (_usingObject1) { return _object1; } else { return _object2; } } set { if (_usingObject1) { _object1 = value; } else { _object2 = value; } } } private void Update() { _usingMethod1 = true; SomeProperty = FooMethod(); //.. _usingMethod1 = false; } 1- At Update method; is it always _usingMethod1 = true statement excecuted before getting or setting the property? or due reordaring issue we can not garantee that? 2- Should we use volitle like. private volitle bool _usingMethod1 = false; 3- If we use lock; can we garantee then every statement within the lock will be excecuted in order like: private void FooMethod() { object locker = new object(); lock (locker) { x = 1; y = a; i++; } } Thanks in advanced..

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• CakePHP: Missing database table

  - by Justin

  I have a CakePHP application that is running fine locally. I uploaded it to a production server and the first page that uses a database connection gives the "Missing Database Table" error. When I look at the controller dump, it's complaining about the first table. I've tried a variety of things to fix this problem, with no luck: I've confirmed that at the command line I can login with the given MySQL credentials in database.php I've confirmed this table exists I've tried using the MySQL root credentials (temporarily) to see if the problem lies with permissions of the user. The same error appeared. My debug level is currently set to 3 I've deleted the entire contents of /app/tmp/cache I've set 777 permissions on /app/tmp* I've confirmed that I can run DESCRIBE commands at the commant line MySQL when logged in with the MySQL credentials used by by the application I've verified that the CakePHP log file only contains the error I'm setting in the browser window. I've tried all the suggestions I could find in similar postings on SO I've Googled around and didn't find any other ideas I think I've eliminating the obvious problems and my research isn't turning anything up. I feel like I'm missing something obvious. Any ideas?

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• Is there such a thing as a MemberExpression that handles a many-to-many relationship?

  - by Jaxidian

  We're trying to make it easy to write strongly-typed code in all areas of our system, so rather than setting var sortColumn = "FirstName" we'd like to say sortOption = (p => p.FirstName). This works great if the sortOption is of type Expression<Func<Person, object>> (we actually use generics in our code but that doesn't matter). However, we run into problems for many-to-many relationships because this notation breaks down. Consider this simple code: internal class Business { public IQueryable<Address> Addresses { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } internal class Address { public State MyState { get; set; } } internal class State { public string Abbreviation { get; set; } public int StateID { get; set; } } Is it possible to have this sort of MemberExpression to identify the StateID column off of a business? Again, the purpose of using this is not to return a StateID object, it's to just identify that property off of that entity (for sorting, filtering, and other purposes). It SEEMS to me that there should be some way to do this, even if it's not quite as pretty as foo = business.Addresses.SomeExtension(a => a.State.StateID);. Is this really possible? If more background is needed, take a look at this old question of mine. We've since updated the code significantly, but this should give you the general detailed idea of the context behind this question.

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• Hive performance increase

  - by Sagar Nikam

  I am dealing with a database (2.5 GB) having some tables only 40 row to some having 9 million rows data. when I am doing any query for large table it takes more time. I want results in less time small query on table which have 90 rows only-- hive> select count(*) from cidade; Time taken: 50.172 seconds hdfs-site.xml <configuration> <property> <name>dfs.replication</name> <value>3</value> <description>Default block replication. The actual number of replications can be specified when the file is created. The default is used if replication is not specified in create time. </description> </property> <property> <name>dfs.block.size</name> <value>131072</value> <description>Default block replication. The actual number of replications can be specified when the file is created. The default is used if replication is not specified in create time. </description> </property> </configuration> does these setting affects performance of hive? dfs.replication=3 dfs.block.size=131072 can i set it from hive prompt as hive>set dfs.replication=5 Is this value remains for a perticular session only ? or Is it better to change it in .xml file ?

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• Silverlight Export Datagrid to Excel (without roundtrip)

  - by kirkktx

  I've got a silverlight 2 app with a Datagrid and a button for exporting it to Excel by making a trip back to the server. I can create an HTML string representing the datagrid. I'd like to attach this string to an html element, setting MIME type=application/vnd.ms-excel and have a prompt show up asking if I'd like to open or save the xls file. After all if ASP can do this ... <% The main feature of this technique is that %> <% you have to change Content type to ms-excel.%> Response.ContentType = "application/vnd.ms-excel" <TABLE> <TR><TD>2</TD></TR> <TR><TD>3</TD></TR> <TR><TD>=SUM(A1:A2)</TD></TR> </TABLE> ... it seems like I should be able to do something similar from within Silverlight, pushing it onto the HTML DOM. Any suggestions greatly appreciated!

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• ASP.NET configuration inheritance

  - by NowYouHaveTwoProblems

  I have an ASP.NET application that defines a custom configuration section in web.config. Recently I had a customer who wanted to deploy two instances of the application (for testing in addition to an existing production application). The configuration chosen by the customer was: foo.com - production application foo.com/Testing - test application In this case, the ASP.NET configuration engine decided to apply the settings at foo.com/web.config to foo.com/Testing/web.config. Thankfully this caused a configuration error because the section was redefined at the second level rather than giving the false impression that the two web applications were isolated. What I would like to do is to specify that my configuration section is not inherited and must be re-defined for any web application that requires it but I haven't been able to find a way to do this. My web.config ends up something like this <configuration> <configSections> <section name="MyApp" type="MyApp.ConfigurationSection"/> </configSections> <MyApp setting="value" /> <NestedSettingCollection> <Item key="SomeKey" value="SomeValue" /> <Item key="SomeOtherKey" value="SomeOtherValue" /> </NestedSettingCollection> </MyApp> </configuration>

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• Is there a Twitter Bootstrap class that means "initially hidden"?

  - by bgp

  Using Bootstrap 3, I have an element on a page I want to show later in response to the user clicking a button. Example: <div id="search_results"> ... gets populated from ajax data later ... </div> <button id="search_button" type="button" class="btn btn-primary pull-right">Search</button> <script> $('#search_button').click(function() { // ... do the call to search // and in the callback: $('#search_results').show(); }); </script> The search_results div should be initially hidden. Is there some normal/best practice way of doing this with bootstrap? Yes, I do realize I can just put style="display:none" on search_results, but is that the best way to do it? It would seem to be a bit better to have a style that semantically means "initially hidden". (NOTE: The hidden or hide classes don't do this as they are !important and show(), toggle(), etc. use an inline style which does not override them, i.e. setting "hidden" as the class makes it unshowable from jQuery.)

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• undefined method `code' for nil:NilClass message with rails and a legacy database

  - by Jude Osborn

  I'm setting up a very simple rails 3 application to view data in a legacy MySQL database. The legacy database is mostly rails ORM compatible, except that foreign key fields are pluralized. For example, my "orders" table has a foreign key field to the "companies" table called "companies_id" (rather than "company_id"). So naturally I'm having to use the ":foreign_key" attribute of "belongs_to" to set the field name manually. I haven't used rails in a few years, but I'm pretty sure I'm doing everything right, yet I get the following error when trying to access "order.currency.code": undefined method `code' for nil:NilClass This is a very simple application so far. The only thing I've done is generate the application and a bunch of scaffolds for each of the legacy database tables. Then I've gone into some of the models to make adjustments to accommodate the above mentioned difference in database naming conventions, and added some fields to the views. That's it. No funny business. So my database tables look like this (relevant fields only): orders ------ id description invoice_number currencies_id currencies ---------- id code description My Order model looks like this: class Order < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :currency, :foreign_key=>'currencies_id' end My Currency model looks like this: class Currency < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :orders end The relevant view snippet looks like this: <% @orders.each do |order| %> <tr> <td><%= order.description %></td> <td><%= order.invoice_number %></td> <td><%= order.currency.code %></td> </tr> <% end %> I'm completely out of ideas. Any suggestions?

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• Processing JSON data with jQuery - strange results needing alert()

  - by James

  I have this code below. I randomly ran across that it will work if I have that alert message exactly where it is. If I take it out or move it to any other spot the tabs will not appear. What exactly is that alert doing that allows the code to work and how can I make it work without the alert? If I move the each loop into the success section it does not work even with the alert. $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "../ajax.php", data: "action=tabs", dataType: "json", success: function(data){ Projects = data; } }); alert("yes"); $.each(Projects, function(i){ /* Sequentially creating the tabs and assigning a color from the array: */ var tmp = $('<li><a href="#" class="tab green">'+Projects[i].name+'<span class="left" /><span class="right" /></a></li>'); /* Setting the page data for each hyperlink: */ tmp.find('a').data('page','../ajax.php?action=lists&projectID='+Projects[i].project_id); /* Adding the tab to the UL container: */ $('ul.tabContainer').append(tmp); }); The ajax code is retuning json with this code $query = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM `projects` ORDER BY `position` ASC"); $projects = array(); // Filling the $projects array with new project objects: while($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($query)){ $projects[] = $row; } echo json_encode($projects); The returning data is very small and very fast so I don't think that is the problem.

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