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• pagination in jsf

  - by gurupriyan.e

  I would like your comments and suggestion on this. I am doing the pagination for a page in jsf. The datatable is bound to a Backing Bean property through the "binding" attribute. I have 2 boolean variables to determine whether to render 'Prev' and 'Next' Button - which is displayed below the datatable. When either the 'Prev' or 'Next' button is clicked, In the backing bean I get the bound dataTable property and through which i get the "first" and "rows" attribute of the datatable and change accordingly. I display 5 rows in the page. Please comment and suggest if there any better ways. btw, I am not interested in any JSF Component libraries but stick to only core html render kit. public String goNext() { UIData htdbl = getBrowseResultsHTMLDataTable1(); setShowPrev(true); //set Rows "0" or "5" if(getDisplayResults().size() - (htdbl.getFirst() +5)>5 ) { htdbl.setRows(5);//display 5 rows }else if (getDisplayResults().size() - (htdbl.getFirst() +5)<=5) { htdbl.setRows(0);//display all rows (which are less than 5) setShowNext(false); } //set First htdbl.setFirst(htdbl.getFirst()+5); return "success"; } public String goPrev() { setShowNext(true); UIData htdbl = getBrowseResultsHTMLDataTable1(); //set First htdbl.setFirst(htdbl.getFirst()-5); if(htdbl.getFirst()==0) { setShowPrev(false); } //set Rows - always display 5 htdbl.setRows(5);//display 5 rows return "success"; }

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• StructureMap problems with bidirectional/circular dependencies

  - by leozilla

  I am currently integrating StructureMap within our business layer but have problems because of bidirectional dependencies. The layer contains multiple manager where each manager can call methods on each other, there are no restrictions or rules for communication. This also includes possible circular dependencies like in the example below. I know the design itself is questionable but currently we just want StructureMap to work and will focus on further refactoring in the future. Every manager implements the IManager interface internal interface IManager { bool IsStarted { get; } void Start(); void Stop(); } And does also have his own specific interface. internal interface IManagerA : IManager { void ALogic(); } internal interface IManagerB : IManager { void BLogic(); } Here are to dummy manager implementations. internal class ManagerA : IManagerA { public IManagerB ManagerB { get; set; } public void ALogic() { } public bool IsStarted { get; private set; } public void Start() { } public void Stop() { } } internal class ManagerB : IManagerB { public IManagerA ManagerA { get; set; } public void BLogic() { } public bool IsStarted { get; private set; } public void Start() { } public void Stop() { } } Here is the StructureMap configuration i use atm. I am still not sure how i should register the managers so currently i use a manual registration. Maybee someone could help me with this too. For<IManagerA>().Singleton().Use<ManagerA>(); For<IManagerB>().Singleton().Use<ManagerB>(); SetAllProperties(convention => { // configure the property injection for all managers convention.Matching(prop => typeof(IManager).IsAssignableFrom(prop.PropertyType)); }); After all i cannot create IManagerA because StructureMap complians about the circular dependency between ManagerA and ManagerB. Is there an easy and clean solution to solve this problem but keep to current design? br David

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• 2 Mutually exclusive RadioButton "Lists"

  - by user72603

  I think this has to be THE most frustrating thing I've ever done in web forms. Yet one would think it would be the easiest of all things in the world to do. That is this: I need 2 separate lists of radiobuttons on my .aspx page. One set allows a customer to select an option. The other set does also but for a different purpose. But only one set can have a selected radiobutton. Ok I've tried this using 2 asp.net Radiobuttonlists controls on the same page. Got around the nasty bug with GroupName (asp.net assigns the control's uniqueID which prevents the groupname from ever working because now, 2 radiobuttonlists can't have the same groupname for all their radiobuttons because each radiobuttonlist has a different uniqueID thus the bug assigns the unique ID as the name attribute when the buttons are rendered. since the name sets are different, they are not mutually exclusive). Anyway, so I created that custom RadioButtonListcontrol and fixed that groupname problem. But when ended up happening is when I went to put 2 instances of my new custom radiobuttonlist control on my .aspx page, all was swell until I noticed that every time I checked for radiobuttonlist1.SelectedValue or radiobuttonlist2.SelectedValue (did not matter which I was checking) the value always spit back string.empty and i was not able to figure out why (see http://forums.asp.net/t/1401117.aspx). Ok onto the third try tonight and into the break of dawn (no sleep). I tried to instead just scrap trying to use 2 custom radiobuttonlists altogether because of that string.empty issue and try to spit out 2 sets of radiobuttonlists via using 2 asp.net repeaters and a standard input HTML tag inside. Got that working. Ok but the 2 lists still are not mutually exclusive. I can select a value in the first set of radiobuttons from repeater1 and same goes for repeater2. I cannot for the life of me get the "sets" to be mutually exclusive sets of radiobuttons.

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• Model login constraints based on time

  - by DaDaDom

  Good morning, for an existing web application I need to implement "time based login constraints". It means that for each user, later maybe each group, I can define timeslots when they are (not) allowed to log in into the system. As all data for the application is stored in database tables, I need to somehow create a way to model this idea in that way. My first approach, I will try to explain it here: Create a tree of login constraints (called "timeslots") with the main "categories", like "workday", "weekend", "public holiday", etc. on the top level, which are in a "sorted" order (meaning "public holiday" has a higher priority than "weekday") for each top level node create subnodes, which have a finer timespan, like "monday", "tuesday", ... below that, create an "hour" level: 0, 1, 2, ..., 23. No further details are necessary. set every member to "allowed" by default For every member of the system create a 1:n relationship member:timeslots which defines constraints, e.g. a member A may have A:monday-forbidden and A:tuesday-forbidden Do a depth-first search at every login and check if the member has a constraint. Why a depth first search? Well, I thought that it may be that a member has the rules: A:monday->forbidden, A:monday-10->allowed, A:mondey-11->allowed So a login on monday at 12:30 would fail, but one at 10:30 succeed. For performance reasons I could break the relational database paradigm and set a flag for every entry in the member-to-timeslots-table which is set to true if the member has information set for "finer" timeslots, but that's a second step. Is this model in principle a good idea? Are there existing models? Thanks.

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• MySQL: order by and limit gives wrong result

  - by Larry K

  MySQL ver 5.1.26 I'm getting the wrong result with a select that has where, order by and limit clauses. It's only a problem when the order by uses the id column. I saw the MySQL manual for LIMIT Optimization My guess from reading the manual is that there is some problem with the index on the primary key, id. But I don't know where I should go from here... Question: what should I do to best solve the problem? Works correctly: mysql> SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY id DESC ; +------+---------------------+ | id | created_at | +------+---------------------+ | 1336 | 2010-05-14 08:05:25 | | 1334 | 2010-05-06 08:05:25 | | 1331 | 2010-05-05 23:18:11 | +------+---------------------+ 3 rows in set (0.00 sec) WRONG result when limit added! Should be the first row, id - 1336 mysql> SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY id DESC limit 1; +------+---------------------+ | id | created_at | +------+---------------------+ | 1331 | 2010-05-05 23:18:11 | +------+---------------------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) Works correctly: mysql> SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY created_at DESC ; +------+---------------------+ | id | created_at | +------+---------------------+ | 1336 | 2010-05-14 08:05:25 | | 1334 | 2010-05-06 08:05:25 | | 1331 | 2010-05-05 23:18:11 | +------+---------------------+ 3 rows in set (0.01 sec) Works correctly with limit: mysql> SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY created_at DESC limit 1; +------+---------------------+ | id | created_at | +------+---------------------+ | 1336 | 2010-05-14 08:05:25 | +------+---------------------+ 1 row in set (0.01 sec) Additional info: explain SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY id DESC limit 1; +----+-------------+------------------+-------+--------------------------------------+--------------------------------------+---------+------+------+-------------+ | id | select_type | table | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+------------------+-------+--------------------------------------+--------------------------------------+---------+------+------+-------------+ | 1 | SIMPLE | billing_invoices | range | index_billing_invoices_on_account_id | index_billing_invoices_on_account_id | 4 | NULL | 3 | Using where | +----+-------------+------------------+-------+--------------------------------------+--------------------------------------+---------+------+------+-------------+

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• Entity Framework 4 overwrite Equals and GetHashCode of an own class property

  - by Zhok

  Hi, I’m using Visual Studio 2010 with .NET 4 and Entity Framework 4. I’m working with POCO Classes and not the EF4 Generator. I need to overwrite the Equals() and GetHashCode() Method but that doesn’t really work. Thought it’s something everybody does but I don’t find anything about the problem Online. When I write my own Classes and Equals Method, I use Equals() of property’s, witch need to be loaded by EF to be filled. Like this: public class Item { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual String Name { get; set; } public virtual List<UserItem> UserItems { get; set; } public virtual ItemType ItemType { get; set; } public override bool Equals(object obj) { Item item = obj as Item; if (obj == null) { return false; } return item.Name.Equals(this.Name) && item.ItemType.Equals(this.ItemType); } public override int GetHashCode() { return this.Name.GetHashCode() ^ this.ItemType.GetHashCode(); } } That Code doesn’t work, the problems are in Equals and GetHashCode where I try to get HashCode or Equal from “ItemType” . Every time I get a NullRefernceException if I try to get data by Linq2Entites. A dirty way to fix it, is to capture the NullReferenceException and return false (by Equals) and return base.GetHashCode() (by GethashCode) but I hope there is a better way to fix this problem. I’ve wrote a little test project, with SQL Script for the DB and POCO Domain, EDMX File and Console Test Main Method. You can download it here: Download

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• C# reflection, cloning

  - by Enriquev

  Say I have this class Myclass that contains this method: public class MyClass { public int MyProperty { get; set; } public int MySecondProperty { get; set; } public MyOtherClass subClass { get; set; } public object clone<T>(object original, T emptyObj) { FieldInfo[] fis = this.GetType().GetFields(BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.NonPublic); object tempMyClass = Activator.CreateInstance(typeof(T)); foreach (FieldInfo fi in fis) { if (fi.FieldType.Namespace != original.GetType().Namespace) fi.SetValue(tempMyClass, fi.GetValue(original)); else fi.SetValue(tempMyClass, this.clone(fi.GetValue(original), fi.GetValue(original))); } return tempMyClass; } } Then this class: public class MyOtherClass { public int MyProperty777 { get; set; } } when I do this: MyClass a = new MyClass { MyProperty = 1, MySecondProperty = 2, subClass = new MyOtherClass() { MyProperty777 = -1 } }; MyClass b = a.clone(a, a) as MyClass; how come on the second call to clone, T is of type object and not of type MyOtherClass

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• Custom Model Validator for MVC

  - by scottrakes

  I am trying to add a custom model validation at the property level but need to pass in two values. Below is my class definition and validation implementation. When it runs, the "value" in the IsValid method is always null. I can get this working at the class level but the property level is causing me issues. What am I missing? Event Class: public class Event { public int? EventID {get;set;} [ValidPURL("EventID", "PURLValue")] public string PURLValue { get; set; } ... } Validation Class [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.All, AllowMultiple = true, Inherited = true)] public sealed class ValidPURL : ValidationAttribute { private const string _defaultErrorMessage = "Web address already exist."; private readonly object _typeId = new object(); public ValidPURL(int eventID, string purlValue) : base(_defaultErrorMessage) { EventID = eventID; PURLValue = purlValue; } public int EventID { get; private set; } public string PURLValue { get; private set; } public override object TypeId { get { return _typeId; } } public override string FormatErrorMessage(string name) { return String.Format(CultureInfo.CurrentUICulture, ErrorMessageString, EventID, PURLValue); } public override bool IsValid(object value) { PropertyDescriptorCollection properties = TypeDescriptor.GetProperties(value); object eventIDValue = properties.Find(EventID, true /* ignoreCase */).GetValue(value); object purlValue = properties.Find(PURLValue, true /* ignoreCase */).GetValue(value); [Some Validation Logic against the database] return true; } } Thank for the help!

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• Is there a way to make changes to toggles in my .emacs file apply without re-starting Emacs?

  - by Vivi

  I want to be able to make the changes to my .emacs file without having to reload Emacs. I found three questions which sort of answer what I am asking (you can find them here, here and here), but the problem is that the change I have just made is to a toggle, and as the comments to two of the answers (a1, a2) to those questions explain, the solutions given there (such as M-x reload-file or M-x eval-buffer) don't apply to toggles. I imagine there is a way of toggling the variable again with a command, but if there is a way to reload the whole .emacs and have the all the toggles re-evaluated without having to specify them, I would prefer. In any case, I would also appreciate if someone told me how to toggle the value of a variable so that if I just changed one toggle I can do it with a command rather than re-start Emacs just for that (I am new to Emacs). I don't know how useful this information is, but the change I applied was the following (which I got from this answer to another question): (setq skeleton-pair t) (setq skeleton-pair-on-word t) (global-set-key (kbd "[") 'skeleton-pair-insert-maybe) (global-set-key (kbd "(") 'skeleton-pair-insert-maybe) (global-set-key (kbd "{") 'skeleton-pair-insert-maybe) (global-set-key (kbd "<") 'skeleton-pair-insert-maybe) Edit: I included the above in .emacs and reloaded Emacs, so that the changes took effect. Then I commented all of it out and tried M-x load-file. This doesn't work. The suggestion below (C-x C-e by PP works if I am using it to evaluate the toggle first time, but not when I want to undo it). I would like something that would evaluate the commenting out, if such thing exists... Thanks :)

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• Can can I reference extended methods/params without having to cast from the base class object return

  - by Greg

  Hi, Is there away to not have a "cast" the top.First().Value() return to "Node", but rather have it automatically assume this (as opposed to NodeBase), so I then see extended attributes for the class I define in Node? That is is there a way to say: top.Nodes.First().Value.Path; as opposed to now having to go: ((Node)top.Nodes.First().Value).Path) thanks [TestMethod()] public void CreateNoteTest() { var top = new Topology(); Node node = top.CreateNode("a"); node.Path = "testpath"; Assert.AreEqual("testpath", ((Node)top.Nodes.First().Value).Path); // *** HERE *** } class Topology : TopologyBase<string, Node, Relationship> { } class Node : NodeBase<string> { public string Path { get; set; } } public class NodeBase<T> { public T Key { get; set; } public NodeBase() { } public NodeBase(T key) { Key = key; } } public class TopologyBase<TKey, TNode, TRelationship> where TNode : NodeBase<TKey>, new() where TRelationship : RelationshipBase<TKey>, new() { // Properties public Dictionary<TKey, NodeBase<TKey>> Nodes { get; private set; } public List<RelationshipBase<TKey>> Relationships { get; private set; } }

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• GL_COLOR_MATERIAL with lighting on Android

  - by kostmo

  It appears that glColorMaterial() is absent from OpenGL ES. According to this post (for iPhone), you may still enable GL_COLOR_MATERIAL in OpenGL ES 1.x, but you're stuck with the default settings of GL_FRONT_AND_BACK and GL_AMBIENT_AND_DIFFUSE that you would otherwise set with glColorMaterial(). I would be OK with this, but the diffuse lighting is not working correctly. I set up my scene and tested it with one light, setting glMaterialfv() for GL_AMBIENT and GL_DIFFUSE once in the initialization. The normals have been set correctly, and lighting works the way it's supposed to. I see the Gourad shading. With GL_LIGHTING disabled, the flat colors I have set with glColor4f() appear on the various objects in the scene. This also functions as expected. However, when glEnable(GL_COLOR_MATERIAL) is called, the flat colors remain. I would expect to see the lighting effects. What might be missing? glColorMaterial() is also mentioned on anddev.org, but I'm not sure if the information there is accurate. I'm testing this on an Android 2.1 handset (Motorola Droid). Edit: It works properly on my 1.6 handset (ADP1).

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• ASP.NET MVC: How do I validate a model wrapped in a ViewModel?

  - by Deniz Dogan

  For the login page of my website I would like to list the latest news for my site and also display a few fields to let the user log in. So I figured I should make a login view model - I call this LoginVM. LoginVM contains a Login model for the login fields and a List<NewsItem> for the news listing. This is the Login model: public class Login { [Required(ErrorMessage="Enter a username.")] [DisplayName("Username")] public string Username { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage="Enter a password.")] [DataType(DataType.Password)] [DisplayName("Password")] public string Password { get; set; } } This is the LoginVM view model: public class LoginVM { public Login login { get; set; } public List<NewsItem> newsItems { get; set; } } This is where I get stuck. In my login controller, I get passed a LoginVM. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Login(LoginVM model, FormCollection form) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { // What? In the code I'm checking whether ModelState is valid and this would work fine if the view model was actually the Login model, but now it's LoginVM which has no validation attributes at all. How do I make LoginVM "traverse" through its members to validate them all? Am I doing something fundamentally wrong using ModelState in this manner?

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• Scale image to fit text boxes around borders

  - by nispio

  I have the following plot in Matlab: The image size may vary, and so may the length of the text boxes at the top and left. I dynamically determine the strings that go in these text boxes and then create them with: [M,N] = size(img); imagesc((1:N)-0.5,(1:M)-0.5, img > 0.5); axis image; grid on; colormap([1 1 1; 0.5 0.5 0.5]); set(gca,'XColor','k','YColor','k','TickDir','out') set(gca,'XTick',1:N,'XTickLabel',cell(1,N)) set(gca,'YTick',1:N,'YTickLabel',cell(1,N)) for iter = 1:M text(-0.5, iter-0.5, sprintf(strL, br{iter,:}), ... 'FontSize',16, ... 'HorizontalAlignment','right', ... 'VerticalAlignment','middle', ... 'Interpreter','latex' ); end for iter = 1:N text(iter-0.5, -0.5, {bc{:,iter}}, ... 'FontSize',16, ... 'HorizontalAlignment','center', ... 'VerticalAlignment','bottom', ... 'Interpreter','latex' ); end where br and bc are cell arrays containing the appropriate numbers for the labels. The problem is that most of the time, the text gets clipped by the edges of the figure. I am using this as a workaround: set(gca,'Position',[0.25 0.25 0.5 0.5]); As you can see, I am simply adding a larger border around the plot so that there is more room for the text. While this scaling works for one zoom level, if I maximize my plot window I get way too much empty space, and if I shrink my plot window, I get clipping again. Is there a more intelligent way to add these labels to use the minimum amount of space while making sure that the text does not get clipped?

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• Nhibernate join on a table twice

  - by Zuber

  Consider the following Class structure... public class ListViewControl { public int SystemId {get; set;} public List<ControlAction> Actions {get; set;} public List<ControlAction> ListViewActions {get; set;} } public class ControlAction { public string blahBlah {get; set;} } I want to load class ListViewControl eagerly using NHibernate. The mapping using Fluent is as shown below public UIControlMap() { Id(x => x.SystemId); HasMany(x => x.Actions) .KeyColumn("ActionId") .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .AsBag() .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); HasMany(x => x.ListViewActions) .KeyColumn("ListViewActionId") .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .AsBag() .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); } This is how I am trying to load it eagerly var baseActions = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .CreateCriteria("Actions", JoinType.InnerJoin) .SetFetchMode("BlahBlah", FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var listViewActions = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .CreateCriteria("ListViewActions", JoinType.InnerJoin) .SetFetchMode("BlahBlah", FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var listViews = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .SetFetchMode("Actions", FetchMode.Eager) .SetFetchMode("ListViewActions",FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var result = _session.CreateMultiCriteria() .Add("listViewActions", listViewActions) .Add("baseActions", baseActions) .Add("listViews", listViews) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()) .GetResult("listViews"); Now, my problem is that the class ListViewControl get the correct records in both Actions and ListViewActions, but there are multiple entries of the same record. The number of records is equal to the number of joins made to the ControlAction table, in this case two. How can I avoid this? If I remove the SetFetchMode from the listViews query, the actions are loaded lazily through a proxy which I don't want.

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• Combining aggregate functions in an (ANSI) SQL statement

  - by morpheous

  I have aggregate functions foo(), foobar(), fredstats(), barneystats() I want to create a domain specific query language (DSQL) above my DB, to facilitate using using a domain language to query the DB. The 'language' comprises of boolean expressions (or more specifically SQL like criteria) which I then 'translate' back into pure (ANSI) SQL and send to the underlying Db. The following lines are examples of what the language statements will look like, and hopefully, it will help further clarify the concept: **Example 1** DQL statement: foobar('yellow') between 1 and 3 and fredstats('weight') > 42 Translation: fetch all rows in an underlying table where computed values for aggregate function foobar() is between 1 and 3 AND computed value for AGG FUNC fredstats() is greater than 42 **Example 2** DQL statement: fredstats('weight') < barneystats('weight') AND foo('fighter') in (9,10,11) AND foobar('green') <> 42 Translation: Fetch all rows where the specified criteria matches **Example 3** DQL statement: foobar('green') / foobar('red') <> 42 Translation: Fetch all rows where the specified criteria matches **Example 4** DQL statement: foobar('green') - foobar('red') >= 42 Translation: Fetch all rows where the specified criteria matches Given the following information: The table upon which the queries above are being executed is called 'tbl' table 'tbl' has the following structure (id int, name varchar(32), weight float) The result set returns only the tbl.id, tbl.name and the names of the aggregate functions as columns in the result set - so for example the foobar() AGG FUNC column will be called foobar in the result set. So for example, the first DQL query will return a result set with the following columns: id, name, foobar, fredstats Given the above, my questions then are: What would be the underlying SQL required for Example1 ? What would be the underlying SQL required for Example3 ? Given an algebraic equation comprising of AGGREGATE functions, Is there a way of generalizing the algorithm needed to generate the required ANSI SQL statement(s)? I am using PostgreSQL as the db, but I would prefer to use ANSI SQL wherever possible.

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• Hibernate Bi- Directional many to many mapping advice!

  - by Rob

  hi all, i woundered if anyone might be able to help me out. I am trying to work out what to google for (or any other ideas!!) basically i have a bidirectional many to many mapping between a user entity and a club entity (via a join table called userClubs) I now want to include a column in userClubs that represents the role so that when i call user.getClubs() I can also work out what level access they have. Is there a clever way to do this using hibernate or do i need to rethink the database structure? Thank you for any help (or just for reading this far!!) the user.hbm.xml looks a bit like <set name="clubs" table="userClubs" cascade="save-update"> <key column="user_ID"/> <many-to-many column="activity_ID" class="com.ActivityGB.client.domain.Activity"/> </set> the activity.hbm.xml part <set name="members" inverse="true" table="userClubs" cascade="save-update"> <key column="activity_ID"/> <many-to-many column="user_ID" class="com.ActivityGB.client.domain.User"/> </set> The current userClubs table contains the fields id | user_ID | activity_ID I would like to include in there id | user_ID | activity_ID | role and be able to access the role on both sides...

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• How do I DYNAMICALLY cast in C# and return for a property

  - by ken-forslund

  I've already read threads on the topic, but can't find a solution that fits. I'm working on a drop-down list that takes an enum and uses that to populate itself. i found a VB.NET one. During the porting process, I discovered that it uses DirectCast() to set the type as it returns the SelectedValue. See the original VB here: http://jeffhandley.com/archive/2008/01/27/enum-list-dropdown-control.aspx the gist is, the control has Type _enumType; //gets set when the datasource is set and is the type of the specific enum The SelectedValue property kind of looks like (remember, it doesn't work): public Enum SelectedValue //Shadows Property { get { // Get the value from the request to allow for disabled viewstate string RequestValue = this.Page.Request.Params[this.UniqueID]; return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) as _enumType; } set { base.SelectedValue = value.ToString(); } } Now this touches on a core point that I think was missed in the other discussions. In darn near every example, folks argued that DirectCast wasn't needed, because in every example, they statically defined the type. That's not the case here. As the programmer of the control, I don't know the type. Therefore, I can't cast it. Additionally, the following examples of lines won't compile because c# casting doesn't accept a variable. Whereas VB's CType and DirectCast can accept Type T as a function parameter: return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true); or return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) as _enumType; or return (_enumType)Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) ; or return Convert.ChangeType(Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true), _enumType); or return CastTo<_enumType>(Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true)); So, any ideas on a solution? What's the .NET 3.5 best way to resolve this?

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• Problem with UserControl with custom Dependency Property

  - by Mathias Koch

  Hi, I'm writing a user control with a dependency property for a search text called SearchText. It is a dependency property because I want to allow consumers of the control to use data binding. The user control contains a WPF TextBox where the user can enter the search text. I could use data binding to connect the SearchText dependency property of the user control with the Text dependency property of the TextBox, but this binding only fires when the text box looses input focus. What I want is SearchText to be updated after every change of Text. So I have added a TextChanged event handler to the user control where I set SearchText to the value of Text. My Problem is, the SearchText binding doesn't work, the source never gets updated. What am I doing wrong? Here's the relevant part of the user controls code-behind: public partial class UserControlSearchTextBox : UserControl { public string SearchText { get { return (string)GetValue(SearchTextProperty); } set { SetValue(SearchTextProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty SearchTextProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("SearchText", typeof(string), typeof(UserControlSearchTextBox), new UIPropertyMetadata("")); private void TextBox_TextChanged(object sender, TextChangedEventArgs e) { SearchText = ((TextBox)sender).Text; } ... } The window that contains an instance of the user control has its DataContext set to an object that has a property also called SearchText. <uc:UserControlSearchTextBox SearchText="{Binding SearchText}" /> The data context of the Window: public class DataSourceUserManual : DataSourceBase { private string _searchText; public string SearchText { get { return _searchText; } set { _searchText = value; ... OnPropertyChanged("SearchText"); } } } Unfortunately, this setter is not called when I type into the text box. Any ideas?

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• 404 when getting private YouTube video even when logged in with the owner's account using gdata-pyth

  - by Gonzalo

  If a YouTube video is set as private and I try to fetch it using the gdata Python API a 404 RequestError is raised, even though I have done a programmatic login with the account that owns that video: from gdata.youtube import service yt_service = service.YouTubeService(email=my_email, password=my_password, client_id=my_client_id, source=my_source, developer_key=my_developer_key) yt_service.ProgrammaticLogin() yt_service.GetYouTubeVideoEntry(video_id='IcVqemzfyYs') --------------------------------------------------------------------------- RequestError Traceback (most recent call last) <ipython console> /usr/lib/python2.4/site-packages/gdata/youtube/service.pyc in GetYouTubeVideoEntry(self, uri, video_id) 203 elif video_id and not uri: 204 uri = '%s/%s' % (YOUTUBE_VIDEO_URI, video_id) --> 205 return self.Get(uri, converter=gdata.youtube.YouTubeVideoEntryFromString) 206 207 def GetYouTubeContactFeed(self, uri=None, username='default'): /usr/lib/python2.4/site-packages/gdata/service.pyc in Get(self, uri, extra_headers, redirects_remaining, encoding, converter) 1100 'body': result_body} 1101 else: -> 1102 raise RequestError, {'status': server_response.status, 1103 'reason': server_response.reason, 'body': result_body} 1104 RequestError: {'status': 404, 'body': 'Video not found', 'reason': 'Not Found'} This happens every time, unless I go into my YouTube account (through the YouTube website) and set it public, after that I can set it as private and back to public using the Python API. Am I missing a step or is there another (or any) way to fetch a YouTube video set as private from the API? Thanks in advance.

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• Bidirectional replication update record problem

  - by Mirek

  Hi, I would like to present you my problem related to SQL Server 2005 bidirectional replication. What do I need? My teamleader wants to solve one of our problems using bidirectional replication between two databases, each used by different application. One application creates records in table A, changes should replicate to second database into a copy of table A. When data on second server are changed, then those changes have to be propagated back to the first server. I am trying to achieve bidirectional transactional replication between two databases on one server, which is running SQL Server 2005. I have manage to set this up using scripts, established 2 publications and 2 read only subscriptions with loopback detection. Distributtion database is created, publishment on both databases is enabled. Distributor and publisher are up. We are using some rules to control, which records will be replicated, so we need to call our custom stored procedures during replication. So, articles are set to use update, insert and delete custom stored procedures. So far so good, but? Everything works fine, changes are replicating, until updates are done on both tables simultaneously or before changes are replicated (and that takes about 3-6 seconds). Both records then end up with different values. UPDATE db1.dbo.TestTable SET Col = 4 WHERE ID = 1 UPDATE db2.dbo.TestTable SET Col = 5 WHERE ID = 1 results to: db1.dbo.TestTable COL = 5 db2.dbo.TestTable COL = 4 But we want to have last change winning replication. Please, is there a way to solve my problem? How can I ensure same values in both records? Or is there easier solution than this kind of replication? I can provide sample replication script which I am using. I am looking forward for you ideas, Mirek

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• Python Regular Expressions: Capture lookahead value (capturing text without consuming it)

  - by Lattyware

  I wish to use regular expressions to split words into groups of (vowels, not_vowels, more_vowels), using a marker to ensure every word begins and ends with a vowel. import re MARKER = "~" VOWELS = {"a", "e", "i", "o", "u", MARKER} word = "dog" if word[0] not in VOWELS: word = MARKER+word if word[-1] not in VOWELS: word += MARKER re.findall("([%]+)([^%]+)([%]+)".replace("%", "".join(VOWELS)), word) In this example we get: [('~', 'd', 'o')] The issue is that I wish the matches to overlap - the last set of vowels should become the first set of the next match. This appears possible with lookaheads, if we replace the regex as follows: re.findall("([%]+)([^%]+)(?=[%]+)".replace("%", "".join(VOWELS)), word) We get: [('~', 'd'), ('o', 'g')] Which means we are matching what I want. However, it now doesn't return the last set of vowels. The output I want is: [('~', 'd', 'o'), ('o', 'g', '~')] I feel this should be possible (if the regex can check for the second set of vowels, I see no reason it can't return them), but I can't find any way of doing it beyond the brute force method, looping through the results after I have them and appending the first character of the next match to the last match, and the last character of the string to the last match. Is there a better way in which I can do this? The two things that would work would be capturing the lookahead value, or not consuming the text on a match, while capturing the value - I can't find any way of doing either.

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• Paramaterising SQL in SSIS

  - by Anonymouslemming

  Hi all, I'm trying to paramaterize some queries in SSIS. After some reading, it sounds like my best option is to create one variable that contains my base sql, another that contains my criteria and a final variable that is evaluated as an expression that includes both of these. I want to end up with an SQL query that is effectively UPDATE mytable set something='bar' where something_else='foo' So my first two variables have the scope of my package and are as follows: Name: BaseSQL Data Type: String Value: UPDATE mytable set something = 'bar' where something_else = Name: MyVariable Data Type: String Value: foo My third variable has a scope of the data flow task where I want to use this SQL and is as follows: Name: SQLQuery Data Type: String Value: @[User::BaseSQL] + "'" + @[User::MyVariable] + "'" EvaluateAsExpression: True In the OLE DB Source, I then choose my connection and 'SQL command from variable' and select User::SQLQuery from the dropdown box. The Variable Value window then displays the following: @[User::BaseSQL] + "'" + @[User::MyVariable] + "'" This is as desired, and would provide the output I want from my DB. The variable name dropdown also contains User::BaseSQL and User::MyVariable so I believe that my namespaces are correct. However, when I then click preview, I get the following error when configuring an OLE DB Source (using SQL command from variable): TITLE: Microsoft Visual Studio Error at Set runtime in DB [Set runtime in myDb DB [1]]: SSIS Error Code DTS_E_OLEDBERROR. An OLE DB error has occurred. Error code: 0x80040E14. An OLE DB record is available. Source: "Microsoft SQL Server Native Client 10.0" Hresult: 0x80040E14 Description: "Statement(s) could not be prepared.". An OLE DB record is available. Source: "Microsoft SQL Server Native Client 10.0" Hresult: 0x80040E14 Description: "Must declare the scalar variable "@".". (Microsoft Visual Studio) Can anyone advise what I'm missing or how I can resolve this please ? Thanks in advance!

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• Microsoft Reporting: Setting subreport parameters in code

  - by Svish

  How can I set a parameter of a sub-report? I have successfully hooked myself up to the SubreportProcessing event, I can find the correct sub-report through e.ReportPath, and I can add datasources through e.DataSources.Add. But I find no way of adding report parameters?? I have found people suggesting to add them to the master report, but I don't really want to do that, since the master report shouldn't have to be connected to the sub-report at all, other than that it is wrapping the sub-report. I am using one report as a master template, printing name of the report, page numbers etc. And the subreport is going to be the report itself. And if I could only find a way to set those report parameters of the sub-report I would be good to go... Clarification: Creating/Defining the parameters is not the problem. The problem is to set their values. I thought the natural thing to do was to do it in the SubreportProcessing event. And the SubreportProcessingEventArgs do in fact have a Parameters property. But it is read only! So how do you use that? How can I set their value?

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• Setting routes in application.ini in Zend Framework

  - by Paul Watson

  I'm a Zend Framework newbie, and I'm trying to work out how to add another route to my application.ini file. I currently have my routes set up as follows: resources.router.routes.artists.route = /artists/:stub resources.router.routes.artists.defaults.controller = artists resources.router.routes.artists.defaults.action = display ...so that /artists/joe-bloggs uses the "display" action of the "artists" controller to dipslay the profile the artist in question - that works fine. What I want to do now is to set up another route so that /artists/joe-bloggs/random-gallery-name goes to the "galleries" action of the "artists" controller. I tried adding an additional block to the application.ini file (beneath the block above) like so: resources.router.routes.artists.route = /artists/:stub/:gallery resources.router.routes.artists.defaults.controller = artists resources.router.routes.artists.defaults.action = galleries ...but when I do that the page at /artists/joe-bloggs no longer works (Zend tries to route it to the "joe-bloggs" controller). How do I set up the routes in application.ini so that I can change the action of the "artists" controller depending on whether "/:gallery" exists? I realise I'm probably making a really stupid mistake, so please point out my stupidity and set me on the right path (no pun intended).

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• Appropriate SQL Server Permissions for Developers

  - by BJ Safdie

  After a couple of Google searches and a quick look at questions here, I cannot seem to find what I thought would be a cookbook answer for SQL Server permissions. As I often see in small shops, most developers here were using an admin account for SQL Server while developing. I want to set up roles and permissions that I can assign to developers so that we can get our jobs done, but also do so with the minimum permissions required. Can anyone offer advice on what SQL Server permissions to assign? Components: SQL Server 2008 SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) 2008 SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) 2008 Platforms: Production Staging/QA Development/Integration We are running "Mixed Mode" security because of some legacy apps and networks, but are moving to Windows Auth. I am not sure if that really affects the role set up. I plan to set up access for Developers to Prod and Staging/QA DBs as Read-Only. However, I still want developers to retain the ability to run Profiling. We need Deployment accounts with higher privilege levels. We are currently trying to figure out exactly what privileges we need for SSIS package deployments. Within the Development Server, Developers need broad privileges. However, I am not sure that just making them all admins is really the best choice. It's hard to believe that no one has published a decent example script that sets up these kinds of roles with a good set of appropriate permissions for developers and deployers. We can probably figure this all out by locking things down and then adding permissions as we discover the need, but that will be way too big a PITA for everyone. Can anyone point me to, or provide, a good exemplar for permissions for these kinds of roles on these kinds of platforms?

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