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  • Calling method on category included from iPhone static library causes NSInvalidArgumentException

    - by Corey Floyd
    I have created a static library to house some of my code like categories. I have a category for UIViews in "UIView-Extensions.h" named Extensions. In this category I have a method called: - (void)fadeOutWithDelay:(CGFloat)delay duration:(CGFloat)duration; Calling this method works fine on the simulator on Debug configuration. However, if try to run the app on the device I get a NSInvalidArgumentException: [UIView fadeOutWithDelay:duration:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x1912b0 *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[UIView fadeOutWithDelay:duration:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x1912b0 It seems for some reason UIView-Extensions.h is not being included in the device builds. What I have checked/tried I did try to include another category for NSString, and had the same issue. Other files, like whole classes and functions work fine. It is an issue that only happens with categories. I did a clean all targets, which did not fix the problem. I checked the static library project, the categories are included in the target's "copy headers" and "compile sources" groups. The static library is included in the main projects "link binary with library" group. Another project I have added the static library to works just fine. I deleted and re-added the static library with no luck -ObjC linker flag is set Any ideas? nm output libFJSCodeDebug.a(UIView-Extensions.o): 000004d4 t -[UIView(Extensions) changeColor:withDelay:duration:] 00000000 t -[UIView(Extensions) fadeInWithDelay:duration:] 000000dc t -[UIView(Extensions) fadeOutWithDelay:duration:] 00000abc t -[UIView(Extensions) firstResponder] 000006b0 t -[UIView(Extensions) hasSubviewOfClass:] 00000870 t -[UIView(Extensions) hasSubviewOfClass:thatContainsPoint:] 000005cc t -[UIView(Extensions) rotate:] 000002d8 t -[UIView(Extensions) shrinkToSize:withDelay:duration:] 000001b8 t -[UIView(Extensions) translateToFrame:delay:duration:] U _CGAffineTransformRotate 000004a8 t _CGPointMake U _CGRectContainsPoint U _NSLog U _OBJC_CLASS_$_UIColor U _OBJC_CLASS_$_UIView U ___CFConstantStringClassReference U ___addsf3vfp U ___divdf3vfp U ___divsf3vfp U ___extendsfdf2vfp U ___muldf3vfp U ___truncdfsf2vfp U _objc_enumerationMutation U _objc_msgSend U _objc_msgSend_stret U dyld_stub_binding_helper

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  • Passing Object to Service in WCF

    - by hgulyan
    Hi, I have my custom class Customer with its properties. I added DataContract mark above the class and DataMember to properties and it was working fine, but I'm calling a service class's function, passing customer instance as parameter and some of my properties get 0 values. While debugging I can see my properties values and after it gets to the function, some properties' values are 0. Why it can be so? There's no code between this two actions. DataContract mark workes fine, everything's ok. Any suggestions on this issue? I tried to change ByRef to ByVal, but it doesn't change anything. Why it would pass other values right and some of integer types just 0? Maybe the answer is simple, but I can't figure it out. Thank You. <DataContract()> Public Class Customer Private Type_of_clientField As Integer = -1 <DataMember(Order:=1)> Public Property type_of_client() As Integer Get Return Type_of_clientField End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) Type_of_clientField = value End Set End Property End Class <ServiceContract(SessionMode:=SessionMode.Allowed)> <DataContractFormat()> Public Interface CustomerService <OperationContract()> Function addCustomer(ByRef customer As Customer) As Long End Interface type_of_client properties value is 6 before I call addCustomer function. After it enters that function the value is 0. UPDATE: The issue is in instance creating. When I create an instance of a class on client side, that is stored on service side, some of my properties pass 0 or nothing, but when I call a function of a service class, that returns a new instance of that class, it works fine. What's is the difference? Could that be serialization issue?

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  • Convert HTML + CSS to PDF with PHP?

    - by cletus
    Ok, I'm now banging my head against a brick wall with this one. I have an HTML (not XHTML) document that renders fine in Firefox 3 and IE 7. It uses fairly basic CSS to style it and renders fine in HTML. I'm now after a way of converting it to PDF. I have tried: DOMPDF: it had huge problems with tables. I factored out my large nested tables and it helped (before it was just consuming up to 128M of memory then dying--thats my limit on memory in php.ini) but it makes a complete mess of tables and doesn't seem to get images. The tables were just basic stuff with some border styles to add some lines at various points; HTML2PDF and HTML2PS: I actually had better luck with this. It rendered some of the images (all the images are Google Chart URLs) and the table formatting was much better but it seemed to have some complexity problem I haven't figured out yet and kept dying with unknown node_type() errors. Not sure where to go from here; and Htmldoc: this seems to work fine on basic HTML but has almost no support for CSS whatsoever so you have to do everything in HTML (I didn't realize it was still 2001 in Htmldoc-land...) so it's useless to me. I tried a Windows app called Html2Pdf Pilot that actually did a pretty decent job but I need something that at a minimum runs on Linux and ideally runs on-demand via PHP on the Webserver. I really can't believe I'm this stuck. Am I missing something?

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  • JSP request parameter is returning null on a jsp include with Weblogic.

    - by doug
    Hello, I am having trouble with the jsp:include tag. I have code like the following: <jsp:include page="./Address.jsp"> <jsp:param value="30" name="tabIndex"/> <jsp:param value="true" name="showBox"/> <jsp:param value="none" name="display"/> </jsp:include> The page is included fine, but when I try to access the parameters on the Address.jsp page, they are null. I have tried accessing them the following ways (with jstl): <c:out value="${param.tabIndex}" /> <c:out value="${param['tabIndex']} /> <%= request.getParameter("tabIndex") %> <c:out value="${pageScope.param.tabIndex} /> ${param.tabIndex} etc... Here is the kicker, The above works fine in tomcat 5.5. However, when I deploy the application in Weblogic 10, it does not. Also, the code works fine in other areas of my application (on weblogic) just not a particular page. Any Ideas? Thanks!

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  • Global.asax parser errors when deploying MVC 1 application to remote server.

    - by mannish
    So we're having some issues deploying an ASP.NET MVC app to a client site. Basically when we try to test the app from localhost, we get the dreaded Global.asax parser error indicating it could not load the application global. Research indicates there are basically 4 possible reasons for this exception we're seeing: The solution hasn't been built. This clearly isn't the case since we can deploy it here and it runs fine on any machine we deploy to AND we had to build and publish the darn thing to deploy it anyway. The Global.asax namespace inheritance does not match the application global code file. Again we double checked this and since it runs just fine here that can't be the issue. Miscellaneous non-descript IIS/VS.NET mischief. Basically something get's wonky in IIS or VS.NET and the web server won't behave correctly for this application. We've done cleans and rebuilds, we've deleted virtual dir and recreated, and performed all of the IIS munging that we've found elsewhere online. Various combinations of IIS bounces, server reboots, virtual dir/application recreation, etc. Code level permissions issue. We've verified full trust in machine/web config in the framework directory, we've set .NET trust to full in IIS, we've granted Everyone full control on the directories just to hit it with the security hammer, etc. etc. The pertinent detials: Windows Server 2008 x64 IIS 7, 32 bit compatible app pool (app was written on 32 bit OS compiled for any cpu) App pool identity set to NetworkService Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 1.0 XCopy deployment We deployed another read-only app just fine. The significant difference in this app is the use of NHibernate and Log4Net which require full trust. Additionally, the actual project name of the web project differs from the default namespace however the Inherits namespace in Global.asax and the Global.asax.cs files match so this shouldn't be an issue. Anybody have any bright ideas? We're officially down to just the dim ones.

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  • ado.net Concurrency violation

    - by Bicubic
    My first time using ADO.net. Trying to make database of Users. First I populate my DataSet: adapter.AcceptChangesDuringFill = true; adapter.AcceptChangesDuringUpdate = true; adapter.Fill(dataset); To create a user: User user = new User(); user.datarow = dataset.Users.NewUsersRow(); user.Name = username; user.PasswordHash = GetHash(password); user.Rights = UserRights.None; users.Add(user); dataset.Users.AddUsersRow(user.datarow); adapter.Update(dataset); When a user property is modified: adapter.Update(dataset); Creation by itself is fine. If I take an existing user and make multiple changes, fine. Multiple creations in a row, fine. Creation followed by a property change, I get this: "Concurrency violation: the UpdateCommand affected 0 of the expected 1 records." Any ideas?

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  • Crashing when masking an image

    - by shameer
    I am trying to mask an image with a 'mask image". its work fine at first time. but when i try one more time with in the application with same mask image . Application crashed. but when trying with another mask image it works fine. Why this happens? pls help? Console shows ": CGImageMaskCreate: invalid mask bits/component: 4294967295." (UIImage*) maskImage:(UIImage *)image withMask:(UIImage *)maskImage { CGImageRef maskRef = maskImage.CGImage; CGImageRef mask = CGImageMaskCreate(CGImageGetWidth(maskRef), CGImageGetHeight(maskRef), CGImageGetBitsPerComponent(maskRef), CGImageGetBitsPerPixel(maskRef), CGImageGetBytesPerRow(maskRef), CGImageGetDataProvider(maskRef), NULL, false); CGImageRef masked = CGImageCreateWithMask([image CGImage], mask); UIImage *img2=[UIImage imageWithCGImage:masked]; CGImageRelease(maskRef); CGImageRelease(mask); CGImageRelease(masked); return img2; } fun1() { view.image=[self maskImage:image1 withMask:[UIImage imageNamed:@"image2.png"]]; } fun2() { view.image=[self maskImage:image1 withMask:[UIImage imageNamed:@"image2.png"]]; view.image=[self maskImage:image1 withMask:[UIImage imageNamed:@"image3.png"]]; } fun3() { view.image=[self maskImage:image1 withMask:[UIImage imageNamed:@"image2.png"]]; view.image=[self maskImage:image1 withMask:[UIImage imageNamed:@"image2.png"]]; } When calling fun1 and fun2 apllication works fine. Application crashing when calling fun3.

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  • WebKit and Opera won't load from this server when it's in a frame

    - by crimson_penguin
    This site loads fine in Firefox, but in WebKit browsers (Safari and Google Chrome) it won't load the frame, and in Opera I get this error: "The Web site does not permit its content to be displayed in a frame. It must be displayed in a separate window.". I don't expect to be able to actually fix this, as I don't have control over the frames page (only the content of the frame), but my question is: why? The content of the frame loads fine by itself, and saving the frames page and changing the src of the frame to http://w3.org/ loads fine. I did a bit of searching based on the Opera error, and it seemed to suggest it had to do with redirecting. That URL does indeed redirect, but if I change it to http://mini.milli.no/tonje/main (which doesn't redirect), it still doesn't work. Even Apache directory listings don't work - which to me suggests it's server related. But how can a server do that? To be total clear, I'm using Mac OS X 10.6.3, and I tested with Safari 4.0.5, Chrome 5.0.375.55, Opera 10.53, and Firefox 3.6.3. Basically, the newest of all of those things currently.

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  • Applet Not Loading In Java 1.6.0_16

    - by Wayne Hartman
    I am running a Java applet compiled in 1.5 and am experiencing odd behavior when running it on computers running 1.6.0_07 and 1.6.0_16. On the *_07 version, the applet initializes and loads in the browser perfectly fine. However, computers with the *_16 are not loading at all. Even more strange, there is nothing in the Java Console to indicate any problems will loading the applet in the browser. If I run the applet from as a standalone app on said machines, it loads up just fine. The compatibility mode in the JNLP is set to 1.5+. Firefox reports no errors attempting to load the applet. Even with full tracing and logging set to all, nothing is reported in the console window. Quick facts: The JAR is signed Compiled in 1.5 Works flawlessly in browsers (FF & IE) running *_07 Does not work in browsers (FF & IE) running *_16 Works running as stand alone app in *_16 JNLP set to 1.5+ Clients are mixed *_07, *_16, and other version of 1.6 Things I have tried: Forcing the JVM to use version 1.6.0_07. This requires the user to download *_07. In my situation this is not an option, unfortunately. Ran the app on *_16 as a standalone app. This works fine, but this needs to run as an applet. Ideas?

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  • How to exit grid with ctrl-TAB when grid is on a tabpage (onkeydown works when grid not on tabpage)

    - by Charles Hankey
    winforms .net 3.5 Ultrawingrid 9.2 In my subclass of Ultrawingrid.Ultragrid : Protected Overrides Sub OnKeyDown(ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.KeyEventArgs) If e.KeyCode = Windows.Forms.Keys.Tab andalso e.control = True then SetFocusToNextControl(True) End if Mybase.OnKeyDown(e) End Sub This works fine. But when the grid is dropped on a TabControl tabpage, the ctrl-tab looks very different to the sub above. e.keycode is seen as controlkey {17} I realize that by default cntrl-Tab moves between tabpages. I need to override this behavior. My thought is I probably need a subclass of the tabControl which will pass the keycombo through just as the form does but I confess to being clueless as to how to accomplish that. I tried to override the onkeydown of a tabcontrol subclass and just issuing a return and not and base call to onkeydown if the ctrl-tab combo was pressed but it seemed to see the e.keycode as controlkey as well. FWIW I tried a different combination like ctrl-E and got pretty much the same result with focus disappearing from the grid but not going anywhere I could detect. The sub still saw the e.control as controlkey. Oddly, ctrl-X, ctrl-A etc all work in the grid and a ctrl-Delete combo I put in the subclass for deleting a row works fine. Once again - grid directly on form and it all works. I'm definitely over my head on this one. Guidance much appreciated. vb or c# fine. TIA

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  • .Net assembly references being lost as soon as project is compiled

    - by Truegilly
    I have a windows service project, one of many C# projects in a solution file. I add a reference to my "Data_objects" class library for my windows service. this is added to the references no problem. all the classes become available and I can begin to code. As soon a I compile the windows service it says "The type or namespace name 'Data_Objects' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?)" yet in the solution explorer the reference is fine, no yellow exclamation mark. I have to remove and add it again for it to pick it up, but then as soon as I compile it loses it. This reference works fine in my two other web application projects. what the hell is going on !! Truegilly Update there are no naming conflicts the only bit of code I have is a using statement - eg using Data_Objects.DataContext; also this only happens with a windows service project, i just created a new web app project and it works fine.

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  • POST xml to php with apache2

    - by Berry
    I'm working on an application that receives XML data via POST, processes it with a PHP script, and returns an XML response. I'm getting the XML with this PHP code: $requestStr = file_get_contents('php://input'); $requests = simplexml_load_string($requestStr); which works fine on the Linux-based product hardware using nginx as the server. However, for testing I'd like to be able to run it on my MacBook Pro, so I can avoid the "build image, install on product, reboot product, wait, test change" loop while I do targeted development on this XML processor. I enabled "web sharing" which starts up Apache, added a rewrite rule to point a convenient URI at my development source directory and used curl to send a request to my PHP script thus: curl -H "Content-Type:text/xml" -d @request.xml http://localhost/test/path/testscript "testscript" is handled by the PHP script fine, but when it goes to read "php:://input" I get nothing -- the empty string. Anyone have a clue why this would work under Linux with nginx and not under MacOS with Apache? I've googled and searched stackoverlow.com to no avail. Thanks for any answers. UPDATE: I've discovered that at least in this configuration, reading from php://stdin will work fine, while php://input will not. Who knew?

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  • how to get jquery.couch.app.js to work with IE8

    - by fuzzy lollipop
    I have tested this on Windows XP SP3 and Windows 7 Ultimate in IE7 and IE8 (in all compatiblity modes) and it fails the same way on both. I am running the latest HEAD from the the couchapp repository. This works fine on my OSX 10.6.3 development machine. I have tested with Chrome 4.1.249.1064 (45376) and Firefox 3.6 and they both work fine. As do the Safari 4 and Firefox 3.6 on OSX 10.6.3 Here is the error message Webpage error details User Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 6.1; Trident/4.0; SLCC2; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; .NET CLR 3.0.30729; Media Center PC 6.0) Timestamp: Wed, 28 Apr 2010 03:32:55 UTC Message: Object doesn't support this property or method Line: 159 Char: 7 Code: 0 URI: http://192.168.0.105:5984/test/_design/test/vendor/couchapp/jquery.couch.app.js and here is the "offending" bit of code, which works on Chrome, Firefox and Safari just fine. If says the failure is on the like that qs.forEach() from the file jquery.couch.app.js 157 var qs = document.location.search.replace(/^\?/,'').split('&'); 158 var q = {}; 159 qs.forEach(function(param) { 160 var ps = param.split('='); 161 var k = decodeURIComponent(ps[0]); 162 var v = decodeURIComponent(ps[1]); 163 if (["startkey", "endkey", "key"].indexOf(k) != -1) { 164 q[k] = JSON.parse(v); 165 } else { 166 q[k] = v; 167 } 168 });

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  • MKMapKit exception when using canShowCallout on annotation view

    - by Kendall Helmstetter Gelner
    I'm trying to use a pretty straightforward custom map annotation view and callout - the annotation view when I create it, just adds a UIImageView as a subview to itself. That works fine. However, when I call canShowCallout on the annotation view, An exception is thrown in MapKit immediately after returning the view. The end of the stack looks like: #0 0x94e964e6 in objc_exception_throw #1 0x01e26404 in -[MKOverlayView _addViewForAnnotation:] #2 0x01e22037 in -[MKOverlayView _addViewsForAnnotations:animated:] #3 0x01e1ddf9 in -[MKOverlayView showAddedAnnotationsAnimated:] #4 0x01df9c0e in -[MKMapView _showAddedAnnotationsAndRouteAnimated:] #5 0x01e0371a in -[MKMapView levelView:didLoadTile:] My viewForAnnotation is pretty simple: - (MKAnnotationView *)mapView:(MKMapView *)mapView viewForAnnotation:(id <MKAnnotation>)annotation { if ( ! [annotation isKindOfClass:[MyAnnotation class]] ) return nil; MyAnnotationView *useView = (MyAnnotationView *)[myMapView dequeueReusableAnnotationViewWithIdentifier:@"resuseview"]; if ( useView == nil ) { useView = [[[MyAnnotationView alloc] initWithAnnotation:annotation reuseIdentifier:@"resuseview"] autorelease]; useView.canShowCallout = YES; // if commented out view appears just fine } else { useView.annotation = annotation; } return useView; } As noted in the code, the annotation view works fine as is - until I add canShowCallout, then it crashes the first time the map gets the view.

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  • Error setting env thru subprocess.call to run a python script on a remote linux machine

    - by John Smith
    I am running a python script on a windows machine to invoke another python script on a remote linux machine. I am using subprocess.call with ssh to do this, like below: subprocess.call('ssh -i <identify file> username@hostname python <script_on_linux_machine>') and this works fine. However, if I want to set some environment variables, like below: subprocess.call('ssh -i <identify file> username@hostname python <script_on_linux_machine>', env={key1:value1}) it fails. I get the following error: ssh_connect: getnameinfo failed ssh: connect to host <hostname> port 22: Operation not permitted 255 I've tried splitting the ssh commands into list and passing. Didn't help. I've tried to run other 'local'(windows) commands thru subprocess.call() and tried setting the env. It works fine. I've tried to run other commands(such as ls) on the remote linux machine. Again, subprocess.call() works fine, as long as I don't try to set the environment. What am I doing wrong? Would I be able to set the environment for a python script on a remote machine? Any help will be appreciated.

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  • Zend_Auth and database session SaveHandler

    - by takeshin
    I have created Zend_Auth adapter implementing Zend_Auth_Adapter_Interface (similar to Pádraic's adapter) and created simple ACL plugin. Everything works fine with default session handler. So far, so good. As a next step I have created custom Session SaveHandler to persist session data in the database. My implementation is very similar to this one from parables-demo. Seems that everything is working fine. Session data are properly saved to the database, session objects are serialized, but authentication does not work when I enable this custom SaveHandler. I have debugged the authentication and all works fine up till the next request, when the authentication data are lost. I suspected, that is has something to do with the fact, that I use $adapter->write($object) instead $adapter->write($string), but the same happens with strings. I'm bootstrapping Zend_Application_Resource_Session in the first Bootstrap method, as early as possible. Does Zend_Auth need any extra configuration to persist data in the database? Why the authentity is being lost?

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  • iPad width in viewport settings overflowing past device width

    - by user1327771
    I am at my wit's end here, and I beseech the fine folks here at stackoverflow for help. I am working on a design for a blog for a friend of mine, and I'm working in HTML5. I am trying to get the width of the page to span the width of an iPad. So, in my document head, I have the following: <meta name="viewport" content="width=device-width, initial-scale=1.0, maximum-scale=1.0"> Now, if you go to the index page, on an iPad, it looks just fine. The width of the page spans the width of the iPad in portrait mode, as I expect it to: http://www.alanreuterart.com/femmegamers/index.html It also looks fine on any individual blog posts as well. However, on the "about" and "join" pages, the width does not do this. It's actually overflowing past the length of the iPad to the right. View the following page on an iPad to see what I mean: http://www.alanreuterart.com/femmegamers/about.html I've tried everything. I cannot, for the life of me, figure out how to get it those two pages to correctly span the device width of the iPad. One important note, though: before anyone tells me to set my viewport width to 960, I cannot do that because the pages have media queries in them to convert to a mobile layout for the iPhone and other mobile phones. (I am not making a special unique layout for the iPad.) Can ANYONE help out here? Thanks in advance! —Me.

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  • Is there a way to use Linq projections with extension methods

    - by Acoustic
    I'm trying to use AutoMapper and a repository pattern along with a fluent interface, and running into difficulty with the Linq projection. For what it's worth, this code works fine when simply using in-memory objects. When using a database provider, however, it breaks when constructing the query graph. I've tried both SubSonic and Linq to SQL with the same result. Thanks for your ideas. Here's an extension method used in all scenarios - It's the source of the problem since everything works fine without using extension methods public static IQueryable<MyUser> ByName(this IQueryable<MyUser> users, string firstName) { return from u in users where u.FirstName == firstName select u; } Here's the in-memory code that works fine var userlist = new List<User> {new User{FirstName = "Test", LastName = "User"}}; Mapper.CreateMap<User, MyUser>(); var result = (from u in userlist select Mapper.Map<User, MyUser>(u)) .AsQueryable() .ByName("Test"); foreach (var x in result) { Console.WriteLine(x.FirstName); } Here's the same thing using a SubSonic (or Linq to SQL or whatever) that fails. This is what I'd like to make work somehow with extension methods... Mapper.CreateMap<User, MyUser>(); var result = from u in new DataClasses1DataContext().Users select Mapper.Map<User, MyUser>(u); var final = result.ByName("Test"); foreach(var x in final) // Fails here when the query graph built. { Console.WriteLine(x.FirstName); } The goal here is to avoid having to manually map the generated "User" object to the "MyUser" domain object- in other words, I'm trying to find a way to use AutoMapper so I don't have this kind of mapping code everywhere a database read operation is needed: var result = from u in new DataClasses1DataContext().Users select new MyUser // Can this be avoided with AutoMapper AND extension methods? { FirstName = v.FirstName, LastName = v.LastName };

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  • Reporting Services - can't group by a column called "LanguageId"

    - by marc_s
    Folks, I have a really odd behavior here: I have a SQL Server 2008 Reporting Services report which gets grouped and sorted dynamically. One of the column in my data set which I display is called LanguageId and I was trying to get a grouping going by this LanguageId field. I checked, double-checked and triple-checked the data being returned - it does contain my expected values for LanguageId and everything seems fine and dandy. It just never worked - I didn't get the expected groups, I got things like a specific node actually changing its display value from one ID to another when expanding its subitems, and other really whacky stuff. I discovered that grouping and sorting by LanguageCaption works just fine. It also started working fine after I renamed LanguageId to MyLanguageId. So where on earth is this documented that LanguageId appears to be a system variable / reserved word / keyword of some sort in SQL Server Reporting Services that must be avoided at all costs?? I can't seem to find anything on that topic - even Mr. Google and Mrs. Bing came up empty so far....

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  • get value from css using document.getElementById().style.height javascript

    - by Jamex
    Hi, Please offer insight into this mystery. I am trying to get the height value from a div box by var high = document.getElementById("hintdiv").style.height; alert(high); I can get this value just fine if the attribute is contained within the div tag, but it returns a blank value if the attribute is defined in the css section. This is fine, it shows 100px as a value. The value can be accessed. <div id="hintdiv" style="height:100px; display: none;"> . . var high = document.getElementById("hintdiv").style.height; alert(high); This is not fine, it shows an empty alert screen. The value is practically 0. #hintdiv { height:100px display: none; } <div id="hintdiv"> . . var high = document.getElementById("hintdiv").style.height; alert(high); But I have no problem accessing/changing the "display:none" attribute whether it is in the tag or in the css section. The div box displays correctly by both attribute definition methods (inside the tag or in the css section). I also tried to access the value by other variations, but no luck document.getElementById("hintdiv").style.height.value ----> undefined document.getElementById("hintdiv").height ---->undefined document.getElementById("hintdiv").height.value ----> error, no execution Any solution? TIA.

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  • Why is Core Data not persisting these changes to disk?

    - by scott
    I added a new entity to my model and it loads fine but no changes made in memory get persisted to disk. My values set on the car object work fine in memory but aren't getting persisted to disk on hitting the home button (in simulator). I am using almost exactly the same code on another entity in my application and its values persist to disk fine (core data - sqlite3); Does anyone have a clue what I'm overlooking here? Car is the managed object, cars in an NSMutableArray of car objects and Car is the entity and Visible is the attribute on the entity which I am trying to set. Thanks for you assistance. Scott - (void)viewDidLoad { myAppDelegate* appDelegate = (myAppDelegate*)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; NSManagedObjectContext* managedObjectContex = appDelegate.managedObjectContext; NSFetchRequest* request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription* entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Car" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContex]; [request setEntity:entity]; NSSortDescriptor* sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"Name" ascending:YES]; NSArray* sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; [sortDescriptors release]; [sortDescriptor release]; NSError* error = nil; cars = [[managedObjectContex executeFetchRequest:request error:&error] mutableCopy]; if (cars == nil) { NSLog(@"Can't load the Cars data! Error: %@, %@", error, [error userInfo]); } [request release]; } - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath*)indexPath { Car* car = [cars objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; if (car.Visible == [NSNumber numberWithBool:YES]) { car.Visible = [NSNumber numberWithBool:NO]; [tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath].accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryNone; } else { car.Visible = [NSNumber numberWithBool:YES]; [tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath].accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryCheckmark; } }

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  • I am not able to update form data to MySQL using PHP and jQuery

    - by Jimson Jose
    My problem is that I am unable to update the values entered in the form. I have attached all the files. I'm using MYSQL database to fetch data. What happens is that I'm able to add and delete records from form using jQuery and PHP scripts to MYSQL database, but I am not able to update data which was retrieved from the database. The file structure is as follows: index.php is a file with jQuery functions where it displays form for adding new data to MYSQL using save.php file and list of all records are view without refreshing page (calling load-list.php to view all records from index.php works fine, and save.php to save data from form) - Delete is an function called from index.php to delete record from MySQL database (function calling delete.php works fine) - Update is an function called from index.php to update data using update-form.php by retriving specific record from MySQL table, (works fine) Problem lies in updating data from update-form.php to update.php (in which update query is written for MySQL) I have tried in many ways - at last I had figured out that data is not being transferred from update-form.php to update.php; there is a small problem in jQuery AJAX function where it is not transferring data to update.php page. Something is missing in calling update.php page it is not entering into that page. I am new bee in programming. I had collected this script from many forums and made this one. So I was limited in solving this problem. I came to know that this is good platform for me and many where we get a help to create new things. Please find the link below to download all files which is of 35kb (virus free assurance): download mysmallform files in ZIPped format, including mysql query

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  • OleDB connection only working when debugging

    - by Francesc
    I have a C# application that connects to a named SQL Express instance on the local machine using OleDBConnection: _connection = new OleDbConnection(_strConn); _connection.Open(); _strConn is something like this: "Provider=sqloledb;Data Source=.\NAMEDINSTANCE;Initial Catalog=dbname;User Id=sa;Password=password;" If I debug the application, the connection works fine. If I run the application from Windows Explorer (the same debug compilation), I get an "OleDBException: Login timeout expired" in the Open() line after 30 seconds. The strange thing is the exception happens even if I attach the debugger to the exe. I can see that the connection string is correct and everything seems fine. I can't fine any extra information in the SQL Express error log or SQL Activity Monitor either. If it helps, here is the exception: System.Data.OleDb.OleDbException: Login timeout expired at System.Data.OleDb.OleDbConnectionInternal..ctor(OleDbConnectionString constr, OleDbConnection connection) at System.Data.OleDb.OleDbConnectionFactory.CreateConnection(DbConnectionOptions options, Object poolGroupProviderInfo, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.CreateNonPooledConnection(DbConnection owningConnection, DbConnectionPoolGroup poolGroup) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) at System.Data.OleDb.OleDbConnection.Open() I imagine that find the issue with the information I give here might be difficult, but I don't know where else to look or what other tests to do, so any ideas on what it could be or what test I could do to find out will be really appreciated.

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  • Zend_Auth and database SaveHandler

    - by takeshin
    I have created Zend_Auth adapter implementing Zend_Auth_Adapter_Interface (similar to Pádraic's adapter) and created simple ACL plugin. Everything works fine with default session handler. So far, so good. As a next step I have created custom Session SaveHandler to persist session data in the database. My implementation is very similar to this one from parables-demo. Seems that everything is working fine. Session data are properly saved to the database, session objects are serialized, but authentication does not work when I enable this custom SaveHandler. I have debugged the authentication and all works fine up till the next request, when the authentication data are lost. I suspected, that is has something to do with the fact, that I use $adapter->write($object) instead $adapter->write($string), but the same happens with strings. I'm bootstrapping Zend_Application_Resource_Session in the first Bootstrap method, as early as possible. Does Zend_Auth need any extra configuration to persist data in the database? Why the authentity is being lost?

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  • Login as SYS user to Oracle 11g from .NET

    - by Jens Bannmann
    Using the Oracle Data Provider for .NET, my application connects to the database using the privileged SYS user. The connection string is as follows: Data Source=MyTnsName;User ID=sys;Password=MySysPassword;DBA Privilege=SYSDBA This works fine with Oracle 10, but Oracle 11 keeps complaining about an invalid username or password. I verified that the password is correct - other apps work fine with the same credentials. Note that for regular users (without the DBA Privilege part), connecting to Oracle 11 works perfectly. So, what's wrong? Update: This is not an issue with case sensitivity - when constructing the connection string, the password case is not altered by my code, and the password works fine with other, non-.NET-applications. I suspect that this might be caused by the Oracle 10 client I'm using to connect to the 11 database. Oracle states that the client is upward-compatible, the only drawback being that you cannot use some new features of the database. However, SYSDBA connections clearly are not a new Oracle 11 feature, and - again - a non-.NET-app (Keeptool Hora) can connect using the same setup. Any other ideas? Update 2: The problem persists when using an Oracle 11 client :-(

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