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  • prevent javascript in the WMD editor's preview box

    - by Justin Grant
    There are many SO questions (e.g. here and here) about how to do server-side scrubbing of Markdown produced by the WMD editor to ensure the HTML generated doesn't contain malicious script, like this: <img onload="alert('haha');" src="http://www.google.com/intl/en_ALL/images/srpr/logo1w.png" /> Unfortunately, this still allows script to show up in the WMD client's preview box. I doubt this is a big deal since if you're scrubbing the HTML on the server, an attacker can't save the bad HTML so no one else will be able to see it later and have their cookies stolen or sessions hijacked by the bad script. But it's still kinda odd to allow an attacker to run any script in the context of your site, and it's probably a bad idea to allow the client preview window to allow different HTML than your server will allow. StackOverflow has clearly plugged this hole. How did they do it? [NOTE: I already figured this out but it required some tricky javascript debugging, so I'm answering my own question here to help others who may want to do ths same thing]

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  • Problem with UserControl with custom Dependency Property

    - by Mathias Koch
    Hi, I'm writing a user control with a dependency property for a search text called SearchText. It is a dependency property because I want to allow consumers of the control to use data binding. The user control contains a WPF TextBox where the user can enter the search text. I could use data binding to connect the SearchText dependency property of the user control with the Text dependency property of the TextBox, but this binding only fires when the text box looses input focus. What I want is SearchText to be updated after every change of Text. So I have added a TextChanged event handler to the user control where I set SearchText to the value of Text. My Problem is, the SearchText binding doesn't work, the source never gets updated. What am I doing wrong? Here's the relevant part of the user controls code-behind: public partial class UserControlSearchTextBox : UserControl { public string SearchText { get { return (string)GetValue(SearchTextProperty); } set { SetValue(SearchTextProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty SearchTextProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("SearchText", typeof(string), typeof(UserControlSearchTextBox), new UIPropertyMetadata("")); private void TextBox_TextChanged(object sender, TextChangedEventArgs e) { SearchText = ((TextBox)sender).Text; } ... } The window that contains an instance of the user control has its DataContext set to an object that has a property also called SearchText. <uc:UserControlSearchTextBox SearchText="{Binding SearchText}" /> The data context of the Window: public class DataSourceUserManual : DataSourceBase { private string _searchText; public string SearchText { get { return _searchText; } set { _searchText = value; ... OnPropertyChanged("SearchText"); } } } Unfortunately, this setter is not called when I type into the text box. Any ideas?

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  • Using unset member variables within a class or struct

    - by Doug Kavendek
    It's pretty nice to catch some really obvious errors when using unset local variables or when accessing a class or struct's members directly prior to initializing them. In visual studio 2008 you get an "uninitialized local variable used" warning at compile-time and get a run-time check failure at the point of access when debugging. However, if you access an uninitialized struct's member variable through one of its functions, you don't get any warnings or assertions. Obviously the easiest solution is don't do that, but nobody's perfect. For example: struct Test { float GetMember() const { return member; } float member; }; Test test; float f1 = test.member; // Raises warning, asserts in VS debugger at runtime float f2 = test.GetMember(); // No problem, just keeps on going This surprised me, but it makes some sense -- the compiler can't assume calling a function on an unused struct is an error, or how else would you initialize or construct it? And anything fancier just quickly brings up so many other complications that it makes sense that it wouldn't bother classifying which functions are ok to call and when, especially just as a debugging help. I know I can set up my own assertions or error checking within the class itself, but that can complicate some simpler structs. Still, it would seem like within the context of the function call, wouldn't it know insides GetMember() that member wasn't initialized yet? I'm assuming it's not only relying on static compile-time deduction, given the Run-Time Check Failure #3 it raises during execution, so based on my current understanding of it it would seem reasonable for the same checks to apply. Is this just a limitation of this specific compiler/debugger (Visual Studio 2008), or more tied to how C++ works?

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  • how do I get eclipse to use a different compiler version for Java?

    - by codeman73
    It seems like this should be a simple task, with the options in the Preferences menu for different JREs and the ability to set different compiler and build paths per project. However, it also seems to simply not work. For example, I have my JAVA_HOME set to a jre for Java 1.6. It's still not clear to me how Eclipse uses this, but it appears to be defaulting to this and not taking the project overrides. I have also installed Java 1.5, and added a JRE for this in eclipse in the Java-Installed JREs section. In my project, I've set the compiler compliance level to 1.5. In the build path for the project, I've added the System Library for the Java 1.5 JRE. However, I'm getting compile errors for a class that implements PreparedStatement for not implementing abstract methods that only exist in Java 1.6 PreparedStatement. Specifically, the methods setAsciiStream(int, InputStream, long) and setAsciiStream(int, InputStream) Strangely enough, it worked when we were compiling it against Java 1.4, which it was originally written for. We added the JREs for Java 1.4 and referenced that system library in the project, and set the project's compiler level to 1.4, and it works fine. But when I do the same changes to try to point to Java 1.5, it instead uses 1.6. Any ideas why?

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  • Best way to store and deliver files on a CMS

    - by Tio
    Hi all.. First of all, this isn't another question about storing images on DB vs file system. I'm already storing the images on the file system. I'm just struggling to find a better way to show them to all my users. I' currently using this system. I generate a random filename using md5(uniqueid()), the problem that I'm facing, is that the image is then presented with a link like this: <img src="/_Media/0027a0af636c57b75472b224d432c09c.jpg" /> As you can see this isn't the prettiest way to show a image ( or a file ), and the name doesn't say anything about the image. I've been working with a CMS system at work, that stores all uploaded files on a single table, to access that image it uses something like this: <img src="../getattachment/94173104-e03c-499b-b41c-b25ae05a8ee1/Menu-1/Escritorios.aspx?width=175&height=175" /> As you can see the path to the image, now has a meaning compared to the other one, the problem is that this put's a big strain in the DB, for example, in the last site I made, I have an area that has around 60 images, to show the 60 images, I would have to do at least 60 individual query's to the database, besides the other query's to retrieve the various content on the page. I think you understand my dilemma, has anyone gone trough this problem, that can give me some pointers on how to solve this? Thanks..

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  • Good Starting Points for Optimizing Database Calls in Ruby on Rails?

    - by viatropos
    I have a menu in Rails which grabs a nested tree of Post models, each which have a Slug model associated via a polymorphic association (using the friendly_id gem for slugs and awesome_nested_set for the tree). The database output in development looks like this (here's the full gist): SQL (0.4ms) SELECT COUNT(*) AS count_id FROM "posts" WHERE ("posts".parent_id = 39) CACHE (0.0ms) SELECT "posts".* FROM "posts" WHERE ("posts"."id" = 13) LIMIT 1 CACHE (0.0ms) SELECT "slugs".* FROM "slugs" WHERE ("slugs".sluggable_id = 13 AND "slugs".sluggable_type = 'Post') ORDER BY id DESC LIMIT 1 Slug Load (0.4ms) SELECT "slugs".* FROM "slugs" WHERE ("slugs".sluggable_id = 40 AND "slugs".sluggable_type = 'Post') ORDER BY id DESC LIMIT 1 SQL (0.3ms) SELECT COUNT(*) AS count_id FROM "posts" WHERE ("posts".parent_id = 40) CACHE (0.0ms) SELECT "posts".* FROM "posts" WHERE ("posts"."id" = 13) LIMIT 1 CACHE (0.0ms) SELECT "slugs".* FROM "slugs" WHERE ("slugs".sluggable_id = 13 AND "slugs".sluggable_type = 'Post') ORDER BY id DESC LIMIT 1 Slug Load (0.4ms) SELECT "slugs".* FROM "slugs" WHERE ("slugs".sluggable_id = 41 AND "slugs".sluggable_type = 'Post') ORDER BY id DESC LIMIT 1 ... Rendered shared/_menu.html.haml (907.6ms) What are some quick things I should always do to optimize this from the start (easy things)? Some things I'm thinking now are: Can Rails 3 eager load the whole Post tree + associated Slugs in one DB call? Can I do that easily with named scopes or custom SQL? What is best practice in this situation? Not really thinking about memcached in this situation as that can be applied to much more than just this.

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  • How do I view the full content of a text or varchar(MAX) column in SQL Server 2008 Management Studio

    - by adamjford
    In this live SQL Server 2008 (build 10.0.1600) database, there's an Events table, which contains a text column named Details. (Yes, I realize this should actually be a varchar(MAX) column, but whoever set this database up did not do it that way.) This column contains very large logs of exceptions and associated JSON data that I'm trying to access through SQL Server Management Studio, but whenever I copy the results from the grid to a text editor, it truncates it at 43679 characters. I've read on various locations on the Internet that you can set your Maximum Characters Retrieved for XML Data in Tools > Options > Query Results > SQL Server > Results To Grid to Unlimited, and then perform a query such as this: select Convert(xml, Details) from Events where EventID = 13920 (Note that the data is column is not XML at all. CONVERTing the column to XML is merely a workaround I found from Googling that someone else has used to get around the limit SSMS has from retrieving data from a text or varchar(MAX) column.) However, after setting the option above, running the query, and clicking on the link in the result, I still get the following error: Unable to show XML. The following error happened: Unexpected end of file has occurred. Line 5, position 220160. One solution is to increase the number of characters retrieved from the server for XML data. To change this setting, on the Tools menu, click Options. So, any idea on how to access this data? Would converting the column to varchar(MAX) fix my woes?

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  • RSA_sign and RSACryptoProvider.VerifySignature

    - by Miky D
    I'm trying to get up to speed on how to get some code that uses OpenSSL for cryptography, to play nice with another program that I'm writing in C#, using the Microsoft cryptography providers available in .NET. More to the point, I'm trying to have the C# program verify an RSA message signature generated by the OpenSSL code. The code that generates the signature looks something like this: // Code in C, using the OpenSSL RSA implementation char msgToSign[] = "Hello World"; // the message to be signed char signature[RSA_size(rsa)]; // buffer that will hold signature int slen = 0; // will contain signature size // rsa is an OpenSSL RSA context, that's loaded with the public/private key pair memset(signature, 0, sizeof(signature)); RSA_sign(NID_sha1 , (unsigned char*)msgToSign , strlen(msgToSign) , signature , &slen , rsa); // now signature contains the message signature // and can be verified using the RSA_verify counterpart // .. I would like to verify the signature in C# In C#, I would do the following: import the other side's public key into an RSACryptoServiceProvider object receive the message and it's signature try to verify the signature I've got the first two parts working (I've verified that the public key is loading properly because I managed to send an RSA encrypted text from the C# code to the OpenSSL code in C and successfully have it decrypted) In order to verify the signature in C#, I've tried using the: VerifySignature method of the RSACryptoServiceProvider but that didn't work. And digging around the internet I was only able to find some vague information pointing out that .NET uses a different method for generating the signature than OpenSSL does. So, does anybody know how to accomplish this?

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  • How do you fix issues with the debugger for the Android plug-in for Eclipse not attaching?

    - by user279112
    I have been trying to program something for the Android mobile phone, using Eclipse and the Android plug-in for that IDE, and my debugger used to attach just fine. But then it has suddenly started having consistent issues attaching. I just get that message about how the process is waiting for the debugger attach, and then it just won't. What determines whether the attachment glitches so seems to have something to do with what the code is that I'm trying to debug, as it seems to be drastically more of an issue with some versions of my code than with others (on the same app). How do I fix this? Now before you answer, please understand that I have researched this issue already. I have found a couple of solutions that have worked with other people, but which do not work for me. One of which is setting the debuggable property in the main manifest file as true, and the other is going into Dev Tools and into some settings menu, and from there selecting the process and essentially saying to the fake phone, "Debug this process". Neither has really worked. Any other ideas? And just in case...I've run into one blasted technical issue like this after another trying to program for that stupid phone. And I'm not the only one who's having these issues; when I go online to research these issues, it is always very easy for me to find many people who have the same issues, and who are having to use the shottiest, sloppiest, most "ghetto" solutions to work around these issues. I know that many people have created good applications for that phone, but I don't see how I'm supposed to do that when the SDK and the plug-in just don't work half the time. Does anybody know how I may put all this trash behind me, once and for all? Thanks for your answers to either question!

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  • How do I dismiss an NSPanel when creating or opening a new document?

    - by mipadi
    I am working on a document-based Cocoa application. At startup, the user is presented with a "welcome panel" (of type NSPanel) with buttons for common actions like "Create New Document" and "Open Existing Document". These actions are linked to the first responder's newDocument: and openDocument: actions, respectively, just like the matching items in the File menu. Everything works as expected...with two caveats: The welcome panel is not dismissed when creating or opening a new document. Document windows do not have focus when they are created. I have partially solved #1 by making my application controller a delegate of the welcome panel. When clicking the "Open Existing Document" button, the panel resigns its key status (since a file browser dialog is being opened), so I can close the panel in the delegate's windowDidResignKey: method. However, I can't figure out how to close the panel when creating a new document, since I can't find a notification that is posted, or a delegate method that is called, when creating a new document. And ultimately, #2 is still a problem, since the document windows don't gain focus when they're created. I have only subclassed NSDocument -- I'm not using a custom document or window controller at all. I've also tried changing the panel to an NSWindow, thinking that an NSWindow may behave differently, but the same problems are occurring.

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  • Method of transforming 3D vectors with a matrix

    - by Drew Noakes
    I've been doing some reading on transforming Vector3 with matrices, and am tossing up digging deeper into the math and coding this myself versus using existing code. For whatever reason my school curriculum never included matrices, so I'm filling a gap in my knowledge. Thankfully I only need a few simple things, I think. Context is that I'm programming a robot for the RoboCup 3D league. I'm coding it in C# but it'll have to run on Mono. Ideally I wouldn't use any existing graphics libraries for this (WinForms/WPF/XNA) as all I really need is a neat subset of matrix transformations. Specifically, I need translation and x/y/z rotations, and a way of combining multiple transformations into a single matrix. This will then be applied to my own Vector3 type to produce the transformed Vector3. I've read different advice about this. For example, some model the transformation with a 4x3 matrix, others with a 4x4 matrix. Also, some examples show that you need a forth value for the vector's matrix of 1. What happens to this value when it's included in the output? [1 0 0 0] [x y z 1] * [0 1 0 0] = [a b c d] [0 0 1 0] [2 4 6 1] The parts I'm missing are: What sizes my matrices should be Compositing transformations by multiplying the transformation matrices together Transforming 3D vectors with the resulting matrix As I mostly just want to get this running, any psuedo-code would be great. Information about what matrix values perform what transformations is quite clearly defined on many pages, so need not be discussed here unless you're very keen :)

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  • Can not find Driver when using generic database bundle

    - by Marc
    I have a project that is build up from several OSGi bundles. One of them is a generic Database bundle that defines a DataSource that can be used throughout the project. The spring bean definition of this service is: <osgi:service interface="javax.sql.DataSource"> <bean class="org.postgresql.ds.PGPoolingDataSource"> <property name="databaseName" value="xxx" /> <property name="serverName" value="xxx" /> <property name="user" value="xxx" /> <property name="password" value="xxx" /> </bean> </osgi:service> Now, when using this DataSource is a different bundle, we get an error: No suitable driver found for jdbc:postgresql://localhost/xxx I have tried the following to add the org.postgresql.Driver to the DriverManager: Instantiated an empty bean for that Driver in the spring context, like this: <bean class="org.postgresql.Driver" /> Instantiated the Driver statically in one of the classes, like this: Class.forName("org.postgresql.Driver"); Added a file META-INF\services\java.sql.Driver with the content org.postgresql.Driver None of these solutions seems to help.

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  • EF 6 Code First Many to many With Payload and self referencing many to many

    - by lesley86
    I Have the problem where i have a many to many relationship and on one of the tables there will be a self referencing many to many. So basically a school have zero or many groups and many groups can have 0 or many schools. The groups table will contain a parent child many to many with itself because a group can be a child of another group or it can have no children and that child can have a child, one child can also have many parents or a entity can have no parents. I created a mapping table with Payload to solvethe first many to many problem. code snippet public class School { public virtual ICollection<SchoolGroupMap> SchoolGroupMaps } public class SchoolGroup { public virtual ICollection<SchoolGroupMap> SchoolGroupMaps } public class SchoolGroupMap { public virtual School School public virtual SchoolGroup SchoolGroup } i Then tried modifying the code the following way for the the self referencing many to many public class SchoolGroup { public virtual ICollection<SchoolGroupMap> SchoolGroupMaps public virtual ICollection<SchoolGroup> Parents public virtual ICollection<SchoolGroup> Children } I changed the context with has many and an auto mapping table (forgive me i have been trying so many things today i do not have the exact code). I received an error the properties on the classes must match. Can anyone help please. I want to do create navigation properties on the self referencing many to many. Also a seed example would be appreciated regards

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  • How to create databinding over two xaml files?

    - by BionicGecko
    Hello, I am trying to come to a working understanding of how databinding works, but even after several tutorials I only have a basic understanding of how databinding works. Thus this question might seem fundamental to those more familiar with silverlight. Even if it is trivial, please point me to some tutorial that deals with this problem. All that I could find simply solved this via adding the data binding on a parent page.xaml (that i must not use in my case). For the sake of this example let us assume, that we have 5 files: starter.cs button1.xaml + codeBehind button2.xaml + codeBehind The two buttons are generated in code in the starter(.cs) file, and then added to some MapLayer button1 my_button1 = new button1(); button2 my_button1 = new button2(); someLayer.Children.Add(my_button1); someLayer.Children.Add(my_button2); My aim is to connect the two buttons, so that they always display the same "text" (i.e. my_button1.content==my_button2.content = true;). Thus when something changes my_button1.content this change should be propagated to the other button (two way binding). At the moment my button1.xaml looks like this: <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot"> <Button x:Name="x_button1" Margin="0,0,0,0" Content="{Binding ElementName=x_button2, Path=Content}" ClickMode="Press" Click="button1_Click"/> </Grid> But everthing that i get out of that is a button with no content at all, it is just blank as the binding silently fails. How could I create the databinding in the context I described? Preferably in code and not XAML ;) Thanks in advance

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  • PendingIntents in Notifications

    - by Mariano Kamp
    I would like to show a notification that displays the progress of an ongoing operation. That works well for me. But at the same time the remote view should contain cancel button to stop the ongoing operation. The usual content intent should still do something else, i.e. not cancel the ongoing operation. It seems though that I can only have one intent. I have to specify a contentIntent that is launched when clicking on the notification: If I don't specify that I get something along those lines: E/ActivityManager( 62): Activity Manager Crash E/ActivityManager( 62): java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: contentIntent required ... For the "cancel" button I set another intent: Intent cancelSyncIntent = new Intent("com.xyz.CANCEL_SYNC"); contentView.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.cancel_sync, PendingIntent.getBroadcast(context, 0, cancelSyncIntent, 0)); But this never works. I always get the content intent when the button is clicked. It looks like I cannot use buttons in remote views of notifications?! I could probably display a text: "<< Press to cancel operation ", but that seems rather heavy handed.

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  • Web-app currency input/manipulation/calculation with javascript .. there has got to be a better (fra

    - by dreftymac
    BACKGROUND: I am of the "user-input-lockdown" school of thought. Whenever possible, I try to mistrust and sanitize user input, both client side and server side; and I try to take multiple opportunities to restrict possible inputs to a known subset of possibilities, usually this means providing a lot of checkboxes and select lists. (This is from the usability side of things, I know security-wise that malicious users can easily bypass fixed user input GUI controls). PROBLEM: Anyway, the problem always arises with non-fixed input of currency. Whenever I have to accept a freely-specified dollar amount as user input, I always have to confront these problems/annoyances and it is always painful: 1) Make sure to give the user two input boxes for each currency_datapoint, one for the whole_dollar_part and another for the fractional_pennies_part 2) Whenever the user changes a currency_datapoint, provide keystroke-by-keystroke GUI feedback to let them know whether the currency_datapoint is well-formed, with context-appropriate validation rules (e.g., no negatives?, nonzero only?, numeric only!, no non-numeric punctuation! no symbols!) 3) For display purposes, every user-provided currency_datapoint should be translated to human-readable currency formatting (dollar sign, period, commas provided by the app, where appropriate) 4) For calculation purposes, every user-provided currency_datapoint has to be converted to integer (all pennies, to avoid floating point errors) and summed into a grand total with zero or more subtotals. 5) Every user-provided currency_datapoint should be displayed or displayable in a nice "tabular" format, which auto-updates as the user enters each currency_datapoint, including a baloon that warns when one or more currency_datapoints is not well-formed. I seem to be re-inventing this wheel every time I have to work with currency in Javascript on the client side (server side is a bit more flexible since most programming languages have higher-level currency formatting logic). QUESTION: Has anyone out there solved the problem of dealing with the above issues, client side, in a way that is server-side-technology-stack agnostic, (preferrably plain javascript or jquery)? This is getting old, there has to be a better way.

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  • jQuery.clone() IE problem

    - by mofle
    I'm have some that uses jQuery.clone() to get the html of a page and then add it to a pre tag. It works correctly in Firefox and Chrome, but nothing happens in IE: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script class="jsbin" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1/jquery.min.js"></script> <meta charset=utf-8 /> <title>JS Bin</title> <!--[if IE]> <script src="http://html5shiv.googlecode.com/svn/trunk/html5.js"></script> <![endif]--> <script> $(function(){ $('button').click(function(){ var $clone = $('html').clone(); $('#output').text($clone.html()); }); }); </script> <style> article, aside, figure, footer, header, hgroup, menu, nav, section { display: block; } </style> </head> <body> <button>run test</button> <pre id="output"></pre> </body> </html> Is there any know bug with IE that prevents this, or am I doing something wrong? (I need to clone it because I'm doing some changes to it before outputting it)

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  • Does ASP.NET need to be configured for Full Trust to implement 'PageHandlerFactory' ?

    - by Kev
    Our hosting platform (running IIS6/ASP.NET 2.0) is configured to run under partial trust. In the machine wide web.config file we set the ASP.NET trust level to Medium (and lock to prevent overrides) and use a modified policy file. When trying to add a custom HttpHandler to handle .aspx requests for a website running in this configuration I get the following security exception: Security Exception Description: The application attempted to perform an operation not allowed by the security policy. To grant this application the required permission please contact your system administrator or change the application's trust level in the configuration file. Exception Details: System.Security.SecurityException: Request failed. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [SecurityException: Request failed.] System.Reflection.Assembly._GetType(String name, Boolean throwOnError, Boolean ignoreCase) +0 System.Reflection.Assembly.GetType(String name, Boolean throwOnError, Boolean ignoreCase) +42 System.Web.Compilation.CompilationUtil.GetTypeFromAssemblies(AssemblyCollection assembliesCollection, String typeName, Boolean ignoreCase) +172 System.Web.Compilation.BuildManager.GetType(String typeName, Boolean throwOnError, Boolean ignoreCase) +291 System.Web.Configuration.ConfigUtil.GetType(String typeName, String propertyName, ConfigurationElement configElement, XmlNode node, Boolean checkAptcaBit, Boolean ignoreCase) +52 I'm using a class derived from PageHandlerFactory, for example: public class MyPageHandlerFactory : PageHandlerFactory { public override System.Web.IHttpHandler GetHandler(System.Web.HttpContext context, string requestType, string virtualPath, string path) { // CustomPageHandler derives from System.Web.UI.Page return new CustomPageHandler(); } } My web.config httpHandler configuration is as follow: <httpHandlers> <add verb="*" path="*.aspx" type="MyPageHandler.MyPageHandlerFactory" /> </httpHandlers> The documentation for PageHandlerFactory shows that PageHandlerFactory is decorated with the following attributes: [PermissionSetAttribute(SecurityAction.LinkDemand, Unrestricted = true)] [PermissionSetAttribute(SecurityAction.InheritanceDemand, Unrestricted = true)] public class PageHandlerFactory : IHttpHandlerFactory Does this mean that I need to set ASP.NET to run at Full Trust to be able to create my own PageHandlerFactory classes?

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  • Why are my Flex resource bundles not being loaded?

    - by Chris R
    I have an Actionscript module in the flex source folder filterModules, which is one of two additional source folders in my project (the main source folder is reports, but I'm not dealing with anything in there right now). Here's the MXML content that references the resources. ... This array is assigned to the dataProvider field of a ComboBox. It's not bound using the bindings, presumably for reasons that made sense to the original developer, and it'd be nontrivial to change the class to make that happen. I additionally have a resource property file in a folder resources/en_US and I have the source folder resources/{locale} in the project source settings. My additional compiler options are -locale en_US. The resource property file is resources/en_US/labels.properties (All paths are relative to the flash builder project root) and contains (amongst other things) these keys: metric.q3 = Overall Satisfaction metric.q5 = Personnel metric.q9a = Issue Resolution metric.q42 = Visit Duration Sat metric.q34 = Visit Duration I have written some FlexUnit tests that run in my local Flash Player that exercise these resources -- they check that every label is represented in the metrics array, for example, so I know that the resource file is loaded when run locally. However, when I copy the module .swf file over to my server, the combo box to which the array is assigned is empty. I copy the .swf like so, if it matters: rsync -rlDv --inplace -T /tmp ~/projects/flex_reports/bin-debug/rankingFilter.swf HOSTNAME:WEBROOT/flashPath/ Why is this? I am not able to debug the remote module because our surrounding site sets up a lot of context and makes some database calls to determine which module to load. I'm hoping to get some pointers on why resource bundles might not show up. I'd understand it if the array was present with wrong labels, but the array is instead completely empty, which is pretty odd.

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  • How can I see which shared folders my program has access to?

    - by Kasper Hansen
    My program needs to read and write to folders on other machines that might be in another domain. So I used the System.Runtime.InteropServices to add shared folders. This worked fine when it was hard coded in the main menu of my windows service. But since then something went wrong and I don't know if it is a coding error or configuration error. What is the scope of a shared folder? If a thread in my program adds a shared folder, can the entire local machine see it? Is there a way to view what shared folders has been added? Or is there a way to see when a folder is added? [DllImport("NetApi32.dll", SetLastError = true, CharSet = CharSet.Unicode)] internal static extern System.UInt32 NetUseAdd(string UncServerName, int Level, ref USE_INFO_2 Buf, out uint ParmError); [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential, CharSet = CharSet.Unicode)] internal struct USE_INFO_2 { internal LPWSTR ui2_local; internal LPWSTR ui2_remote; internal LPWSTR ui2_password; internal DWORD ui2_status; internal DWORD ui2_asg_type; internal DWORD ui2_refcount; internal DWORD ui2_usecount; internal LPWSTR ui2_username; internal LPWSTR ui2_domainname; } private void AddSharedFolder(string name, string domain, string username, string password) { if (name == null || domain == null || username == null || password == null) return; USE_INFO_2 useInfo = new USE_INFO_2(); useInfo.ui2_remote = name; useInfo.ui2_password = password; useInfo.ui2_asg_type = 0; //disk drive useInfo.ui2_usecount = 1; useInfo.ui2_username = username; useInfo.ui2_domainname = domain; uint paramErrorIndex; uint returnCode = NetUseAdd(String.Empty, 2, ref useInfo, out paramErrorIndex); if (returnCode != 0) { throw new Win32Exception((int)returnCode); } }

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  • Return enum instead of bool from function for clarity ?

    - by Moe Sisko
    This is similar to : http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2908876/net-bool-vs-enum-as-a-method-parameter but concerns returning a bool from a function in some situations. e.g. Function which returns bool : public bool Poll() { bool isFinished = false; // do something, then determine if finished or not. return isFinished; } Used like this : while (!Poll()) { // do stuff during wait. } Its not obvious from the calling context what the bool returned from Poll() means. It might be clearer in some ways if the "Poll" function was renamed "IsFinished()", but the method does a bit of work, and (IMO) would not really reflect what the function actually does. Names like "IsFinished" also seem more appropriate for properties. Another option might be to rename it to something like : "PollAndReturnIsFinished" but this doesn't feel right either. So an option might be to return an enum. e.g : public enum Status { Running, Finished } public Status Poll() { Status status = Status.Running; // do something, then determine if finished or not. return status; } Called like this : while (Poll() == Status.Running) { // do stuff during wait. } But this feels like overkill. Any ideas ?

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  • Why Does This Maintainability Index Increase?

    - by Timothy
    I would be appreciative if someone could explain to me the difference between the following two pieces of code in terms of Visual Studio's Code Metrics rules. Why does the Maintainability Index increase slightly if I don't encapsulate everything within using ( )? Sample 1 (MI score of 71) public static String Sha1(String plainText) { using (SHA1Managed sha1 = new SHA1Managed()) { Byte[] text = Encoding.Unicode.GetBytes(plainText); Byte[] hashBytes = sha1.ComputeHash(text); return Convert.ToBase64String(hashBytes); } } Sample 2 (MI score of 73) public static String Sha1(String plainText) { Byte[] text, hashBytes; using (SHA1Managed sha1 = new SHA1Managed()) { text = Encoding.Unicode.GetBytes(plainText); hashBytes = sha1.ComputeHash(text); } return Convert.ToBase64String(hashBytes); } I understand metrics are meaningless outside of a broader context and understanding, and programmers should exercise discretion. While I could boost the score up to 76 with return Convert.ToBase64String(sha1.ComputeHash(Encoding.Unicode.GetBytes(plainText))), I shouldn't. I would clearly be just playing with numbers and it isn't truly any more readable or maintainable at that point. I am curious though as to what the logic might be behind the increase in this case. It's obviously not line-count.

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  • Help with Struts Action mapping

    - by nicotine
    I am having a problem with my struts application it is a class enrollment app and when the user clicks on a "show enrolled courses" button it is supposed to show the courses they are enrolled in but it shows nothing at the moment. Struts/Apache does not return any errors, it Just shows a blank page and I cannot figure out why. My action mapping in my struts-config: <action path="/showEnrolled" type="actions.ShowEnrolledAction" name="UserFormEnrolled" scope="request" validate="true" input="/students/StudentMenu.jsp"> <forward name="success" path="/students/enrolled.jsp"/> </action> My link to the jsp enrolled.jsp page: <li><html:form action="/showEnrolled"> <html:hidden property="id" value= "<%=request.getRemoteUser()%>"/> <html:submit value = "View Enrolled Classes"/> </html:form> </li> When I click the link I get nothing but my menu on the page. The text headings for the page are not even displayed.

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  • Iphone: Problem with moving back and forth between two UIViewController

    - by Harry Pham
    Let me first describe the context of the problem. I have 2 UIViewController call AdminViewController and ButtonReorderViewController. AdminViewController contain 1 button. ButtonReorderViewController contains 1 button and 1 picture. Button in AdminViewController tie to an event call goToReorderButton. The content of goToReorderButton are below: ButtonReorderViewController *buttonReorder = [[ButtonReorderViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ButtonReorderViewController" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; UINavigationController *navController = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:buttonReorder]; //Add a Navigation Controller to the root view [navController setNavigationBarHidden:TRUE]; buttonReorder = (ButtonReorderViewController *) navController; [[buttonReorder view] setFrame:CGRectMake(0, -20, 320, 470)]; [self.view addSubview:buttonReorder.view]; I use UINavigationController to allow me to swipe left and right.So I am in AdminViewController, and I click on goToReorderButton, it load ButtonReorderViewController. I am able to swipe left and right (awesome !!!) So I click the button in ButtonReorderViewController call goToAdmin, simply to go back to the AdminViewController -(void) goToAdmin{ [self.view removeFromSuperview]; } However, as soon as I go back to AdminViewController, I cant click anything at all. The program does not seg fault, it just that I cant click the button at all. if I remove the line buttonReorder = (ButtonReorderViewController *) navController; inside goToReorderButton, then everything work fine. Any idea how to fix this?

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  • commitAnimations is not resizing my UIImageView subview

    - by AaronG
    I have created a UIView as a subview and to that subview I have added a UIImageView as a subview. UIView *viewCreated; UIButton *buttonCreated; UIImageView *imageViewCreated; CGRect myFrame = CGRectMake(0, 0, 1024, 1024); viewCreated = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:myFrame]; [viewCreated setTag:intTag]; viewCreated.backgroundColor = [UIColor redColor]; [self.view addSubview:viewCreated]; [self randomize]; UIImage *d1Image = [UIImage imageNamed:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"image%d.png", randomNumber]]; imageViewCreated = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0.0f,0.0f,1024.0f, 1024.0f)]; [imageViewCreated setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"image%d.png", randomNumber]]]; [viewCreated addSubview:imageViewCreated]; //[imageViewCreated release]; return [viewCreated autorelease]; But when this code executes only the first subview is animated and resized. The UiimageView moves 200 pixels to the left but does not get resized. NSLog(@"sender tag %i",[sender tag]); UIView *currentView = [self.view viewWithTag:[sender tag]]; [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:1.5]; currentView.frame = CGRectMake(-200, 0,40, 102); [UIView commitAnimations]; I am pretty sure am I not creating the subviews correctly programmatically, because when I do it in Interface Builder it works as expected. Do I have to do something specific to actually attach the behavior of the second subview to the first subview?

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