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  • Sorting by custom field and fetching whole tree from DB

    - by Niaxon
    Hello everyone, I am trying to do file browser in a tree form and have a problem to sort it somehow. I use PHP and MySQL for that. I've created mixed (nested set + adjacency) table 'element' with the following fields: element_id, left_key, right_key, level, parent_id, element_name, element_type (enum: 'folder','file'), element_size. Let's not discuss right now that it is better to move information about element (name, type, size) into other table. Function to scan specified directory and fill table work correctly. Noteworthy, i am adding elements to tree in specific order: folders first and then files. After that i can easily fetch and display whole table on the page using simple query: SELECT * FROM element WHERE 1=1 ORDER BY left_key With the result of that query and another function i can generate correct html code (<ul><li>... and so on). to display tree. Now back to the question (finally, huh?). I am struggling to add sorting functionality. For example i want to order my result by size. Here i need to keep in my mind whole hierarchy of tree and rule: folders first, files later. I believe i can do that by generating in PHP recursive query: SELECT * FROM element WHERE parent_id = {$parentId} ORDER BY element_type (so folders would be first), size (or name for example) asc/desc After that for each result which has type = 'folder' i will send another query to get it's content. Also it's possible to fetch whole tree by left_key and after that sort it in PHP as array but i guess that would be worse :) I wonder if there is better and more efficient way to do such a thing?

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  • jquery.append() - only the last element of my list is appended, previous ones are erased

    - by jaes
    Hi, I have a page like this : <div id="daysTable"> <div id="day0" class="day"></div> <div id="day1" class="day"></div> <div id="day2" class="day"></div> <div id="day3" class="day"></div> <div id="day4" class="day"></div> <div id="day5" class="day"></div> <div id="day6" class="day"></div> </div> and some javascript to fill my calendar like this function getWeek(){ $.getJSON("/getWeek",function(events){ var eventHeight = $("#hoursTable > div").height(); var eventWidth = $("#daysTable > div").width(); var startWeek = events[0]// timestamp of the start of the week for(var i = 1; i < events.length; i ++){ $(".day").empty(); var startHour = (events[i].startDate - startWeek)/3600 var duration = (events[i].stopDate - startWeek)/3600 - startHour var dayStart = Math.floor(startHour/24); var startHour = startHour - dayStart * 24 divEvent = $('<div id="event'+events[i].idEvent+'"/>') .width(eventWidth-2) .height(duration*eventHeight) .css("border","1px solid black") .css("margin-top",startHour*eventHeight) .html(events[i].name); divEvent.appendTo("#day"+dayStart); console.log(divEvent); } }); } my problem being : events contain 3 element I'd like to display but only the last is displayed. If I stop my "for" at the first iteration I can see the first div appended, but it seems that if my loop goes for three iteration the two previous are deleted. The console.log() display some "not-anymore" existing element. Any idea ?

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  • Sweave can't see a vector if run from a function ?

    - by PaulHurleyuk
    I have a function that sets a vector to a string, copies a Sweave document with a new name and then runs that Sweave. Inside the Sweave document I want to use the vector I set in the function, but it doesn't seem to see it. (Edit: I changed this function to use tempdir(() as suggested by Dirk) I created a sweave file test_sweave.rnw; % \documentclass[a4paper]{article} \usepackage[OT1]{fontenc} \usepackage{Sweave} \begin{document} \title{Test Sweave Document} \author{gb02413} \maketitle <<>>= ls() Sys.time() print(paste("The chosen study was ",chstud,sep="")) @ \end{document} and I have this function; onOK <- function(){ chstud<-"test" message(paste("Chosen Study is ",chstud,sep="")) newfile<-paste(chstud,"_report",sep="") mypath<-paste(tempdir(),"\\",sep="") setwd(mypath) message(paste("Copying test_sweave.Rnw to ",paste(mypath,newfile,".Rnw",sep=""),sep="")) file.copy("c:\\local\\test_sweave.Rnw", paste(mypath,newfile,".Rnw",sep=""), overwrite=TRUE) Sweave(paste(mypath,newfile,".Rnw",sep="")) require(tools) texi2dvi(file = paste(mypath,newfile,".tex",sep=""), pdf = TRUE) } If I run the code from the function directly, the resulting file has this output for ls(); > ls() [1] "chstud" "mypath" "newfile" "onOK" However If I call onOK() I get this output; > ls() [1] "onOK" and the print(...chstud...)) function generates an error. I suspect this is an environment problem, but I assumed because the call to Sweave occurs within the onOK function, it would be in the same enviroment, and would see all the objects created within the function. How can I get the Sweave process to see the chstud vector ? Thanks Paul.

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  • Concatenate 2 text elements on a line with full-width border using CSS only

    - by Michael Horne
    Okay, I'm a newbie to CSS3, so please be gentle. ;-) I'm working with some Wordpress code (Woocommerce plugin, to be exact), and I'm trying to format a line of code in a sidebar so that 2 separate text items (one in an <a, the other in a <span are all on the same line, the full width of the column, and with a bottom border. It looks something like this (except the bottom border on each text do not go all the way across the enclosing sidebar box): http://www.dalluva.com/temp/browse-catalog.JPG (sorry, I'm new and can't post inline images yet) Here's the code fragment I'm trying to live with (i.e. I don't want to change it): <div class="widget"> ... <ul class="product-categories"> <li class="cat-item"> <a href="http://localhost/dalluva/shop/product-category/books/">Books</a> <span class="count">(5)</span> </li> ... And here's the CSS I have now: .widget ul li a { border-bottom: 1px solid #e9e9e9; line-height:1.0; padding: 5px 0 5px 22px; display: inline-block; } .widget ul li span { border-bottom: 1px solid #e9e9e9; line-height: 1.0; padding: 5px 0 5px 0; display: inline-block; } The output in the image above looks right for this CSS code, but when I change the 'span' CSS to include a width:100%, it causes the span element to wrap to the next line, looking like this: http://www.dalluva.com/temp/browse-catalog-2.JPG I've played with white-space:nowrap, overflow:hidden, etc, but I can't seem to find a way to have both the <a and the <span text on the same line with the border extending the full width of the column. Any suggestions on getting the desired effect through CSS only? Thanks. Michael

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  • Move file or folder to a different folder in google document using api problem

    - by Minh Nguyen
    In Google Document i have a struct: Folder1 +------Folder1-1 +------+------File1-1-1 +------Folder1-2 +------File1-1 Folder2 I want to move "File1-1" to "Folder2" using .Net google api library(Google Data API SDK) public static void moveFolder(string szUserName, string szPassword, string szResouceID, string szToFolderResourceID) { string szSouceUrl = "https://docs.google.com/feeds/default/private/full" + "/" + HttpContext.Current.Server.UrlEncode(szResouceID); Uri sourceUri = new Uri(szSouceUrl); //create a atom entry AtomEntry atom = new AtomEntry(); atom.Id = new AtomId(szSouceUrl); string szTargetUrl = "http://docs.google.com/feeds/default/private/full/folder%3Aroot/contents/"; if (szToFolderResourceID != "") { szTargetUrl = "https://docs.google.com/feeds/default/private/full" + "/" + HttpContext.Current.Server.UrlEncode(szToFolderResourceID) + "/contents" ; } Uri targetUri = new Uri(szTargetUrl); DocumentsService service = new DocumentsService(SERVICENAME); ((GDataRequestFactory)service.RequestFactory).KeepAlive = false; service.setUserCredentials(szUserName, szPassword); service.EntrySend(targetUri, atom, GDataRequestType.Insert); } After run this function i have: Folder1 +------Folder1-1 +------+------File1-1-1 +------Folder1-2 +------File1-1 Folder2 +------File1-1 "File1-1" display in both "Folder1" and "Folder2", and when i delete it from a folder it will be deleted in another folder. (expect: "File1-1" display only in "Folder2") What happen? How can i solve this problem?

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  • SpeechRecognizer causes ANR... I need help with Android speech API.

    - by Dondo Chaka
    I'm trying to use Android's speech recognition package to record user speech and translate it to text. Unfortunately, when I attempt initiate listening, I get an ANR error that doesn't point to anything specific. As the SpeechRecognizer API indicates, a RuntimeException is thrown if you attempt to call it from the main thread. This would make me wonder if the processing was just too demanding... but I know that other applications use the Android API for this purpose and it is typically pretty snappy. java.lang.RuntimeException: SpeechRecognizer should be used only from the application's main thread Here is a (trimmed) sample of the code I'm trying to call from my service. Is this the proper approach? Thanks for taking the time to help. This has been a hurdle I haven't been able to get over yet. Intent intent = new Intent(RecognizerIntent.ACTION_RECOGNIZE_SPEECH); intent.putExtra(RecognizerIntent.EXTRA_LANGUAGE_MODEL, RecognizerIntent.LANGUAGE_MODEL_FREE_FORM); intent.putExtra(RecognizerIntent.EXTRA_CALLING_PACKAGE, "com.domain.app"); SpeechRecognizer recognizer = SpeechRecognizer .createSpeechRecognizer(this.getApplicationContext()); RecognitionListener listener = new RecognitionListener() { @Override public void onResults(Bundle results) { ArrayList<String> voiceResults = results .getStringArrayList(RecognizerIntent.EXTRA_RESULTS); if (voiceResults == null) { Log.e(getString(R.string.log_label), "No voice results"); } else { Log.d(getString(R.string.log_label), "Printing matches: "); for (String match : voiceResults) { Log.d(getString(R.string.log_label), match); } } } @Override public void onReadyForSpeech(Bundle params) { Log.d(getString(R.string.log_label), "Ready for speech"); } @Override public void onError(int error) { Log.d(getString(R.string.log_label), "Error listening for speech: " + error); } @Override public void onBeginningOfSpeech() { Log.d(getString(R.string.log_label), "Speech starting"); } }; recognizer.setRecognitionListener(listener); recognizer.startListening(intent);

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  • Recursion in prepared statements

    - by Rob
    I've been using PDO and preparing all my statements primarily for security reasons. However, I have a part of my code that does execute the same statement many times with different parameters, and I thought this would be where the prepared statements really shine. But they actually break the code... The basic logic of the code is this. function someFunction($something) { global $pdo; $array = array(); static $handle = null; if (!$handle) { $handle = $pdo->prepare("A STATEMENT WITH :a_param"); } $handle->bindValue(":a_param", $something); if ($handle->execute()) { while ($row = $handle->fetch()) { $array[] = someFunction($row['blah']); } } return $array; } It looked fine to me, but it was missing out a lot of rows. Eventually I realised that the statement handle was being changed (executed with different param), which means the call to fetch in the while loop will only ever work once, then the function calls itself again, and the result set is changed. So I am wondering what's the best way of using PDO prepared statements in a recursive way. One way could be to use fetchAll(), but it says in the manual that has a substantial overhead. The whole point of this is to make it more efficient. The other thing I could do is not reuse a static handle, and instead make a new one every time. I believe that since the query string is the same, internally the MySQL driver will be using a prepared statement anyway, so there is just the small overhead of creating a new handle on each recursive call. Personally I think that defeats the point. Or is there some way of rewriting this?

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  • MySQL Stored Procedures : Use a variable as the database name in a cursor declaration

    - by Justin
    I need to use a variable to indicate what database to query in the declaration of a cursor. Here is a short snippet of the code : CREATE PROCEDURE `update_cdrs_lnp_data`(IN dbName VARCHAR(25), OUT returnCode SMALLINT) cdr_records:BEGIN DECLARE cdr_record_cursor CURSOR FOR SELECT cdrs_id, called, calling FROM dbName.cdrs WHERE lrn_checked = 'N'; # Setup logging DECLARE EXIT HANDLER FOR SQLEXCEPTION BEGIN #call log_debug('Got exception in update_cdrs_lnp_data'); SET returnCode = -1; END; As you can see, I'm TRYING to use the variable dbName to indicate in which database the query should occur within. However, MySQL will NOT allow that. I also tried things such as : CREATE PROCEDURE `update_cdrs_lnp_data`(IN dbName VARCHAR(25), OUT returnCode SMALLINT) cdr_records:BEGIN DECLARE cdr_record_cursor CURSOR FOR SET @query = CONCAT("SELECT cdrs_id, called, calling FROM " ,dbName, ".cdrs WHERE lrn_checked = 'N' "); PREPARE STMT FROM @query; EXECUTE STMT; # Setup logging DECLARE EXIT HANDLER FOR SQLEXCEPTION BEGIN #call log_debug('Got exception in update_cdrs_lnp_data'); SET returnCode = -1; END; Of course this doesn't work either as MySQL only allows a standard SQL statement in the cursor declaration. Can anyone think of a way to use the same stored procedure in multiple databases by passing in the name of the db that should be affected?

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  • Sample twitter application

    - by Jack
    I have installed WAMP and running PHP scripts on localhost. I have enabled cURL. Here is my code. <?php function updateTwitter($status) { // Twitter login information $username = 'xxxxx'; $password = 'xxxxx'; // The url of the update function $url = 'http://twitter.com/statuses/update.xml'; // Arguments we are posting to Twitter $postargs = 'status='.urlencode($status); // Will store the response we get from Twitter $responseInfo=array(); // Initialize CURL $ch = curl_init($url); // Tell CURL we are doing a POST curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_PROXY,"localhost:80"); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); // Give CURL the arguments in the POST curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $postargs); // Set the username and password in the CURL call curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERPWD, $username.':'.$password); // Set some cur flags (not too important) curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_VERBOSE, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_NOBODY, 0); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, 0); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION,1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); // execute the CURL call $response = curl_exec($ch); if($response === false) { echo 'Curl error: ' . curl_error($ch); } else { echo 'Operation completed without any errors<br/>'; } // Get information about the response $responseInfo=curl_getinfo($ch); // Close the CURL connection curl_close($ch); // Make sure we received a response from Twitter if(intval($responseInfo['http_code'])==200){ // Display the response from Twitter echo $response; }else{ // Something went wrong echo "Error: " . $responseInfo['http_code']; } curl_close($ch); } updateTwitter("Just finished a sweet tutorial on http://brandontreb.com"); ?> Here's my output Operation completed without any errors Error: 404 Here's what error 404 means 404 Not Found: The URI requested is invalid or the resource requested, such as a user, does not exists. Please help.

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  • Using javascript and php together

    - by EmmyS
    I have a PHP form that needs some very simple validation on submit. I'd rather do the validation client-side, as there's quite a bit of server-side validation that happens to deal with writing form values to a database. So I just want to call a javascript function onsubmit to compare values in two password fields. This is what I've got: function validate(form){ var password = form.password.value; var password2 = form.password2.value; alert("password:"+password+" password2:" + password2); if (password != password2) { alert("not equal"); document.getElementByID("passwordError").style.display="inline"; return false; } alert("equal"); return true; } The idea being that a default-hidden div containing an error message would be displayed if the two passwords don't match. The alerts are just to display the values of password and password2, and then again to indicate whether they match or not (will not be used in production code). I'm using an input type=submit button, and calling the function in the form tag: <form action="<?php echo $_SERVER['PHP_SELF']; ?>" method="post" onsubmit="return validate(this);"> Everything is alerting as expected when entering non-matching values. I would have hoped (and assumed, based on past use) that if the function returned false, the actual submit would not occur. And yet, it is. I'm testing by entering non-matching values in the password fields, and the alerts clearly show me the values and the not equal result, but the actual form action is still occurring and it's trying to write to my database. I'm pretty new at PHP; is there something about it that will not let me combine with javascript this way? Would it be better to use an input type=button and include submit() in the function itself if it returns true?

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  • Why is JavaMail Transport.send() a static method?

    - by skiphoppy
    I'm revising code I did not write that uses JavaMail, and having a little trouble understanding why the JavaMail API is designed the way it is. I have the feeling that if I understood, I could be doing a better job. We call: transport = session.getTransport("smtp"); transport.connect(hostName, port, user, password); So why is Eclipse warning me that this: transport.send(message, message.getAllRecipients()); is a call to a static method? Why am I getting a Transport object and providing settings that are specific to it if I can't use that object to send the message? How does the Transport class even know what server and other settings to use to send the message? It's working fine, which is hard to believe. What if I had instantiated Transport objects for two different servers; how would it know which one to use? In the course of writing this question, I've discovered that I should really be calling: transport.sendMessage(message, message.getAllRecipients()); So what is the purpose of the static Transport.send() method? Is this just poor design, or is there a reason it is this way?

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  • JQuery autocomplete problem

    - by heffaklump
    Im using JQuerys Autocomplete plugin, but it doesn't autocomplete upon entering anything. Any ideas why it doesnt work? The basic example works, but not mine. var ppl = {"ppl":[{"name":"peterpeter", "work":"student"}, {"name":"piotr","work":"student"}]}; var options = { matchContains: true, // So we can search inside string too minChars: 2, // this sets autocomplete to begin from X characters dataType: 'json', parse: function(data) { var parsed = []; data = data.ppl; for (var i = 0; i < data.length; i++) { parsed[parsed.length] = { data: data[i], // the entire JSON entry value: data[i].name, // the default display value result: data[i].name // to populate the input element }; } return parsed; }, // To format the data returned by the autocompleter for display formatItem: function(item) { return item.name; } }; $('#inputplace').autocomplete(ppl, options); Ok. Updated: <input type="text" id="inputplace" /> So, when entering for example "peter" in the input field. No autocomplete suggestions appear. It should give "peterpeter" but nothing happens. And one more thing. Using this example works perfectly. var data = "Core Selectors Attributes Traversing Manipulation CSS Events Effects Ajax Utilities".split(" "); $("#inputplace").autocomplete(data);

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  • Expanding DIV slides behind DIV beneath it...

    - by Paddy
    I'm not sure that I'm going to get an answer here, as I'd need to post a lot of CSS and html to get a working recreation, however... I have structure something like this: <fieldset> <legend>Test A</legend> <h3>Test A</h3> <p> Something here. </p> <div style="display:hidden;">I'm dynamically displayed</div> </fieldset> <fieldset> <legend>Test B</legend> <h3>Test B</h3> <p> Something B here. </p> </fieldset> I have code that toggles the display of my hidden div using jQuery and .show(). This works fine in IE8, firefox and Safari, but when I stick IE8 into compatibility mode, then the first fieldset (Test A) will expand, but the expansion happens behind the second fieldset, which doesn't move (i.e. it slides down behind it). I have quite a bit of CSS in use here, and I'm going to have to go back and unpick the whold lot, which isn't a fun idea. If anybody has any idea of one of the IE7 rendering issues that might be affecting this, then I'd very much appreciate it. (note that there is more to the content in these fieldsets than shown, including floated divs). Quick note - if I stick IE7 into quirks mode, it works (but wrecks the rest of my layout) - in standards mode, I get the above behaviour.

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  • curl_multi_exec stops if one url is 404, how can I change that?

    - by Rob
    Currently, my cURL multi exec stops if one url it connects to doesn't work, so a few questions: 1: Why does it stop? That doesn't make sense to me. 2: How can I make it continue? EDIT: Here is my code: $SQL = mysql_query("SELECT url FROM shells") ; $mh = curl_multi_init(); $handles = array(); while($resultSet = mysql_fetch_array($SQL)){ //load the urls and send GET data $ch = curl_init($resultSet['url'] . $fullcurl); //Only load it for two seconds (Long enough to send the data) curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 5); curl_multi_add_handle($mh, $ch); $handles[] = $ch; } // Create a status variable so we know when exec is done. $running = null; //execute the handles do { // Call exec. This call is non-blocking, meaning it works in the background. curl_multi_exec($mh,$running); // Sleep while it's executing. You could do other work here, if you have any. sleep(2); // Keep going until it's done. } while ($running > 0); // For loop to remove (close) the regular handles. foreach($handles as $ch) { // Remove the current array handle. curl_multi_remove_handle($mh, $ch); } // Close the multi handle curl_multi_close($mh);

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  • DotNetOpenAuth / WebSecurity Basic Info Exchange

    - by Jammer
    I've gotten a good number of OAuth logins working on my site now. My implementation is based on the WebSecurity classes with amends to the code to suit my needs (I pulled the WebSecurity source into mine). However I'm now facing a new set of problems. In my application I have opted to make the user email address the login identifier of choice. It's naturally unique and suits this use case. However, the OAuth "standards" strikes again. Some providers will return your email address as "username" (Google) some will return the display name (Facebook). As it stands I see to options given my particular scenario: Option 1 Pull even more framework source code into my solution until I can chase down where the OpenIdRelyingParty class is actually interacted with (via the DotNetOpenAuth.AspNet facade) and make addition information requests from the OpenID Providers. Option 2 When a user first logs in using an OpenID provider I can display a kind of "complete registration" form that requests missing info based on the provider selected.* Option 2 is the most immediate and probably the quickest to implement but also includes some code smells through having to do something different based on the provider selected. Option 1 will take longer but will ultimately make things more future proof. I will need to perform richer interactions down the line so this also has an edge in that regard. The more I get into the code it does seem that the WebSecurity class itself is actually very limiting as it hides lots of useful DotNetOpenAuth functionality in the name of making integration easier. Andrew (the author of DNOA) has said that the Attribute Exchange stuff happens in the OpenIdRelyingParty class but I cannot see from the DotNetOpenAuth.AspNet source code where this class is used so I'm unsure of what source would need to be pulled into my code in order to enable the functionality I need. Has anyone completely something similar?

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  • Is there a default way to get hold of an internal property in jQueryUi widget?

    - by prodigitalson
    Im using an existing widget from the jquery-ui labs call selectmenu. It has callback options for the events close and open. The problem is i need in these event to animate a node that is part of the widget but not what its connected to. In order to do this i need access to this node. for example if i were to actually modify the widget code itself: // ... other methods/properties "open" : function(event){ // ... the original logic // this is my animation $(this.list).slideUp('slow'); // this is the orginal call to _trigger this._trigger('open', event, $this._uiHash()); }, // ... other methods/properties However when in the scope of the event handler i attach this is the orginal element i called the widget on. I need the widget instance or specifically the widget instance's list property. $('select#custom').selectmenu({ 'open': function(){ // in this scope `this` is an HTMLSelectElement not the ui widget } }); Whats the best way to go about getting the list property from the widget?

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  • NSTimer as a timeout mechanism

    - by alexantd
    I'm pretty sure this is really simple, and I'm just missing something obvious. I have an app that needs to download data from a web service for display in a UITableView, and I want to display a UIAlertView if the operation takes more than X seconds to complete. So this is what I've got (simplified for brevity): MyViewController.h @interface MyViewController : UIViewController <UITableViewDelegate, UITableViewDataSource> { NSTimer *timer; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSTimer *timer; MyViewController.m @implementation MyViewController @synthesize timer; - (void)viewDidLoad { timer = [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:20 target:self selector:@selector(initializationTimedOut:) userInfo:nil repeats:NO]; [self doSomethingThatTakesALongTime]; [timer invalidate]; } - (void)doSomethingThatTakesALongTime { sleep(30); // for testing only // web service calls etc. go here } - (void)initializationTimedOut:(NSTimer *)theTimer { // show the alert view } My problem is that I'm expecting the [self doSomethingThatTakesALongTime] call to block while the timer keeps counting, and I'm thinking that if it finishes before the timer is done counting down, it will return control of the thread to viewDidLoad where [timer invalidate] will proceed to cancel the timer. Obviously my understanding of how timers/threads work is flawed here because the way the code is written, the timer never goes off. However, if I remove the [timer invalidate], it does.

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  • How to create a list/structure? in JAVA

    - by lox
    i have to create a list of ,let's say 50 people, (in JAVA) and display the list, and i don't really know how to do that. so this is what i have tried to do so far . please correct and complete some of my code . public class Person { String name; String stuff; } public class CreatePerson { public static void ang() { ArrayList<Person> thing=new ArrayList<Person>(); Scanner diskScanner = new Scanner(in); for(int i=0; i<50; i++){ Person pers = new Person(); out.print("name: "); pers.name=diskScanner.nextLine(); out.print("stuff: "); pers.stuff=diskScanner.nextLine(); thing.add(pers); break; } // Display people for (int i=0; i<50; i++) { out.println(??);{ } } }}

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  • How should we setup up complex situations for tests?

    - by ShaneC
    I'm currently working on what I would call integration tests. I want to verify that if a WCF service is called it will do what I expect. Let's take a very simple scenario. Assume we have a contract object that we can put on hold or take off hold. Now writing the put on hold test is quite simple. You create a contract instance and execute the code that puts it on code. The question I have comes when we want to test the taking off hold service call. The problem is that putting a contract on hold can be actually quite complicated leading to various objects all be modified. So usually I would use the Builder pattern and do something like this.. var onHoldContract = new ContractBuilder().PutOnHold().Build(); The problem I have with this is now I have to pretty much replicate a large part of my put on hold service. Now when I change what putting something on hold means I have two places I have to modify. The other option that immediately jumps out at me is to just use the put on hold service as part of my test setup but now I'm coupling my test to the success of another piece of code which is something I don't like to do since it can lead to failures in one spot breaking unrelated tests elsewhere (if put on hold failed for example). Any other options I'm missing out here? or opinions on which method is preferable and why?

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  • Few Basic Questions in Overriding

    - by Dahlia
    I have few problems with my basic and would be thankful if someone can clear this. What does it mean when I say base *b = new derived; Why would one go for this? We very well separately can create objects for class base and class derived and then call the functions accordingly. I know that this base *b = new derived; is called as Object Slicing but why and when would one go for this? I know why it is not advisable to convert the base class object to derived class object (because base class is not aware of the derived class members and methods). I even read in other StackOverflow threads that if this is gonna be the case then we have to change/re-visit our design. I understand all that, however, I am just curious, Is there any way to do this? class base { public: void f(){cout << "In Base";} }; class derived:public base { public: void f(){cout << "In Derived";} }; int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { base b1, b2; derived d1, d2; b2 = d1; d2 = reinterpret_cast<derived*>(b1); //gives error C2440 b1.f(); // Prints In Base d1.f(); // Prints In Derived b2.f(); // Prints In Base d1.base::f(); //Prints In Base d2.f(); getch(); return 0; } In case of my above example, is there any way I could call the base class f() using derived class object? I used d1.base()::f() I just want to know if there any way without using scope resolution operator? Thanks a lot for your time in helping me out!

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  • What OOP pattern to use when only adding new methods, not data?

    - by Jonathon Reinhart
    Hello eveyone... In my app, I have deal with several different "parameters", which derive from IParameter interface, and also ParamBase abstract base class. I currently have two different parameter types, call them FooParameter and BarParameter, which both derive from ParamBase. Obviously, I can treat them both as IParameters when I need to deal with them generically, or detect their specific type when I need to handle their specific functionality. My question lies in specific FooParameters. I currently have a few specific ones with their own classes which derive from FooParameter, we'll call them FP12, FP13, FP14, etc. These all have certain characteristics, which make me treat them differently in the UI. (Most have names associated with the individual bits, or ranges of bits). Note that these specific, derived FP's have no additional data associated with them, only properties (which refer to the same data in different ways) or methods. Now, I'd like to keep all of these parameters in a Dictionary<String, IParameter> for easy generic access. The problem is, if I want to refer to a specific one with the special GUI functions, I can't write: FP12 fp12 = (FP12)paramList["FP12"] because you can't downcast to a derived type (rightfully so). But in my case, I didn't add any data, so the cast would theoretically work. What type of programming model should I be using instead? Thanks!

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  • How to use data receive event in Socket class?

    - by affan
    I have wrote a simple client that use TcpClient in dotnet to communicate. In order to wait for data messages from server i use a Read() thread that use blocking Read() call on socket. When i receive something i have to generate various events. These event occur in the worker thread and thus you cannot update a UI from it directly. Invoke() can be use but for end developer its difficult as my SDK would be use by users who may not use UI at all or use Presentation Framework. Presentation framework have different way of handling this. Invoke() on our test app as Microstation Addin take a lot of time at the moment. Microstation is single threaded application and call invoke on its thread is not good as it is always busy doing drawing and other stuff message take too long to process. I want my events to generate in same thread as UI so user donot have to go through the Dispatcher or Invoke. Now i want to know how can i be notified by socket when data arrive? Is there a build in callback for that. I like winsock style receive event without use of separate read thread. I also do not want to use window timer to for polling for data. I found IOControlCode.AsyncIO flag in IOControl() function which help says Enable notification for when data is waiting to be received. This value is equal to the Winsock 2 FIOASYNC constant. I could not found any example on how to use it to get notification. If i am write in MFC/Winsock we have to create a window of size(0,0) which was just used for listening for the data receive event or other socket events. But i don't know how to do that in dotnet application.

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  • Drupal module permissions

    - by Trevor Newhook
    When I run the code with an admin user, the module returns what it should. However, when I run it with a normal user, I get a 403 error. The module returns data from an AJAX call. I've already tried adding a 'access callback' = 'user_access'); line to the exoticlang_chat_logger_menu() function. I'd appreciate any pointers you might have. Thanks for the help The AJAX call: jQuery.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: '/chatlog', success: exoticlangAjaxCompleted, data:'messageLog=' + privateMessageLogJson, dataType: 'json' }); The module code: function exoticlang_chat_logger_init(){ drupal_add_js('misc/jquery.form.js'); drupal_add_library('system', 'drupal.ajax'); } function exoticlang_chat_logger_permission() { return array( 'Save chat data' => array( 'title' => t('Save ExoticLang Chat Data'), 'description' => t('Send private message on chat close') ), ); } /** * Implementation of hook_menu(). */ function exoticlang_chat_logger_menu() { $items = array(); $items['chatlog'] = array( 'type' => MENU_CALLBACK, 'page callback' => 'exoticlang_chat_log_ajax', 'access arguments' => 'Save chat data'); //'access callback' => 'user_access'); return $items; } function exoticlang_chat_logger_ajax(){ $messageLog=stripslashes($_POST['messageLog']); $chatLog= 'Drupal has processed this. Message log is: '.$messageLog; $chatLog=str_replace('":"{[{','":[{',$chatLog); $chatLog=str_replace(',,',',',$chatLog); $chatLog=str_replace('"}"','"}',$chatLog); $chatLog=str_replace('"}]}"','"}]',$chatLog); echo json_encode(array('messageLog' => $chatLog)); // echo $chatLog; echo print_r(privatemsg_new_thread(array(user_load(1)), 'The subject', 'The body text')); drupal_exit(); }

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  • Drupal administration theme doesn't apply to Blocks pages (admin/build/block)

    - by hfidgen
    A site I'm creating for a customer in D6 has various images overlaying parts of the main content area. It looks very pretty and they have to be there for the general effect. The problem is, if you use this theme in the administration pages, the images get in the way of everything. My solution was to create a custom admin theme, based on the default one, which has these image areas disabled in the output template files - page.tpl.php The problem is that when you try and edit the blocks page, it uses the default theme and half the blocks admin settings are unclickable behind the images. I KNOW this is by design in Drupal, but it's annoying the hell out of me and is edging towards "bug" rather than "feature" in my mind. It also appears that there is no way of getting around it. You can edit /modules/blocks/block.admin.inc to force Drupal to show the blocks page in the chosen admin theme. BUT whichever changes you then make will not be transferred to the default theme, as Drupal treats each theme separately and each theme can have different block layouts. :x function block_admin_display($theme = NULL) { global $custom_theme; // If non-default theme configuration has been selected, set the custom theme. // $custom_theme = isset($theme) ? $theme : variable_get('theme_default', 'garland'); // Display admin theme $custom_theme = variable_get('admin_theme', '0'); // Fetch and sort blocks $blocks = _block_rehash(); usort($blocks, '_block_compare'); return drupal_get_form('block_admin_display_form', $blocks, $theme); } Can anyone help? the only thing I can think of is to push the $content area well below the areas where the image appear and use blocks only for content display. Thanks!

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  • c# multi inheritance

    - by user326839
    So ive got a base class which requires a Socket: class Sock { public Socket s; public Sock(Socket s) { this.s = s; } public virtual void Process(byte[] data) { } ... } then ive got another class. if a new socket gets accepted a new instance of this class will be created: class Game : Sock { public Random Random = new Random(); public Timerr Timers; public Test Test; public Game(Socket s) : base(s) { } public static void ReceiveNewSocket(object s) { Game Client = new Game((Socket)s); Client.Start(); } public override void Process(byte[] buf) { Timers = new Timerr(s); Test = new Test(s); Test.T(); } } in the Sock class ive got a virtual function that gets overwritten by the Game class.(Process function) in this function im calling a function from the Test Class(Test+ Timerr Class: class Test : Game { public Test(Socket s) : base(s) { } public void T() { Console.WriteLine(Random.Next(0, 10)); Timers.Start(); } } class Timerr : Game { public Timerr(Socket s) : base(s) { } public void Start() { Console.WriteLine("test"); } } ) So in the Process function im calling a function in Test. And in this function(T) i need to call a function from the Timerr Class.But the problem is its always NULL , although the constructor is called in Process. And e.g. the Random Class can be called, i guess its because its defined with the constructor.: public Random Random = new Random(); and thats why the other classes(without a constructor): public Timerr Timers; public Test Test; are always null in the inherited class Test.But its essentiel that i call other Methods of other classes in this function.How could i solve that?

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