Search Results

Search found 16987 results on 680 pages for 'second'.

Page 526/680 | < Previous Page | 522 523 524 525 526 527 528 529 530 531 532 533  | Next Page >

  • Sharepoint NewForm adding attachments programatically

    - by CodeSpeaker
    I have a list with a custom form which contains a custom file upload control. As soon as the user selects a file and clicks upload, i want this file to go directly to the attachments list within that listitem. However, when adding the file to SPContext.Current.ListItem.Attachments on a new item, the attachment wont show up in the list after saving. If i instead use item.Update() on the new item after adding the attachment i get an error in Sharepoint, but when i then go back to the list, the item is there with its attachment. It seems like its trying to create 2 new entries at once when i save (item.Update) which results in the second of those crashing. What would be the correct way to add attachments this way? oSPWeb.AllowUnsafeUpdates = true; // Get the List item SPListItem listItem = SPContext.Current.ListItem; // Get the Attachment collection SPAttachmentCollection attachmentCollection = listItem.Attachments; Stream attachmentStream; Byte[] attachmentContent; // Get the file from the file upload control if (fileUpload.HasFile) { attachmentStream = fileUpload.PostedFile.InputStream; attachmentContent = new Byte[attachmentStream.Length]; attachmentStream.Read(attachmentContent, 0, (int)attachmentStream.Length); attachmentStream.Close(); attachmentStream.Dispose(); // Add the file to the attachment collection attachmentCollection.Add(fileUpload.FileName, attachmentContent); } // Update th list item listItem.Update();

    Read the article

  • Returning true or error message in Ruby

    - by seaneshbaugh
    I'm wondering if writing functions like this is considered good or bad form. def test(x) if x == 1 return true else return "Error: x is not equal to one." end end And then to use it we do something like this: result = test(1) if result != true puts result end result = test(2) if result != true puts result end Which just displays the error message for the second call to test. I'm considering doing this because in a rails project I'm working on inside my controller code I make calls to a model's instance methods and if something goes wrong I want the model to return the error message to the controller and the controller takes that error message and puts it in the flash and redirects. Kinda like this def create @item = Item.new(params[:item]) if [email protected]? result = @item.save_image(params[:attachment][:file]) if result != true flash[:notice] = result redirect_to(new_item_url) and return end #and so on... That way I'm not constructing the error messages in the controller, merely passing them along, because I really don't want the controller to be concerned with what the save_image method itself does just whether or not it worked. It makes sense to me, but I'm curious as to whether or not this is considered a good or bad way of writing methods. Keep in mind I'm asking this in the most general sense pertaining mostly to ruby, it just happens that I'm doing this in a rails project, the actual logic of the controller really isn't my concern.

    Read the article

  • substitution cypher with different alphabet length

    - by seanizer
    I would like to implement a simple substitution cypher to mask private ids in URLs I know how my IDs will look like (combination of upperchase ascii, digits and underscore), and they will be rather long, as they are composed keys. I would like to use a longer alphabet to shorten the resulting codes (I'd like to use upper and lower case ascii letters, digits and nothing else). So my incoming alphabet would be [A-Z0-9_] (37 chars) and my outgoing alphabet would be [A-Za-z0-9] (62 chars) so a compression of almost 50% would be available. let's say my URLs look like this: /my/page/GFZHFFFZFZTFZTF_24_F34 and I want them to look like this instead: /my/page/Ft32zfegZFV5 Obviously both arrays would be shuffled to bring some random order in. This does not have to be secure. if someone figures it out: fine, but I don't want the scheme to be obvious. My desired solution would be to convert the string to an integer representation of radix 37, convert the radix to 62 and use the second alphabet to write out that number. is there any sample code available that does something similar? Integer.parseInt ( http://java.sun.com/javase/6/docs/api/java/lang/Integer.html#parseInt%28java.lang.String,%20int%29 ) has some similar logic, but it is hard-coded to use standard digit behavior Any hints? I am using java to implement this but code or pseudo-code in any other language is of course also helpful

    Read the article

  • Why does my iOS app crash when trying presentModalViewController?

    - by user555807
    I've been banging my head against this all day, it seems like something simple but I can't figure it out. I've got an iOS app that I created using the "View-based Application" template in XCode. Here is essentially the code I have: AppDelegate.h: #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface AppDelegate : NSObject <UIApplicationDelegate> { UIWindow *window; MainViewController *viewController; } @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UIWindow *window; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet MainViewController *viewController; @end AppDelegate.m: #import "AppDelegate.h" #import "MainViewController.h" @implementation AppDelegate @synthesize window, viewController; - (BOOL)application:(UIApplication *)application didFinishLaunchingWithOptions:(NSDictionary *)launchOptions { [self.window addSubview:viewController.view]; [self.window makeKeyAndVisible]; return YES; } - (void)dealloc { [viewController release]; [window release]; [super dealloc]; } @end MainViewController.h: #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface MainViewController : UIViewController { } -(IBAction) button:(id)sender; @end MainViewController.m: #import "MainViewController.h" #import "ModalViewController.h" @implementation MainViewController ... -(IBAction) button:(id)sender { ModalViewController *mvc = [[[ModalViewController alloc] initWithNibName:NSStringFromClass([ModalViewController class]) bundle:nil] autorelease]; [self presentModalViewController:mvc animated:YES]; } @end There's nothing of interest in the ModalViewController. So the modal view should display when the button is pressed. When I press the button, it hangs for a second then crashes back to the home screen with no error message. I am stumped, please show me what I'm doing wrong!

    Read the article

  • Why does C++ not allow multiple types in one auto statement?

    - by Walter
    The 2011 C++ standard introduced the new keyword auto, which can be used for defining variables instead of a type, i.e. auto p=make_pair(1,2.5); // pair<int,double> auto i=std::begin(c), end=std::end(c); // decltype(std::begin(c)) In the second line, i and end are of the same type, referred to as auto. The standard does not allow auto i=std::begin(container), e=std::end(container), x=*i; when x would be of different type. My question: why does the standard not allow this last line? It could be allowed by interpreting auto not as representing some to-be-decuded type, but as indicating that the type of any variable declared auto shall be deduced from its assigned value. Is there any good reason for the C++11 standard to not follow this approach? There is actually a use case for this, namely in the initialisation statement of for loops: for(auto i=std::begin(c), end=std::end(c), x=*i; i!=end; ++i, x+=*i) { ... } when the scope of the variables i, end, and x is limited to the for loop. AFAIK, this cannot be achieved in C++ unless those variables have a common type. Is this correct? (ugly tricks of putting all types inside a struct excluded) There may also be use cases in some variadic template applications.

    Read the article

  • Using the contents of an array to set individual pixels in a Quartz bitmap context

    - by Magic Bullet Dave
    I have an array that contains the RGB colour values for each pixel in a 320 x 180 display. I would like to be able to set individual pixel values in the a bitmap context of the same size offscreen then display the bitmap context in a view. It appears that I have to create 1x1 rects and either put a stroke on them or a line of length 1 at the point in question. Is that correct? I'm looking for a very efficient way of getting the array data onto the graphics context as you can imagine this is going to be an image buffer that cycles at 25 frames per second and drawing in this way seems inefficient. I guess the other question is should I use OPENGL ES instead? Thoughts/best practice would be much appreciated. Regards Dave OK, have come a short way, but can't make the final hurdle and I am not sure why this isn't working: - (void) displayContentsOfArray1UsingBitmap: (CGContextRef)context { long bitmapData[WIDTH * HEIGHT]; // Build bitmap int i, j, h; for (i = 0; i < WIDTH; i++) { for (j = 0; j < HEIGHT; j++) { h = frameBuffer01[i][j]; bitmapData[i * j] = h; } } // Blit the bitmap to the context CGDataProviderRef providerRef = CGDataProviderCreateWithData(NULL, bitmapData,4 * WIDTH * HEIGHT, NULL); CGColorSpaceRef colorSpaceRef = CGColorSpaceCreateDeviceRGB(); CGImageRef imageRef = CGImageCreate(WIDTH, HEIGHT, 8, 32, WIDTH * 4, colorSpaceRef, kCGImageAlphaFirst, providerRef, NULL, YES, kCGRenderingIntentDefault); CGContextDrawImage(context, CGRectMake(0.0, HEIGHT, WIDTH, HEIGHT), imageRef); CGImageRelease(imageRef); CGColorSpaceRelease(colorSpaceRef); CGDataProviderRelease(providerRef); }

    Read the article

  • Closing the gap between 2 inline elements

    - by insanepaul
    I have a simple div element that contains 2 inline tags. I've associated a onmouseout event to the div element. The problem is that the onmouseout event is fired when the user hovers their mouse between the two tags in the div and also after the end of the second tag. What I want to do is allow the user to hover their mouse across the whole of the div tag and only fire the onmouseout event when the mouse pointer is outside the div element (which is what I assumed from what I've done). I increased padding to close the gap between the 2 tags. This works but where they meet in IE7 at least the event is fired!!! I must be doing something wrong can someone please help. <div id="Div1" onmouseover="hideDiv()"> <a id="A1" href="HTMLNew.htm">ARTICLES</a> <a id="A2" href="HTMLNew.htm">COURSES & CASES</a> </div>

    Read the article

  • Managing logs/warnings in Python extensions

    - by Dimitri Tcaciuc
    TL;DR version: What do you use for configurable (and preferably captured) logging inside your C++ bits in a Python project? Details follow. Say you have a a few compiled .so modules that may need to do some error checking and warn user of (partially) incorrect data. Currently I'm having a pretty simplistic setup where I'm using logging framework from Python code and log4cxx library from C/C++. log4cxx log level is defined in a file (log4cxx.properties) and is currently fixed and I'm thinking how to make it more flexible. Couple of choices that I see: One way to control it would be to have a module-wide configuration call. # foo/__init__.py import sys from _foo import import bar, baz, configure_log configure_log(sys.stdout, WARNING) # tests/test_foo.py def test_foo(): # Maybe a custom context to change the logfile for # the module and restore it at the end. with CaptureLog(foo) as log: assert foo.bar() == 5 assert log.read() == "124.24 - foo - INFO - Bar returning 5" Have every compiled function that does logging accept optional log parameters. # foo.c int bar(PyObject* x, PyObject* logfile, PyObject* loglevel) { LoggerPtr logger = default_logger("foo"); if (logfile != Py_None) logger = file_logger(logfile, loglevel); ... } # tests/test_foo.py def test_foo(): with TemporaryFile() as logfile: assert foo.bar(logfile=logfile, loglevel=DEBUG) == 5 assert logfile.read() == "124.24 - foo - INFO - Bar returning 5" Some other way? Second one seems to be somewhat cleaner, but it requires function signature alteration (or using kwargs and parsing them). First one is.. probably somewhat awkward but sets up entire module in one go and removes logic from each individual function. What are your thoughts on this? I'm all ears to alternative solutions as well. Thanks,

    Read the article

  • How should I progressively enhance this content with JavaScript?

    - by Sean Dunwoody
    The background to this problem is that I'm doing a computing project which involves Some drop down boxes for input, and a text input where the user can input a date. I've used YUI to enhance the form, so the calendar input uses the YUI calendar widget and the drop down list is converted into a horizontal list of inputs where the user only has to click once to select any input as opposed to two clicks with the drop down box (hope that makes sense, not sure how to explain it clearly) The problem is, that in the design section of my project I stated that I would follow the progressive enhancement principles. I am struggling however to ensure that users without JavaScript are able to view the drop down box / text input on said page. This is not because I do not necessarily know how, but the two methods I've tried seem unsatisfactory. Method 1 - I tried using YUI to hide the text box and drop down list, this seemed like the ideal solution however there was quite a noticeable lag when loading the page (especially for the first time), the text box and drop down list where visibile for at least a second. I included the script for this just before the end of the body tag, is there any way that I can run it onload with YUI? Would that help? Method 2 - Use the noscript tag . . . however I am loathed to do this as while it would be a simple solution, I have read various bad things about the noscript tag. Is there a way of making mehtod one work? Or is there a better way of doing this that I am yet to encounter?

    Read the article

  • Does this language feature already exists?

    - by Pindatjuh
    I'm currently developing a new language for programming in a continuous environment (compare it to electrical engineering), and I've got some ideas on a certain language construction. Let me explain the feature by explanation and then by definition; x = a | b; Where x is a variable and a and b are other variables (or static values). if(x == a) { // all references to "x" are essentially references to "a". } if(x == b) { // same but with "b" } if(x != a) { // ... } if(x == a | b) { // guaranteed that "x" is '"a" | "b"'; interacting with "x" // will interact with both "a" and "b". } // etc. In the above, all code-blocks are executed, but the "scope" changes in each block how x is interpreted. In the first block, x is guaranteed to be a: thus interacting with x inside that block will interact on a. The second and the third code-block are only equal in this situation (because not b only remains a). The last block guarantees that x is at least a or b. Further more; | is not the "bitwise or operator", but I've called it the "and/or"-operator. It's definition is: "|" = "and" | "or" (On my blog, http://cplang.wordpress.com/2009/12/19/binop-and-or/, is more (mathematical) background information on this operator. It's loosely based on sets.) I do not know if this construction already exists, so that's my question: does this language feature already exists?

    Read the article

  • Validating collection elements in WPF

    - by Chris
    I would like to know how people are going about validating collections in WPF. Lets say for example that I have an observable collection of ViewModels that I am binding to the items source of a grid, and the user can add new rows to the grid and needs to fill them. First of all I need to validate on each row to ensure that required fields of each ViewModel are filled in. This is fine and simple to do for each row. However, the second level of validation is on the collection as a whole. For example i want to ensure that no two rows of the collection have the same identifier, or that no two rows have the same name. Im basically checking for duplicate properties within different rows. I also have more complex conditions where I must ensure that there is at least one item within the collection that has some property set. How do I get a validation rule that would allow me to check these rules, validating on the whole collection rather than the individual items. I also want to print any validation error above the datagrid so that the user can fix the problem and the message will update or disappear as the user fixes each different rule. Anyone have any experience of the proper way to do this? Thanks Chris

    Read the article

  • Silverlight 3 data-binding child property doesn't update

    - by sonofpirate
    I have a Silverlight control that has my root ViewModel object as it's data source. The ViewModel exposes a list of Cards as well as a SelectedCard property which is bound to a drop-down list at the top of the view. I then have a form of sorts at the bottom that displays the properties of the SelectedCard. My XAML appears as (reduced for simplicity): <StackPanel Orientation="Vertical"> <ComboBox DisplayMemberPath="Name" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Cards}" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=SelectedCard, Mode=TwoWay}" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=SelectedCard.Name}" /> <ListBox DisplayMemberPath="Name" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=SelectedCard.PendingTransactions}" /> </StackPanel> I would expect the TextBlock and ListBox to update whenever I select a new item in the ComboBox, but this is not the case. I'm sure it has to do with the fact that the TextBlock and ListBox are actually bound to properties of the SelectedCard so it is listening for property change notifications for the properties on that object. But, I would have thought that data-binding would be smart enough to recognize that the parent object in the binding expression had changed and update the entire binding. It bears noting that the PendingTransactions property (bound to the ListBox) is lazy-loaded. So, the first time I select an item in the ComboBox, I do make the async call and load the list and the UI updates to display the information corresponding to the selected item. However, when I reselect an item, the UI doesn't change! For example, if my original list contains three cards, I select the first card by default. Data-binding does attempt to access the PendingTransactions property on that Card object and updates the ListBox correctly. If I select the second card in the list, the same thing happens and I get the list of PendingTransactions for that card displayed. But, if I select the first card again, nothing changes in my UI! Setting a breakpoint, I am able to confirm that the SelectedCard property is being updated correctly. How can I make this work???

    Read the article

  • Trap SIGPIPE when trying to write without reader

    - by Matt
    I am trying to implement a named-pipe communication solution in BASH between two processes. The first process runs a script which echo something in a named-pipe: send(){ echo 'something' > $NAMEDPIPE } And the second script is supposed to read the named-pipe via another script which contains: while true;do if read line < $NAMEDPIPE;do someCommands fi done Not that the named pipe has been previously created using the traditional command mkfifo $NAMEDPIPE My problem is that the reader script is not always running so that if the writer script try to write in the named-pipe it stay blocked until a reader connect the pipe. I want to avoid this behavior, and a solution would be to trap a SIGPIPE signal. Indeed, according to man 7 signal is supposed to be send when trying to write in a pipe with no reader. So I changed my red function by: read(){ trap 'echo "SIGPIPE received"' SIGPIPE echo 'something' > $NAMEDPIPE } But when I run the reader script, the script stay blocked, and not "SIGPIPE received" appears... Am I mistaking on the signal mechanism or is there any better solution to my problem ? Thank you for your help.

    Read the article

  • How do I grab and use a variables coming back through ValueList from an AJAX call?

    - by Mel
    I'm trying the following code to execute a search and it's not working. On the search.cfm page, the only value coming back is the value I input into the search field (even if I click an autosuggest value, it's not coming back; only the letters I actually type myself come back). <cfform class="titleSearchForm" id="searchForm" action="search.cfm?GameID=#cfautosuggestvalue.GameID#" method="post"> <fieldset> <cfinput type="text" class="titleSearchField" name="TitleName" onChange="form.submit()" autosuggest="cfc:gz.cfcomp.search.AutoSuggestSearch({cfautosuggestvalue})"> <input type="button" class="titleSearchButton" value=" " /> </fieldset> </cfform> Query in CFC: <cfquery name="SearchResult" datasource="myDSN"> SELECT CONCAT(titles.TitleName, ' on ', platforms.PlatformAbbreviation) AS sResult, games.GameID FROM games Inner Join platforms ON games.PlatformID = platforms.PlatformID Inner Join titles ON titles.TitleID = games.TitleID WHERE UCase(titleName) LIKE Ucase('#ARGUMENTS.SearchString#%') ORDER BY titleName ASC; </cfquery> Two things: First of all, I would like to get the GameID back to the page making the AJAX request; I know why it is not coming back: Because I'm only returning sResult var, which does not include the GameID. Is there a way to return the GameID value without displaying it? The second thing: How to I grab a value from the auto-suggest once it is returned? Say I want to grab the GameID, or if I can't do that, the "TitleName" to use that in my query? I tried passing it to the form this way: action="search.cfm?GameID=#cfautosuggestvalue.GameID#" - but that does not work. How do I reference the autosuggestionvalue varaibles for use? Thanks

    Read the article

  • PostgreSQL, Foreign Keys, Insert speed & Django

    - by Miles
    A few days ago, I ran into an unexpected performance problem with a pretty standard Django setup. For an upcoming feature, we have to regenerate a table hourly, containing about 100k rows of data, 9M on the disk, 10M indexes according to pgAdmin. The problem is that inserting them by whatever method literally takes ages, up to 3 minutes of 100% disk busy time. That's not something you want on a production site. It doesn't matter if the inserts were in a transaction, issued via plain insert, multi-row insert, COPY FROM or even INSERT INTO t1 SELECT * FROM t2. After noticing this isn't Django's fault, I followed a trial and error route, and hey, the problem disappeared after dropping all foreign keys! Instead of 3 minutes, the INSERT INTO SELECT FROM took less than a second to execute, which isn't too surprising for a table <= 20M on the disk. What is weird is that PostgreSQL manages to slow down inserts by 180x just by using 3 foreign keys. Oh, disk activity was pure writing, as everything is cached in RAM; only writes go to the disks. It looks like PostgreSQL is working very hard to touch every row in the referred tables, as 3MB/sec * 180s is way more data than the 20MB this new table takes on disk. No WAL for the 180s case, I was testing in psql directly, in Django, add ~50% overhead for WAL logging. Tried @commit_on_success, same slowness, I had even implemented multi row insert and COPY FROM with psycopg2. That's another weird thing, how can 10M worth of inserts generate 10x 16M log segments? Table layout: id serial primary, a bunch of int32, 3 foreign keys to small table, 198 rows, 16k on disk large table, 1.2M rows, 59 data + 89 index MB on disk large table, 2.2M rows, 198 + 210MB So, am I doomed to either drop the foreign keys manually or use the table in a very un-Django way by defining saving bla_id x3 and skip using models.ForeignKey? I'd love to hear about some magical antidote / pg setting to fix this.

    Read the article

  • Do complex JOINs cause high coupling and maintenance problems ?

    - by ashkan.kh.nazary
    Our project has ~40 tables with complex relations.A colleague believes in using long join queries which enforces me to learn about tables outside of my module but I think I should not concern about tables not directly related to my module and use data access functions (written by those responsible for other modules) when I need data from them. Let me clarify: I am responsible for the ContactVendor module which enables the customers to contact the vendor and start a conversation about some specific product. Products module has it's own complex tables and relations with functions that encapsulate details (for example i18n, activation, product availability etc ...). Now I need to show the product title of some product related to some conversation between the vendor and customers. I may either write a long query that retrieves the product info along with conversation stuff in one shot (which enforces me to learn about Product tables) OR I may pass the relevant product_id to the get_product_info(int) function. First approach is obviously demanding and introduces many bad practices and things I normally consider fault in programming. The problem with the second approach seems to be the countless mini queries these access functions cause and performance loss is a concern when a loop tries to fetch product titles for 100 products using functions that each perform a separate query. So I'm stuck between "don't code to the implementation, code to interface" and performance. What is the right way of doing things ? UPDATE: I'm specially concerned about possible future modifications to those tables outside of my module. What if the Products module decided to change the way they are doing things? or for some reason modify the schema? It means some other modules would break or malfunction until the change is integrated to them. The usual ripple effect problem.

    Read the article

  • Dynamic Control loading at wrong time?

    - by Telos
    This one is a little... odd. Basically I have a form I'm building using ASP.NET Dynamic Data, which is going to utilize several custom field templates. I've just added another field to the FormView, with it's own custom template, and the form is loading that control twice for no apparent reason. Worse yet, the first time it loads the template, the Row is not ready yet and I get the error message: {"Databinding methods such as Eval(), XPath(), and Bind() can only be used in the context of a databound control."} I'm accessing the Row variable in a LinqDataSource OnSelected event in order to get the child object... Now for the wierd part: If I reorder the fields a little, the one causing the problem no longer gets loaded twice. Any thoughts? EDIT: I've noticed that Page_Load gets called on the first load (when Row throws an exception if you try to use it) but does NOT get called the second time around. If that helps any... Right now managing it by just catching and ignoring the exception, but still a little worried that things will break if I don't find the real cause. EDIT 2: I've traced the problem to using FindControl recursively to find other controls on the page. Apparently FindControl can cause the page lifecycle events (at least up to page_load) to fire... and this occurs before that page "should" be loading so it's dynamic data "stuff" isn't ready yet.

    Read the article

  • Refactor throwing not null exception if using a method that has a dependency on a certain contructor

    - by N00b
    In the method below the second constructor accepts a ForumThread object which the IncrementViewCount() method uses. There is a dependency between the method and that particular constructor. Without extracting into a new private method the null check in IncrementViewCount() and LockForumThread() (plus other methods not shown) is there some simpler re-factoring I can do or the implementation of a better design practice for this method to guard against the use of the wrong constructor with these dependent methods? Thank you for any suggestions in advance. private readonly IThread _forumLogic; private readonly ForumThread _ft; public ThreadLogic(IThread forumLogic) : this(forumLogic, null) { } public ThreadLogic(IThread forumLogic, ForumThread ft) { _forumLogic = forumLogic; _ft = ft; } public void Create(ForumThread ft) { _forumLogic.SaveThread(ft); } public void IncrementViewCount() { if (_ft == null) throw new NoNullAllowedException("_ft ForumThread is null; this must be set in the constructor"); lock (_ft) { _ft.ViewCount = _ft.ViewCount + 1; _forumLogic.SaveThread(_ft); } } public void LockForumThread() { if (_ft == null) throw new NoNullAllowedException("_ft ForumThread is null; this must be set in the constructor"); _ft.ThreadLocked = true; _forumLogic.SaveThread(_ft); }

    Read the article

  • Python Ephem / Datetime calculation

    - by dassouki
    the output should process the first date as "day" and second as "night". I've been playing with this for a few hours now and can't figure out what I'm doing wrong. Any ideas? Edit I assume that the problem is due to my date comparison implementation Output: $ python time_of_day.py * should be day: event date: 2010/4/6 16:00:59 prev rising: 2010/4/6 09:24:24 prev setting: 2010/4/5 23:33:03 next rise: 2010/4/7 09:22:27 next set: 2010/4/6 23:34:27 day * should be night: event date: 2010/4/6 00:01:00 prev rising: 2010/4/5 09:26:22 prev setting: 2010/4/5 23:33:03 next rise: 2010/4/6 09:24:24 next set: 2010/4/6 23:34:27 day time_of_day.py import datetime import ephem # install from http://pypi.python.org/pypi/pyephem/ #event_time is just a date time corresponding to an sql timestamp def type_of_light(latitude, longitude, event_time, utc_time, horizon): o = ephem.Observer() o.lat, o.long, o.date, o.horizon = latitude, longitude, event_time, horizon print "event date ", o.date print "prev rising: ", o.previous_rising(ephem.Sun()) print "prev setting: ", o.previous_setting(ephem.Sun()) print "next rise: ", o.next_rising(ephem.Sun()) print "next set: ", o.next_setting(ephem.Sun()) if o.previous_rising(ephem.Sun()) <= o.date <= o.next_setting(ephem.Sun()): return "day" elif o.previous_setting(ephem.Sun()) <= o.date <= o.next_rising(ephem.Sun()): return "night" else: return "error" print "should be day: ", type_of_light('45.959','-66.6405','2010/4/6 16:01','-4', '-6') print "should be night: ", type_of_light('45.959','-66.6405','2010/4/6 00:01','-4', '-6')

    Read the article

  • UIDatePicker date method is picking wrong date: iPhone Dev

    - by prd
    Hi, I am getting very strange behaviour on UIDatePicker. I have a view with date picker declared in .h file as IBOutlet UIDatePicker *datePicker; with property nonatomic and retain. datePicker is properly linked in IB file. In the code I am setting the minimum, maximum, initial date and action to call for UICOntrolEventValueChanged using following code If (!currentDate) { initialDate = [NSDate date]; } else { initialDate = currentdate; } [datePicker setMinimumDate:[NSDate date]]; [datePicker setMaximumDate:[[NSDate date] addTimeInterval:5 * 365.25 * 24 * 60 * 60]]; // to get upto 5 years [datePicker setDate:initialDate animated:YES]; [datePicker addTarget:self action:@selector(getDatePickerValue:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventValueChanged]; In getDatePickerValue, I get the new date using datePicker.date. When the view is closed (using a done button), I get the current value of the date using datePicker.date. Now if the view is called with no 'currentDate', the picker returns 'todays date'. This is what happens the 'first' time my pickerView is called. Each subsequent call to the view, with no 'current date' gives me a different and later date from today. So, first time I get today's date say 9 Jun 2010 second time datePicker.date returns 10 Jun 2010 third time 11 Jun 2010 and so on. Though its not always incremental, but mostly it is. I have put NSLogs, and verified the initial date is set correctly. The problem is only on the device (on OS 3.0), the issue is not replicated on simulator. I can't find what I have done wrong. I hope somebody else has come across similar problem and can help me resolve this.

    Read the article

  • Loop a formula in excel VBA

    - by CEMG
    I am trying to loop a formula in Column "D" until Column "B" doesn't have any more data. The formula I am adding to Column "D" is : IF(ISNUMBER(C5),C5,IF(C5A5/3+OFFSET(C5,-1,0)) ,IF(C5<C6,((OFFSET(C5,1,0)-OFFSET(C5,-2,0))(A5/3)+OFFSET(C5,-2,0)),""))) So the result I want in Column "D" once the macro is run is this: A B C D 3 May-10 78.0000 78.00000 1 Jun-10 52.06667 2 Jul-10 26.13333 3 Aug-10 0.2000 0.20000 1 Sep-10 0.21393 2 Oct-10 0.22786 3 Nov-10 0.2418 0.24179 1 Dec-10 0.26640 2 Jan-11 0.29102 3 Feb-11 0.3156 0.31563 1 Mar-11 0.34821 2 Apr-11 0.38080 3 May-11 0.4134 0.41338 1 Jun-11 0.44992 2 Jul-11 0.48646 3 Aug-11 0.5230 0.52300 1 Sep-11 0.56440 2 Oct-11 0.60580 3 Nov-11 0.6472 0.64720 1 Dec-11 0.43147 If someone can help me at what I am doing wrong with the VBA codes I would greatly appreciated. My CODES are the following: Sub IsNumeric() // first logic: IF(ISNUMBER(C6),C6 // If Application.IsNumber(Range("c5").Value) Then Range("d5").Value = Range("C5").Value // second logic: IF(C6 ElseIf Range("c6").Value < Range("c5").Value Then Range("d6").Value = Range("c6").Offset(2, 0).Value - Range("c6").Offset(-1, 0).Value * (Range("a6").Value / 3) + Range("c6").Offset(-1, 0).Value // third logic: IF(C6<C7,((OFFSET(C6,1,0)-OFFSET(C6,-2,0))*(A6/3)+OFFSET(C6,-2,0)),""))) // ElseIf Range("c6").Value < Range("c7").Value Then Range("d6").Value = (Range("c6").Offset(1, 0).Select) - Range("c6").Offset(-2, 0).Select * (Range("a6").Select / 3) + Range("c6").Offset(-2, 0).Select Else Range("d6").Value = "" End If End Sub

    Read the article

  • Trouble when changing pixel data with alpha on png on iphone --okay on simulator

    - by Ted
    I'm trying to change the color of the pixels (lighten or darken) without changing the value of the alpha channel using CGDataProviderCopyData. I leave every 4th databyte untouched. It work fine of the iphone simulator, however on the real thing the alpha goes white as I increase the values of the other pixels. I've tried changing just the first byte, or the second, or the third. Does anybody have any idea what is going on? The basic code is borrowed from Jorge. I like this simple approach --I'm new to this. But I want to make it work with png images with some transparency. here is most of the code by Jorge : CFDataRef CopyImagePixels(CGImageRef inImage){ return CGDataProviderCopyData(CGImageGetDataProvider(inImage)); } CGImageRef img=originalImage.CGImage; CFDataRef dataref=CopyImagePixels(img); UInt8 *data=(UInt8 *)CFDataGetBytePtr(dataref); int length=CFDataGetLength(dataref); for(int index=0;index255){ data[index+i]=255; }else{ data[index+i]+=value; } } } } size_t width=CGImageGetWidth(img); size_t height=CGImageGetHeight(img); size_t bitsPerComponent=CGImageGetBitsPerComponent(img); size_t bitsPerPixel=CGImageGetBitsPerPixel(img); size_t bytesPerRow=CGImageGetBytesPerRow(img); CGColorSpaceRef colorspace=CGImageGetColorSpace(img); CGBitmapInfo bitmapInfo=CGImageGetBitmapInfo(img); CGImageAlphaInfo alphaInfo = kCGBitmapAlphaInfoMask(img); NSLog(@"bitmapinfo: %d",bitmapInfo); CFDataRef newData=CFDataCreate(NULL,data,length); CGDataProviderRef provider=CGDataProviderCreateWithCFData(newData); CGImageRef newImg=CGImageCreate(width,height,bitsPerComponent,bitsPerPixel,bytesPerRow,colorspace,bitmapInfo,provider,NULL,true,kCGRenderingIntentDefault); [iv setImage:[UIImage imageWithCGImage:newImg]]; CGImageRelease(newImg); CGDataProviderRelease(provider);

    Read the article

  • MVC: Submit one form from a page with multiple forms

    - by Rob
    I'm working in an ASP.NET 3.5 MVC application where i've got a view with multiple forms in it. Form 1 contains information about products and will form a shoppingcart with a remove button. Form 2 is as below and is to be used to get the information from the shoppingcart and create an order of it. <% using (Html.BeginForm()) { %> <%=Html.Hidden(Order.ProductId", "E63EF586-F625-4C8D-B82E-E63A6FA4A63C")%> <%=Html.Hidden(Order.Amount", 1)%> <input type="submit" value="Pay" /> <%} % The first form contains a similar beginform with a foreach loop to get the information about the products from the model. When i use the submit button on the second form everything seems to be submitted and the action in the controller for the first form is trying to handle the request. That is where the error occurce because the information in the viewmodel isn't corresponding to what is being expected. The controller which is trying to handle the request: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult ShowShoppingcartForm([Bind(Prefix = "Order")] MyViewmodel viewModel) { //.. } The controller which is expected to handle the request: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult SaveOrder([Bind(Prefix = "Order")] MyViewmodel viewModel) { throw new NotImplementedException(); }

    Read the article

  • foreignkey problem

    - by realshadow
    Hey, Imagine you have this model: class Category(models.Model): node_id = models.IntegerField(primary_key = True) type_id = models.IntegerField(max_length = 20) parent_id = models.IntegerField(max_length = 20) sort_order = models.IntegerField(max_length = 20) name = models.CharField(max_length = 45) lft = models.IntegerField(max_length = 20) rgt = models.IntegerField(max_length = 20) depth = models.IntegerField(max_length = 20) added_on = models.DateTimeField(auto_now = True) updated_on = models.DateTimeField(auto_now = True) status = models.IntegerField(max_length = 20) node = models.ForeignKey(Category_info, verbose_name = 'Category_info', to_field = 'node_id' The important part is the foreignkey. When I try: Category.objects.filter(type_id = 15, parent_id = offset, status = 1) I get an error that get returned more than category, which is fine, because it is supposed to return more than one. But I want to filter the results trough another field, which would be type id (from the second Model) Here it is: class Category_info(models.Model): objtree_label_id = models.AutoField(primary_key = True) node_id = models.IntegerField(unique = True) language_id = models.IntegerField() label = models.CharField(max_length = 255) type_id = models.IntegerField() The type_id can be any number from 1 - 5. I am desparately trying to get only one result where the type_id would be number 1. Here is what I want in sql: SELECT c.*, ci.* FROM category c JOIN category_info ci ON (c.node_id = ci.node_id) WHERE c.type_id = 15 AND c.parent_id = 50 AND ci.type_id = 1 Any help is GREATLY appreciated. Regards

    Read the article

  • Swipe left/right to push next/previous details view

    - by Youssef
    I am working on a ios application, using storyboard. I have a simple table view with rows. Each row has a "key" string to identify it. When the user clicks on a row I push the next view "DetailsViewController" and pass the "key" as a parameter in the prepareForSegue method. The data in the second view will change based on the "key" passed. In the "DetailsViewController" I want to add a swipe gesture, when the user swipes right, I want to push the next details view. It will be as if he clicked on the next row in the table view. So to rephrase, the user has 2 ways of switching between items: he can click the item in the table view and the details view will show, he can then go back and select another item. Or he can click on a row, and in the details view he can swipe left and right to see the previous/next item. i added the uigesture recognizer: UISwipeGestureRecognizer *recognizer; recognizer = [[UISwipeGestureRecognizer alloc] initWithTarget:self action:@selector(handleSwipe:)]; [recognizer setDirection:UISwipeGestureRecognizerDirectionRight]; [[self view] addGestureRecognizer:recognizer]; - (void) handleSwipe:(UISwipeGestureRecognizer *) sender { //I want to go to the next item in the tableview } I hope I was clear. Thank you.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 522 523 524 525 526 527 528 529 530 531 532 533  | Next Page >