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  • Difference between MVC FilterAttribute and Filter

    - by zaaaaphod
    I'm trying to write my own custom AuthorizationAttribute that uses DI. I'm using the MUNQ IoC provider for it's speed and have decided to use constructor injection on all my classes as opposed to post instatiation property binding (because I prefer it). I'm trying to write a custom IFilterProvider that will use my IoC container to return requests for filters (so that I can map concrete classes using the container). I've come up with the following. public class FilterProvider : IFilterProvider { private readonly IocContainer _container; public FilterProvider(IocContainer container) { _container = container; } public IEnumerable<Filter> GetFilters(ControllerContext controllerContext, ActionDescriptor actionDescriptor) { var x = Enumerable.Union<Object>(_container.ResolveAll<IActionFilter>(), _container.ResolveAll<IAuthorizationFilter>()); foreach (Filter actionFilter in x) yield return new Filter(actionFilter, FilterScope.First, null); } } The above code will fail during the foreach because my objects that implement IAuthorizationFilter are based on FilterAttribute and not Filter My question is, what is the difference between Filter and FilterAttribute? I would have thought that there would have been a common link between them, unless I'm missing something. Another deeper question is, how come there is no IFilterAttributeProvider that would support IEnumerable GetFilters(...) Is there some other way that I should be using to resolve IAuthorizationFilter via my IoC container? Thank you very much for your help. Z

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  • im i doing this right or wrong using pointers in C

    - by Amandeep Singh Dhari
    i like to point out that i need some help with my home work, ok the lectuer gave us the idea of a program and we have to make it from bottom to top. got to have user to type in two set of string. pointers take in the value and then puts into a prototype i need to make a 3rd pointer that has the value of p1 and p2. like this p1 = asd, p2 = qwe and p3 = asdqwe #include "stdafx.h" #include <ctype.h> char *mystrcat(char*s1p, char*s2p); // Prototype char main(void) { char string1[80]; char string2[80]; printf("%s", "enter in your srting one "); gets_s(string1); printf("%s", "enter in your srting two "); gets_s(string2); *mystrcat(string1, string2); return 0; } char *mystrcat(char *s1p,char *s2p) { //char *string3; //char *string4; //string3 = s1p; //string4 = s2p; printf("whatever = %s%s\n", s1p, s2p); return 0; } this is the code that i made so far just need some help, thank guys in advance.

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  • Linq to SQL duplicating entry when referencing FK

    - by Oscar
    Hi! I am still facing some problems when using LINQ-to-SQL. I am also looking for answers by myself, but this problem is so akward that I am having problems to find the right keywords to look for it. I have this code here: public CustomTask SaveTask(string token, CustomTask task) { TrackingDataContext dataConext = new TrackingDataContext(); //Check the token for security if (SessionTokenBase.Instance.ExistsToken(Convert.ToInt32(token)) == null) return null; //Populates the Task - the "real" Linq to SQL object Task t = new Task(); t.Title = task.Title; t.Description = task.Description; //****The next 4 lines are important**** if (task.Severity != null) t.Severity = task.Severity; else t.SeverityID = task.SeverityID; t.StateID = task.StateID; if (task.TeamMember != null) t.TeamMember = task.TeamMember; else t.ReporterID = task.ReporterID; if (task.ReporterTeam != null) t.Team = task.ReporterTeam; else t.ReporterTeamID = task.ReporterTeamID; //Saves/Updates the task dataConext.Tasks.InsertOnSubmit(t); dataConext.SubmitChanges(); task.ID = t.ID; return task; } The problem is that I am sending the ID of the severity, and then, when I get this situation: DB State before calling the method: ID Name 1 high 2 medium 3 low Call the method selecting "medium" as severity DB State after calling the method: ID Name 1 high 2 medium 3 low 4 medium The point is: -It identified that the ID was related to the Medium entry (and for this reason it could populate the "Name" Column correctly), but if duplicated this entry. The problem is: Why?!! Some explanation about the code: CustomTask is almost the same as Task, but I was having problems regarding serialization as can be seen here I don't want to send the Severity property populated because I want my message to be as small as possible. Could anyone clear to my, why it recognize the entry, but creates a new entry in the DB?

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  • using yield in C# like I would in Ruby

    - by Sarah Vessels
    Besides just using yield for iterators in Ruby, I also use it to pass control briefly back to the caller before resuming control in the called method. What I want to do in C# is similar. In a test class, I want to get a connection instance, create another variable instance that uses that connection, then pass the variable to the calling method so it can be fiddled with. I then want control to return to the called method so that the connection can be disposed. I guess I'm wanting a block/closure like in Ruby. Here's the general idea: private static MyThing getThing() { using (var connection = new Connection()) { yield return new MyThing(connection); } } [TestMethod] public void MyTest1() { // call getThing(), use yielded MyThing, control returns to getThing() // for disposal } [TestMethod] public void MyTest2() { // call getThing(), use yielded MyThing, control returns to getThing() // for disposal } ... This doesn't work in C#; ReSharper tells me that the body of getThing cannot be an iterator block because MyThing is not an iterator interface type. That's definitely true, but I don't want to iterate through some list. I'm guessing I shouldn't use yield if I'm not working with iterators. Any idea how I can achieve this block/closure thing in C# so I don't have to wrap my code in MyTest1, MyTest2, ... with the code in getThing()'s body?

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  • When should EntityManagerFactory instance be created/opened ?

    - by masato-san
    Ok, I read bunch of articles/examples how to write Entity Manager Factory in singleton. One of them easiest for me to understand a bit: http://javanotepad.blogspot.com/2007/05/jpa-entitymanagerfactory-in-web.html I learned that EntityManagerFactory (EMF) should only be created once preferably in application scope. And also make sure to close the EMF once it's used (?) So I wrote EMF helper class for business methods to use: public class EmProvider { private static final String DB_PU = "KogaAlphaPU"; public static final boolean DEBUG = true; private static final EmProvider singleton = new EmProvider(); private EntityManagerFactory emf; private EmProvider() {} public static EmProvider getInstance() { return singleton; } public EntityManagerFactory getEntityManagerFactory() { if(emf == null) { emf = Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory(DB_PU); } if(DEBUG) { System.out.println("factory created on: " + new Date()); } return emf; } public void closeEmf() { if(emf.isOpen() || emf != null) { emf.close(); } emf = null; if(DEBUG) { System.out.println("EMF closed at: " + new Date()); } } }//end class And my method using EmProvider: public String foo() { EntityManager em = null; List<Object[]> out = null; try { em = EmProvider.getInstance().getEntityManagerFactory().createEntityManager(); Query query = em.createNativeQuery(JPQL_JOIN); //just some random query out = query.getResultList(); } catch(Exception e) { //handle error.... } finally { if(em != null) { em.close(); //make sure to close EntityManager } } I made sure to close EntityManager (em) within method level as suggested. But when should EntityManagerFactory be closed then? And why EMF has to be singleton so bad??? I read about concurrency issues but as I am not experienced multi-thread-grammer, I can't really be clear on this idea.

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  • CSSRules is empty

    - by Stephanie
    I have this very simple HTML page, and I'm trying to get the CSSRules of #poulet, but when I'm accessing the documents.styleSheets[0].cssRules I get this error in Chrome v5.0.375.55: Uncaught TypeError: Cannot read property 'length' of null Here is what my code looks like: //HTML FILE window.onload = function(){ var test = findKeyframesRule('poulet'); alert(test); } <div id="poulet"> allo </div> //JS FILE function findKeyframesRule(rule) { var ss = document.styleSheets; for (var i = 0; i < ss.length; ++i) { for (var j = 0; j < ss[i].cssRules.length; ++j) { if (ss[i].cssRules[j].type == window.CSSRule.WEBKIT_KEYFRAMES_RULE && ss[i].cssRules[j].name == rule) return ss[i].cssRules[j]; } } return null; } //CSS FILE html, body{ background: #cccccc; } #poulet{ border: 10px solid pink; } The files can be found here. I really need help on this one, please!!! D:

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  • Does waitpid yield valid status information for a child process that has already exited?

    - by dtrebbien
    If I fork a child process, and the child process exits before the parent even calls waitpid, then is the exit status information that is set by waitpid still valid? If so, when does it become not valid; i.e., how do I ensure that I can call waitpid on the child pid and continue to get valid exit status information after an arbitrary amount of time, and how do I "clean up" (tell the OS that I am no longer interested in the exit status information for the finished child process)? I was playing around with the following code, and it appears that the exit status information is valid for at least a few seconds after the child finishes, but I do not know for how long or how to inform the OS that I won't be calling waitpid again: #include <assert.h> #include <pthread.h> #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <unistd.h> #include <sys/wait.h> int main() { pid_t pid = fork(); if (pid < 0) { fprintf(stderr, "Failed to fork\n"); return EXIT_FAILURE; } else if (pid == 0) { // code for child process _exit(17); } else { // code for parent sleep(3); int status; waitpid(pid, &status, 0); waitpid(pid, &status, 0); // call `waitpid` again just to see if the first call had an effect assert(WIFEXITED(status)); assert(WEXITSTATUS(status) == 17); } return EXIT_SUCCESS; }

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  • Autocomplete and User define keyboard

    - by Geetha
    Hi All, I am using asp:button to create a keyboard with A-Z and 0-9 for touch screen using Java script. This keyboard is linked with one textbox. If we click one button corresponding text will be displayed on the textbox. Its working fine. I have included the autocomplete feature to this textbox using jquery JQuery Autocomplete. Problem: The autocomplete is not working if i my user define keyboard. How to modify my key buttons as keyboard keys? Is it possible? Is there any other way to achieve this? Code: <asp:TextBox ID="txtSearch" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:Button ID="zero" runat="server" Text="0" CssClass="myclass" OnClientClick="return typeLetter(this);" TabIndex="20"/> function typeLetter(currentbutton) { if (previousActiveElement != null) { if (previousActiveElement == 'antSearchText'){ var position = document.getElementById('position').value; if (position == '') { alert('chk position'); } else { var existingString = document.getElementById(previousActiveElement).value; var beforeString = existingString.substring(0, position); var afterString = existingString.substring(position, existingString.length); document.getElementById(previousActiveElement).value = beforeString + currentbutton.value + afterString; setCaretPosition(document.getElementById(previousActiveElement), parseInt(position) + 1); setCaretPosition(document.getElementById(previousActiveElement), parseInt(position) + 1); } } } return false; }

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  • Java NullPointerException In the constructor's class

    - by AndreaF
    I have made a Java class where I have defined a constructor and some methods but I get a NullPointer Exception, and I don't know how I could fix It. public class Job { String idJob; int time; int timeRun; Job j1; List<Job> startBeforeStart; List<Job> restricted; Job(String idJob, int time){ this.idJob=idJob; this.time=time; } public boolean isRestricted() { return restricted.size() != 0; } public void startsBeforeStartOf(Job job){ startBeforeStart.add(job); job.restricted.add(this); } public void startsAfterStartOf(Job job){ job.startsBeforeStartOf(this); } public void checkRestrictions(){ if (!isRestricted()){ System.out.println("+\n"); } else{ Iterator<Job> itR = restricted.iterator(); while(itR.hasNext()){ Job j1 = itR.next(); if(time>timeRun){ System.out.println("-\n"); time--; } else { restricted.remove(j1); } } } } @Override public boolean equals(Object obj) { return obj instanceof Job && ((Job) obj).idJob.equals(idJob); } public void run() { timeRun++; } } PS Looking in a forum a user says that to fix the error I should make an ArrayList inside the constructor (without modify the received parameters that should remain String id and int time), but I haven't understand what He mean.

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  • How to achieve interaction between GUI class with logic class

    - by volting
    Im new to GUI programming, and haven't done much OOP. Im working on a basic calculator app to help me learn GUI design and to brush up on OOP. I understand that anything GUI related should be kept seperate from the logic, but Im unsure how to implement interaction between logic an GUI classes when needed i.e. basically passing variables back and forth... Im using TKinter and when I pass a tkinter variable to my logic it only seems to hold the string PY_VAR0. def on_equal_btn_click(self): self.entryVariable.set(self.entryVariable.get() + "=") calculator = Calc(self.entryVariable) self.entryVariable.set(calculator.calculate()) Im sure that im probably doing something fundamentally wrong and probabaly really stupid, I spent a considerable amount of time experimenting (and searching for answers online) but Im getting no where. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks, V The Full Program (well just enough to show the structure..) import Tkinter class Gui(Tkinter.Tk): def __init__(self,parent): Tkinter.Tk.__init__(self,parent) self.parent = parent self.initialize() def initialize(self): self.grid() self.create_widgets() """ grid config """ #self.grid_columnconfigure(0,weight=1,pad=0) self.resizable(False, False) def create_widgets(self): """row 0 of grid""" """Create Text Entry Box""" self.entryVariable = Tkinter.StringVar() self.entry = Tkinter.Entry(self,width=30,textvariable=self.entryVariable) self.entry.grid(column=0,row=0, columnspan = 3 ) self.entry.bind("<Return>", self.on_press_enter) """create equal button""" equal_btn = Tkinter.Button(self,text="=",width=4,command=self.on_equal_btn_click) equal_btn.grid(column=3, row=0) """row 1 of grid""" """create number 1 button""" number1_btn = Tkinter.Button(self,text="1",width=8,command=self.on_number1_btn_click) number1_btn.grid(column=0, row=1) . . . def on_equal_btn_click(self): self.entryVariable.set(self.entryVariable.get() + "=") calculator = Calc(self.entryVariable) self.entryVariable.set(calculator.calculate()) class Calc(): def __init__(self, equation): self.equation = equation def calculate(self): #TODO: parse string and calculate... return self.equation if __name__ == "__main__": app = Gui(None) app.title('Calculator') app.mainloop()

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  • Dataset holds a table called "Table", not the table I pass in?

    - by dotnetdev
    Hi, I have the code below: string SQL = "select * from " + TableName; using (DS = new DataSet()) using (SqlDataAdapter adapter = new SqlDataAdapter()) using (SqlConnection sqlconn = new SqlConnection(connectionStringBuilder.ToString())) using (SqlCommand objCommand = new SqlCommand(SQL, sqlconn)) { sqlconn.Open(); adapter.SelectCommand = objCommand; adapter.Fill(DS); } System.Windows.Forms.MessageBox.Show(DS.Tables[0].TableName); return DS; However, every time I run this code, the dataset (DS) is filled with one table called "Table". It does not represent the table name I pass in as the parameter TableName and this parameter does not get mutated so I don't know where the name Table comes from. I'd expect the table to be the same as the tableName parameter I pass in? Any idea why this is not so? EDIT: Important fact: This code needs to return a dataset because I use the dataRelation object in another method, which is dependent on this, and without using a dataset, that method throws an exception. The code for that method is: DataRelation PartToIntersection = new DataRelation("XYZ", this.LoadDataToTable(tableName).Tables[tableName].Columns[0], // Treating the PartStat table as the parent - .N this.LoadDataToTable("PartProducts").Tables["PartProducts"].Columns[0]); // 1 // PartsProducts (intersection) to ProductMaterial DataRelation ProductMaterialToIntersection = new DataRelation("", ds.Tables["ProductMaterial"].Columns[0], ds.Tables["PartsProducts"].Columns[1]); Thanks

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  • GUID or int entity key with SQL Compact/EF4?

    - by David Veeneman
    This is a follow-up to an earlier question I posted on EF4 entity keys with SQL Compact. SQL Compact doesn't allow server-generated identity keys, so I am left with creating my own keys as objects are added to the ObjectContext. My first choice would be an integer key, and the previous answer linked to a blog post that shows an extension method that uses the Max operator with a selector expression to find the next available key: public static TResult NextId<TSource, TResult>(this ObjectSet<TSource> table, Expression<Func<TSource, TResult>> selector) where TSource : class { TResult lastId = table.Any() ? table.Max(selector) : default(TResult); if (lastId is int) { lastId = (TResult)(object)(((int)(object)lastId) + 1); } return lastId; } Here's my take on the extension method: It will work fine if the ObjectContext that I am working with has an unfiltered entity set. In that case, the ObjectContext will contain all rows from the data table, and I will get an accurate result. But if the entity set is the result of a query filter, the method will return the last entity key in the filtered entity set, which will not necessarily be the last key in the data table. So I think the extension method won't really work. At this point, the obvious solution seems to be to simply use a GUID as the entity key. That way, I only need to call Guid.NewGuid() method to set the ID property before I add a new entity to my ObjectContext. Here is my question: Is there a simple way of getting the last primary key in the data store from EF4 (without having to create a second ObjectContext for that purpose)? Any other reason not to take the easy way out and simply use a GUID? Thanks for your help.

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  • How to populate a dropdownlist with json data in jquery?

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    I am developing a country state cascading dropdown list... I returned json result based on countryId but i dont know how to populate/fill it in a new dropdown listbox... Here is what i am using, function getstate(countryId) { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "Reg_Form.aspx/Getstates", data: "{'countryId':" + (countryId) + "}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", global: false, async: false, dataType: "json", success: function(jsonObj) { alert(jsonObj.d); } }); return false; } And alert gave this, {"Table" : [{"stateid" : "2","statename" : "Tamilnadu"}, {"stateid" : "3","statename" : "Karnataka"}, {"stateid" : "4","statename" : "Andaman and Nicobar"}, {"stateid" : "5","statename" : "Andhra Pradesh"}, {"stateid" : "6","statename" : "Arunachal Pradesh"}]} And my aspx page has this is, <td> <asp:DropDownList ID="DLCountry" runat="server" CssClass="dropDownListSkin" onchange="return getstate(this.value);"> </asp:DropDownList> </td> <td> <asp:DropDownList ID="DLState" runat="server" CssClass="dropDownListSkin"> </asp:DropDownList> </td> Any suggestion how to fill it DLState dropdown...

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  • output query in strict table formate in code-igniter

    - by riad
    Dear all, my code is below.it show the output in table format having no problems. But when the particular tr gets long output from database then the table break. Now how can i fixed the tr width strictly?let say i want each td cannot be more than 100px. How can i do it? Note: Here table means html table,not the database table. if ($query->num_rows() > 0) { $output = ''; foreach ($query-result() as $function_info) { if ($description) { $output .= ''.$function_info-songName.''; $output .= ''.$function_info-albumName.''; $output .= ''.$function_info-artistName.''; $output .= ''.$function_info-Code1.''; $output .= ''.$function_info-Code2.''; $output .= ''.$function_info-Code3.''; $output .= ''.$function_info-Code4.''; $output .= ''.$function_info-Code5.''; } else { $output .= ''.$function_info-songName.''; } } $output .= ''; return $output; } else { return 'Result not found.'; } thanks riad

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  • Is there a more efficient way to do this?

    - by garethdn
    I'm hoping there is a better way to the following. I'm creating a jigsaw-type application and this is the current code i'm using: -(void) touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { UITouch *touch = [touches anyObject]; //location of current touch CGPoint location = [touch locationInView:self.view]; if ([touch view] == img1) { [self animateFirstTouch:img1 withLocation:location]; } else if ([touch view] == img2) { [self animateFirstTouch:img2 withLocation:location]; } else if ([touch view] == img3) { [self animateFirstTouch:img3 withLocation:location]; } else if ([touch view] == img4) { [self animateFirstTouch:img4 withLocation:location]; } else if { ...... ...... } else if ([touch view] == img40) { [self animateFirstTouch:img40 withLocation:location]; return; } } I'm hoping that there is a better, more efficieny way to do this, rather than naming every image. I'm thinking something like, if touch view is equal to a UIImageView, then perform some task. The same for touchesEnded: -(void) touchesEnded:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { UITouch *touch = [touches anyObject]; //location of current touch CGPoint location = [touch locationInView:self.view]; if ([touch view] == image1) { [self animateReleaseTouch:image1 withLocation:location]; } else if ([touch view] == image2) { [self animateReleaseTouch:image2 withLocation:location]; } else if ([touch view] == image3) { [self animateReleaseTouch:image3 withLocation:location]; } else if ([touch view] == image4) { [self animateReleaseTouch:image4 withLocation:location]; } else if{ ...... ...... } else if ([touch view] == image40) { [self animateReleaseTouch:image40 withLocation:location]; } return; } Any help please?

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  • hibernate insert to a collection causes a delete then all the items in the collection to be inserted

    - by Mark
    I have a many to may relationship CohortGroup and Employee. Any time I insert an Employee into the CohortGroup hibernate deletes the group from the resolution table and inserts all the members again, plus the new one. Why not just add the new one? The annotation in the Group: @ManyToMany(cascade = { PERSIST, MERGE, REFRESH }) @JoinTable(name="MYSITE_RES_COHORT_GROUP_STAFF", joinColumns={@JoinColumn(name="COHORT_GROUPID")}, inverseJoinColumns={@JoinColumn(name="USERID")}) public List<Employee> getMembers(){ return members; } The other side in the Employee @ManyToMany(mappedBy="members",cascade = { PERSIST, MERGE, REFRESH } ) public List<CohortGroup> getMemberGroups(){ return memberGroups; } Code snipit Employee emp = edao.findByID(cohortId); CohortGroup group = cgdao.findByID(Long.decode(groupId)); group.getMembers().add(emp); cgdao.persist(group); below is the sql reported in the log delete from swas.MYSITE_RES_COHORT_GROUP_STAFF where COHORT_GROUPID=? insert into swas.MYSITE_RES_COHORT_GROUP_STAFF (COHORT_GROUPID, USERID) values (?, ?) insert into swas.MYSITE_RES_COHORT_GROUP_STAFF (COHORT_GROUPID, USERID) values (?, ?) insert into swas.MYSITE_RES_COHORT_GROUP_STAFF (COHORT_GROUPID, USERID) values (?, ?) insert into swas.MYSITE_RES_COHORT_GROUP_STAFF (COHORT_GROUPID, USERID) values (?, ?) insert into swas.MYSITE_RES_COHORT_GROUP_STAFF (COHORT_GROUPID, USERID) values (?, ?) insert into swas.MYSITE_RES_COHORT_GROUP_STAFF (COHORT_GROUPID, USERID) values (?, ?) This seams really inefficient and is causing some issues. If sevral requests are made to add an employee to the group then some get over written.

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  • Sending data in a GTK Callback

    - by snostorm
    How can I send data through a GTK callback? I've Googled, and with the information I found created this: #include <gtk/gtk.h> #include <stdio.h> void button_clicked( GtkWidget *widget, GdkEvent *event, gchar *data); int main( int argc, char *argv[]){ GtkWidget *window; GtkWidget *button; gtk_init (&argc, &argv); window = gtk_window_new(GTK_WINDOW_TOPLEVEL); button = gtk_button_new_with_label("Go!"); gtk_container_add(GTK_CONTAINER(window), button); g_signal_connect_swapped(G_OBJECT(window), "destroy", G_CALLBACK(gtk_main_quit), NULL); g_signal_connect(G_OBJECT(button), "clicked", G_CALLBACK(button_clicked),"test" ); gtk_widget_show(window); gtk_widget_show(button); gtk_main(); return 0; } void button_clicked( GtkWidget *widget, GdkEvent *event, gchar *data){ printf("%s \n", (gchar *) data); return; } But it just Segfaults when I press the button. What is the right way to do this?

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  • Android Service setForeground While Display Sleeps

    - by c12
    I have a background Android Service that's purpose is to communicate with another device (non-phone) using a Bluetooth socket. Everything works fine except that the service gets stopped and restarted by the OS when the phone display is sleeping. This restart sometimes leaves a 15-20 minute gaps where there is no communication between the Service and the Bluetooth device and I need to be able to query the device every minute. Is startForeground the proper approach? Attempted to use: startForeground(int, Notification) //still see gaps when phone sleeps Service: public class ForegroundBluetoothService extends Service{ private boolean isStarted = false; @Override public void onDestroy() { super.onDestroy(); stop(); } /** * @see android.app.Service#onBind(android.content.Intent) */ @Override public IBinder onBind(Intent intent) { return null; } /** * @see android.app.Service#onStartCommand(android.content.Intent, int, int) */ @Override public int onStartCommand(Intent intent, int flags, int startId) { loadServiceInForeground(); return(START_STICKY); } private void loadServiceInForeground() { if (!isStarted) { isStarted=true; Notification notification = new Notification(R.drawable.icon, "Service is Running...", System.currentTimeMillis()); Intent notificationIntent = new Intent(this, MainScreen.class); PendingIntent pendingIntent = PendingIntent.getActivity(this, 0, notificationIntent, 0); notification.setLatestEventInfo(this, "Notification Title", "Service is Running...", pendingIntent); startForeground(12345, notification); try{ queryTheBluetoothDevice(); } catch(Exception ex){ ex.printStackTrace(); } } } private void stop() { if (isStarted) { isStarted=false; stopForeground(true); } } }

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  • finding N contiguous zero bits in an integer to the left of the MSB from another

    - by James Morris
    First we find the MSB of the first integer, and then try to find a region of N contiguous zero bits within the second number which is to the left of the MSB from the first integer. Here is the C code for my solution: typedef unsigned int t; unsigned const t_bits = sizeof(t) * CHAR_BIT; _Bool test_fit_within_left_of_msb( unsigned width, t val1, t val2, unsigned* offset_result) { unsigned offbit = 0; unsigned msb = 0; t mask; t b; while(val1 >>= 1) ++msb; while(offbit + width < t_bits - msb) { mask = (((t)1 << width) - 1) << (t_bits - width - offbit); b = val2 & mask; if (!b) { *offset_result = offbit; return true; } if (offbit++) /* this conditional bothers me! */ b <<= offbit - 1; while(b <<= 1) offbit++; } return false; } Aside from faster ways of finding the MSB of the first integer, the commented test for a zero offbit seems a bit extraneous, but necessary to skip the highest bit of type t if it is set. I have also implemented similar algorithms but working to the right of the MSB of the first number, so they don't require this seemingly extra condition. How can I get rid of this extra condition, or even, are there far more optimal solutions?

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  • Hibernate Transient Extends problem

    - by mrvreddy
    @MappedSuperclass public abstract class BaseAbstract implements Serializable{ private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; protected String test = //some random value; public String getTest() { return test; } public void setTest(String test){ this.test = test; } } @Entity public class Artist extends BaseAbstract { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; private Integer id; @override @Transient public String getTest() { return test; } ..... } My question is... when i am trying to do any operation on the artist, along with id and name, test is also getting saved which should not be the case... if i add the same transient on the baseabstract class getTest() method, i see test column NOT getting created(ideally what it should happen) but if i try to override the method with adding annotaion in the sub class it creates the test column... I dont know why this is happening since when hibernate is creating the artist object and checks for annotations, it should see the transient annotation present on the getTest() of artist method...and should not create a column in the database... Let me know if you need any clarification.... Any response on this is greatly appreciated.... Thank you

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  • PHP Magic faster than simply setting the class attribute?

    - by Marc Trudel
    Well, not exactly that, but here is an example. Can anyone explain the difference between B and C? How can it be faster to use a magic function to dynamically set a value instead of simply setting the value in the attribute definition? Here is some code: [root@vm-202-167-238-17 ~]# cat test.php; for d in A B C; do echo "------"; ./test.php $d; done; #!/usr/bin/php <?php $className = $argv[1]; class A { public function __get($a) { return 5; } } class B { public $a = 5; } class C { public function __get($a) { $this->a = 5; return 5; } } $a = new $className; $start = microtime(true); for ($i=0; $i < 1000000; $i++) $b = $a->a; $end = microtime(true); echo (($end - $start) * 1000) ." msec\n"; ------ 598.90794754028 msec ------ 205.48391342163 msec ------ 189.7759437561 msec

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  • Controller actions appear to be synchronous though on different requests?

    - by Oded
    I am under the impression that the below code should work asynchronously. However, when I am looking at firebug, I see the requests fired asynchronously, but the results coming back synchronously: Controller: [HandleError] public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Status() { return Content(Session["status"].ToString()); } public ActionResult CreateSite() { Session["status"] += "Starting new site creation"; Thread.Sleep(20000); // Simulate long running task Session["status"] += "<br />New site creation complete"; return Content(string.Empty); } } Javascript/jQuery: $(document).ready(function () { $.ajax({ url: '/home/CreateSite', async: true, success: function () { mynamespace.done = true; } }); setTimeout(mynamespace.getStatus, 2000); }); var mynamespace = { counter: 0, done: false, getStatus: function () { $('#console').append('.'); if (mynamespace.counter == 4) { mynamespace.counter = 0; $.ajax({ url: '/home/Status', success: function (data) { $('#console').html(data); } }); } if (!mynamespace.done) { mynamespace.counter++; setTimeout(mynamespace.getStatus, 500); } } } Addtional information: IIS 7.0 Windows 2008 R2 Server Running in a VMWare virutual machine Can anyone explain this? Shouldn't the Status action be returning practically immediately instead of waiting for CreateSite to finish? Edit: How can I get the long running process to kick off and still get status updates?

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  • Ability to switch Persistence Unit dynamically within the application (JPA)

    - by MVK
    My application data access layer is built using Spring and EclipseLink and I am currently trying to implement the following feature - Ability to switch the current/active persistence unit dynamically for a user. I tried various options and finally ended up doing the following. In the persistence.xml, declare multiple PUs. Create a class with as many EntityManagerFactory attributes as there are PUs defined. This will act as a factory and return the appropriate EntityManager based on my logic public class MyEntityManagerFactory { @PersistenceUnit(unitName="PU_1") private EntityManagerFactory emf1; @PersistenceUnit(unitName="PU_2") private EntityManagerFactory emf2; public EntityManager getEntityManager(int releaseId) { // Logic goes here to return the appropriate entityManeger } } My spring-beans xml looks like this.. <!-- First persistence unit --> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean" id="emFactory1"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="PU_1" /> </bean> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager" id="transactionManager1"> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="emFactory1"/> </bean> <tx:annotation-driven transaction-manager="transactionManager1"/> The above section is repeated for the second PU (with names like emFactory2, transactionManager2 etc). I am a JPA newbie and I know that this is not the best solution. I appreciate any assistance in implementing this requirement in a better/elegant way! Thanks!

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  • Jquery toggle event is messing with checkbox value

    - by John McCollum
    Hi all, I'm using Jquery's toggle event to do some stuff when a user clicks a checkbox, like this: $('input#myId').toggle( function(){ //do stuff }, function(){ //do other stuff } ); The problem is that the checkbox isn't being ticked when I click on the checkbox. (All the stuff I've put into the toggle event is working properly.) I've tried the following: $('input#myId').attr('checked', 'checked'); and $(this).attr('checked', 'checked'); and even simply return true; But nothing is working. Can anyone tell me where I'm going wrong? Edit - thanks to all who replied. Dreas' answer very nearly worked for me, except for the part that checked the attribute. This works perfectly (although it's a bit hacky) $('input#myInput').change(function () { if(!$(this).hasClass("checked")) { //do stuff if the checkbox isn't checked $(this).addClass("checked"); return; } //do stuff if the checkbox isn't checked $(this).removeClass('checked'); }); Thanks again to all who replied.

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  • PHP DELETE immediately after select

    - by teehoo
    I have a PHP server script that SELECTs some data from a MySQL database. As soon as I have the result from mysql_query and mysql_fetch_assoc stored in my own local variables, I want to delete the row I just selected. The problem with this approach is that it seems that PHP has done pass-by-reference to my local variables instead of pass-by-value, and my local variables become undefined after the delete command. Is there anyway to get around this? Here is my code: $query="SELECT id, peerID, name FROM names WHERE peer = $userID AND docID = '$docID' AND seqNo = $nid"; $result = mysql_query($query); if (!$result) self::logError("FAIL:1 getUsersNamesUpdate() query: ".$query."\n"); if (mysql_num_rows($result) == 0) return array(); $row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result); $result = array(); $result["id"] = $row["id"]; $result["peerID"] = $row["peerID"]; $result["name"] = $row["name"]; $query="DELETE FROM names WHERE id = $result[id];"; $result = mysql_query($query); if (!$result) self::logError("FAIL:2 getUsersNamesUpdate() query: ".$query."\n"); return $result;

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