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  • [c++] upload image to imageshack

    - by cinek1lol
    Hi! I would like to send pictures via a program written in C + +. - OK WinExec("C:\\curl\\curl.exe -H Expect: -F \"fileupload=@C:\\curl\\ok.jpg\" -F \"xml=yes\" -# \"http://www.imageshack.us/index.php\" -o data.txt -A \"Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 5.1; en-US; rv:1.8.1.1) Gecko/20061204 Firefox/2.0.0.1\" -e \"http://www.imageshack.us\"", NULL); It works, but I would like to send the pictures from pre-loaded carrier to a variable char (you know what I mean? First off, I load the pictures into a variable and then send the variable), cause now I have to specify the path of the picture on a disk. I wanted to write this program in c++ by using the curl library, not through exe. extension. I have also found such a program (which has been modified by me a bit) #include <stdio.h> #include <string.h> #include <iostream> #include <curl/curl.h> #include <curl/types.h> #include <curl/easy.h> int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { CURL *curl; CURLcode res; struct curl_httppost *formpost=NULL; struct curl_httppost *lastptr=NULL; struct curl_slist *headerlist=NULL; static const char buf[] = "Expect:"; curl_global_init(CURL_GLOBAL_ALL); /* Fill in the file upload field */ curl_formadd(&formpost, &lastptr, CURLFORM_COPYNAME, "send", CURLFORM_FILE, "nowy.jpg", CURLFORM_END); curl_formadd(&formpost, &lastptr, CURLFORM_COPYNAME, "nowy.jpg", CURLFORM_COPYCONTENTS, "nowy.jpg", CURLFORM_END); curl_formadd(&formpost, &lastptr, CURLFORM_COPYNAME, "submit", CURLFORM_COPYCONTENTS, "send", CURLFORM_END); curl = curl_easy_init(); headerlist = curl_slist_append(headerlist, buf); if(curl) { curl_easy_setopt(curl, CURLOPT_URL, "http://www.imageshack.us/index.php"); if ( (argc == 2) && (!strcmp(argv[1], "xml=yes")) ) curl_easy_setopt(curl, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, headerlist); curl_easy_setopt(curl, CURLOPT_HTTPPOST, formpost); res = curl_easy_perform(curl); curl_easy_cleanup(curl); curl_formfree(formpost); curl_slist_free_all (headerlist); } system("pause"); return 0; }

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  • Combobox INotifyPropertyChanged event not raised!!!

    - by nagiah
    I created a combobox and set observable collection as the itemsource and implemented INotifyPropertyChanged on the observable collection item. Even after that, when I select different item in the combobox, the OnPropertyChange method is not invoked. I think I am not making the binding properly. Could any one please correct me/ suggest me in this regard. ---------------------------------MainPage.xaml--------------------------------------------------- <StackPanel Width="300"> <ComboBox Name="cboName"></ComboBox> <TextBox Name="tbxName" Text="{Binding Path=name,Mode=TwoWay,ElementName=cboName}" ></TextBox> </StackPanel> ---------------------------MainPage.xaml.cs----------------------------------------------- using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Net; using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Controls; using System.Windows.Documents; using System.Windows.Input; using System.Windows.Media; using System.Windows.Media.Animation; using System.Windows.Shapes; using System.Collections.ObjectModel; using System.Collections.Specialized; using System.ComponentModel; namespace MasterDetailsUpdate { public partial class MainPage : UserControl { public MainPage() { InitializeComponent(); Loaded += new RoutedEventHandler(MainPage_Loaded); } void MainPage_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { ObservableCollection<Person> persons = new ObservableCollection<Person>(); persons.Add(new Person { city = "c1", name = "n1" }); persons.Add(new Person { city = "c2", name = "n2" }); persons.Add(new Person { city = "c3", name = "" }); persons.Add(new Person { city = "c4", name = "" }); persons.Add(new Person { city = "c5", name = "n1" }); cboName.ItemsSource = persons; cboName.DisplayMemberPath = "name"; } } public class Person : INotifyPropertyChanged { private string _name; private string _city; public string name { set { _name = value; OnPropertyChanged("name"); } get { return _name; } } public string city { set { _city = value; OnPropertyChanged("city"); } get { return _city; } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; private void OnPropertyChanged(string propertyName) { if (PropertyChanged != null) { this.PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } } #endregion } } Thank You

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  • Programmatically Setting ControlTemplate Item

    - by Robert
    I'm having trouble figuring out how to programmatically setting the "Stroke" of my arrow. I'm using these buttons in a menu bar and I want the one currently selected to have it's arrow change to green and all the others gray. <Style x:Key="FooterGrayButtonStyle" TargetType="{x:Type Button}"> <Setter Property="HorizontalContentAlignment" Value="Center"/> <Setter Property="VerticalContentAlignment" Value="Center"/> <Setter Property="MinHeight" Value="35" /> <Setter Property="FontSize" Value="16"/> <Setter Property="Margin" Value="0,5,10,5" /> <Setter Property="Foreground" Value="White" /> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type Button}"> <Grid> <Border x:Name="Bd" Background="#FF535A65" BorderBrush="Black" BorderThickness="1" CornerRadius="10"> <Path x:Name="arrow" Stretch="Fill" Stroke="#FFB1BB1C" StrokeThickness="5" HorizontalAlignment="Right" Margin="5" StrokeEndLineCap="Round" StrokeStartLineCap="Round" StrokeLineJoin="Miter" Width="13" Height="23" Data="M0,0 L1,1 0,2" /> </Border> <ContentPresenter HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="15,-2,30,0" VerticalAlignment="{TemplateBinding VerticalContentAlignment}" SnapsToDevicePixels="{TemplateBinding SnapsToDevicePixels}" RecognizesAccessKey="True"/> </Grid> <ControlTemplate.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsPressed" Value="True"> <Setter TargetName="Bd" Property="Background" Value="#FFB1BB1C" /> <Setter Property="Stroke" TargetName="arrow" Value="White"/> </Trigger> <Trigger Property="IsEnabled" Value="False"> <Setter Property="Stroke" TargetName="arrow" Value="#FFB7B7B7"/> <Setter Property="Foreground" Value="#FFB7B7B7"/> </Trigger> </ControlTemplate.Triggers> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style>

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  • JSF 2.0: Preserving component state across multiple views

    - by tlind
    The web application I am developing using MyFaces 2.0.3 / PrimeFaces 2.2RC2 is divided into a content and a navigation area. In the navigation area, which is included into multiple pages using templating (i.e. <ui:define>), there are some widgets (e.g. a navigation tree, collapsible panels etc.) of which I want to preserve the component state across views. For example, let's say I am on the home page. When I navigate to a product details page by clicking on a product in the navigation tree, my Java code triggers a redirect using navigationHandler.handleNavigation(context, null, "/detailspage.jsf?faces-redirect=true") Another way of getting to that details page would be by directly clicking on a product teaser that is shown on the home page. The corresponding <h:link> would lead us to the details page. In both cases, the expansion state of my navigation tree (a PrimeFaces tree component) and my collapsible panels is lost. I understand this is because the redirect / h:link results in the creation of a new view. What is the best way of dealing with this? I am already using MyFaces Orchestra in my project along with its conversation scope, but I am not sure if this is of any help here (since I'd have to bind the expansion/collapsed state of the widgets to a backing bean... but as far as I know, this is not possible). Is there a way of telling JSF which component states to propagate to the next view, assuming that the same component exists in that view? I guess I could need a pointer into the right direction here. Thanks! Update 1: I just tried binding the panels and the tree to a session-scoped bean, but this seems to have no effect. Also, I guess I would have to bind all child components (if any) manually, so this doesn't seem like the way to go. Update 2: Binding UI components to non-request scoped beans is not a good idea (see link I posted in a comment below). If there is no easier approach, I might have to proceed as follows: When a panel is collapsed or the tree is expanded, save the current state in a session-scoped backing bean (!= the UI component itself) The components' states are stored in a map. The map key is the component's (hopefully) unique, relative ID. I cannot use the whole absolute component path here, since the IDs of the parent naming containers might change if the view changes, assuming these IDs are generated programmatically. As soon as a new view gets constructed, retrieve the components' states from the map and apply them to the components. For example, in case of the panels, I can set the collapsed attribute to a value retrieved from my session-scoped backing bean.

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  • Parallel programming in C#

    - by Alxandr
    I'm interested in learning about parallel programming in C#.NET (not like everything there is to know, but the basics and maybe some good-practices), therefore I've decided to reprogram an old program of mine which is called ImageSyncer. ImageSyncer is a really simple program, all it does is to scan trough a folder and find all files ending with .jpg, then it calculates the new position of the files based on the date they were taken (parsing of xif-data, or whatever it's called). After a location has been generated the program checks for any existing files at that location, and if one exist it looks at the last write-time of both the file to copy, and the file "in its way". If those are equal the file is skipped. If not a md5 checksum of both files is created and matched. If there is no match the file to be copied is given a new location to be copied to (for instance, if it was to be copied to "C:\test.jpg" it's copied to "C:\test(1).jpg" instead). The result of this operation is populated into a queue of a struct-type that contains two strings, the original file and the position to copy it to. Then that queue is iterated over untill it is empty and the files are copied. In other words there are 4 operations: 1. Scan directory for jpegs 2. Parse files for xif and generate copy-location 3. Check for file existence and if needed generate new path 4. Copy files And so I want to rewrite this program to make it paralell and be able to perform several of the operations at the same time, and I was wondering what the best way to achieve that would be. I've came up with two different models I can think of, but neither one of them might be any good at all. The first one is to parallelize the 4 steps of the old program, so that when step one is to be executed it's done on several threads, and when the entire of step 1 is finished step 2 is began. The other one (which I find more interesting because I have no idea of how to do that) is to create a sort of worker and consumer model, so when a thread is finished with step 1 another one takes over and performs step 2 at that object (or something like that). But as said, I don't know if any of these are any good solutions. Also, I don't know much about parallel programming at all. I know how to make a thread, and how to make it perform a function taking in an object as its only parameter, and I've also used the BackgroundWorker-class on one occasion, but I'm not that familiar with any of them. Any input would be appreciated.

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  • How do you combine "Revision Control" with "WorkFlow" for R?

    - by Tal Galili
    Hello all, I remember coming across R users writing that they use "Revision control" (e.g: "Source control"), and I am curious to know: How do you combine "Revision control" with your statistical analysis WorkFlow? Two (very) interesting discussions talk about how to deal with the WorkFlow. But neither of them refer to the revision control element: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1266279/how-to-organize-large-r-programs http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1429907/workflow-for-statistical-analysis-and-report-writing A Long Update To The Question: Following some of the people's answers, and Dirk's question in the comment, I would like to direct my question a bit more. After reading the Wiki article about "revision control" (which I was previously not familiar with), it was clear to me that when using revision control, what one does is to build a development structure of his code. This structure either leads to a "final product" or to several branches. When building something like, let's say, a website. There is usually one end product you work towards (the website), with some prototypes along the way. But when doing a statistical analysis, the work (to my view) is different. Sometimes you know where you want to get to. But more often, you explore. Explore cleaning the dataset. Explore different methods for statistical analysis, and ask various questions of your data (and I am writing this, knowing how Frank Harrell, and other experience statisticians feels about Data dredging). That is way the WorkFlow question with statistical programming is (in my view) a serious and deep question, raising many issues, The simpler ones are technical: Which revision control software do you use (and why) ? Which IDE do you use(and why) ? The more interesting question are about work process: How do you structure your files? What do you keep as a separate file and what as a revision? or asking in a different way - What should be a "branch" and what should be a "sub project" in your code? For example: When starting to explore your data, should a plot be creating and then erased because it didn't lead any where (but kept as a revision) or should there be a backup file of that path? How you solve this tension was my initial curiosity. The second question is "what might I be missing?". What rules (of thumb) should one follow so to avoid common pitfalls doing statistical programming with version control? In my intuition, I feel that statistical programming is inherently different then software development (I am writing this without being a real expert in statistical programming, and even less so in software development). That's way I am unsure which of the lessons I have read here about version control would be applicable. Thanks a lot, Tal

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  • WndProc(ref Message m), Prevent minimize Games, Send key strokes.

    - by Stanomatic
    Overview: I am going to create a touch application that interfaces with games and other apps. This concept is similar to the app found on touch-buddy.com but I will be using C# and WPF instead of how the application is written in Perl. I have a few challenges I would like to evaluate. The touch-buddy app uses two approaches while interacting with games; 1. Client mode (Same machine runs both game and touch-buddy). 2. Server / Client mode where a separate box sends commands to the game machine. The reason I believe for this method was to circumvent the issue with games minimizing. In Client only mode I am faced with the issue where I touch a screen OTHER than the main screen where the game is viewed and then the game minimizes. Not all games have this behavior but I would like to conquer the games that do minimize and prevent it. Is it possible to keep a game front and center Focused and prevent minimizing utilizing C# WndProc(ref Message m)? I have been experimenting with WndProc(ref Message m) where I created a win form and when I press minimize on my own Win form and it will close an instance of notepad. This proves to me that I can capture a message, prevent that message from bubbling up and then send a message to another application. I then tried to click on notepad with my touch screen and keep my win form application in focus and not minimize. At this point I am unsuccessful. I need more time understanding message codes. Is this the right approach? Can it be done? Should I look at other libraries such as Windows Automation? Key input is my other concern. What is the best way to send key strokes to other apps/games. Should I tap into DirectX, use some kind of send key, Automation Framework? Can any of these handle the multiple key strokes that some simulation games require? I appreciate any links and or insight you may have. If you have gone down this path for any reason I would love to hear your comments. Stan

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  • WPF: How to properly override the methods when creating custom control

    - by EV
    Hi, I am creating a custom control Toolbox that is derived from ItemsControl. This toolbox is supposed to be filled with icons coming from the database. The definition looks like this: public class Toolbox : ItemsControl { protected override DependencyObject GetContainerForItemOverride() { return new ToolboxItem(); } protected override bool IsItemItsOwnContainerOverride(object item) { return (item is ToolboxItem); } } Toolboxitem is derived from ContentControl. public class ToolboxItem : ContentControl { static ToolboxItem() { FrameworkElement.DefaultStyleKeyProperty.OverrideMetadata(typeof(ToolboxItem), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata(typeof(ToolboxItem))); } } Since the number of icons stored in a database is not known I want to use the data template: <DataTemplate x:Key="ToolBoxTemplate"> <StackPanel> <Image Source="{Binding Path=url}" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> Then I want the Toolbox to use the template. <Toolbox x:Name="NewLibrary" ItemsSource="{Binding}" ItemTemplate="ToolBoxtemplate"> </Toolbox> I'm using ADO.NET entity framework to connect to a database. The code behind: SystemicsAnalystDBEntities db = new SystemicsAnalystDBEntities(); private void Window_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { NewLibrary.ItemsSource = from c in db.Components select c; } However, there is a problem. When the code is executed, it displays the object from the database (as the ItemSource property is set to the object from the database) and not the images. It does not use the template. When I use the static images source it works in the right way I found out that I need to override the PrepareContainerForItemOverride method.But I don't know how to add the template to it. Thanks a lot for any comments. Additional Information Here is the ControlTemplate for ToolboxItem: <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type s:ToolboxItem}"> <Grid> <Rectangle Name="Border" StrokeThickness="1" StrokeDashArray="2" Fill="Transparent" SnapsToDevicePixels="true" /> <ContentPresenter Content="{TemplateBinding ContentControl.Content}" Margin="{TemplateBinding Padding}" SnapsToDevicePixels="{TemplateBinding UIElement.SnapsToDevicePixels}" /> </Grid> <ControlTemplate.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsMouseOver" Value="true"> <Setter TargetName="Border" Property="Stroke" Value="Gray" /> </Trigger> </ControlTemplate.Triggers> </ControlTemplate>

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  • Selenium: How to use stored value in a javascript comparison

    - by dstrube
    I've searched around for the answer to this and found lots of much more complicated questions, but none that gave me insight enough to figure this one out. What I'm doing: 1- open a page with a number that will probably be large 2- get the X Path to where that number is and store it to a variable 3- do a javascript to compare the above stored variable to see if it is bigger than 10, if so, set a new varaible to true; else false (because that is the default value) 4- verify the variable in #3 is true Sounds simple enough, no? Where it goes wrong: At step 3, comparing the variable from step #2 to 10 isn't allowed, at least not the way I'm writing it. Why? Details: <tr> <td>open</td> <td>http://www.google.com/search?hl=en&q=selenium+verifyEval</td> <td></td> </tr> <tr> <td>store</td> <td>/html/body/div[5]/div/p/b[3]</td> <td>resultCount</td> </tr> <tr> <td>storeEval</td> <td>var isMoreThan10 = new Boolean(); isMoreThan10 = (resultCount &gt; 10);</td> <td>isMoreThan10</td> </tr> <tr> <td>verifyExpression</td> <td>${isMoreThan10}</td> <td>true</td> </tr> I just thought of one possible workaround: Exapnd the javascript code to get the value there & assign it to a variable there so I'll be more likely to be able to use that variable in the javascript. Not sure exactly how that would be done- anyone wanna help with that? But surely there is be a better way, isn't there? I must be able to assign a value to a variable in Selenium, then in the next line use that variable in a javascript, right?

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  • java web application best practices

    - by Bruce
    Hi all I'm trying to figure out the optimum way to develop and release a fairly simple web application, and I'm running into several problems. I'll outline the decisions I've made, because somewhere I've clearly gone off the rails.. Hugely grateful for any help! I have what I think is a fairly simple web application. It contains a couple of jsps that reference a couple of java beans, and the usual static html, js, css and images. Decision 1) I wanted to have a clear and clean release procedure, such that I could develop on my local machine and then release reliably to a production machine. I therefore made the decision to package the application into a war file (including all the static resources), to minimize the separate bits and pieces I would need to release. So far so good? Decision 2) I wanted things on my local machine to be as similar as possible to the production environment. So in my html, for example, I may have a reference to a static file such as http://static.foo.com/file . To keep this code working seamlessly on dev and prod, I decided to put static.foo.com in my /etc/hosts when developing locally, so that all the urls work correctly without changing anything. Decision 3) I decided to use eclipse and maven to give me a best practice environment for administering and building my project. So I have a nice tight set up now, except that: Every time I want to change anything in development, like one line in an html file, I have to rebuild the entire project and then wait for tomcat to load the war before I can see if it's what I wanted. So my questions are: 1) Is there a way to connect up eclipse and tomcat so that I don't have to rebuild the war each time? ie tomcat is looking straight at my actual workspace to serve up the static files? 2)I think I'm maybe making things harder by using /etc/hosts to reflect production urls - is there a better way that doesn't involve manually changing over urls (relative urls are fine of course, but where you have many subdomains, say one for static files and one for dynamic, you have to write out the full path, surely?) 3) Is this really best practice?? How do people set things up so that they balance the requirement for an automated, all-encompassing build process on the one hand, and the speed and flexibility to be able to develop javascript and html and css quickly, as quickly as if one just pointed apache at the directory and developed live? What do people find works? Many thanks!

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  • Call phpexcel from joomla

    - by Oscar Calderon
    i have a problem about phpexcel and joomla. I'm developing some filter form to load excel reports, so i used phpexcel library to do this. Right now i have only a report, it works fine, but after that i upload inside joomla using PHP pages component that allows me to put php files inside joomla and call it. When i put them, i change a little bit the form that calls the php that generates the excel report, i call the php using a link like this: h**p://www.whiblix.com/index.php?option=com_php&Itemid=24 That is, calling it from Joomla, not directly the php. If i wanna call the php directly i could use this path: h**p://www.whiblix.com/components/com_php/files/repImportaciones.php What's the problem? The problem is, when i call the php that generates the excel through joomla, the excel that is downloaded is corrupt and only shows symbols in one cell when i open it. But if i call the php directly the report is generated fine. I could call the php directly, the problem is that if i call it directly i can't use this line of code: defined( '_JEXEC' ) or die( 'Restricted access' ); That is used to deny the direct access to php from call it directly, because it doesn' work because the security. Where's the problem? This is the code of php that generates the report (ommiting the code where generates the rows and cells): <?php //defined( '_JEXEC' ) or die( 'Restricted access' ); /** Error reporting */ error_reporting(E_ALL); date_default_timezone_set('Europe/London'); require_once 'Classes/PHPExcel.php'; // Create new PHPExcel object $objPHPExcel = new PHPExcel(); // Set properties $objPHPExcel->getProperties()->setCreator("Maarten Balliauw") ->setLastModifiedBy("Maarten Balliauw") ->setTitle("Office 2007 XLSX Test Document") ->setSubject("Office 2007 XLSX Test Document") ->setDescription("Test document for Office 2007 XLSX, generated using PHP classes.") ->setKeywords("office 2007 openxml php") ->setCategory("Test result file"); // Rename sheet $objPHPExcel->getActiveSheet()->setTitle('Reporte de Importaciones'); // Set active sheet index to the first sheet, so Excel opens this as the first sheet $objPHPExcel->setActiveSheetIndex(0); // Redirect output to a client’s web browser (Excel5) header('Content-Type: application/vnd.ms-excel'); header('Content-Disposition: attachment;filename="repPrueba.xls"'); header('Cache-Control: max-age=0'); $objWriter = PHPExcel_IOFactory::createWriter($objPHPExcel, 'Excel5'); $objWriter->save('php://output'); exit;

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  • Sqlite issues with HTC Desire HD

    - by Greg
    Recently I have been getting a lot of complaints about the HTC Desire series and it failing while invoking sql statements. I have received reports from users with log snapshots that contain the following. I/Database( 2348): sqlite returned: error code = 8, msg = statement aborts at 1: [pragma journal_mode = WAL;] E/Database( 2348): sqlite3_exec to set journal_mode of /data/data/my.app.package/files/localized_db_en_uk-1.sqlite to WAL failed followed by my app basically burning in flames because the call to open the database results in a serious runtime error that manifests itself as the cursor being left open. There shouldn't be a cursor at this point as we are trying to open it. This only occurs with the HTC Desire HD and Z. My code basically does the following (changed a little to isolate the problem area). SQLiteDatabase db; String dbName; public SQLiteDatabase loadDb(Context context) throws IOException{ //Close any old db handle if (db != null && db.isOpen()) { db.close(); } // The name of the database to use from the bundled assets. String dbAsset = "/asset_dir/"+dbName+".sqlite"; InputStream myInput = context.getAssets().open(dbAsset, Context.MODE_PRIVATE); // Create a file in the app's file directory since sqlite requires a path // Not ideal but we will copy the file out of our bundled assets and open it // it in another location. FileOutputStream myOutput = context.openFileOutput(dbName, Context.MODE_PRIVATE); byte[] buffer = new byte[1024]; int length; while ((length = myInput.read(buffer)) > 0) { myOutput.write(buffer, 0, length); } // Close the streams myOutput.flush(); // Guarantee Write! myOutput.getFD().sync(); myOutput.close(); myInput.close(); // Not grab the newly written file File fileObj = context.getFileStreamPath(dbName); // and open the database return db = SQLiteDatabase.openDatabase(fileObj.getAbsolutePath(), null, SQLiteDatabase.OPEN_READONLY | SQLiteDatabase.NO_LOCALIZED_COLLATORS); } Sadly this phone is only available in the UK and I don't have one in my inventory. I am only getting reports of this type from the HTC Desire series. I don't know what changed as this code has been working without any problem. Is there something I am missing?

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  • Assembly Load and loading the "sub-modules" dependencies - "cannot fild the file specified"

    - by Ted
    There are several questions out there that ask the same question. However the answers they received I cannot understand, so here goes: Similar questions: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1874277/dynamically-load-assembly-and-manually-force-path-to-get-referenced-assemblies ; http://stackoverflow.com/questions/22012/loading-assemblies-and-its-dependencies-closed The question in short: I need to figure out how dependencies, ie References in my modules can be loaded dynamically. Right now I am getting "The system cannot find the file specified" on Assemblies referenced in my so called modules. I cannot really get how to use the AssemblyResolve event... The longer version I have one application, MODULECONTROLLER, that loads separate modules. These "separate modules" are located in well-known subdirectories, like appBinDir\Modules\Module1 appBinDir\Modules\Module2 Each directory contains all the DLLs that exists in the bin-directory of those projects after a build. So the MODULECONTROLLER loads all the DLLs contained in those folders using this code: byte[] bytes = File.ReadAllBytes(dllFileFullPath); Assembly assembly = null; assembly = Assembly.Load(bytes); I am, as you can see, loading the byte[]-array (so I dont lock the DLL-files). Now, in for example MODULE1, I have a static reference called MyGreatXmlProtocol. The MyGreatXmlProtocol.dll then also exists in the directory appBinDir\Modules\Module1 and is loaded using the above code When code in the MODULE1 tries to use this MyGreatXmlProtocol, I get: Could not load file or assembly 'MyGreatXmlProtocol, Version=1.0.3797.26527, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. So, in a post (like this one) they say that To my understanding reflection will load the main assembly and then search the GAC for the referenced assemblies, if it cannot find it there, you can then incorparate an assemblyResolve event: First; is it really needed to use the AssemblyResolve-event to make this work? Shouldnt my different MODULEs themself load their DLLs, as they are statically referenced? Second; if AssemblyResolve is the way to go - how do I use it? I have attached a handler to the Event but I never get anything on MyGreatXmlProctol... === EDIT === CODE regarding the AssemblyResolve-event handler: public GUI() { InitializeComponent(); AppDomain.CurrentDomain.AssemblyResolve += new ResolveEventHandler(CurrentDomain_AssemblyResolve); ... } // Assembly CurrentDomain_AssemblyResolve(object sender, ResolveEventArgs args) { Console.WriteLine(args.Name); return null; } Hope I wasnt too fuzzy =) Thx

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  • MVC Entity Framework: Cannot open user default database. Login failed.

    - by Michael
    This type of stuff drives me nuts. I'm having trouble finding the exact issue that I'm having, maybe I just don't know the terminology. Anyway, I had a working website using MVC and Entity Framework, but then I coded an error in a partial view page (ascx). Then all of a sudden I started to get this message. Cannot open user default database. Login failed. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM' I've found plenty of suggestions about opening SQL Server Management Studio, Double Click on Security, Double Click on Logins, Double click on NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM and then double click on User Mapping. In this view I'm suppose to check the box for my database so that this user is mapped to this login. However, since I created my database in Visio Studio 2008 as part of my solution, it doesn't show up to allow me to click on it. So what do I do now? What drives me nuts is that everything was working fine. I was using my computer name to access the website and everything was working fine until the coding error. I've fix the error but still getting the error. I should also mention that this error started yesterday too around the same time but later cleared itself up. If I use localhost to access the site, it works just fine. IIS7 configuration for my website: Application Pool = DefaultAppPool Physical Path Credentials Logon = ClearText With in connection strings. I do see the one for my database in this solution. Entry Type is local metadata=res://*/Models.DataModel.csdl|res://*/Models.DataModel.ssdl|res://*/Models.DataModel.msl; provider=System.Data.SqlClient; provider connection string="Data Source=.\SQLEXPRESS;AttachDbFilename=|DataDirectory|\FFBall.mdf;Integrated Security=True;User Instance=True;MultipleActiveResultSets=True" And somewhere I remember changing the identity from Network Service to LocalSystem. Because when I first stared I was getting this same message, but I changed this value and it started working. I saw that suggested somewhere too but I do not recall. Wait I remember now, I believe in IIS7, under Application Pools, DefaultAppPool identity is set to LocalSystem. Additional things I've tried. Restart the computer Recycle the application pool. Antivirus isn't running. Any help would be appreciated. Thank you in advance.

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  • How to obtain the first cluster of the directory's data in FAT using C# (or at least C++) and Win32A

    - by DarkWalker
    So I have a FAT drive, lets say H: and a directory 'work' (full path 'H:\work'). I need to get the NUMBER of the first cluster of that directory. The number of the first cluster is 2-bytes value, that is stored in the 26th and 27th bytes of the folder enty (wich is 32 bytes). Lets say I am doing it with file, NOT a directory. I can use code like this: static public string GetDirectoryPtr(string dir) { IntPtr ptr = CreateFile(@"H:\Work\dover.docx", GENERIC_READ, FILE_SHARE_READ | FILE_SHARE_WRITE, IntPtr.Zero, OPEN_EXISTING, 0,//FILE_FLAG_BACKUP_SEMANTICS, IntPtr.Zero); try { const uint bytesToRead = 2; byte[] readbuffer = new byte[bytesToRead]; if (ptr.ToInt32() == -1) return String.Format("Error: cannot open direcotory {0}", dir); if (SetFilePointer(ptr, 26, 0, 0) == -1) return String.Format("Error: unable to set file pointer on file {0}", ptr); uint read = 0; // real count of read bytes if (!ReadFile(ptr, readbuffer, bytesToRead, out read, 0)) return String.Format("cant read from file {0}. Error #{1}", ptr, Marshal.GetLastWin32Error()); int result = readbuffer[0] + 16 * 16 * readbuffer[1]; return result.ToString();//ASCIIEncoding.ASCII.GetString(readbuffer); } finally { CloseHandle(ptr); } } And it will return some number, like 19 (quite real to me, this is the only file on the disk). But I DONT need a file, I need a folder. So I am puttin FILE_FLAG_BACKUP_SEMANTICS param for CreateFile call... and dont know what to do next =) msdn is very clear on this issue http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa365258(v=VS.85).aspx It sounds to me like: "There is no way you can get a number of the folder's first cluster". The most desperate thing is that my tutor said smth like "You are going to obtain this or you wont pass this course". The true reason why he is so sure this is possible is because for 10 years (or may be more) he recieved the folder's first cluster number as a HASH of the folder's addres (and I was stupid enough to point this to him, so now I cant do it the same way) PS: This is the most spupid task I have ever had!!! This value is not really used anythere in program, it is only fcking pointless integer.

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  • NSArraycontroller selectionIndexes bindings

    - by Michael Scherbaum
    Hi all, I have the following set-up: A Window that has a splitView in which I display I NSCollectionView in the left view and a detailView in the right view. Both views are set-up in separate xibs. Furthermore I have a Datacontroller (of class NSArrayController) that manages a mutable Array of NSMutableDictionaries (moviesForChoice). The dataController is set-up as application delegate. The movie objects in the array have properties like (name, plot, genre etc.) so far so good... In the xib for the NScollectionview I bound a NSArraycontroller content property to my datacontroller via Application.delegate.moviesForChoice The collectionView accesses the arraycontroller.arrrangedObjects and arraycontroller.selectionIndexes. This works fine the contents are displayed and the selection works fine in the collectionview (my collectionviewItem renders a selection color) In the xib for the detailView I want to display information for the selected object in the collectionview. Therefore I also added an arraycontroller to the xib, bound the content aray to Application.delegate.moviesForChoice and bound the NSTextfields in the view to e.g. arraycontroller.selection.name Here comes my issue: everytime I open the window with the two xibs, my collectionview displays all movies that are for choice correctly, and the detailview displays the information for the 1st object in my collectionview. Whenever I click on a different movie in the collectionView the res. item renders a selection color, but the detailView doesn't update. My understanding of it would be that the DataController is not informed about updates in the selectionIndexes and can therefore not trigger an update in the detailView. Correct me if I'm wrong... To remedy this I tried to bind the selectionIndexes property of the arraycontroller in the collectionView xib to Application.delegate.moviesForChoice.selecionIndexes but this failed with: addObserver:forKeyPath:options:context:] is not supported. Key path: selectionIndexes I could imagine that this means that the datacontroller is not KVO compliant for my Array moviesForChoice, but I implemented the following methods for it: -(void)insertObject:(NSDictionary *)dict inMoviesForChoiceAtIndex:(NSUInteger)index { [moviesForChoice insertObject:dict atIndex:index]; } -(void)removeObjectFromMoviesForChoiceAtIndex:(NSUInteger)index { [moviesForChoice removeObjectAtIndex:index]; } -(void)setMoviesForChoice:(NSMutableArray *)a { moviesForChoice = a; } -(NSArray*)moviesForChoice { return moviesForChoice; } -(NSUInteger)countOfMoviesForChoice { return [moviesForChoice count]; } - (void)addMovieForChoiceObject:(Movie *)anObject { [moviesForChoice addObject:anObject]; } So where am I wrong? How do I correctly bind to the selectionIndexes? You help is much appreciated! M

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  • jar dependencies in android- no class definition found exception

    - by Dave.B
    I'm trying to use the gdata java client library on android and have managed a decent hack to get it working. However because the jar for gdata had some package discrepancies with android I had to import the source into my project. This source is dependent on the JavaMail API and the JavaBeans Activation Framework as specified here. My issue is that the JavaMail jar throws a class definition not found when seeking a class which is in the Activation Framework jar. A stack trace is listed below. I am working in Eclipse and have both jars in a lib folder and added to my build path. I'm not very experienced dealing with jars in a situation like this so any help or insight would be appreciated. 03-29 09:55:26.204: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(331): Uncaught handler: thread AsyncTask #3 exiting due to uncaught exception 03-29 09:55:26.215: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(331): java.lang.RuntimeException: An error occured while executing doInBackground() 03-29 09:55:26.215: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(331): at android.os.AsyncTask$3.done(AsyncTask.java:200) 03-29 09:55:26.215: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(331): at java.util.concurrent.FutureTask$Sync.innerSetException(FutureTask.java:273) 03-29 09:55:26.215: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(331): at java.util.concurrent.FutureTask.setException(FutureTask.java:124) 03-29 09:55:26.215: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(331): at java.util.concurrent.FutureTask$Sync.innerRun(FutureTask.java:307) 03-29 09:55:26.215: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(331): at java.util.concurrent.FutureTask.run(FutureTask.java:137) 03-29 09:55:26.215: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(331): at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor.runWorker(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:1068) 03-29 09:55:26.215: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(331): at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor$Worker.run(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:561) 03-29 09:55:26.215: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(331): at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:1096) 03-29 09:55:26.215: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(331): Caused by: java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: javax.activation.DataHandler 03-29 09:55:26.215: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(331): at javax.mail.internet.MimeBodyPart.setContent(MimeBodyPart.java:684) 03-29 09:55:26.215: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(331): at com.google.gdata.data.media.MediaBodyPart.<init>(MediaBodyPart.java:95) 03-29 09:55:26.215: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(331): at com.google.gdata.data.media.MediaMultipart.<init>(MediaMultipart.java:126) 03-29 09:55:26.215: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(331): at com.google.gdata.client.media.MediaService.insert(MediaService.java:382) 03-29 09:55:26.215: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(331): at android.os.AsyncTask$2.call(AsyncTask.java:185) 03-29 09:55:26.215: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(331): at java.util.concurrent.FutureTask$Sync.innerRun(FutureTask.java:305)

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  • Change the Session Variable Output

    - by user567230
    Hello I am using Dreamweaver CS5 with Coldfusion 9 to build a dynamic website. I have a MS Access Database that stores login information which includes ID, FullName, FirstName, LastName, Username, Pawword, AcessLevels. My question is this: I currently have session variable to track the Username when it is entered into the login page. However I would like to use that Username to pull the User's FullName to display throughout the web pages and use for querying data. How do I change the session variable to read that when they are not entering their FullName on the login page but only Username and password. I have listed my login information code below if there is any additional information needed please let me know. This is the path for which the FullName values reside DataSource "Access" Table "Logininfo" Field "FullName" I want the FullName to be unique based on the Username submitted from the Login page. I apologize in advance for any rookie mistake I may have made I am new to this but learning fast! Ha. <cfif IsDefined("FORM.username")> <cfset MM_redirectLoginSuccess="members_page.cfm"> <cfset MM_redirectLoginFailed="sorry.cfm"> <cfquery name="MM_rsUser" datasource="Access"> SELECT FullName, Username,Password,AccessLevels FROM Logininfo WHERE Username=<cfqueryparam value="#FORM.username#" cfsqltype="cf_sql_clob" maxlength="50"> AND Password=<cfqueryparam value="#FORM.password#" cfsqltype="cf_sql_clob" maxlength="50"> </cfquery> <cfif MM_rsUser.RecordCount NEQ 0> <cftry> <cflock scope="Session" timeout="30" type="Exclusive"> <cfset Session.MM_Username=FORM.username> <cfset Session.MM_UserAuthorization=MM_rsUser.AccessLevels[1]> </cflock> <cfif IsDefined("URL.accessdenied") AND false> <cfset MM_redirectLoginSuccess=URL.accessdenied> </cfif> <cflocation url="#MM_redirectLoginSuccess#" addtoken="no"> <cfcatch type="Lock"> <!--- code for handling timeout of cflock ---> </cfcatch> </cftry> </cfif> <cflocation url="#MM_redirectLoginFailed#" addtoken="no"> <cfelse> <cfset MM_LoginAction=CGI.SCRIPT_NAME> <cfif CGI.QUERY_STRING NEQ ""> <cfset MM_LoginAction=MM_LoginAction & "?" & XMLFormat(CGI.QUERY_STRING)> </cfif> </cfif>

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  • Spring 3 MVC - Form Failure Causes Exception When Reloading JSP

    - by jboyd
    Using Spring 3 MVC, please bear with the long code example, it's quite simple, but I want to make sure all relevant information is posted. Basically here is the use case: There is a registration page, a user can login, OR fill out a registration form. The login form is a simple HTML form, the registration form is a more complicated, Spring bound form that uses a RegistrationFormData bean. Here is the relevant code: UserController.java ... @RequestMapping(value = "/login", method = RequestMethod.GET) public String login(Model model) { model.addAttribute("registrationInfo", new ProfileAdminFormData()); return "login"; } ... @RequestMapping(value = "/login.do", method = RequestMethod.POST) public String doLogin( @RequestParam(value = "userName") String userName, @RequestParam(value = "password") String password, Model model) { logger.info("login.do : userName=" + userName + ", password=" + password); try { getUser().login(userName, password); } catch (UserNotFoundException ex) { logger.error(ex); model.addAttribute("loginError", ex.getWebViewableErrorMessage()); return "login"; } return "redirect:/"; } ... @RequestMapping(value = "/register.do") public String register( @ModelAttribute(value = "registrationInfo") ProfileAdminFormData profileAdminFormData, BindingResult result, Model model) { //todo: redirect if (new RegistrationValidator(profileAdminFormData, result).validate()) { try { User().register(profileAdminFormData); return "index"; } catch (UserException ex) { logger.error(ex); model.addAttribute("registrationErrorMessage", ex.getWebViewableErrorMessage()); return "login"; } } return "login"; } and the JSP: ... <form:form commandName="registrationInfo" action="register.do"> ... So the problem here is that when login fails I get an exception because there is no bean "registrationInfo" in the model attributes. What I need is that regardless of the path through this controller that the "registrationInfo" bean is not null, that way if login fails, as opposed to registration, that bean is still in the model. As you can see I create the registrationInfo object explicitly in my controller in the method bound to "/login", which is what I thought was going to be kind of a setup method" Something doesn't feel right about the "/login" method which sets up the page, but I needed to that in order to get the page to render at all without throwing an exception because there is no "registrationInfo" model attribute, as needed by the form in the JSP

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  • c++ class member functions instatiated by traits

    - by Jive Dadson
    I am reluctant to say I can't figure this out, but I can't figure this out. I've googled and searched stackoverflow, and come up empty. The abstract, and possibly overly vague form of the question is, how can I use the traits-pattern to instantiate non-virtual member functions? The question came up while modernizing a set of multivariate function optimizers that I wrote more than 10 years ago. The optimizers all operate by selecting a straight-line path through the parameter space away from the current best point (the "update"), then finding a better point on that line (the "line search"), then testing for the "done" condition, and if not done, iterating. There are different methods for doing the update, the line-search, and conceivably for the done test, and other things. Mix and match. Different update formulae require different state-variable data. For example, the LMQN update requires a vector, and the BFGS update requires a matrix. If evaluating gradients is cheap, the line-search should do so. If not, it should use function evaluations only. Some methods require more accurate line-searches than others. Those are just some examples. The original version instantiates several of the combinations by means of virtual functions. Some traits are selected by setting mode bits that are tested at runtime. Yuck. It would be trivial to define the traits with #define's and the member functions with #ifdef's and macros. But that's so twenty years ago. It bugs me that I cannot figure out a whiz-bang modern way. If there were only one trait that varied, I could use the curiously recurring template pattern. But I see no way to extend that to arbitrary combinations of traits. I tried doing it using boost::enable_if, etc.. The specialized state info was easy. I managed to get the functions done, but only by resorting to non-friend external functions that have the this-pointer as a parameter. I never even figured out how to make the functions friends, much less member functions. The compiler (vc++ 2008) always complained that things didn't match. I would yell, "SFINAE, you moron!" but the moron is probably me. Perhaps tag-dispatch is the key. I haven't gotten very deeply into that. Surely it's possible, right? If so, what is best practice?

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  • Solving a cyclical dependency in Ninject (Compact Framework)

    - by Alex
    I'm trying to use Ninject for dependency injection in my MVP application. However, I have a problem because I have two types that depend on each other, thus creating a cyclic dependency. At first, I understand that it was a problem, because I had both types require each other in their constructors. Therefore, I moved one of the dependencies to a property injection instead, but I'm still getting the error message. What am I doing wrong? This is the presenter: public class LoginPresenter : Presenter<ILoginView>, ILoginPresenter { public LoginPresenter( ILoginView view ) : base( view ) { } } and this is the view: public partial class LoginForm : Form, ILoginView { [Inject] public ILoginPresenter Presenter { private get; set; } public LoginForm() { InitializeComponent(); } } And here's the code that causes the exception: static class Program { /// <summary> /// The main entry point for the application. /// </summary> [MTAThread] static void Main() { // Show the login form Views.LoginForm loginForm = Kernel.Get<Views.Interfaces.ILoginView>() as Views.LoginForm; Application.Run( loginForm ); } } The exception happens on the line with the Kernel.Get<>() call. Here it is: Error activating ILoginPresenter using binding from ILoginPresenter to LoginPresenter A cyclical dependency was detected between the constructors of two services. Activation path: 4) Injection of dependency ILoginPresenter into property Presenter of type LoginForm 3) Injection of dependency ILoginView into parameter view of constructor of type LoginPresenter 2) Injection of dependency ILoginPresenter into property Presenter of type LoginForm 1) Request for ILoginView Suggestions: 1) Ensure that you have not declared a dependency for ILoginPresenter on any implementations of the service. 2) Consider combining the services into a single one to remove the cycle. 3) Use property injection instead of constructor injection, and implement IInitializable if you need initialization logic to be run after property values have been injected. Why doesn't Ninject understand that since one is constructor injection and the other is property injection, this can work just fine? I even read somewhere looking for the solution to this problem that Ninject supposedly gets this right as long as the cyclic dependency isn't both in the constructors. Apparently not, though. Any help resolving this would be much appreciated.

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  • importing modules in app engine

    - by tanky
    Ive asked this before, but it seems i wasnt clear/detailed enough and after a week of trying im still struggling so i will try again. i am trying to use, oauth2 and ply on app engine. i have tried copying their directories into my app engine project directory (in the form ply-3.4 or brosner-python-oauth2-82a05f9) and i have tried copying the specific sub directory contained within the aforemention one. (ply or oauth2) i have tried saying import oauth2, from brosner-oauth2_python-82a05f9 import oauth and other variations on the theme, but i still cant get it to work nothing has worked. i have tried including them in app.yaml, but that seemed to create an even bigger error as my entire project wouldnt even run when i tried that. and now i have run out of things to try. the error log i am getting is as follows. INFO 2012-10-20 22:33:29,358 dev_appserver.py:2884] "GET / HTTP/1.1" 500 - WARNING 2012-10-20 22:33:58,453 py_zipimport.py:139] Can't open zipfile C:\Python27\lib\site-packages\oauth2-1.0.2-py2.7.egg: IOError: [Errno 13] file not accessible: 'C:\Python27\lib\site-packages\oauth2-1.0.2-py2.7.egg' WARNING 2012-10-20 22:33:58,453 py_zipimport.py:139] Can't open zipfile C:\Python27\lib\site-packages\ply-3.4-py2.7.egg: IOError: [Errno 13] file not accessible: 'C:\Python27\lib\site-packages\ply-3.4-py2.7.egg' WARNING 2012-10-20 22:33:58,453 py_zipimport.py:139] Can't open zipfile C:\Python27\lib\site-packages\tweepy-1.11-py2.7.egg: IOError: [Errno 13] file not accessible: 'C:\Python27\lib\site-packages\tweepy-1.11-py2.7.egg' ERROR 2012-10-20 22:34:00,015 wsgi.py:189] Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\runtime\wsgi.py", line 187, in Handle handler = _config_handle.add_wsgi_middleware(self._LoadHandler()) File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\runtime\wsgi.py", line 225, in _LoadHandler handler = import(path[0]) File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\dev_appserver_import_hook.py", line 676, in Decorate return func(self, *args, **kwargs) File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\dev_appserver_import_hook.py", line 1850, in load_module return self.FindAndLoadModule(submodule, fullname, search_path) File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\dev_appserver_import_hook.py", line 676, in Decorate return func(self, *args, **kwargs) File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\dev_appserver_import_hook.py", line 1722, in FindAndLoadModule description) File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\dev_appserver_import_hook.py", line 676, in Decorate return func(self, *args, **kwargs) File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\dev_appserver_import_hook.py", line 1665, in LoadModuleRestricted description) File "C:\Documents and Settings\ladds\My Documents\udacity\sigh\main.py", line 3, in import ply ImportError: No module named ply INFO 2012-10-20 22:34:00,030 dev_appserver.py:2884] "GET / HTTP/1.1" 500 - thanks for any help.

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  • Blending pixels from Two Bitmaps

    - by MarkPowell
    I'm beating my head against a wall here, and I'm fairly certain I'm doing something stupid, so time to make my stupidity public. I'm trying to take two images, blend them together into a third image using standard blending algorithms (Hardlight, softlight, overlay, multiply, etc). Because Android does not have such blend properties build in, I've gone down the path of taking each pixel and combine them using an algorithm. However, the results are garbage. Any help would be appreciated. Below is the code, which I've tried to strip out all the "junk", but some may have made it through. I'll clean it up if something isn't clear. Bitmap src = BitmapFactory.decodeResource(getResources(), R.drawable.base, options); Bitmap mutableBitmap = src.copy(Bitmap.Config.RGB_565, true); int imageId = getResources().getIdentifier("drawable/" + filter, null, getPackageName()); Bitmap filterBitmap = BitmapFactory.decodeResource(getResources(), imageId, options); float scaleWidth = ((float) mutableBitmap.getWidth()) / filterBitmap.getWidth(); float scaleHeight = ((float) mutableBitmap.getHeight()) / filterBitmap.getHeight(); IntBuffer buffSrc = IntBuffer.allocate(src.getWidth() * src.getHeight()); mutableBitmap.copyPixelsToBuffer(buffSrc); buffSrc.rewind(); IntBuffer buffFilter = IntBuffer.allocate(resizedFilterBitmap.getWidth() * resizedFilterBitmap.getHeight()); resizedFilterBitmap.copyPixelsToBuffer(buffFilter); buffFilter.rewind(); IntBuffer buffOut = IntBuffer.allocate(src.getWidth() * src.getHeight()); buffOut.rewind(); while (buffOut.position() < buffOut.limit()) { int filterInt = buffFilter.get(); int srcInt = buffSrc.get(); int alphaValueFilter = Color.alpha(filterInt); int redValueFilter = Color.red(filterInt); int greenValueFilter = Color.green(filterInt); int blueValueFilter = Color.blue(filterInt); int alphaValueSrc = Color.alpha(srcInt); int redValueSrc = Color.red(srcInt); int greenValueSrc = Color.green(srcInt); int blueValueSrc = Color.blue(srcInt); int alphaValueFinal = convert(alphaValueFilter, alphaValueSrc); int redValueFinal = convert(redValueFilter, redValueSrc); int greenValueFinal = convert(greenValueFilter, greenValueSrc); int blueValueFinal = convert(blueValueFilter, blueValueSrc); int pixel = Color.argb(alphaValueFinal, redValueFinal, greenValueFinal, blueValueFinal); buffOut.put(pixel); } buffOut.rewind(); mutableBitmap.copyPixelsFromBuffer(buffOut); BitmapDrawable drawable = new BitmapDrawable(getResources(), mutableBitmap); imageView.setImageDrawable(drawable); } int convert (int in1, int in2) { //simple multiply for example return in1 * in2 / 255; }

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  • Why does WebSharingAppDemo-CEProviderEndToEnd sample still need a client db connection after scope c

    - by Don
    I'm researching a way to build an n-tierd sync solution. From the WebSharingAppDemo-CEProviderEndToEnd sample it seems almost feasable however for some reason, the app will only sync if the client has a live SQL db connection. Can some one explain what I'm missing and how to sync without exposing SQL to the internet? The problem I'm experiencing is that when I provide a Relational sync provider that has an open SQL connection from the client, then it works fine but when I provide a Relational sync provider that has a closed but configured connection string, as in the example, I get an error from the WCF stating that the server did not receive the batch file. So what am I doing wrong? SqlConnectionStringBuilder builder = new SqlConnectionStringBuilder(); builder.DataSource = hostName; builder.IntegratedSecurity = true; builder.InitialCatalog = "mydbname"; builder.ConnectTimeout = 1; provider.Connection = new SqlConnection(builder.ToString()); // provider.Connection.Open(); **** un-commenting this causes the code to work** //create anew scope description and add the appropriate tables to this scope DbSyncScopeDescription scopeDesc = new DbSyncScopeDescription(SyncUtils.ScopeName); //class to be used to provision the scope defined above SqlSyncScopeProvisioning serverConfig = new SqlSyncScopeProvisioning(); .... The error I get occurs in this part of the WCF code: public SyncSessionStatistics ApplyChanges(ConflictResolutionPolicy resolutionPolicy, ChangeBatch sourceChanges, object changeData) { Log("ProcessChangeBatch: {0}", this.peerProvider.Connection.ConnectionString); DbSyncContext dataRetriever = changeData as DbSyncContext; if (dataRetriever != null && dataRetriever.IsDataBatched) { string remotePeerId = dataRetriever.MadeWithKnowledge.ReplicaId.ToString(); //Data is batched. The client should have uploaded this file to us prior to calling ApplyChanges. //So look for it. //The Id would be the DbSyncContext.BatchFileName which is just the batch file name without the complete path string localBatchFileName = null; if (!this.batchIdToFileMapper.TryGetValue(dataRetriever.BatchFileName, out localBatchFileName)) { //Service has not received this file. Throw exception throw new FaultException<WebSyncFaultException>(new WebSyncFaultException("No batch file uploaded for id " + dataRetriever.BatchFileName, null)); } dataRetriever.BatchFileName = localBatchFileName; } Any ideas?

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  • How can I connect to MSMQ over a workgroup?

    - by cyclotis04
    I'm writing a simple console client-server app using MSMQ. I'm attempting to run it over the workgroup we have set up. They run just fine when run on the same computer, but I can't get them to connect over the network. I've tried adding Direct=, OS:, and a bunch of combinations of other prefaces, but I'm running out of ideas, and obviously don't know the right way to do it. My queue's don't have GUIDs, which is also slightly confusing. Whenever I attempt to connect to a remote machine, I get an invalid queue name message. What do I have to do to make this work? Server: class Program { static string _queue = @"\Private$\qim"; static MessageQueue _mq; static readonly object _mqLock = new object(); static void Main(string[] args) { _queue = Dns.GetHostName() + _queue; lock (_mqLock) { if (!MessageQueue.Exists(_queue)) _mq = MessageQueue.Create(_queue); else _mq = new MessageQueue(_queue); } Console.Write("Starting server at {0}:\n\n", _mq.Path); _mq.Formatter = new BinaryMessageFormatter(); _mq.BeginReceive(new TimeSpan(0, 1, 0), new object(), OnReceive); while (Console.ReadKey().Key != ConsoleKey.Escape) { } _mq.Close(); } static void OnReceive(IAsyncResult result) { Message msg; lock (_mqLock) { try { msg = _mq.EndReceive(result); Console.Write(msg.Body); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.Write("\n" + ex.Message + "\n"); } } _mq.BeginReceive(new TimeSpan(0, 1, 0), new object(), OnReceive); } } Client: class Program { static MessageQueue _mq; static void Main(string[] args) { string queue; while (_mq == null) { Console.Write("Enter the queue name:\n"); queue = Console.ReadLine(); //queue += @"\Private$\qim"; try { if (MessageQueue.Exists(queue)) _mq = new MessageQueue(queue); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.Write("\n" + ex.Message + "\n"); _mq = null; } } Console.Write("Connected. Begin typing.\n\n"); _mq.Formatter = new BinaryMessageFormatter(); ConsoleKeyInfo key = new ConsoleKeyInfo(); while (key.Key != ConsoleKey.Escape) { key = Console.ReadKey(); _mq.Send(key.KeyChar.ToString()); } } }

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