Search Results

Search found 34668 results on 1387 pages for 'return'.

Page 549/1387 | < Previous Page | 545 546 547 548 549 550 551 552 553 554 555 556  | Next Page >

  • WCF consumed as WebService adds a boolean parameter?

    - by Martín Marconcini
    I've created the default WCF Service in VS2008. It's called "Service1" public class Service1 : IService1 { public string GetData( int value ) { return string.Format("You entered: {0}", value); } public CompositeType GetDataUsingDataContract( CompositeType composite ) { if ( composite.BoolValue ) { composite.StringValue += "Suffix"; } return composite; } } It works fine, the interface is IService1: [ServiceContract] public interface IService1 { [OperationContract] string GetData( int value ); [OperationContract] CompositeType GetDataUsingDataContract( CompositeType composite ); // TODO: Add your service operations here } This is all by default; Visual Studio 2008 created all this. I then created a simple Winforms app to "test" this. I added the Service Reference to my the above mentioned service and it all works. I can instanciate and call myservice1.GetData(100); and I get the result. But I was told that this service will have to be consumed by a Winforms .NET 2.0 app via Web Services, so I proceeded to add the reference to a new Winforms .NET 2.0 application created from scratch (only one winform called form1). This time, when adding the "web reference", it added the typical "localhost" one belonging to webservices; the wizard saw the WCF Service (running on background) and added it. When I tried to consume this, I found out that the GetData(int) method, was now GetData(int, bool). Here's the code private void button1_Click( object sender, EventArgs e ) { localhost.Service1 s1 = new WindowsFormsApplication2.localhost.Service1(); Console.WriteLine(s1.GetData(100, false)); } Notice the false in the GetData call? I don't know what that parameter is or where did that come from, it is called "bool valueSpecified". Does anybody know where this is coming from? Anything else I should do to consume a WCF Service as a WebService from .NET 2.0? (winforms).

    Read the article

  • listener not being called

    - by deb
    I have a table with a button. When the button is clicked I call Modalbox.show (http://okonet.ru/projects/modalbox/) that displays a little form with another button. When the user clicks this second button, a listener is attached to an iframe in the form and the form is submitted to the server. The server does something then it should return back to the form and execute the listener function. This works fine on IE but not in Firefox (on Firefox it never comes back). Here it is the javascript function that is called when the user presses the second button (in the Modalbox) function attachFile() { //window.frames['upload_iframe'].name='upload_iframe'; iframe = document.getElementById('upload_iframe'); if (iframe.addEventListener)//FF iframe.addEventListener("load", iframeEventHandler, false); if (iframe.attachEvent)//IE iframe.attachEvent("onload", iframeEventHandler); // Set properties of form... form = document.getElementById('attchForm'); form.setAttribute("target","upload_iframe"); form.setAttribute("method","post"); form.setAttribute("enctype","multipart/form-data"); form.setAttribute("encoding","multipart/form-data"); // Submit the form... form.submit(); } I checked that it is adding the listener but somehow does not return to it. Any hints? Thanks deb

    Read the article

  • template specialization for static member functions; howto?

    - by Rolle
    I am trying to implement a template function with handles void differently using template specialization. The following code gives me an "Explicit specialization in non-namespace scope" in gcc: template <typename T> static T safeGuiCall(boost::function<T ()> _f) { if (_f.empty()) throw GuiException("Function pointer empty"); { ThreadGuard g; T ret = _f(); return ret; } } // template specialization for functions wit no return value template <> static void safeGuiCall<void>(boost::function<void ()> _f) { if (_f.empty()) throw GuiException("Function pointer empty"); { ThreadGuard g; _f(); } } I have tried moving it out of the class (the class is not templated) and into the namespace but then I get the error "Explicit specialization cannot have a storage class". I have read many discussions about this, but people don't seem to agree how to specialize function templates. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • getClientRects javascript method supported on iPhone?

    - by genericdan
    Trying to find the top-most visible element in a UIWebView. I am using a JS method to do this, which works great in Safari, but never executes past the getClientRects method when executed from a UIWebView. The elements I'm interested are all of class="h". Here's the javascript which is called from [webView stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString:@"findTopElement()"]; Javascript: function findTopElement() { var pars = document.getElementsByClassName("h"); alert("findingTopElement: num pars:" + pars.length); for (var i = 0; i < pars.length; i++) { var para = pars[i]; alert("checking par " + para.id); var rects = para.getClientRects(); alert("checking rects " + rects.length); for (var j = 0; j < rects.length; j++) { var r = rects[j]; if (r.top > 0 && r.bottom > 0) { alert("success: " + para.id); return para.id; } } } return -1; } Is it possible element getClientRects function is not supported in a UIWebView?

    Read the article

  • Two references to the same domain/entity model

    - by Sbossb
    Problem I want to save the attributes of a model that have changed when a user edits them. Here's what I want to do ... Retrieve edited view model Get domain model and map back updated value Call the update method on repository Get the "old" domain model and compare values of the fields Store the changed values (in JSON) into a table However I am having trouble with step number 4. It seems that the Entity Framework doesn't want to hit the database again to get the model with the old values. It just returns the same entity I have. Attempted Solutions I have tried using the Find() and the SingleOrDefault() methods, but they just return the model I currently have. Example Code private string ArchiveChanges(T updatedEntity) { //Here is the problem! //oldEntity is the same as updatedEntity T oldEntity = DbSet.SingleOrDefault(x => x.ID == updatedEntity.ID); Dictionary<string, object> changed = new Dictionary<string, object>(); foreach (var propertyInfo in typeof(T).GetProperties()) { var property = typeof(T).GetProperty(propertyInfo.Name); //Get the old value and the new value from the models var newValue = property.GetValue(updatedEntity, null); var oldValue = property.GetValue(oldEntity, null); //Check to see if the values are equal if (!object.Equals(newValue, oldValue)) { //Values have changed ... log it changed.Add(propertyInfo.Name, newValue); } } var ser = new System.Web.Script.Serialization.JavaScriptSerializer(); return ser.Serialize(changed); } public override void Update(T entityToUpdate) { //Do something with this string json = ArchiveChanges(entityToUpdate); entityToUpdate.AuditInfo.Updated = DateTime.Now; entityToUpdate.AuditInfo.UpdatedBy = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name; base.Update(entityToUpdate); }

    Read the article

  • .htaccess trickery multi-language website

    - by user1658741
    I have a website right now that uses two languages (french and english) The way it works right now is that if someone goes to mysite.com/folder/file.php for example, file.php is simply a script that figures out which language to use, get's it's own path and filename(file.php) and serves up mysite.com/en/folder/file.php (if the language is english). However what shows up in the URL is still mysite.com/folder/file.php. For any folder and any file the same script is used. If I want to add a new file I have to add the file to the folder the user types into the browser as well to the en and fr folders. Could I do some .htaccess trickery so that whatever URL is typed, one .php file gets open that checks the language and what folder/file was requested and then serves up the correct language file? here's the php file that is served up for any files in the URL. <?php // Get current document path which is mirrored in the language folders $docpath = $_SERVER['PHP_SELF']; // Get current document name (Used when switching languages so that the same current page is shown when language is changed) $docname = GetDocName(); //call up lang.php which handles display of appropriate language webpage. //lang.php uses $docpath and $docname to give out the proper $langfile. //$docpath/$docname is mirrored in the /lang/en and /lang/fr folders $langfile = GetDocRoot()."/lang/lang.php"; include("$langfile"); //Call up the proper language file to display function GetDocRoot() { $temp = getenv("SCRIPT_NAME"); $localpath=realpath(basename(getenv("SCRIPT_NAME"))); $localpath=str_replace("\\","/",$localpath); $docroot=substr($localpath,0, strpos($localpath,$temp)); return $docroot; } function GetDocName() { $currentFile = $_SERVER["SCRIPT_NAME"]; $parts = Explode('/', $currentFile); $dn = $parts[count($parts) - 1]; return $dn; } ?>

    Read the article

  • SQL - Query range between two dates (NON-VBA)

    - by Mohgeroth
    I see various topics on this around stack overflow but none that fit the contect of MS-Access... Given a starting date and an ending date, is there a way through SQL to return records for each given month within the time frame? EG: Between #1/1/2010# and #12/31/2010# results #1/4/2010# #1/11/2010# ..... #12/27/2010# Restrictions MS-Access 2003 :No Case/Loops inside the SQL (IIF statements are good) This is a view only, NO VBA will be used since the data will not be tampered with. Disconnected recordset is my last option. I would prefer to find out theres some way to call your customized functions in the SQL to help return these values... some class stored on a global scope while you iterate through this date range maybe... Is this possible? I see many no's, but if there was a way to pass a value into a function I could find a way to make this work. Sad that I don't have a way to simulate a stored procedure without using a d/c recordset, at least that I know of... any experts out there know a way?

    Read the article

  • Asynchronous Controller is blocking requests in ASP.NET MVC through jQuery

    - by Jason
    I have just started using the AsyncController in my project to take care of some long-running reports. Seemed ideal at the time since I could kick off the report and then perform a few other actions while waiting for it to come back and populate elements on the screen. My controller looks a bit like this. I tried to use a thread to perform the long task which I'd hoped would free up the controller to take more requests: public class ReportsController : AsyncController { public void LongRunningActionAsync() { AsyncManager.OutstandingOperations.Increment(); var newThread = new Thread(LongTask); newThread.Start(); } private void LongTask() { // Do something that takes a really long time //....... AsyncManager.OutstandingOperations.Decrement(); } public ActionResult LongRunningActionCompleted(string message) { // Set some data up on the view or something... return View(); } public JsonResult AnotherControllerAction() { // Do a quick task... return Json("..."); } } But what I am finding is that when I call LongRunningAction using the jQuery ajax request, any further requests I make after that back up behind it and are not processed until LongRunningAction completes. For example, call LongRunningAction which takes 10 seconds and then call AnotherControllerAction which is less than a second. AnotherControllerAction simply waits until LongRunningAction completes before returning a result. I've also checked the jQuery code, but this still happens if I specifically set "async: true": $.ajax({ async: true, type: "POST", url: "/Reports.aspx/LongRunningAction", dataType: "html", success: function(data, textStatus, XMLHttpRequest) { // ... }, error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { // ... } }); At the moment I just have to assume that I'm using it incorrectly, but I'm hoping one of you guys can clear my mental block!

    Read the article

  • Deleting first and last element of a linked list in C

    - by LuckySlevin
    struct person { int age; char name[100]; struct person *next; }; void delfirst(struct person **p)// For deleting the beginning { struct person *tmp,*m; m = (*p); tmp = (*p)->next; free(m); return; } void delend(struct person **p)// For deleting the end { struct person *tmp,*m; tmp=*p; while(tmp->next!=NULL) { tmp=tmp->next; } m->next=tmp; free(tmp); m->next = NULL; return; } I'm looking for two seperate functions to delete the first and last elements of a linked list. Here is what i tried. What do you suggest? Especially deleting first is so problematic for me.

    Read the article

  • Dynamic Array of Objects Sans Vector Class

    - by Connor Black
    I am doing a homework assignment for my summer OO class and we need to write two classes. One is called Sale and the other is called Register. I've written my Sale class; here's the .h file: enum ItemType {BOOK, DVD, SOFTWARE, CREDIT}; class Sale { public: Sale(); // default constructor, // sets numerical member data to 0 void MakeSale(ItemType x, double amt); ItemType Item(); // Returns the type of item in the sale double Price(); // Returns the price of the sale double Tax(); // Returns the amount of tax on the sale double Total(); // Returns the total price of the sale void Display(); // outputs sale info private: double price; // price of item or amount of credit double tax; // amount of sales tax double total; // final price once tax is added in. ItemType item; // transaction type }; For the Register class we need to include a dynamic array of Sale objects in our member data. We cannot use the vector class. How is this done? Here's my 'Register' '.h' class Register{ public: Register(int ident, int amount); ~Register(); int GetID(){return identification;} int GetAmount(){return amountMoney;} void RingUpSale(ItemType item, int basePrice); void ShowLast(); void ShowAll(); void Cancel(); int SalesTax(int n); private: int identification; int amountMoney; };

    Read the article

  • Random Alpha numeric generator

    - by AAA
    Hi, I want to give our users in the database a unique alpha-numeric id. I am using the code below, will this always generate a unique id? Below is the old and updated version of the code: New php: // Generate Guid function NewGuid() { $s = strtoupper(md5(uniqid("something",true))); $guidText = substr($s,0,8) . '-' . substr($s,8,4) . '-' . substr($s,12,4). '-' . substr($s,16,4). '-' . substr($s,20); return $guidText; } // End Generate Guid $Guid = NewGuid(); echo $Guid; echo "<br><br><br>"; Old PHP: // Generate Guid function NewGuid() { $s = strtoupper(md5(uniqid("something",true))); $guidText = substr($s,0,8) . '-' . substr($s,8,4) . '-' . substr($s,12,4). '-' . substr($s,16,4). '-' . substr($s,20); return $guidText; } // End Generate Guid $Guid = NewGuid(); echo $Guid; echo "<br><br><br>"; Will this first code guarantee uniqueness?

    Read the article

  • How to send and retrieve in the controller

    - by user281180
    I have the folowing code in my view, however, I can see that I don`t have the values in the controller. What is wrong? In the view I have, <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <%=Html.TextBox("Addresses[0].Line1") %> <%=Html.TextBox("Addresses[0].Line2")%> <%=Html.TextBox("Addresses[1].Line1")%> <%=Html.TextBox("Addresses[1].Line2")%> <input type="submit" name="submitForm" value="Save products" /> <% } %> My classes are as follows: public class Customer { public string FirstName { get; set; } public string Lastname { get; set; } public List<Address> Addresses { get; set; } public Customer() { Addresses = new List<Address>(); } } public class Address { public int Line1 { get; set; } public int Line2 { get; set; } } My controller as follows: public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(Customer customer) { return View(); }

    Read the article

  • Why does my plist file exist even when I've uninstalled an app and wiped the simulator?

    - by just_another_coder
    I am trying to detect the existence of a plist file on application start. When my data class (descendant of NSObject) is initialized, it loads the plist file. Before it loads, it checks to see if the file exists, and if it doesn't, it sets the data = nil instead of trying to process the array of data in the plist file. However, every time it starts it indicates the file exists. Even when I uninstall the app in the organizer and when wiping the simulator directory (iPhone Simulator/3.0/Applications). I have the following static method in a library class named FileIO: +(BOOL) fileExists:(NSString *)fileName { NSString *path = [FileIO getPath:fileName]; // gets the path to the docs directory if ([[NSFileManager defaultManager] fileExistsAtPath:path]) return YES; else return NO; } In my data class: //if( [FileIO fileExists:kFavorites_Filename] ) [FileIO deleteFile:kFavorites_Filename]; if ([FileIO fileExists:kFavorites_Filename]) {NSLog(@"exists"); The "exists" is logged every time unless I un-comment the method to delete the file. How can the file exist if I've deleted the app? I've deleted the simulator directory and uninstalled on the device but both say it still exists. What gives???

    Read the article

  • Dependencyproperty doesn't have value on load

    - by Jakob
    My problem is this, I have a UC called profile that contains another UC called FollowImageControl. In my Profile.xaml i declaretively bind a property of FollowImageControl called FollowerId to a CurrentUserId from Profile.xaml.cs. Problem is that I CurrentUserId is assigned in Profile.xaml.cs; the Profile.xaml code-behind. This means that I do not initially get the FollowerId. I have these methods in the FollowImageControl.xaml.cs: public static readonly DependencyProperty _followUserId = DependencyProperty.Register("FollowUserId", typeof(Guid), typeof(FollowImageControl), null); public Guid FollowUserId { get { return (Guid)GetValue(_followUserId); } set { SetValue(_followUserId, value); } } public FollowImageControl() { // Required to initialize variables InitializeComponent(); LoggedInUserId = WebContext.Current.User.UserId; var ctx = new NotesDomainContext(); if (ctx.IsFollowingUser(LoggedInUserId, FollowUserId).Value) SwitchToDelete.Begin(); } private void AddImg_MouseLeftButtonDown(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { if (LoggedInUserId != FollowUserId) { var ctx = new NotesDomainContext(); ctx.FollowUser(FollowUserId, LoggedInUserId); ctx.SubmitChanges(); } } THE WEIRD THING IS that when i insert breakpoints the FollowerUserId in FollowImageControl() is 0, but it has a value in AddImg_MouseLeftButtonDown, and there is no inbetween logic that sets the value of it. How is this??? Here's a little more code info: This is my binding from profile.xaml <internalCtrl:FollowImageControl FollowUserId="{Binding ElementName=ProfileCtrl, Path=CurrentUserId}" /> this is my constructor in profile.xaml.cs wherein the CurrentUserId is set public static readonly DependencyProperty _CurrentUserId = DependencyProperty.Register("CurrentUserId", typeof(Guid), typeof(Profile), null); public Guid CurrentUserId { get { return (Guid)GetValue(_CurrentUserId); } set { SetValue(_CurrentUserId, value); } } public Profile(Guid UserId) { CurrentUserId = UserId; InitializeComponent(); Loaded += new RoutedEventHandler(Profile_Loaded); } I'm seriously dumbfound that one minute the FollowerId has no value, and the next it holds the right, without me having changed the value in the code-behind.

    Read the article

  • Properly obsoleting old members in an XML Serializable class in C# VB .NET

    - by George
    Hi! Some time ago I defined a class that was serialized using XML. That class contained a serializable propertyA of integer type. Now I have extended and updated this class, whereby a new propertyB was added, whose type is another class that also has several serializable properties. The new propertyB is now supposed to play the role of propertyA, that is since type of propertyB is another class, one of its members would contain the value that previously propertyA contained, thus making peroptyA obsolete. What I am trying to figure out is how do I make sure that when I desireliaze the OLD version of this class (without propertyB in it), I make sure that the desreializer would take the value of propertyA from the old calss and set it as a value of one of the members of propertyB in a new class? Private WithEvents _Position As Position = New Position(Alignment.MiddleMiddle, 0, True, 0, True) Public Property Position() As Position 'NEW composite property that holds the value of the obsolted property, i.e. Alignment Get Return _Position End Get Set(ByVal value As Position) _Position = value End Set End Property Private _Alignment As Alignment = Alignment.MiddleMiddle <Xml.Serialization.XmlIgnore(), Obsolete("Use Position property instead.")> _ Public Property Alignment() As Alignment'The old, obsoleted property that I guess must be left for compliance with deserializing the old version of this class Get Return _Alignment End Get Set(ByVal value As Alignment) _Alignment = value End Set End Property Can you help me, please?

    Read the article

  • Codeigniter: validation problem

    - by krike
    For some reason a user can login with any password, first I thought I forgot to check for the password but I didn't... and I just cant find the problem here is the model: /*#######################################################*/ function validate() /*#######################################################*/ { $this->db->where('username', $this->input->post('username')); $this->db->where('password', md5($this->input->post('password'))); $q = $this->db->get('user_extra'); if($q->num_rows() == 1): return true; else: return false; endif; }//end of function validate() The controller /*#######################################################*/ function validate_credentials() /*#######################################################*/ { $this->load->model('membership_model'); $this->load->library('form_validation'); $this->form_validation->set_rules('username', 'Name', 'trim|required'); $this->form_validation->set_rules('password', 'password', 'trim|required'); if(!$this->membership_model->validate()): $this->form_validation->set_message('check_login', 'Login not correct, please try again.'); endif; if($this->form_validation->run() == FALSE): $this->index(); else: $this->membership_model->userinfo($this->input->post('username')); //should redirect to last view redirect($this->session->flashdata('redirect_url')); endif; }// end of validate_credentials()

    Read the article

  • Handling a mix of server side code and html in a resource file?

    - by Brandon
    I'm trying to convert an ASP.NET web application to use resource files. I haven't used resource files before, so I'm just toying around with them and was wondering if this is possible. I have a message that returns from a search when no results are found, that prompts the user to return to the home page. A lot of these pages have methods to determine what is the proper page to send the user to, so there are many sections with markup similar to this: Sorry, but we could not find an item matching your search criteria. Please adjust your search criteria or <a href="<%= SomeMethodToDetermineUri() %>">return to (SomePage)</a>. So basically, some type of message, followed by a link or a list of links. Getting the message part works fine, it's the server side code to generate links thats the problem. What is the best way to put that into a resource file? It is able to recognize the html link part just fine, but the server side code gets inserted as plain text. Is the only way to break it into 2 resources? (Which seems messy) <%= Resources.Master.NoSearchResultsFound %> <a href="<%= SomeMethodToDetermineUri() %>"> <%= Resources.Master.NoSearchResultsFoundReturnLinkText %> </a>. Or is there a way to get the page to evaluate the server code?

    Read the article

  • Print the first line of a file C programming

    - by Pedro
    void cabclh(){ FILE *fp; char *val, aux; int i=0; char *result, cabeca[60]; fp=fopen("trabalho.txt","r"); if(fp==NULL){ printf("ERROR\n"); return ; } val=(char*)calloc(aux, sizeof(char)); while(fp='\n'){ fgets(cabeca,60,fp); printf("%s\n",cabeca); } fclose(fp); free(fp); } I want to open a file and print the first line. the problem here is in while(fp='\n'), what i'm doing wrong. How can i make a function that recognize the first char from a file... like: FILE *arq; char info[20]; arq=fopen("trabalho.txt","r"); if(fp==NULL){ printf("ERROR\n"); return ; } if(fp[0]='-'){ //check if the first element is a '-' printf("It's info\n"); }

    Read the article

  • Easy HTTPS to PHP script

    - by Tom
    Hi, here is my scenario: I have a website with php, mySQL. I have a software application that has a login screen and sends usernames and passwords over the web by http: public String GetWebPageSource(String pURL) { try { byte[] vReceivedBytes = null; using (System.Net.WebClient vWebClient = new System.Net.WebClient()) { vReceivedBytes = vWebClient.DownloadData(pURL); } int vBomLen = 3; byte[] vStrippedBytes = new byte[vReceivedBytes.Length - vBomLen]; Array.Copy(vReceivedBytes, vBomLen, vStrippedBytes, 0, vReceivedBytes.Length - vBomLen); return System.Text.Encoding.UTF8.GetString(vStrippedBytes); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.Message); return null; } } So to send a username and password I would write: GetWebPageSource("http://mywebsite.com/Login.php?username=stackoverflow&password=iscool") and the php file would spit out some text saying whether the password is accepted or denied. However this is NOT secure. So I want to make it secure... https. How easy is it to integrate https? How much will the code change? How much do I have to handle? What is transparent to me. Do I have to check if a cookie already exists and if not write the methods for authentication or is there librarys already provided that will do it for me?

    Read the article

  • Binary Search Tree, cannot do traversal

    - by ihm
    Please see BST codes below. It only outputs "5". what did I do wrong? #include <iostream> class bst { public: bst(const int& numb) : root(new node(numb)) {} void insert(const int& numb) { root->insert(new node(numb), root); } void inorder() { root->inorder(root); } private: class node { public: node(const int& numb) : left(NULL), right(NULL) { value = numb; } void insert(node* insertion, node* position) { if (position == NULL) position = insertion; else if (insertion->value > position->value) insert(insertion, position->right); else if (insertion->value < position->value) insert(insertion, position->left); } void inorder(node* tree) { if (tree == NULL) return; inorder(tree->left); std::cout << tree->value << std::endl; inorder(tree->right); } private: node* left; node* right; int value; }; node* root; }; int main() { bst tree(5); tree.insert(4); tree.insert(2); tree.insert(10); tree.insert(14); tree.inorder(); return 0; }

    Read the article

  • Mapping many-to-many association table with extra column(s)

    - by user635524
    My database contains 3 tables: User and Service entities have many-to-many relationship and are joined with the SERVICE_USER table as follows: USERS - SERVICE_USER - SERVICES SERVICE_USER table contains additional BLOCKED column. What is the best way to perform such a mapping? These are my Entity classes @Entity @Table(name = "USERS") public class User implements java.io.Serializable { private String userid; private String email; @Id @Column(name = "USERID", unique = true, nullable = false,) public String getUserid() { return this.userid; } .... some get/set methods } @Entity @Table(name = "SERVICES") public class CmsService implements java.io.Serializable { private String serviceCode; @Id @Column(name = "SERVICE_CODE", unique = true, nullable = false, length = 100) public String getServiceCode() { return this.serviceCode; } .... some additional fields and get/set methods } I followed this example http://giannigar.wordpress.com/2009/09/04/m ... using-jpa/ Here is some test code: User user = new User(); user.setEmail("e2"); user.setUserid("ui2"); user.setPassword("p2"); CmsService service= new CmsService("cd2","name2"); List<UserService> userServiceList = new ArrayList<UserService>(); UserService userService = new UserService(); userService.setService(service); userService.setUser(user); userService.setBlocked(true); service.getUserServices().add(userService); userDAO.save(user); The problem is that hibernate persists User object and UserService one. No success with the CmsService object I tried to use EAGER fetch - no progress Is it possible to achieve the behaviour I'm expecting with the mapping provided above? Maybe there is some more elegant way of mapping many to many join table with additional column?

    Read the article

  • Show Color Picker Value Code Within Input Text Field in Wordpress

    - by Shwan Namiq
    Hi i have options page for my theme i used color picker jquery plugin in my options page as show in image below. i want when i change the color from color picker automatically show the color value code within the text field.how can do this? this is the code within my options page related to appearing the color picker and text field function to register the options setting function YPE_register_settings_sections_fields() { register_setting ( 'YPE_header_option_group', 'YPE_header_option_name', 'YPE_sanitize_validate_callback' ); add_settings_section ( 'YPE_header_section', 'Header Section', 'YPE_header_section_callback', 'YPE_menu_page_options' ); add_settings_field ( 'YPE_header_bg', 'Header Background', 'YPE_header_bg_callback', 'YPE_menu_page_options', 'YPE_header_section' ); } add_action('admin_init', 'YPE_register_settings_sections_fields'); function to appear the text field and color picker function YPE_header_bg_callback() { $YPE_options = get_option('YPE_header_option_name'); $YPE_header_bg = isset($YPE_options['YPE_header_bg']) ? $YPE_options['YPE_header_bg'] : ''; ?> <div class="input-group color-picker"> <input class="form-control" style="width:80px;" name="YPE_header_option_name[YPE_header_bg]" id="<?php echo 'YPE_header_bg'; ?>" type="text" value="<?php echo $YPE_header_bg; ?>" /> <span class="input-group-btn"> <div id="colorSelector"> <div nam style="background-color: #0000ff"> </div> </div> </span> </div> <script> $("#colorSelector").ColorPicker({ color: '#0000ff', onShow: function (colpkr) { $(colpkr).fadeIn(500); return false; }, onHide: function (colpkr) { $(colpkr).fadeOut(500); return false; }, onChange: function (hsb, hex, rgb) { $('#colorSelector div').css('backgroundColor', '#' + hex); }); </script> <?php }

    Read the article

  • Getting rejected value null spring validation

    - by Shabarinath
    Hi in my project when I am trying to validate my form its not showing any error messages even if validation fails (Event Form is not submitted and enters into validation fail block) Here is my code /****************** Post Method *************/ @RequestMapping(value="/property", method = RequestMethod.POST) public String saveOrUpdateProperty(@ModelAttribute("property") Property property, BindingResult result, Model model, HttpServletRequest request) throws Exception { try { if(validateFormData(property, result)) { model.addAttribute("property", new Property()); return "property/postProperty"; } } /********* Validate Block *************/ private boolean validateFormData(Property property, BindingResult result) throws DaoException { if (property.getPropertyType() == null || property.getPropertyType().equals("")) { result.rejectValue("propertyType", "Cannot Be Empty !", "Cannot Be Empty !"); } if (property.getTitle() == null || property.getTitle().equals("")) { result.rejectValue("title", "Cannot Be Empty !", "Cannot Be Empty !"); } return (result.hasFieldErrors() || result.hasErrors()); } But when i debug i can see below one org.springframework.validation.BeanPropertyBindingResult: 1 errors Field error in object 'property' on field 'title': rejected value [null]; codes [Cannot Be Empty !.property.title,Cannot Be Empty !.title,Cannot Be Empty !.java.lang.String,Cannot Be Empty !]; arguments []; default message [Cannot Be Empty !] and this is how i am displaying in jsp file <div class="control-group"> <div class="controls"> <label class="control-label"><span class="required">* </span>Property Type</label> <div class="controls"> <form:input path="title" placeholder="Pin Code" cssClass="form-control border-radius-4 textField"/> <form:errors path="title" style="color:red;"/> </div> </div> </div> Event though when i see the below one when i debug (1 Error its correct) org.springframework.validation.BeanPropertyBindingResult: 1 errors Why it is not displayed in jsp can any one hep me?

    Read the article

  • I can't get that `bus error` to stop sucking.

    - by Koning Baard XIV
    I have this a class called PPString: PPString.h #ifndef __CPP_PPString #define __CPP_PPString #include "PPObject.h" class PPString : public PPObject { char *stringValue[]; public: char *pointerToCharString(); void setCharString(char *charString[]); void setCharString(const char charString[]); }; #endif PPString.cpp #include "PPString.h" char *PPString::pointerToCharString() { return *stringValue; } void PPString::setCharString(char *charString[]) { *stringValue = *charString; } void PPString::setCharString(const char charString[]) { *stringValue = (char *)charString; } I'm trying to set the stringValue using std::cin: main.cpp PPString myString; myString.setCharString("LOLZ"); std::cout << myString.pointerToCharString() << std::endl; char *aa[1000]; std::cin >> *aa; myString.setCharString(aa); std::cout << myString.pointerToCharString() << std::endl; The first one, which uses a const char works, but the second one, with a char doesn't, and I get this output: copy and paste from STDOUT LOLZ im entering a string now... Bus error where the second line is what I entered, followed by pressing the return key. Can anyone help me fixing this? Thanks...

    Read the article

  • Creating a join based on data from other tables...

    - by Workshop Alex
    I'm dealing with a database structure that can be defined as "illogical". It has about 100 different schema's with all different table structures per schema. Only one common factor is a "Version" table in each schema containing about 4 fields. (Thus, there are about 100 Version tables in the database.) There's also another table (view, actually) containing a list of all the schema's in the database that have a version table. I need a stored procedure that walks through all the schema's and selects all data from the Version table, adding the schema name as a fifth field to the result. Basically, this stored procedure is to return a list of all version records per schema. My idea: first walk through the schema list to create one new SQL statements that will JOIN all the schema.version tables into one SQL statement. Then I return the result of that query. How to do this? Or does anyone have a better suggestion? (No, redesigning the structure is NOT an option.)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 545 546 547 548 549 550 551 552 553 554 555 556  | Next Page >