Search Results

Search found 34668 results on 1387 pages for 'return'.

Page 547/1387 | < Previous Page | 543 544 545 546 547 548 549 550 551 552 553 554  | Next Page >

  • Angular throws "Error: Invalid argument." in IE

    - by przno
    I have a directive which takes element's text and places wbr elements after every 10th character. I'm using it for example on table cells with long text (e.g. URLs), so it does not span over the table. Code of the directive: myApp.directive('myWbr', function ($interpolate) { return { restrict: 'A', link: function (scope, element, attrs) { // get the interpolated text of HTML element var expression = $interpolate(element.text()); // get new text, which has <wbr> element on every 10th position var addWbr = function (inputText) { var newText = ''; for (var i = 0; i < inputText.length; i++) { if ((i !== 0) && (i % 10 === 0)) newText += '<wbr>'; // no end tag newText += inputText[i]; } return newText; }; scope.$watch(function (scope) { // replace element's content with the new one, which contains <wbr>s element.html(addWbr(expression(scope))); }); } }; }); Works fine except in IE (I have tried IE8 and IE9), where it throws an error to the console: Error: Invalid argument. Here is jsFiddle, when clicking on the button you can see the error in console. So obvious question: why is the error there, what is the source of it, and why only in IE? (Bonus question: how can I make IE dev tools to tell me more about error, like the line from source code, because it took me some time to locate it, Error: Invalid argument. does not tell much about the origin.) P.S.: I know IE does not know the wbr at all, but that is not the issue. Edit: in my real application I have re-written the directive to not to look on element's text and modify that, but rather pass the input text via attribute, and works fine now in all browsers. But I'm still curious why the original solution was giving that error in IE, thus starting the bounty.

    Read the article

  • LINQ - Splitting up a string with maximum length, but not chopping words apart.

    - by Stacey
    I have a simple LINQ Extension Method... public static IEnumerable<string> SplitOnLength(this string input, int length) { int index = 0; while (index < input.Length) { if (index + length < input.Length) yield return input.Substring(index, length); else yield return input.Substring(index); index += length; } } This takes a string, and it chops it up into a collection of strings that do not exceed the given length. This works well - however I'd like to go further. It chops words in half. I don't need it to understand anything complicated, I just want it to be able to chop a string off 'early' if cutting it at the length would be cutting in the middle of text (basically anything that isn't whitespace). However I suck at LINQ, so I was wondering if anyone had an idea on how to go about this. I know what I am trying to do, but I'm not sure how to approach it. So let's say I have the following text. This is a sample block of text that I would pass through the string splitter. I call this method SplitOnLength(6) I would get the following. This i s a sa mple b lock o f text that I would pass t hrough the s tring splitt er. I would rather it be smart enough to stop and look more like .. This is a sample // bad example, since the single word exceeds maximum length, but the length would be larger numbers in real scenarios, closer to 200. Can anyone help me?

    Read the article

  • How to navigate to a UITableView position by the cell it's title using indexing

    - by BarryK88
    I'm using a UITableView filled with a around 200 cells containing a title, subtitle and thumbnail image. I want to a have a selection method just like within the contact App from Apple where you can select a character from the alphabet. I'm at the point where I've drawn the selection interface (A,B,C etc), and via it's delegate I'm retrieving the respective index and title (i.e: A = 1, B = 2, C = 3 etc.). Now I want to navigate to the first cell, where the first character of the cell it's title is starting with the selected index character. Just like the contacts App. Can someone give me a direction for how to implement such functionality. - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView sectionForSectionIndexTitle:(NSString *)title atIndex:(NSInteger)index I filled my sectionIndex by means of - (NSArray *)sectionIndexTitlesForTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { if(searching) return nil; NSMutableArray *tempArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; [tempArray addObject:@"A"]; [tempArray addObject:@"B"]; [tempArray addObject:@"C"]; [tempArray addObject:@"D"]; [tempArray addObject:@"E"]; [tempArray addObject:@"F"]; [tempArray addObject:@"G"]; [tempArray addObject:@"H"]; [tempArray addObject:@"I"]; [tempArray addObject:@"J"]; [tempArray addObject:@"K"]; [tempArray addObject:@"L"]; [tempArray addObject:@"M"]; [tempArray addObject:@"N"]; [tempArray addObject:@"O"]; [tempArray addObject:@"P"]; [tempArray addObject:@"Q"]; [tempArray addObject:@"R"]; [tempArray addObject:@"S"]; [tempArray addObject:@"T"]; [tempArray addObject:@"U"]; [tempArray addObject:@"V"]; [tempArray addObject:@"W"]; [tempArray addObject:@"X"]; [tempArray addObject:@"Y"]; [tempArray addObject:@"Z"]; return tempArray; }

    Read the article

  • C# why unit test has this strange behaviour?

    - by 5YrsLaterDBA
    I have a class to encrypt the connectionString. public class SKM { private string connStrName = "AndeDBEntities"; internal void encryptConnStr() { if(isConnStrEncrypted()) return; ... } private bool isConnStrEncrypted() { bool status = false; // Open app.config of executable. System.Configuration.Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenExeConfiguration(ConfigurationUserLevel.None); // Get the connection string from the app.config file. string connStr = config.ConnectionStrings.ConnectionStrings[connStrName].ConnectionString; status = !(connStr.Contains("provider")); Log.logItem(LogType.DebugDevelopment, "isConnStrEncrypted", "SKM::isConnStrEncrypted()", "isConnStrEncrypted=" + status); return status; } } Above code works fine in my application. But not in my unit test project. In my unit test project, I test the encryptConnStr() method. it will call isConnStrEncrypted() method. Then exception (null pointer) will be thrown at this line: string connStr = config.ConnectionStrings.ConnectionStrings[connStrName].ConnectionString; I have to use index like this to pass the unit test: string connStr = config.ConnectionStrings.ConnectionStrings[0].ConnectionString; I remember it worked several days ago at the time I added above unit test. But now it give me an error. The unit test is not integrated with our daily auto build yet. We only have ONE connectionStr. It works with product but not in unit test. Don't know why. Anybody can explain to me?

    Read the article

  • Problem in homemade function to merge objects

    - by Eric
    I'm trying to make a function that merges arrays. The reason is, I have a function that supposed to get the settings of an entity, and merge them with the global defaults. //So for example, let's say globalOptions is something like this var globalOptions={opt1:'foo',opt2:'something'}; //and this is entityOptions var entityOptions={opt1:'foofoo',opt2:null}; The only difference is it has objects in objects and objects in objects in objects, so what I made was a function that loops through all objects, thinking I would later, easily be able to loop through it all. Please ignore the array thing. That is defected, but unneeded. function loopObj(obj, call, where, objcall, array) { if ($.isArray(obj) || $.isPlainObject(obj)) { for (i in obj) { if ($.isArray(obj)) { if (array) { loopObj(obj[i], call, where[where.length] = i, true); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } else { loopObj(obj[i], call, where+'['+i+']', false); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } } else { if (array) { loopObj(obj[i], call, where[where.length] = parseInt(i), true); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } else { loopObj(obj[i], call, where+'[\''+i+'\']', false); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } } } } else { return call(obj,where); } } Then I made this program to convert it: function mergeObj(a,b) { temp.retd = new Object(); loopObj(a,function (c,d) { if (c) { eval(d.replace('%par%','temp.retd'))=c; } else { eval(d.replace('%par%','temp.retd'))=eval(d.replace('%par%','b')); } },'%par%', true); return temp.retd(); } I get the error: Uncaught ReferenceError: Invalid left-hand side in assignment (anonymous function)base.js:51 loopObjbase.js:40 loopObjbase.js:31 mergeObjbase.js:46 (anonymous function)base.js:72 I know what it means, the eval returns an anonomys variable (copy of the variable), so I can't set it, only get it.

    Read the article

  • SQL - table alias scope.

    - by Support - multilanguage SO
    I've just learned ( yesterday ) to use "exists" instead of "in". BAD select * from table where nameid in ( select nameid from othertable where otherdesc = 'SomeDesc' ) GOOD select * from table t where exists ( select nameid from othertable o where t.nameid = o.nameid and otherdesc = 'SomeDesc' ) And I have some questions about this: 1) The explanation as I understood was: "The reason why this is better is because only the matching values will be returned instead of building a massive list of possible results". Does that mean that while the first subquery might return 900 results the second will return only 1 ( yes or no )? 2) In the past I have had the RDBMS complainin: "only the first 1000 rows might be retrieved", this second approach would solve that problem? 3) What is the scope of the alias in the second subquery?... does the alias only lives in the parenthesis? for example select * from table t where exists ( select nameid from othertable o where t.nameid = o.nameid and otherdesc = 'SomeDesc' ) AND select nameid from othertable o where t.nameid = o.nameid and otherdesc = 'SomeOtherDesc' ) That is, if I use the same alias ( o for table othertable ) In the second "exist" will it present any problem with the first exists? or are they totally independent? Is this something Oracle only related or it is valid for most RDBMS? Thanks a lot

    Read the article

  • Waiting until one event has happened before moving onto the next.

    - by jaasum
    I currently have a scrolling anchor animation that also adds an "active" class to the anchor clicked. I am trying to fit the below function into the works as well, so say someone clicks "anchor 1", "anchor 1" will get an active class and the window will scroll to that location. But, after that has happened say the user manually begins scrolling down the page, I want the active class to be removed. The problem I am running up against now is that the below function will happen when the scrolling animation from a clicked anchor is taking place. How can I disable this only when the window is being scrolled from a clicked anchor? $(window).scroll(function() { $('a[href^=#]').removeClass('active'); }); Here is the scrolling anchor script I am working with. /******* *** Anchor Slider by Cedric Dugas *** *** Http://www.position-absolute.com *** Never have an anchor jumping your content, slide it. Don't forget to put an id to your anchor ! You can use and modify this script for any project you want, but please leave this comment as credit. *****/ jQuery.fn.anchorAnimate = function(settings) { settings = jQuery.extend({ speed : 500 }, settings); return this.each(function(){ var caller = this $(caller).click(function (event) { event.preventDefault() var locationHref = window.location.href var elementClick = $(caller).attr("href") var destination = $(elementClick).offset().top; $("html:not(:animated),body:not(:animated)").animate({ scrollTop: destination}, settings.speed, 'easeOutCubic', function() { window.location.hash = elementClick }); return false; }) }) } And lastly, my jQuery // Scrolling Anchors $('[href^=#]').anchorAnimate(); // Active Class For Clicked Anchors var anchorscroll = $('a[href^=#]') anchorscroll.click(function(){ var anchorlocation = $(this).attr("href"); anchorscroll.removeClass('active'); $(this).addClass('active'); $('a[href='+anchorlocation+']').addClass('active'); });

    Read the article

  • Accessing my own datalayer using RIA & Silverlight

    - by Norsten
    Is it possible for me to connect to my own data provide via WCF RIA services? I've created a small datalayer that connnects to DynamicAX datasource. I would like to use Silverlight 4 & RIA service to access that datalayer. At it's most basic -I've done the following... 1) I've added an empty domainclass to the webproject and in that class I created a simple method to return a string... [EnableClientAccess()] public class ProjectService : DomainService { public string TestViaRIA() { return "Hello!"; } } 2) I then added reference to the web project in my silvelight class and created a bit of code to try and invoke the method... using ProjectApp.Web; namespace ProjectApp.Views { public partial class ProjectControl : UserControl { public ProjectControl() { InitializeComponent(); ProjectContext ctx = new ProjectContext(); var x = ctx.TestViaRIA(); testTextBox.Text = x.ToString(); } } } the returned value is "{System.ServiceModel.DomainServices.Client.InvokeOperation}". I'm obviously doing something wrong here and I would appreciate some guidance on how I can achive this. Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • pass Value from class to JFrame

    - by MYE
    Hello everybody! i have problem between pass value from Class to another JFrame my code write follow MVC Model. Therefore i have 1 class is controller , one jframe is view and 1 class is model. i have some handle process on controller to get value on it and i want this value to jframe but not pass by constructor . How can i pass value from class to jframe and when value be pass jframe will use it to handle. Ex: public class A{ private String str; public A(){ } public void handle(){ ViewFrame v = new ViewFrame(); v.setVisible(true); v.pack(). v.setSize(330,600); str = "Hello World"; //init value here v.getString(str);// pass value to jframe here. } } ======================= public class ViewFrame extends JFrame{ private String str; public ViewFrame (){ System.out.println(str); } public String getString(String str){ return this.str = str; } } but it return null??

    Read the article

  • efficient thread-safe singleton in C++

    - by user168715
    The usual pattern for a singleton class is something like static Foo &getInst() { static Foo *inst = NULL; if(inst == NULL) inst = new Foo(...); return *inst; } However, it's my understanding that this solution is not thread-safe, since 1) Foo's constructor might be called more than once (which may or may not matter) and 2) inst may not be fully constructed before it is returned to a different thread. One solution is to wrap a mutex around the whole method, but then I'm paying for synchronization overhead long after I actually need it. An alternative is something like static Foo &getInst() { static Foo *inst = NULL; if(inst == NULL) { pthread_mutex_lock(&mutex); if(inst == NULL) inst = new Foo(...); pthread_mutex_unlock(&mutex); } return *inst; } Is this the right way to do it, or are there any pitfalls I should be aware of? For instance, are there any static initialization order problems that might occur, i.e. is inst always guaranteed to be NULL the first time getInst is called?

    Read the article

  • Calling base Text method on custom TextBox

    - by The Demigeek
    I'm trying to create a CurrencyTextBox that inherits from TextBox. I'm seeing some really weird behavior that I just don't understand. After lots of testing, I think I can summarize as follows: In the class code, when I access base.Text (to get the textbox's text), I'm actually getting the return value of my overridden Text property. I thought the base keyword would ensure that the underlying object's methods get called. To demonstrate: public class cTestTextBox : System.Windows.Forms.TextBox { string strText = ""; public cTestTextBox() { SetVal("AAA"); base.Text = "TEST"; } public override string Text { get { string s = strText; s = "++" + s + "++"; return s; } } public void SetVal(string val) { strText = val; } } Place this control on a form and set a breakpoint on the constructor. Run the app. Hover your mouse over the base.Text expression. Note that the tooltip shows you the value of the overridden property, not the base property. Execute the SetVal() statement and again hover your mouse over the base.Text expression. Note that the tooltop shows you the value of the overridden property, not the base property. How do I reliably access the Text property of the textbox from which I'm inheriting?

    Read the article

  • Is it better for class data to be passed internally or accessed directly?

    - by AaronSzy
    Example: // access fields directly private void doThis() { return doSomeWork(this.data); } // receive data as an argument private void doThis(data) { return doSomeWork(data); } The first option is coupled to the value in this.data while the second option avoids this coupling. I feel like the second option is always better. It promotes loose coupling WITHIN the class. Accessing global class data willy-nilly throughout just seems like a bad idea. Obviously this class data needs to be accessed directly at some point. However, if accesses, to this global class data can be eliminated by parameter passing, it seems that this is always preferable. The second example has the advantage of working with any data of the proper type, whereas the first is bound to working with the just class data. Even if you don't NEED the additional flexibility, it seems nice to leave it as an option. I just don't see any advantage in accessing member data directly from private methods as in the first example. Whats the best practice here? I've referenced code complete, but was not able to find anything on this particular issue.

    Read the article

  • case insenstive string replace that correctly works with ligatures like "ß" <=> "ss"

    - by usr
    I have build a litte asp.net form that searches for something and displays the results. I want to highlight the search string within the search results. Example: Query: "p" Results: a<b>p</b>ple, banana, <b>p</b>lum The code that I have goes like this: public static string HighlightSubstring(string text, string substring) { var index = text.IndexOf(substring, StringComparison.CurrentCultureIgnoreCase); if(index == -1) return HttpUtility.HtmlEncode(text); string p0, p1, p2; text.SplitAt(index, index + substring.Length, out p0, out p1, out p2); return HttpUtility.HtmlEncode(p0) + "<b>" + HttpUtility.HtmlEncode(p1) + "</b>" + HttpUtility.HtmlEncode(p2); } I mostly works but try it for example with HighlightSubstring("ß", "ss"). This crashes because in Germany "ß" and "ss" are considered to be equal by the IndexOf method, but they have different length! Now that would be ok if there was a way to find out how long the match in "text" is. Remember that this length can be != substring.Length. So how do I find out the length of the match that IndexOf produces in the presence of ligatures and exotic language characters (ligatures in this case)?

    Read the article

  • In parallel.for share value more then one.

    - by user347918
    Here is problem. long sum = 0; Parallel.For(1, 10000, y => { sum1 += y;} ); Solution is .. Parallel.For<int>(0, result.Count, () => 0, (i, loop, subtotal) => { subtotal += result[i]; return subtotal; }, (x) => Interlocked.Add(ref sum, x) ); if there are two parameters in this code. For example long sum1 = 0; long sum2 = 0; Parallel.For(1, 10000, y => { sum1 += y; sum2=sum1*y; } ); what will we do ? i am guessing that have to use array ! int[] s=new int[2]; Parallel.For<int[]>(0, result.Count, () => s, (i, loop, subtotal) => { subtotal[0] += result[i]; subtotal[1] -= result[i]; return subtotal; }, (x) => Interlocked.Add(ref sum1, x[0]) //but how about sum1 i tried several way but it doesn't work. //for example like that //(x[0])=> Interlocked.Add (ref sum1, x[0]) //(x[1])=> Interlocked.Add (ref sum2, x[1]));

    Read the article

  • What is wrong with this Asynchronus task?

    - by bluebrain
    the method onPostExecute simply was not executed, I have seen 16 at LogCat but I can not see 16 in LogCAT. I tried to debug it, it seemed that it goes to the first line of the class (package line) after return statement. private class Client extends AsyncTask<Integer, Void, Integer> { protected Integer doInBackground(Integer... params) { Log.e(TAG,10+""); try { socket = new Socket(target, port); Log.e(TAG,11+""); oos = new ObjectOutputStream(socket.getOutputStream()); Log.e(TAG,14+""); ois = new ObjectInputStream(socket.getInputStream()); Log.e(TAG,15+""); } catch (UnknownHostException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } Log.e(TAG,16+""); return 1; } protected void onPostExecute(Integer result) { Log.e(TAG,13+""); try { Log.e(TAG,12+""); oos.writeUTF(key); Log.e(TAG,13+""); if (ois.readInt() == OKAY) { isConnected = true; Log.e(TAG,14+""); }else{ Log.e(TAG,15+""); isConnected = false; } } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); isClosed = true; } } }

    Read the article

  • How to implement iterator as an attribute of a class in Java

    - by de3
    Hi, let's say I have this simple MyArray class, with two simple methods: add, delete and an iterator. In the main method we can see how it is supposed to be used: public class MyArray { int start; int end; int[] arr; myIterator it; public MyArray(){ this.start=0; this.end=0; this.arr=new int[500]; it=new myIterator(); } public void add(int el){ this.arr[this.end]=el; this.end++; } public void delete(){ this.arr[this.start]=0; this.start++; } public static void main(String[] args){ MyArray m=new MyArray(); m.add(3); m.add(299); m.add(19); m.add(27); while(m.it.hasNext()){ System.out.println(m.it.next()); } } And then MyIterator should be implemented somehow: import java.util.Iterator; public class myIterator implements Iterator{ @Override public boolean hasNext() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return false; } @Override public Object next() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return null; } @Override public void remove() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } } MyIterator should iterate arr from MyArray class, from start to end values; both are also attributes of MyArray. So, as MyIterator should use MyArray attributes, how should MyIterator be implemented? Perhaps I can send the current object in the initialization: it=new myIterator(this); But I guess it's not the best soultion. Or maybe MyArray itself should implement Iterator interface? How is this solved?

    Read the article

  • Creating mock Objects in PHP unit

    - by Mike
    Hi, I've searched but can't quite find what I'm looking for and the manual isn't much help in this respect. I'm fairly new to unit testing, so not sure if I'm on the right track at all. Anyway, onto the question. I have a class: <?php class testClass { public function doSomething($array_of_stuff) { return AnotherClass::returnRandomElement($array_of_stuff); } } ?> Now, clearly I want the AnotherClass::returnRandomElement($array_of_stuff); to return the same thing every time. My question is, in my unit test, how do I mockup this object? I've tried adding the AnotherClass to the top of the test file, but when I want to test AnotherClass I get the "Cannot redeclare class" error. I think I understand factory classes, but I'm not sure how I would apply that in this instance. Would I need to write an entirely seperate AnotherClass class which contained test data and then use the Factory class to load that instead of the real AnotherClass? Or is using the Factory pattern just a red herring. I tried this: $RedirectUtils_stub = $this->getMockForAbstractClass('RedirectUtils'); $o1 = new stdClass(); $o1->id = 2; $o1->test_id = 2; $o1->weight = 60; $o1->data = "http://www.google.com/?ffdfd=fdfdfdfd?route=1"; $RedirectUtils_stub->expects($this->any()) ->method('chooseRandomRoot') ->will($this->returnValue($o1)); $RedirectUtils_stub->expects($this->any()) ->method('decodeQueryString') ->will($this->returnValue(array())); in the setUp() function, but these stubs are ignored and I can't work out whether it's something I'm doing wrong, or the way I'm accessing the AnotherClass methods. Help! This is driving me nuts.

    Read the article

  • How to format JSON Date?

    - by Mark Struzinski
    I'm taking my first crack at AJAX with jQuery. I'm getting my data onto my page, but I'm having some trouble with the JSON that is returned for Date data types. Basically, I'm getting a string back that looks like this: /Date(1224043200000)/ From a total newbie at JSON - How do I format this to a short date format? Should this be handled somewhere in the jQuery code? I've tried the jQuery.UI.datepicker plugin using $.datepicker.formatDate() wiuth no success. FYI: Here's the solution I came up with using a combination of the answers here: function getMismatch(id) { $.getJSON("Main.aspx?Callback=GetMismatch", { MismatchId: id }, function(result) { $("#AuthMerchId").text(result.AuthorizationMerchantId); $("#SttlMerchId").text(result.SettlementMerchantId); $("#CreateDate").text(formatJSONDate(Date(result.AppendDts))); $("#ExpireDate").text(formatJSONDate(Date(result.ExpiresDts))); $("#LastUpdate").text(formatJSONDate(Date(result.LastUpdateDts))); $("#LastUpdatedBy").text(result.LastUpdateNt); $("#ProcessIn").text(result.ProcessIn); } ); return false; } function formatJSONDate(jsonDate){ var newDate = dateFormat(jsonDate, "mm/dd/yyyy"); return newDate; } This solution got my object from the callback method and displayed the dates on the page properly using the date format library.

    Read the article

  • Will C++0x support __stdcall or extern "C" capture-nothing lambdas?

    - by Daniel Trebbien
    Yesterday I was thinking about whether it would be possible to use the convenience of C++0x lambda functions to write callbacks for Windows API functions. For example, what if I wanted to use a lambda as an EnumChildProc with EnumChildWindows? Something like: EnumChildWindows(hTrayWnd, CALLBACK [](HWND hWnd, LPARAM lParam) { // ... return static_cast<BOOL>(TRUE); // continue enumerating }, reinterpret_cast<LPARAM>(&myData)); Another use would be to write extern "C" callbacks for C routines. E.g.: my_class *pRes = static_cast<my_class*>(bsearch(&key, myClassObjectsArr, myClassObjectsArr_size, sizeof(my_class), extern "C" [](const void *pV1, const void *pV2) { const my_class& o1 = *static_cast<const my_class*>(pV1); const my_class& o2 = *static_cast<const my_class*>(pV2); int res; // ... return res; })); Is this possible? I can understand that lambdas that capture variables will never be compatible with C, but it at least seems possible to me that capture-nothing lambdas can be compatible.

    Read the article

  • jquery: How to deal with 'this' in ajax callbacks

    - by Svish
    I currently have code similar to this for a form: $('#some-form') .submit(function() { // Make sure we are not already busy if($(this).data('busy')) return false; $(this).data('busy', true); // Do post $.post("some/url", $(this).serialize(), function(data) { if(data.success) // Success is a boolean I set in the result on the server { // Deal with data } else { // Display error } $('#some-form') .removeData('busy'); }); return false; }); My issue is that I would like to somehow remove the need for knowing the form id in the post callback. In the end where I remove the busy data from the form, I'd like to somehow not have that hard coded. Is there any way I can do this? Is there a way I can hand whatever is in this to the post callback function? Since I know the id right now, I can get around it by doing what I have done, but I'd like to know how to not be dependant on knowing the id, since often I don't have an id. (For example if I have a link in each row in a table and all the rows have the same click handler.

    Read the article

  • User Defined Conversions in C++

    - by wash
    Recently, I was browsing through my copy of the C++ Pocket Reference from O'Reilly Media, and I was surprised when I came across a brief section and example regarding user-defined conversion for user-defined types: #include <iostream> class account { private: double balance; public: account (double b) { balance = b; } operator double (void) { return balance; } }; int main (void) { account acc(100.0); double balance = acc; std::cout << balance << std::endl; return 0; } I've been programming in C++ for awhile, and this is the first time I've ever seen this sort of operator overloading. The book's description of this subject is somewhat brief, leaving me with a few unanswered questions about this feature: Is this a particularly obscure feature? As I said, I've been programming in C++ for awhile and this is the first time I've ever come across this. I haven't had much luck finding more in-depth material regarding this. Is this relatively portable? (I'm compiling on GCC 4.1) Can user-defined conversions to user defined types be done? e.g. operator std::string () { /* code */ }

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to receive data as unsigned char over UDP on Qt?

    - by user269037
    I need to send floating point numbers using a UDP connection to a Qt application. Now in Qt the only function available is qint64 readDatagram ( char * data, qint64 maxSize, QHostAddress * address = 0, quint16 * port = 0 ) which accepts data in the form of signed character buffer. I can convert my float into a string and send it but it will obviously not be very efficient converting a 4 byte float into a much longer sized character buffer. I got hold of these 2 functions to convert a 4 byte float into an unsinged 32 bit integer to transfer over network which works fine for a simple C++ UDP program but for Qt I need to receive the data as unsigned char. Is it possible to avoid converting the floatinf point data into a string and then sending it? uint32_t htonf(float f) { uint32_t p; uint32_t sign; if (f < 0) { sign = 1; f = -f; } else { sign = 0; } p = ((((uint32_t)f)&0x7fff)<<16) | (sign<<31); // Whole part and sign. p |= (uint32_t)(((f - (int)f) * 65536.0f))&0xffff; // Fraction. return p; } float ntohf(uint32_t p) { float f = ((p>>16)&0x7fff); // Whole part. f += (p&0xffff) / 65536.0f; // Fraction. if (((p>>31)&0x1) == 0x1) { f = -f; } // Sign bit set. return f; }

    Read the article

  • Disabling Text field with Javascript when value in drop down box is from mysql

    - by SteveJ313
    Hi I have a simple script in HTML, using a dropdown menu. When the value 1 is selected, the user can write in the text field, if value 2 is selected, it disables the text field. However, i changed the values of the dropdown menu, so that one value was from a mysql table(using PHP) and the other remained 'option value='1''. Yet now neither text field is disabled. Below is the code. `<script type="text/javascript"> function findselected() { if (document.form.selmenu.value == <?php echo $id; ?>) { document.form.txtField.disabled=true; // return false; // not sure this line is needed } else { document.form.txtField.disabled=false; // return false; // not sure this line is needed } } ` And the PHP section if(mysql_num_rows($SQL) == 1) { echo "<select name='selmenu' onChange='findselected()'>"; echo "<label>TCA_Subject</label>"; while ($row=mysql_fetch_array($SQL)) { echo "<option value='$id'>$thing</option>"; echo "<option value='2'>Choice 2</option>"; } } echo "<option value=$userid>'Choice 1'</option>"; ?> <option value='2'>Choice 2</option>"; </select> I have tried taking the second option value out of the loop, putting it into html, editing the variable in the javascript function. There is not a fault with the PHP as it is retrieving the right results and displaying it, yet the text field doesnt become disabled. Does anyone know of a possible solution? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Reference problem when returning an object from array in PHP

    - by avastreg
    I've a reference problem; the example should be more descriptive than me :P I have a class that has an array of objects and retrieve them through a key (string), like an associative array: class Collection { public $elements; function __construct() { $this->elements = array(); } public function get_element($key) { foreach($this->elements as $element) { if ($element->key == $key) { return $element; break; } } return null; } public function add_element ($element) { $this->elements[] = $element; } } Then i have an object (generic), with a key and some variables: class Element { public $key; public $another_var; public function __construct($key) { $this->key = $key; $this->another_var = "default"; } } Now, i create my collection: $collection = new Collection(); $collection->add_element(new Element("test1")); $collection->add_element(new Element("test2")); And then i try to change variable of an element contained in my "array": $element = $collection->get_element("test1"); $element->another_var = "random_string"; echo $collection->get_element("test1")->another_var; Ok, the output is random_string so i know that my object is passed to $element in reference mode. But if i do, instead: $element = $collection-get_element("test1"); $element = null; //or $element = new GenericObject(); $element-another_var = "bla"; echo $collection-get_element("test1")-another_var; the output is default like if it lost the reference. So, what's wrong? I have got the references to the variables of the element and not to the element itself? Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • How can I write a function template for all types with a particular type trait?

    - by TC
    Consider the following example: struct Scanner { template <typename T> T get(); }; template <> string Scanner::get() { return string("string"); } template <> int Scanner::get() { return 10; } int main() { Scanner scanner; string s = scanner.get<string>(); int i = scanner.get<int>(); } The Scanner class is used to extract tokens from some source. The above code works fine, but fails when I try to get other integral types like a char or an unsigned int. The code to read these types is exactly the same as the code to read an int. I could just duplicate the code for all other integral types I'd like to read, but I'd rather define one function template for all integral types. I've tried the following: struct Scanner { template <typename T> typename enable_if<boost::is_integral<T>, T>::type get(); }; Which works like a charm, but I am unsure how to get Scanner::get<string>() to function again. So, how can I write code so that I can do scanner.get<string>() and scanner.get<any integral type>() and have a single definition to read all integral types? Update: bonus question: What if I want to accept more than one range of classes based on some traits? For example: how should I approach this problem if I want to have three get functions that accept (i) integral types (ii) floating point types (iii) strings, respectively.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 543 544 545 546 547 548 549 550 551 552 553 554  | Next Page >