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  • LINQ - Splitting up a string with maximum length, but not chopping words apart.

    - by Stacey
    I have a simple LINQ Extension Method... public static IEnumerable<string> SplitOnLength(this string input, int length) { int index = 0; while (index < input.Length) { if (index + length < input.Length) yield return input.Substring(index, length); else yield return input.Substring(index); index += length; } } This takes a string, and it chops it up into a collection of strings that do not exceed the given length. This works well - however I'd like to go further. It chops words in half. I don't need it to understand anything complicated, I just want it to be able to chop a string off 'early' if cutting it at the length would be cutting in the middle of text (basically anything that isn't whitespace). However I suck at LINQ, so I was wondering if anyone had an idea on how to go about this. I know what I am trying to do, but I'm not sure how to approach it. So let's say I have the following text. This is a sample block of text that I would pass through the string splitter. I call this method SplitOnLength(6) I would get the following. This i s a sa mple b lock o f text that I would pass t hrough the s tring splitt er. I would rather it be smart enough to stop and look more like .. This is a sample // bad example, since the single word exceeds maximum length, but the length would be larger numbers in real scenarios, closer to 200. Can anyone help me?

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  • Error while closing SQL Connection

    - by Wickedman84
    I have a problem with closing the SQLconnection in my application. My application is in VB.net. I have a reference in my application to a class with code to open and close the database connection and to execute all sql scripts. The error occurs when i close my application. In the formClosing event of my main form I call a function that closes all the connections. But just before I close the connections I perform an SQLquery to delete a row from a table with the function below. Public Function DeleteFunction(ByVal mySQLQuery As String, ByVal cmd As SqlCommand) As Boolean Try cmd.Connection = myConnection cmd.CommandText = mySQLQuery cmd.ExecuteNonQuery() Return True Catch ex As Exception WriteErrorMessage("DeleteFunction", ex, Logpath, "SQL Error: " & mySQLQuery) Return False End Try End Function In my application I check the result of the boolean. If it returns True, then i call the function to close the database connection. The returned boolean is True and the requested row is deleted in my database. This means i can close my connection which I do with the function below. Public Sub DatabaseConnClose() myCommand.CommandText = "" myConnection.Close() myCommand = Nothing myConnection = Nothing End Sub After executing this code I receive an error in my logfile from the DeleteFunction. It says: "Connection property has not been initialized." It seems very strange to receive an error from a function that was completely executed, or am i wrong to think that? Can anyone tell me why I receive this error and how I can solve the problem?

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  • Waiting until one event has happened before moving onto the next.

    - by jaasum
    I currently have a scrolling anchor animation that also adds an "active" class to the anchor clicked. I am trying to fit the below function into the works as well, so say someone clicks "anchor 1", "anchor 1" will get an active class and the window will scroll to that location. But, after that has happened say the user manually begins scrolling down the page, I want the active class to be removed. The problem I am running up against now is that the below function will happen when the scrolling animation from a clicked anchor is taking place. How can I disable this only when the window is being scrolled from a clicked anchor? $(window).scroll(function() { $('a[href^=#]').removeClass('active'); }); Here is the scrolling anchor script I am working with. /******* *** Anchor Slider by Cedric Dugas *** *** Http://www.position-absolute.com *** Never have an anchor jumping your content, slide it. Don't forget to put an id to your anchor ! You can use and modify this script for any project you want, but please leave this comment as credit. *****/ jQuery.fn.anchorAnimate = function(settings) { settings = jQuery.extend({ speed : 500 }, settings); return this.each(function(){ var caller = this $(caller).click(function (event) { event.preventDefault() var locationHref = window.location.href var elementClick = $(caller).attr("href") var destination = $(elementClick).offset().top; $("html:not(:animated),body:not(:animated)").animate({ scrollTop: destination}, settings.speed, 'easeOutCubic', function() { window.location.hash = elementClick }); return false; }) }) } And lastly, my jQuery // Scrolling Anchors $('[href^=#]').anchorAnimate(); // Active Class For Clicked Anchors var anchorscroll = $('a[href^=#]') anchorscroll.click(function(){ var anchorlocation = $(this).attr("href"); anchorscroll.removeClass('active'); $(this).addClass('active'); $('a[href='+anchorlocation+']').addClass('active'); });

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  • SQL - table alias scope.

    - by Support - multilanguage SO
    I've just learned ( yesterday ) to use "exists" instead of "in". BAD select * from table where nameid in ( select nameid from othertable where otherdesc = 'SomeDesc' ) GOOD select * from table t where exists ( select nameid from othertable o where t.nameid = o.nameid and otherdesc = 'SomeDesc' ) And I have some questions about this: 1) The explanation as I understood was: "The reason why this is better is because only the matching values will be returned instead of building a massive list of possible results". Does that mean that while the first subquery might return 900 results the second will return only 1 ( yes or no )? 2) In the past I have had the RDBMS complainin: "only the first 1000 rows might be retrieved", this second approach would solve that problem? 3) What is the scope of the alias in the second subquery?... does the alias only lives in the parenthesis? for example select * from table t where exists ( select nameid from othertable o where t.nameid = o.nameid and otherdesc = 'SomeDesc' ) AND select nameid from othertable o where t.nameid = o.nameid and otherdesc = 'SomeOtherDesc' ) That is, if I use the same alias ( o for table othertable ) In the second "exist" will it present any problem with the first exists? or are they totally independent? Is this something Oracle only related or it is valid for most RDBMS? Thanks a lot

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  • How to navigate to a UITableView position by the cell it's title using indexing

    - by BarryK88
    I'm using a UITableView filled with a around 200 cells containing a title, subtitle and thumbnail image. I want to a have a selection method just like within the contact App from Apple where you can select a character from the alphabet. I'm at the point where I've drawn the selection interface (A,B,C etc), and via it's delegate I'm retrieving the respective index and title (i.e: A = 1, B = 2, C = 3 etc.). Now I want to navigate to the first cell, where the first character of the cell it's title is starting with the selected index character. Just like the contacts App. Can someone give me a direction for how to implement such functionality. - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView sectionForSectionIndexTitle:(NSString *)title atIndex:(NSInteger)index I filled my sectionIndex by means of - (NSArray *)sectionIndexTitlesForTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { if(searching) return nil; NSMutableArray *tempArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; [tempArray addObject:@"A"]; [tempArray addObject:@"B"]; [tempArray addObject:@"C"]; [tempArray addObject:@"D"]; [tempArray addObject:@"E"]; [tempArray addObject:@"F"]; [tempArray addObject:@"G"]; [tempArray addObject:@"H"]; [tempArray addObject:@"I"]; [tempArray addObject:@"J"]; [tempArray addObject:@"K"]; [tempArray addObject:@"L"]; [tempArray addObject:@"M"]; [tempArray addObject:@"N"]; [tempArray addObject:@"O"]; [tempArray addObject:@"P"]; [tempArray addObject:@"Q"]; [tempArray addObject:@"R"]; [tempArray addObject:@"S"]; [tempArray addObject:@"T"]; [tempArray addObject:@"U"]; [tempArray addObject:@"V"]; [tempArray addObject:@"W"]; [tempArray addObject:@"X"]; [tempArray addObject:@"Y"]; [tempArray addObject:@"Z"]; return tempArray; }

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  • C# why unit test has this strange behaviour?

    - by 5YrsLaterDBA
    I have a class to encrypt the connectionString. public class SKM { private string connStrName = "AndeDBEntities"; internal void encryptConnStr() { if(isConnStrEncrypted()) return; ... } private bool isConnStrEncrypted() { bool status = false; // Open app.config of executable. System.Configuration.Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenExeConfiguration(ConfigurationUserLevel.None); // Get the connection string from the app.config file. string connStr = config.ConnectionStrings.ConnectionStrings[connStrName].ConnectionString; status = !(connStr.Contains("provider")); Log.logItem(LogType.DebugDevelopment, "isConnStrEncrypted", "SKM::isConnStrEncrypted()", "isConnStrEncrypted=" + status); return status; } } Above code works fine in my application. But not in my unit test project. In my unit test project, I test the encryptConnStr() method. it will call isConnStrEncrypted() method. Then exception (null pointer) will be thrown at this line: string connStr = config.ConnectionStrings.ConnectionStrings[connStrName].ConnectionString; I have to use index like this to pass the unit test: string connStr = config.ConnectionStrings.ConnectionStrings[0].ConnectionString; I remember it worked several days ago at the time I added above unit test. But now it give me an error. The unit test is not integrated with our daily auto build yet. We only have ONE connectionStr. It works with product but not in unit test. Don't know why. Anybody can explain to me?

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  • Problem in homemade function to merge objects

    - by Eric
    I'm trying to make a function that merges arrays. The reason is, I have a function that supposed to get the settings of an entity, and merge them with the global defaults. //So for example, let's say globalOptions is something like this var globalOptions={opt1:'foo',opt2:'something'}; //and this is entityOptions var entityOptions={opt1:'foofoo',opt2:null}; The only difference is it has objects in objects and objects in objects in objects, so what I made was a function that loops through all objects, thinking I would later, easily be able to loop through it all. Please ignore the array thing. That is defected, but unneeded. function loopObj(obj, call, where, objcall, array) { if ($.isArray(obj) || $.isPlainObject(obj)) { for (i in obj) { if ($.isArray(obj)) { if (array) { loopObj(obj[i], call, where[where.length] = i, true); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } else { loopObj(obj[i], call, where+'['+i+']', false); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } } else { if (array) { loopObj(obj[i], call, where[where.length] = parseInt(i), true); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } else { loopObj(obj[i], call, where+'[\''+i+'\']', false); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } } } } else { return call(obj,where); } } Then I made this program to convert it: function mergeObj(a,b) { temp.retd = new Object(); loopObj(a,function (c,d) { if (c) { eval(d.replace('%par%','temp.retd'))=c; } else { eval(d.replace('%par%','temp.retd'))=eval(d.replace('%par%','b')); } },'%par%', true); return temp.retd(); } I get the error: Uncaught ReferenceError: Invalid left-hand side in assignment (anonymous function)base.js:51 loopObjbase.js:40 loopObjbase.js:31 mergeObjbase.js:46 (anonymous function)base.js:72 I know what it means, the eval returns an anonomys variable (copy of the variable), so I can't set it, only get it.

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  • What is wrong with this Asynchronus task?

    - by bluebrain
    the method onPostExecute simply was not executed, I have seen 16 at LogCat but I can not see 16 in LogCAT. I tried to debug it, it seemed that it goes to the first line of the class (package line) after return statement. private class Client extends AsyncTask<Integer, Void, Integer> { protected Integer doInBackground(Integer... params) { Log.e(TAG,10+""); try { socket = new Socket(target, port); Log.e(TAG,11+""); oos = new ObjectOutputStream(socket.getOutputStream()); Log.e(TAG,14+""); ois = new ObjectInputStream(socket.getInputStream()); Log.e(TAG,15+""); } catch (UnknownHostException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } Log.e(TAG,16+""); return 1; } protected void onPostExecute(Integer result) { Log.e(TAG,13+""); try { Log.e(TAG,12+""); oos.writeUTF(key); Log.e(TAG,13+""); if (ois.readInt() == OKAY) { isConnected = true; Log.e(TAG,14+""); }else{ Log.e(TAG,15+""); isConnected = false; } } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); isClosed = true; } } }

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  • Accessing my own datalayer using RIA & Silverlight

    - by Norsten
    Is it possible for me to connect to my own data provide via WCF RIA services? I've created a small datalayer that connnects to DynamicAX datasource. I would like to use Silverlight 4 & RIA service to access that datalayer. At it's most basic -I've done the following... 1) I've added an empty domainclass to the webproject and in that class I created a simple method to return a string... [EnableClientAccess()] public class ProjectService : DomainService { public string TestViaRIA() { return "Hello!"; } } 2) I then added reference to the web project in my silvelight class and created a bit of code to try and invoke the method... using ProjectApp.Web; namespace ProjectApp.Views { public partial class ProjectControl : UserControl { public ProjectControl() { InitializeComponent(); ProjectContext ctx = new ProjectContext(); var x = ctx.TestViaRIA(); testTextBox.Text = x.ToString(); } } } the returned value is "{System.ServiceModel.DomainServices.Client.InvokeOperation}". I'm obviously doing something wrong here and I would appreciate some guidance on how I can achive this. Thanks in advance

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  • pass Value from class to JFrame

    - by MYE
    Hello everybody! i have problem between pass value from Class to another JFrame my code write follow MVC Model. Therefore i have 1 class is controller , one jframe is view and 1 class is model. i have some handle process on controller to get value on it and i want this value to jframe but not pass by constructor . How can i pass value from class to jframe and when value be pass jframe will use it to handle. Ex: public class A{ private String str; public A(){ } public void handle(){ ViewFrame v = new ViewFrame(); v.setVisible(true); v.pack(). v.setSize(330,600); str = "Hello World"; //init value here v.getString(str);// pass value to jframe here. } } ======================= public class ViewFrame extends JFrame{ private String str; public ViewFrame (){ System.out.println(str); } public String getString(String str){ return this.str = str; } } but it return null??

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  • Calling base Text method on custom TextBox

    - by The Demigeek
    I'm trying to create a CurrencyTextBox that inherits from TextBox. I'm seeing some really weird behavior that I just don't understand. After lots of testing, I think I can summarize as follows: In the class code, when I access base.Text (to get the textbox's text), I'm actually getting the return value of my overridden Text property. I thought the base keyword would ensure that the underlying object's methods get called. To demonstrate: public class cTestTextBox : System.Windows.Forms.TextBox { string strText = ""; public cTestTextBox() { SetVal("AAA"); base.Text = "TEST"; } public override string Text { get { string s = strText; s = "++" + s + "++"; return s; } } public void SetVal(string val) { strText = val; } } Place this control on a form and set a breakpoint on the constructor. Run the app. Hover your mouse over the base.Text expression. Note that the tooltip shows you the value of the overridden property, not the base property. Execute the SetVal() statement and again hover your mouse over the base.Text expression. Note that the tooltop shows you the value of the overridden property, not the base property. How do I reliably access the Text property of the textbox from which I'm inheriting?

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  • Reference problem when returning an object from array in PHP

    - by avastreg
    I've a reference problem; the example should be more descriptive than me :P I have a class that has an array of objects and retrieve them through a key (string), like an associative array: class Collection { public $elements; function __construct() { $this->elements = array(); } public function get_element($key) { foreach($this->elements as $element) { if ($element->key == $key) { return $element; break; } } return null; } public function add_element ($element) { $this->elements[] = $element; } } Then i have an object (generic), with a key and some variables: class Element { public $key; public $another_var; public function __construct($key) { $this->key = $key; $this->another_var = "default"; } } Now, i create my collection: $collection = new Collection(); $collection->add_element(new Element("test1")); $collection->add_element(new Element("test2")); And then i try to change variable of an element contained in my "array": $element = $collection->get_element("test1"); $element->another_var = "random_string"; echo $collection->get_element("test1")->another_var; Ok, the output is random_string so i know that my object is passed to $element in reference mode. But if i do, instead: $element = $collection-get_element("test1"); $element = null; //or $element = new GenericObject(); $element-another_var = "bla"; echo $collection-get_element("test1")-another_var; the output is default like if it lost the reference. So, what's wrong? I have got the references to the variables of the element and not to the element itself? Any ideas?

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  • efficient thread-safe singleton in C++

    - by user168715
    The usual pattern for a singleton class is something like static Foo &getInst() { static Foo *inst = NULL; if(inst == NULL) inst = new Foo(...); return *inst; } However, it's my understanding that this solution is not thread-safe, since 1) Foo's constructor might be called more than once (which may or may not matter) and 2) inst may not be fully constructed before it is returned to a different thread. One solution is to wrap a mutex around the whole method, but then I'm paying for synchronization overhead long after I actually need it. An alternative is something like static Foo &getInst() { static Foo *inst = NULL; if(inst == NULL) { pthread_mutex_lock(&mutex); if(inst == NULL) inst = new Foo(...); pthread_mutex_unlock(&mutex); } return *inst; } Is this the right way to do it, or are there any pitfalls I should be aware of? For instance, are there any static initialization order problems that might occur, i.e. is inst always guaranteed to be NULL the first time getInst is called?

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  • Is it better for class data to be passed internally or accessed directly?

    - by AaronSzy
    Example: // access fields directly private void doThis() { return doSomeWork(this.data); } // receive data as an argument private void doThis(data) { return doSomeWork(data); } The first option is coupled to the value in this.data while the second option avoids this coupling. I feel like the second option is always better. It promotes loose coupling WITHIN the class. Accessing global class data willy-nilly throughout just seems like a bad idea. Obviously this class data needs to be accessed directly at some point. However, if accesses, to this global class data can be eliminated by parameter passing, it seems that this is always preferable. The second example has the advantage of working with any data of the proper type, whereas the first is bound to working with the just class data. Even if you don't NEED the additional flexibility, it seems nice to leave it as an option. I just don't see any advantage in accessing member data directly from private methods as in the first example. Whats the best practice here? I've referenced code complete, but was not able to find anything on this particular issue.

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  • Creating mock Objects in PHP unit

    - by Mike
    Hi, I've searched but can't quite find what I'm looking for and the manual isn't much help in this respect. I'm fairly new to unit testing, so not sure if I'm on the right track at all. Anyway, onto the question. I have a class: <?php class testClass { public function doSomething($array_of_stuff) { return AnotherClass::returnRandomElement($array_of_stuff); } } ?> Now, clearly I want the AnotherClass::returnRandomElement($array_of_stuff); to return the same thing every time. My question is, in my unit test, how do I mockup this object? I've tried adding the AnotherClass to the top of the test file, but when I want to test AnotherClass I get the "Cannot redeclare class" error. I think I understand factory classes, but I'm not sure how I would apply that in this instance. Would I need to write an entirely seperate AnotherClass class which contained test data and then use the Factory class to load that instead of the real AnotherClass? Or is using the Factory pattern just a red herring. I tried this: $RedirectUtils_stub = $this->getMockForAbstractClass('RedirectUtils'); $o1 = new stdClass(); $o1->id = 2; $o1->test_id = 2; $o1->weight = 60; $o1->data = "http://www.google.com/?ffdfd=fdfdfdfd?route=1"; $RedirectUtils_stub->expects($this->any()) ->method('chooseRandomRoot') ->will($this->returnValue($o1)); $RedirectUtils_stub->expects($this->any()) ->method('decodeQueryString') ->will($this->returnValue(array())); in the setUp() function, but these stubs are ignored and I can't work out whether it's something I'm doing wrong, or the way I'm accessing the AnotherClass methods. Help! This is driving me nuts.

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  • case insenstive string replace that correctly works with ligatures like "ß" <=> "ss"

    - by usr
    I have build a litte asp.net form that searches for something and displays the results. I want to highlight the search string within the search results. Example: Query: "p" Results: a<b>p</b>ple, banana, <b>p</b>lum The code that I have goes like this: public static string HighlightSubstring(string text, string substring) { var index = text.IndexOf(substring, StringComparison.CurrentCultureIgnoreCase); if(index == -1) return HttpUtility.HtmlEncode(text); string p0, p1, p2; text.SplitAt(index, index + substring.Length, out p0, out p1, out p2); return HttpUtility.HtmlEncode(p0) + "<b>" + HttpUtility.HtmlEncode(p1) + "</b>" + HttpUtility.HtmlEncode(p2); } I mostly works but try it for example with HighlightSubstring("ß", "ss"). This crashes because in Germany "ß" and "ss" are considered to be equal by the IndexOf method, but they have different length! Now that would be ok if there was a way to find out how long the match in "text" is. Remember that this length can be != substring.Length. So how do I find out the length of the match that IndexOf produces in the presence of ligatures and exotic language characters (ligatures in this case)?

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  • In parallel.for share value more then one.

    - by user347918
    Here is problem. long sum = 0; Parallel.For(1, 10000, y => { sum1 += y;} ); Solution is .. Parallel.For<int>(0, result.Count, () => 0, (i, loop, subtotal) => { subtotal += result[i]; return subtotal; }, (x) => Interlocked.Add(ref sum, x) ); if there are two parameters in this code. For example long sum1 = 0; long sum2 = 0; Parallel.For(1, 10000, y => { sum1 += y; sum2=sum1*y; } ); what will we do ? i am guessing that have to use array ! int[] s=new int[2]; Parallel.For<int[]>(0, result.Count, () => s, (i, loop, subtotal) => { subtotal[0] += result[i]; subtotal[1] -= result[i]; return subtotal; }, (x) => Interlocked.Add(ref sum1, x[0]) //but how about sum1 i tried several way but it doesn't work. //for example like that //(x[0])=> Interlocked.Add (ref sum1, x[0]) //(x[1])=> Interlocked.Add (ref sum2, x[1]));

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  • Hide / Show menu code not working after postback

    - by WraithNath
    I have a button on my web page that toggles the menu, After a postback the menu comes back despite me updating a hidden field value to store its state. Am I doing something wrong here? If there is a better way of doing it, let me know! Markup: <asp:Button ID="btnMenu" runat="server" Text="Hide Menu" UseSubmitBehavior="False" OnClientClick="return toggleMenu(this);" /> <asp:Panel runat="server" ID="pnlMenuToggle"> //Main Menu </asp:Panel> <asp:Panel runat="server" ID="pnlSubMenuToggle"> //Sub Menu </asp:Panel> <asp:HiddenField ID="hfMenuState" runat="server" Value="true" /> <script> //Toggles menu visibility function toggleMenu(menuButton) { var menuVisible = $('#<%=hfMenuState.ClientID%>').val() == 'true' ? true : false; $('#<%=pnlMenuToggle.ClientID%>').slideToggleWidth(); $('#<%=pnlSubMenuToggle.ClientID%>').slideToggle('slow'); //Update whether the menu is visible menuVisible = !menuVisible; //Update menu button text $(menuButton).val(menuVisible ? 'Hide Menu' : 'Show Menu'); $('#<%=hfMenuState.ClientID%>').val(menuVisible) return false; } </script> Code Behind: (Page Load) bool menu = Convert.ToBoolean( hfMenuState.Value ); pnlMenuToggle.Visible = menu; pnlSubMenuToggle.Visible = menu; The javascripts updates the hidden field value but it looks like this is never posted back to the server. What can I do to make sure the menu stays hidden after postbacks. I have also tried putting the hidden field in an Update Panel with Update Mode set to Always

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  • How can I write a function template for all types with a particular type trait?

    - by TC
    Consider the following example: struct Scanner { template <typename T> T get(); }; template <> string Scanner::get() { return string("string"); } template <> int Scanner::get() { return 10; } int main() { Scanner scanner; string s = scanner.get<string>(); int i = scanner.get<int>(); } The Scanner class is used to extract tokens from some source. The above code works fine, but fails when I try to get other integral types like a char or an unsigned int. The code to read these types is exactly the same as the code to read an int. I could just duplicate the code for all other integral types I'd like to read, but I'd rather define one function template for all integral types. I've tried the following: struct Scanner { template <typename T> typename enable_if<boost::is_integral<T>, T>::type get(); }; Which works like a charm, but I am unsure how to get Scanner::get<string>() to function again. So, how can I write code so that I can do scanner.get<string>() and scanner.get<any integral type>() and have a single definition to read all integral types? Update: bonus question: What if I want to accept more than one range of classes based on some traits? For example: how should I approach this problem if I want to have three get functions that accept (i) integral types (ii) floating point types (iii) strings, respectively.

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  • Cannot implicitly convert type ...

    - by Newbie
    I have the following function public Dictionary<DateTime, object> GetAttributeList( EnumFactorType attributeType ,Thomson.Financial.Vestek.Util.DateRange dateRange) { DateTime startDate = dateRange.StartDate; DateTime endDate = dateRange.EndDate; return (( //Step 1: Iterate over the attribute list and filter the records by // the supplied attribute type from assetAttribute in AttributeCollection where assetAttribute.AttributeType.Equals(attributeType) //Step2:Assign the TimeSeriesData collection into a temporary variable let timeSeriesList = assetAttribute.TimeSeriesData //Step 3: Iterate over the TimeSeriesData list and filter the records by // the supplied date from timeSeries in timeSeriesList.ToList() where timeSeries.Key >= startDate && timeSeries.Key <= endDate //Finally build the needed collection select new AssetAttribute() { TimeSeriesData = PopulateTimeSeriesData(timeSeries.Key, timeSeries.Value) }).ToList<AssetAttribute>().Select(i => i.TimeSeriesData)); } private Dictionary<DateTime, object> PopulateTimeSeriesData(DateTime dateTime, object value) { Dictionary<DateTime, object> timeSeriesData = new Dictionary<DateTime, object>(); timeSeriesData.Add(dateTime, value); return timeSeriesData; } Error:Cannot implicitly convert type 'System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable' to 'System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary'. An explicit conversion exists (are you missing a cast?) Using C#3.0 Please help

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  • Will C++0x support __stdcall or extern "C" capture-nothing lambdas?

    - by Daniel Trebbien
    Yesterday I was thinking about whether it would be possible to use the convenience of C++0x lambda functions to write callbacks for Windows API functions. For example, what if I wanted to use a lambda as an EnumChildProc with EnumChildWindows? Something like: EnumChildWindows(hTrayWnd, CALLBACK [](HWND hWnd, LPARAM lParam) { // ... return static_cast<BOOL>(TRUE); // continue enumerating }, reinterpret_cast<LPARAM>(&myData)); Another use would be to write extern "C" callbacks for C routines. E.g.: my_class *pRes = static_cast<my_class*>(bsearch(&key, myClassObjectsArr, myClassObjectsArr_size, sizeof(my_class), extern "C" [](const void *pV1, const void *pV2) { const my_class& o1 = *static_cast<const my_class*>(pV1); const my_class& o2 = *static_cast<const my_class*>(pV2); int res; // ... return res; })); Is this possible? I can understand that lambdas that capture variables will never be compatible with C, but it at least seems possible to me that capture-nothing lambdas can be compatible.

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  • How to implement iterator as an attribute of a class in Java

    - by de3
    Hi, let's say I have this simple MyArray class, with two simple methods: add, delete and an iterator. In the main method we can see how it is supposed to be used: public class MyArray { int start; int end; int[] arr; myIterator it; public MyArray(){ this.start=0; this.end=0; this.arr=new int[500]; it=new myIterator(); } public void add(int el){ this.arr[this.end]=el; this.end++; } public void delete(){ this.arr[this.start]=0; this.start++; } public static void main(String[] args){ MyArray m=new MyArray(); m.add(3); m.add(299); m.add(19); m.add(27); while(m.it.hasNext()){ System.out.println(m.it.next()); } } And then MyIterator should be implemented somehow: import java.util.Iterator; public class myIterator implements Iterator{ @Override public boolean hasNext() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return false; } @Override public Object next() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return null; } @Override public void remove() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } } MyIterator should iterate arr from MyArray class, from start to end values; both are also attributes of MyArray. So, as MyIterator should use MyArray attributes, how should MyIterator be implemented? Perhaps I can send the current object in the initialization: it=new myIterator(this); But I guess it's not the best soultion. Or maybe MyArray itself should implement Iterator interface? How is this solved?

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  • SCons and dependencies for python function generating source

    - by elmo
    I have an input file data, a python function parse and a template. What I am trying to do is use parse function to get dictionary out of data and use that to replace fields in template. Now to make this a bit more generic (I perform the same action in few places) I have defined a custom function to do so. Below is definition of custom builder and values is a dictionary with { 'name': (data_file, parse_function) } (you don't really need to read through this, I simply put it here for completeness). def TOOL_ADD_FILL_TEMPLATE(env): def FillTemplate(env, output, template, values): out = output[0] subs = {} for name, (node, process) in values.iteritems(): def Process(env, target, source): with open( env.GetBuildPath(target[0]), 'w') as out: out.write( process( source[0] ) ) builder = env.Builder( action = Process ) subs[name] = builder( env, env.GetBuildPath(output[0])+'_'+name+'_processed.cpp', node )[0] def Fill(env, target, source): values = dict( (name, n.get_contents()) for name, n in subs.iteritems() ) contents = template[0].get_contents().format( **values ) open( env.GetBuildPath(target[0]), 'w').write( contents ) builder = env.Builder( action = Fill ) builder( env, output[0], template + subs.values() ) return output env.Append(BUILDERS = {'FillTemplate': FillTemplate}) It works fine when it comes to checking if data or template changed. If it did it rebuilds the output. It even works if I edit process function directly. However if my process function looks like this: def process( node ): return subprocess(node) and I edit subprocess the change goes unnoticed. Is there any way to get correct builds without making process functions being always invoked?

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  • jquery: How to deal with 'this' in ajax callbacks

    - by Svish
    I currently have code similar to this for a form: $('#some-form') .submit(function() { // Make sure we are not already busy if($(this).data('busy')) return false; $(this).data('busy', true); // Do post $.post("some/url", $(this).serialize(), function(data) { if(data.success) // Success is a boolean I set in the result on the server { // Deal with data } else { // Display error } $('#some-form') .removeData('busy'); }); return false; }); My issue is that I would like to somehow remove the need for knowing the form id in the post callback. In the end where I remove the busy data from the form, I'd like to somehow not have that hard coded. Is there any way I can do this? Is there a way I can hand whatever is in this to the post callback function? Since I know the id right now, I can get around it by doing what I have done, but I'd like to know how to not be dependant on knowing the id, since often I don't have an id. (For example if I have a link in each row in a table and all the rows have the same click handler.

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  • How to format JSON Date?

    - by Mark Struzinski
    I'm taking my first crack at AJAX with jQuery. I'm getting my data onto my page, but I'm having some trouble with the JSON that is returned for Date data types. Basically, I'm getting a string back that looks like this: /Date(1224043200000)/ From a total newbie at JSON - How do I format this to a short date format? Should this be handled somewhere in the jQuery code? I've tried the jQuery.UI.datepicker plugin using $.datepicker.formatDate() wiuth no success. FYI: Here's the solution I came up with using a combination of the answers here: function getMismatch(id) { $.getJSON("Main.aspx?Callback=GetMismatch", { MismatchId: id }, function(result) { $("#AuthMerchId").text(result.AuthorizationMerchantId); $("#SttlMerchId").text(result.SettlementMerchantId); $("#CreateDate").text(formatJSONDate(Date(result.AppendDts))); $("#ExpireDate").text(formatJSONDate(Date(result.ExpiresDts))); $("#LastUpdate").text(formatJSONDate(Date(result.LastUpdateDts))); $("#LastUpdatedBy").text(result.LastUpdateNt); $("#ProcessIn").text(result.ProcessIn); } ); return false; } function formatJSONDate(jsonDate){ var newDate = dateFormat(jsonDate, "mm/dd/yyyy"); return newDate; } This solution got my object from the callback method and displayed the dates on the page properly using the date format library.

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