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  • How to make 2 incompatible types, but with the same members, interchangeable?

    - by Quigrim
    Yesterday 2 of the guys on our team came to me with an uncommon problem. We are using a third-party component in one of our winforms applications. All the code has already been written against it. They then wanted to incorporate another third-party component, by the same vender, into our application. To their delight they found that the second component had the exact same public members as the first. But to their dismay, the 2 components have completely separate inheritance hierarchies, and implement no common interfaces. Makes you wonder... Well, makes me wonder. An example of the problem: public class ThirdPartyClass1 { public string Name { get { return "ThirdPartyClass1"; } } public void DoThirdPartyStuff () { Console.WriteLine ("ThirdPartyClass1 is doing its thing."); } } public class ThirdPartyClass2 { public string Name { get { return "ThirdPartyClass2"; } } public void DoThirdPartyStuff () { Console.WriteLine ("ThirdPartyClass2 is doing its thing."); } } Gladly they felt copying and pasting the code they wrote for the first component was not the correct answer. So they were thinking of assigning the component instant into an object reference and then modifying the code to do conditional casts after checking what type it was. But that is arguably even uglier than the copy and paste approach. So they then asked me if I can write some reflection code to access the properties and call the methods off the two different object types since we know what they are, and they are exactly the same. But my first thought was that there goes the elegance. I figure there has to be a better, graceful solution to this problem.

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  • In Castle Windsor, can I register a Interface component and get a proxy of the implementation?

    - by Thiado de Arruda
    Lets consider some cases: _windsor.Register(Component.For<IProductServices>().ImplementedBy<ProductServices>().Interceptors(typeof(SomeInterceptorType)); In this case, when I ask for a IProductServices windsor will proxy the interface to intercept the interface method calls. If instead I do this : _windsor.Register(Component.For<ProductServices>().Interceptors(typeof(SomeInterceptorType)); then I cant ask for windsor to resolve IProductServices, instead I ask for ProductServices and it will return a dynamic subclass that will intercept virtual method calls. Of course the dynamic subclass still implements 'IProductServices' My question is : Can I register the Interface component like the first case, and get the subclass proxy like in the second case?. There are two reasons for me wanting this: 1 - Because the code that is going to resolve cannot know about the ProductServices class, only about the IProductServices interface. 2 - Because some event invocations that pass the sender as a parameter, will pass the ProductServices object, and in the first case this object is a field on the dynamic proxy, not the real object returned by windsor. Let me give an example of how this can complicate things : Lets say I have a custom collection that does something when their items notify a property change: private void ItemChanged(object sender, PropertyChangedEventArgs e) { int senderIndex = IndexOf(sender); SomeActionOnItemIndex(senderIndex); } This code will fail if I added an interface proxy, because the sender will be the field in the interface proxy and the IndexOf(sender) will return -1.

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  • In Java, can a final field be initialized from a constructor helper?

    - by csj
    I have a final non-static member: private final HashMap<String,String> myMap; I would like to initialize it using a method called by the constructor. Since myMap is final, my "helper" method is unable to initialize it directly. Of course I have options: I could implement the myMap initialization code directly in the constructor. MyConstructor (String someThingNecessary) { myMap = new HashMap<String,String>(); myMap.put("blah","blahblah"); // etc... // other initialization stuff unrelated to myMap } I could have my helper method build the HashMap, return it to the constructor, and have the constructor then assign the object to myMap. MyConstructor (String someThingNecessary) { myMap = InitializeMyMap(someThingNecessary); // other initialization stuff unrelated to myMap } private HashMap<String,String> InitializeMyMap(String someThingNecessary) { HashMap<String,String> initializedMap = new HashMap<String,String>(); initializedMap.put("blah","blahblah"); // etc... return initializedMap; } Method #2 is fine, however, I'm wondering if there's some way I could allow the helper method to directly manipulate myMap. Perhaps a modifier that indicates it can only be called by the constructor? MyConstructor (String someThingNecessary) { InitializeMyMap(someThingNecessary); // other initialization stuff unrelated to myMap } // helper doesn't work since it can't modify a final member private void InitializeMyMap(String someThingNecessary) { myMap = new HashMap<String,String>(); myMap.put("blah","blahblah"); // etc... }

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  • Hide / Show menu code not working after postback

    - by WraithNath
    I have a button on my web page that toggles the menu, After a postback the menu comes back despite me updating a hidden field value to store its state. Am I doing something wrong here? If there is a better way of doing it, let me know! Markup: <asp:Button ID="btnMenu" runat="server" Text="Hide Menu" UseSubmitBehavior="False" OnClientClick="return toggleMenu(this);" /> <asp:Panel runat="server" ID="pnlMenuToggle"> //Main Menu </asp:Panel> <asp:Panel runat="server" ID="pnlSubMenuToggle"> //Sub Menu </asp:Panel> <asp:HiddenField ID="hfMenuState" runat="server" Value="true" /> <script> //Toggles menu visibility function toggleMenu(menuButton) { var menuVisible = $('#<%=hfMenuState.ClientID%>').val() == 'true' ? true : false; $('#<%=pnlMenuToggle.ClientID%>').slideToggleWidth(); $('#<%=pnlSubMenuToggle.ClientID%>').slideToggle('slow'); //Update whether the menu is visible menuVisible = !menuVisible; //Update menu button text $(menuButton).val(menuVisible ? 'Hide Menu' : 'Show Menu'); $('#<%=hfMenuState.ClientID%>').val(menuVisible) return false; } </script> Code Behind: (Page Load) bool menu = Convert.ToBoolean( hfMenuState.Value ); pnlMenuToggle.Visible = menu; pnlSubMenuToggle.Visible = menu; The javascripts updates the hidden field value but it looks like this is never posted back to the server. What can I do to make sure the menu stays hidden after postbacks. I have also tried putting the hidden field in an Update Panel with Update Mode set to Always

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  • Random Alpha numeric generator

    - by AAA
    Hi, I want to give our users in the database a unique alpha-numeric id. I am using the code below, will this always generate a unique id? Below is the old and updated version of the code: New php: // Generate Guid function NewGuid() { $s = strtoupper(md5(uniqid("something",true))); $guidText = substr($s,0,8) . '-' . substr($s,8,4) . '-' . substr($s,12,4). '-' . substr($s,16,4). '-' . substr($s,20); return $guidText; } // End Generate Guid $Guid = NewGuid(); echo $Guid; echo "<br><br><br>"; Old PHP: // Generate Guid function NewGuid() { $s = strtoupper(md5(uniqid("something",true))); $guidText = substr($s,0,8) . '-' . substr($s,8,4) . '-' . substr($s,12,4). '-' . substr($s,16,4). '-' . substr($s,20); return $guidText; } // End Generate Guid $Guid = NewGuid(); echo $Guid; echo "<br><br><br>"; Will this first code guarantee uniqueness?

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  • Properly obsoleting old members in an XML Serializable class in C# VB .NET

    - by George
    Hi! Some time ago I defined a class that was serialized using XML. That class contained a serializable propertyA of integer type. Now I have extended and updated this class, whereby a new propertyB was added, whose type is another class that also has several serializable properties. The new propertyB is now supposed to play the role of propertyA, that is since type of propertyB is another class, one of its members would contain the value that previously propertyA contained, thus making peroptyA obsolete. What I am trying to figure out is how do I make sure that when I desireliaze the OLD version of this class (without propertyB in it), I make sure that the desreializer would take the value of propertyA from the old calss and set it as a value of one of the members of propertyB in a new class? Private WithEvents _Position As Position = New Position(Alignment.MiddleMiddle, 0, True, 0, True) Public Property Position() As Position 'NEW composite property that holds the value of the obsolted property, i.e. Alignment Get Return _Position End Get Set(ByVal value As Position) _Position = value End Set End Property Private _Alignment As Alignment = Alignment.MiddleMiddle <Xml.Serialization.XmlIgnore(), Obsolete("Use Position property instead.")> _ Public Property Alignment() As Alignment'The old, obsoleted property that I guess must be left for compliance with deserializing the old version of this class Get Return _Alignment End Get Set(ByVal value As Alignment) _Alignment = value End Set End Property Can you help me, please?

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  • Problem in homemade function to merge objects

    - by Eric
    I'm trying to make a function that merges arrays. The reason is, I have a function that supposed to get the settings of an entity, and merge them with the global defaults. //So for example, let's say globalOptions is something like this var globalOptions={opt1:'foo',opt2:'something'}; //and this is entityOptions var entityOptions={opt1:'foofoo',opt2:null}; The only difference is it has objects in objects and objects in objects in objects, so what I made was a function that loops through all objects, thinking I would later, easily be able to loop through it all. Please ignore the array thing. That is defected, but unneeded. function loopObj(obj, call, where, objcall, array) { if ($.isArray(obj) || $.isPlainObject(obj)) { for (i in obj) { if ($.isArray(obj)) { if (array) { loopObj(obj[i], call, where[where.length] = i, true); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } else { loopObj(obj[i], call, where+'['+i+']', false); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } } else { if (array) { loopObj(obj[i], call, where[where.length] = parseInt(i), true); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } else { loopObj(obj[i], call, where+'[\''+i+'\']', false); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } } } } else { return call(obj,where); } } Then I made this program to convert it: function mergeObj(a,b) { temp.retd = new Object(); loopObj(a,function (c,d) { if (c) { eval(d.replace('%par%','temp.retd'))=c; } else { eval(d.replace('%par%','temp.retd'))=eval(d.replace('%par%','b')); } },'%par%', true); return temp.retd(); } I get the error: Uncaught ReferenceError: Invalid left-hand side in assignment (anonymous function)base.js:51 loopObjbase.js:40 loopObjbase.js:31 mergeObjbase.js:46 (anonymous function)base.js:72 I know what it means, the eval returns an anonomys variable (copy of the variable), so I can't set it, only get it.

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  • xpath php attributes not working?

    - by Jared
    Getting this error Call to a member function attributes() on a non-object I have found multiple answers to this on SO, but none of them seem to solve my problem? Here is the XML: <Routes> <Route type="source" name="incoming"> </Route> <Routes> Here is the PHP: $doc = new SimpleXMLElement('routingConfig.xml', null, true); class traverseXML { function getData() { global $doc; $routeCount = count($doc -> xpath("Route")); //this value returns correctly $routeArr = array(); for ($i = 1; $i <= $routeCount; $i++) { $name = $doc -> Route[$i] -> attributes() -> name; array_push($routeArr, $name); } return $routeArr; } } $traverseXML = new traverseXML; var_dump($traverseXML -> getData()); I understand what the error means, but how is it a non-object? How do I return the name attribute of Routes/Route[1] ?

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  • SCons and dependencies for python function generating source

    - by elmo
    I have an input file data, a python function parse and a template. What I am trying to do is use parse function to get dictionary out of data and use that to replace fields in template. Now to make this a bit more generic (I perform the same action in few places) I have defined a custom function to do so. Below is definition of custom builder and values is a dictionary with { 'name': (data_file, parse_function) } (you don't really need to read through this, I simply put it here for completeness). def TOOL_ADD_FILL_TEMPLATE(env): def FillTemplate(env, output, template, values): out = output[0] subs = {} for name, (node, process) in values.iteritems(): def Process(env, target, source): with open( env.GetBuildPath(target[0]), 'w') as out: out.write( process( source[0] ) ) builder = env.Builder( action = Process ) subs[name] = builder( env, env.GetBuildPath(output[0])+'_'+name+'_processed.cpp', node )[0] def Fill(env, target, source): values = dict( (name, n.get_contents()) for name, n in subs.iteritems() ) contents = template[0].get_contents().format( **values ) open( env.GetBuildPath(target[0]), 'w').write( contents ) builder = env.Builder( action = Fill ) builder( env, output[0], template + subs.values() ) return output env.Append(BUILDERS = {'FillTemplate': FillTemplate}) It works fine when it comes to checking if data or template changed. If it did it rebuilds the output. It even works if I edit process function directly. However if my process function looks like this: def process( node ): return subprocess(node) and I edit subprocess the change goes unnoticed. Is there any way to get correct builds without making process functions being always invoked?

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  • Monads with Join() instead of Bind()

    - by MathematicalOrchid
    Monads are usually explained in turns of return and bind. However, I gather you can also implement bind in terms of join (and fmap?) In programming languages lacking first-class functions, bind is excruciatingly awkward to use. join, on the other hand, looks quite easy. I'm not completely sure I understand how join works, however. Obviously, it has the [Haskell] type join :: Monad m = m (m x) - m x For the list monad, this is trivially and obviously concat. But for a general monad, what, operationally, does this method actually do? I see what it does to the type signatures, but I'm trying to figure out how I'd write something like this in, say, Java or similar. (Actually, that's easy: I wouldn't. Because generics is broken. ;-) But in principle the question still stands...) Oops. It looks like this has been asked before: Monad join function Could somebody sketch out some implementations of common monads using return, fmap and join? (I.e., not mentioning >>= at all.) I think perhaps that might help it to sink in to my dumb brain...

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  • How to find sum of node's value for given depth in binary tree?

    - by masato-san
    I've been scratching my head for several hours for this... problem: Binary Tree (0) depth 0 / \ 10 20 depth 1 / \ / \ 30 40 50 60 depth 2 I am trying to write a function that takes depth as argument and return the sum of values of nodes of the given depth. For instance, if I pass 2, it should return 180 (i.e. 30+40+50+60) I decided to use breath first search and when I find the node with desired depth, sum up the value, but I just can't figure out how to find out the way which node is in what depth. But with this approach I feel like going to totally wrong direction. function level_order($root, $targetDepth) { $q = new Queue(); $q->enqueue($root); while(!$q->isEmpty) { //how to determin the depth of the node??? $node = $q->dequeue(); if($currentDepth == $targetDepth) { $sum = $node->value; } if($node->left != null) { $q->enqueue($node->left); } if($node->right != null) { $q->enqueue($node->right); } //need to reset this somehow $currentDepth ++; } }

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  • Two references to the same domain/entity model

    - by Sbossb
    Problem I want to save the attributes of a model that have changed when a user edits them. Here's what I want to do ... Retrieve edited view model Get domain model and map back updated value Call the update method on repository Get the "old" domain model and compare values of the fields Store the changed values (in JSON) into a table However I am having trouble with step number 4. It seems that the Entity Framework doesn't want to hit the database again to get the model with the old values. It just returns the same entity I have. Attempted Solutions I have tried using the Find() and the SingleOrDefault() methods, but they just return the model I currently have. Example Code private string ArchiveChanges(T updatedEntity) { //Here is the problem! //oldEntity is the same as updatedEntity T oldEntity = DbSet.SingleOrDefault(x => x.ID == updatedEntity.ID); Dictionary<string, object> changed = new Dictionary<string, object>(); foreach (var propertyInfo in typeof(T).GetProperties()) { var property = typeof(T).GetProperty(propertyInfo.Name); //Get the old value and the new value from the models var newValue = property.GetValue(updatedEntity, null); var oldValue = property.GetValue(oldEntity, null); //Check to see if the values are equal if (!object.Equals(newValue, oldValue)) { //Values have changed ... log it changed.Add(propertyInfo.Name, newValue); } } var ser = new System.Web.Script.Serialization.JavaScriptSerializer(); return ser.Serialize(changed); } public override void Update(T entityToUpdate) { //Do something with this string json = ArchiveChanges(entityToUpdate); entityToUpdate.AuditInfo.Updated = DateTime.Now; entityToUpdate.AuditInfo.UpdatedBy = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name; base.Update(entityToUpdate); }

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  • How to catch this low level MySQL (?) error in PHP/Magento

    - by andnil
    When I'm executing the following statement in Magento with a really large $sku, the execution terminates without any errors thrown what so ever. There are no errors in either Magento's, Apache's or PHP's error logs. Mage::getModel('catalog/product')-loadByAttribute('sku', $sku); Question: How do I catch the error? I've tried to set custom error handlers, and for testing purposes I've also managed to trigger error situations where each of the error handler functions are invoked. But when running the previously mentioned Magento code with a large $sku, none of the error handling functions are executed. error_reporting( -1 ); set_error_handler( array( 'Error', 'captureNormal' ) ); set_exception_handler( array( 'Error', 'captureException' ) ); register_shutdown_function( array( 'Error', 'captureShutdown' ) ); For completeness, this is the $sku I'm passing to loadByAttribute(). (The sku is invalid, but that is not the issue) 1- 9685 0102046|1- 9685 1212100|1- 9685 1212092|1- 9685 1212096|1- 9685 1102100|1- 9685 1102108|1- 9685 1102112|1- 9685 1102092|1- 9685 0102048|1- 9685 0102054|1- 9685 0102056|1- 9685 0102058|1- 9685 1212104|1- 9685 1212108|1- 9685 0212058|1- 9685 0104050|1- 9685 0212050|1- 9685 0212056|1- 9685 0212044|1- 9685 0212048|1- 9685 0212052|1- 9685 0212054|1- 9685 1102104|1- 9685 1102124 Any insight into this matter is much appreciated! Update: Upon further investigation, this is the exact point in the code where execution terminates. when the foreach is executed I guess Magento goes into MySQL world and starts loading up data from the database. \Mage\Catalog\Model\Abstract.php public function loadByAttribute($attribute, $value, $additionalAttributes = '*') { $collection = $this->getResourceCollection() ->addAttributeToSelect($additionalAttributes) ->addAttributeToFilter($attribute, $value) ->setPage(1,1); foreach ($collection as $object) { // <--------------- HERE return $object; } return false; } Note, I'm ONLY interested in finding out how to properly CATCH these kinds of errors, not "fix" the logic. This is so that I can present a proper error message to the user. The example above with the malformed sku is contrived and I have no desire to make my Magento app work with those erroneous skus.

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  • ASP.NET Custom Control - Template Allowing Literal Content

    - by Bob Fincheimer
    I want my User Control to be able to have Literal Content inside of it. For Example: <fc:Text runat="server">Please enter your login information:</fc:Text> Currently the code for my user control is: <ParseChildren(True, "Content")> _ Partial Public Class ctrFormText Inherits FormControl Private _content As ArrayList <PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerDefaultProperty), _ DesignerSerializationVisibility(DesignerSerializationVisibility.Content), _ TemplateInstance(TemplateInstance.Single)> _ Public Property Content() As ArrayList Get If _content Is Nothing Then Return New ArrayList End If Return _content End Get Set(ByVal value As ArrayList) _content = value End Set End Property Protected Overrides Sub CreateChildControls() If _content IsNot Nothing Then ctrChildren.Controls.Clear() For Each i As Control In _content ctrChildren.Controls.Add(i) Next End If MyBase.CreateChildControls() End Sub End Class And when I put text inside this control (like above) i get this error: Parser Error Message: Literal content ('Please enter your login information to access CKMS:') is not allowed within a 'System.Collections.ArrayList'. This control could have other content than just the text, so making the Content property an attribute will not solve my problem. I found in some places that I need to implement a ControlBuilder Class, along with another class that implements IParserAccessor. Anyway I just want my default "Content" property to have all types of controls allowed in it, both literal and actual controls.

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  • Why does my simple event handling example not work?

    - by njreed
    I am trying to make a simple event handler. (Note, I'm not trying to implement a full-blown publish/subscribe model; I'm just interested in why my example doesn't work as I think it should) var myObj = (function () { var private = "X"; function triggerEvent(eventName) { if (this[eventName]) { this[eventName](); } } // Setter / Getter function getProp() { return private; } function setProp(value) { private = value; triggerEvent("onPropChange"); } // Public API return { // Events "onPropChange": null, // Fires when prop value is changed // Methods "getProp": getProp, "setProp": setProp }; })(); // Now set event handler myObj.onPropChange = function () { alert("You changed the property!"); }; myObj.setProp("Z"); // --> Nothing happens. Wrong // Why doesn't my alert show? I set the onPropChange property of my object to a simpler handler function but it is not being fired. I have debugged this and it seems that in triggerEvent the variable this is referencing the global window object. I thought it should reference myObj (which is what I need). Can someone explain the error in my thinking and how I correct this? Help much appreciated. jsFiddle here

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  • Angular throws "Error: Invalid argument." in IE

    - by przno
    I have a directive which takes element's text and places wbr elements after every 10th character. I'm using it for example on table cells with long text (e.g. URLs), so it does not span over the table. Code of the directive: myApp.directive('myWbr', function ($interpolate) { return { restrict: 'A', link: function (scope, element, attrs) { // get the interpolated text of HTML element var expression = $interpolate(element.text()); // get new text, which has <wbr> element on every 10th position var addWbr = function (inputText) { var newText = ''; for (var i = 0; i < inputText.length; i++) { if ((i !== 0) && (i % 10 === 0)) newText += '<wbr>'; // no end tag newText += inputText[i]; } return newText; }; scope.$watch(function (scope) { // replace element's content with the new one, which contains <wbr>s element.html(addWbr(expression(scope))); }); } }; }); Works fine except in IE (I have tried IE8 and IE9), where it throws an error to the console: Error: Invalid argument. Here is jsFiddle, when clicking on the button you can see the error in console. So obvious question: why is the error there, what is the source of it, and why only in IE? (Bonus question: how can I make IE dev tools to tell me more about error, like the line from source code, because it took me some time to locate it, Error: Invalid argument. does not tell much about the origin.) P.S.: I know IE does not know the wbr at all, but that is not the issue. Edit: in my real application I have re-written the directive to not to look on element's text and modify that, but rather pass the input text via attribute, and works fine now in all browsers. But I'm still curious why the original solution was giving that error in IE, thus starting the bounty.

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  • Using pair in c++

    - by user1543957
    Can someone please tell why i am unable to compile the following program #include<iostream> #include<string> #include<cmath> #include<iostream> #include<cfloat> #define MOD 10000009 using namespace std; double distance(pair<int,int> p1,pair<int,int> p2) { double dist; dist = sqrt( (p1.first-p2.first)*(p1.first-p2.first) + (p1.second-p2.second)*(p1.second-p2.second) ); return(dist); } int main() { int N,i,j; cin >> N; pair<int,int> pi[N]; for(i=0;i<N;i++) { cin >> pi[i].first >> pi[i].second; } for(i=0;i<N;i++) { cout << pi[i].first << " "<< pi[i].second << endl; } distance(pi[0],pi[1]); // This line is giving error return 0; }

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  • how to disable an onclick event?

    - by user1819709
    <form id="QandA" action="<?php echo htmlentities($action); ?>" method="post"> <table id="question"> <tr> <td colspan="2"> <a onclick="return plusbutton();"> <img src="Images/plussign.jpg" width="30" height="30" alt="Look Up Previous Question" class="plusimage" id="mainPlusbutton" name="plusbuttonrow"/> </a> <span id="plussignmsg">(Click Plus Sign to look up Previous Questions)</span> </td> </tr> </table> </form> In the code above I am able to replace an image with another image when the if statement is met. But my problem is that when the image is replaced, it does not disable the on click event. My question is that when the image is replaced, how do I disable the onclick event onclick="return plusbutton();?

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  • Best way to design a class in python

    - by Fraz
    So, this is more like a philosophical question for someone who is trying to understand classes. Most of time, how i use class is actually a very bad way to use it. I think of a lot of functions and after a time just indent the code and makes it a class and replacing few stuff with self.variable if a variable is repeated a lot. (I know its bad practise) But anyways... What i am asking is: class FooBar: def __init__(self,foo,bar): self._foo = foo self._bar = bar self.ans = self.__execute() def __execute(self): return something(self._foo, self._bar) Now there are many ways to do this: class FooBar: def __init__(self,foo): self._foo = foo def execute(self,bar): return something(self._foo, bar) Can you suggest which one is bad and which one is worse? or any other way to do this. This is just a toy example (offcourse). I mean, there is no need to have a class here if there is one function.. but lets say in __execute something() calls a whole set of other methods.. ?? Thanks

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  • Laravel check if id exists?

    - by devt204
    I've two columns in contents tables 1. id 2. content now this is what i'm trying to do Route::post('save', function() { $editor_content=Input::get('editor_content'); $rules = array('editor_content' => 'required'); $validator= Validator::make(Input::all(), $rules); if($validator->passes()) { //1. check if id is submitted? //2. if id exists update content table //3. else insert new content //create new instance $content= new Content; // insert the content to content column $content->content = $editor_content; //save the content $content->save(); // check if content has id $id=$content->id; return Response::json(array('success' => 'sucessfully saved', 'id' => $id)); } if($validator->fails()) { return $validator->messages() ; } }); i wanted to check if id has been already submit or checked i'm processing the request via ajax, and if id exists i wanted update the content column and if it doesn't i wanted to create new instance how do i do it ?

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  • C++ STL 101: Overload function causes build error

    - by Sidjal
    Trivial code that works if I do not overload myfunc. void myfunc(int i) { std::cout << "calling myfunc with arg " << i << std::endl; } void myfunc(std::string s) { std::cout << "calling myfunc with arg " << s << std::endl; } void testalgos() { std::vector<int> v; v.push_back(1); v.push_back(2); std::vector<std::string> s; s.push_back("one"); s.push_back("two"); std::for_each( v.begin(), v.end(), myfunc); std::for_each( s.begin(), s.end(), myfunc); return; } int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { std::cout << "Hello World" << std::endl; testalgos(); return 0; } The following build errors repeat for both for_each calls. error C2914: 'std::for_each' : cannot deduce template argument as function argument is ambiguous error C2784: '_Fn1 std::for_each(_InIt,_InIt,_Fn1)' : could not deduce template argument for '_InIt' from 'std::_Vector_iterator<_Ty,_Alloc'. It does work if I do not overload myfunc.Can someone explain what is happening here. TIA

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  • how to compare two tables fields name with another value in mysql?

    - by I Like PHP
    I have two tables table_school school_open_time|school_close_time|school_day 8:00 AM | 9:00PM | Monday 10:00 AM | 7:00PM | Wednesday table_college college_open_time|college_close_time|college_day 10:00 AM | 8:00PM | Monday 10:00 AM | 9:00PM | Tuesday 10:00 AM | 5:00PM | Wednesday Now I want to select school_open_time school_close time, college_open_time and college_close_time according to today (means college_day=school_day=today), and also if there is no row for a specific day in any of one table then it display blank field ( LEFT JOIN , I think I can use). Please suggest me best and optimized query for this. UPDATE: if there is no open time and close time for school then college_open_time and college_close_time has to be returned( not to be filled in database,just return) as school_open_time and school_close_time. and there always must be college_open_time and college_close_time for a given day MORE UPDATE: i m using below query SELECT college_open_time,college_close_time ,school_open_time, school_close_time FROM tbl_college LEFT JOIN tbl_school ON school_owner_id=college_owner_id WHERE college_owner_id='".$_session['user_id']."' AND college_day='".date('l',time())."'"; it return single row (left hand having some value and right hand having blank value) when there is no row of a given day in table_school, BUT display seven rows with same value on left hand side(college_open_time, college_close_time) and 6 blank row on right hand side (school_open_time and school_close_time) i need only one row when both table have a row of a given day but using above query take only first row of corresponding table_school where school_owner_id is 50(let), it not see the condition that school_day name should be given day

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  • Applying a function that may fail to all values in a list

    - by Egwor
    I want to apply a function f to a list of values, however function f might randomly fail (it is in effect making a call out to a service in the cloud). I thought I'd want to use something like map, but I want to apply the function to all elements in the list and afterwards, I want to know which ones failed and which were successful. Currently I am wrapping the response objects of the function f with an error pair which I could then effectively unzip afterwards i.e. something like g : (a->b) -> a -> [ b, errorBoolean] f : a-> b and then to run the code ... map g (xs) Is there a better way to do this? The other alternative approach was to iterate over the values in the array and then return a pair of arrays, one which listed the successful values and one which listed the failures. To me, this seems to be something that ought to be fairly common. Alternatively I could return some special value. What's the best practice in dealing with this??

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  • pass Value from class to JFrame

    - by MYE
    Hello everybody! i have problem between pass value from Class to another JFrame my code write follow MVC Model. Therefore i have 1 class is controller , one jframe is view and 1 class is model. i have some handle process on controller to get value on it and i want this value to jframe but not pass by constructor . How can i pass value from class to jframe and when value be pass jframe will use it to handle. Ex: public class A{ private String str; public A(){ } public void handle(){ ViewFrame v = new ViewFrame(); v.setVisible(true); v.pack(). v.setSize(330,600); str = "Hello World"; //init value here v.getString(str);// pass value to jframe here. } } ======================= public class ViewFrame extends JFrame{ private String str; public ViewFrame (){ System.out.println(str); } public String getString(String str){ return this.str = str; } } but it return null??

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  • C# property exactly the same, defined in two places

    - by Sarah Vessels
    I have the following classes: Defect - represents a type of data that can be found in a database FilterQuery - provides a way of querying the database by setting simple Boolean filters Both Defect and FilterQuery implement the same interface: IDefectProperties. This interface specifies particular fields that are in the database. Different classes have methods that return lists of Defect instances. With FilterQuery, you specify some filters for the particular properties implemented as part of IDefectProperties, and then you run the query and get back a list of Defect instances. My problem is that I end up implementing some properties exactly the same in FilterQuery and Defect. The two are inherently different classes, they just share some of the same properties. For example: public DateTime SubmitDateAsDate { get { return DateTime.Parse(SubmitDate); } set { SubmitDate = value.ToString(); } } This is a property required by IDefectProperties that depends on a different property, SubmitDate, which returns a string instead of a DateTime. Now SubmitDate is implemented differently in Defect and FilterQuery, but SubmitDateAsDate is exactly the same. Is there a way that I can define SubmitDateAsDate in only place, but both Defect and FilterQuery provide it as a property? FilterQuery and Defect already inherit from two different classes, and it wouldn't make sense for them to share an ancestor anyway, I think. I am open to suggestions as to my design here as well.

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