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  • ASP.NET Custom Control - Template Allowing Literal Content

    - by Bob Fincheimer
    I want my User Control to be able to have Literal Content inside of it. For Example: <fc:Text runat="server">Please enter your login information:</fc:Text> Currently the code for my user control is: <ParseChildren(True, "Content")> _ Partial Public Class ctrFormText Inherits FormControl Private _content As ArrayList <PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerDefaultProperty), _ DesignerSerializationVisibility(DesignerSerializationVisibility.Content), _ TemplateInstance(TemplateInstance.Single)> _ Public Property Content() As ArrayList Get If _content Is Nothing Then Return New ArrayList End If Return _content End Get Set(ByVal value As ArrayList) _content = value End Set End Property Protected Overrides Sub CreateChildControls() If _content IsNot Nothing Then ctrChildren.Controls.Clear() For Each i As Control In _content ctrChildren.Controls.Add(i) Next End If MyBase.CreateChildControls() End Sub End Class And when I put text inside this control (like above) i get this error: Parser Error Message: Literal content ('Please enter your login information to access CKMS:') is not allowed within a 'System.Collections.ArrayList'. This control could have other content than just the text, so making the Content property an attribute will not solve my problem. I found in some places that I need to implement a ControlBuilder Class, along with another class that implements IParserAccessor. Anyway I just want my default "Content" property to have all types of controls allowed in it, both literal and actual controls.

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  • Operator+ for a subtype of a template class.

    - by baol
    I have a template class that defines a subtype. I'm trying to define the binary operator+ as a template function, but the compiler cannot resolve the template version of the operator+. #include <iostream> template<typename other_type> struct c { c(other_type v) : cs(v) {} struct subtype { subtype(other_type v) : val(v) {} other_type val; } cs; }; template<typename other_type> typename c<other_type>::subtype operator+(const typename c<other_type>::subtype& left, const typename c<other_type>::subtype& right) { return typename c<other_type>::subtype(left.val + right.val); } // This one works // c<int>::subtype operator+(const c<int>::subtype& left, // const c<int>::subtype& right) // { return c<int>::subtype(left.val + right.val); } int main() { c<int> c1 = 1; c<int> c2 = 2; c<int>::subtype cs3 = c1.cs + c2.cs; std::cerr << cs3.val << std::endl; } I think the reason is because the compiler (g++4.3) cannot guess the template type so it's searching for operator+<int> instead of operator+. What's the reason for that? What elegant solution can you suggest?

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  • Getting rejected value null spring validation

    - by Shabarinath
    Hi in my project when I am trying to validate my form its not showing any error messages even if validation fails (Event Form is not submitted and enters into validation fail block) Here is my code /****************** Post Method *************/ @RequestMapping(value="/property", method = RequestMethod.POST) public String saveOrUpdateProperty(@ModelAttribute("property") Property property, BindingResult result, Model model, HttpServletRequest request) throws Exception { try { if(validateFormData(property, result)) { model.addAttribute("property", new Property()); return "property/postProperty"; } } /********* Validate Block *************/ private boolean validateFormData(Property property, BindingResult result) throws DaoException { if (property.getPropertyType() == null || property.getPropertyType().equals("")) { result.rejectValue("propertyType", "Cannot Be Empty !", "Cannot Be Empty !"); } if (property.getTitle() == null || property.getTitle().equals("")) { result.rejectValue("title", "Cannot Be Empty !", "Cannot Be Empty !"); } return (result.hasFieldErrors() || result.hasErrors()); } But when i debug i can see below one org.springframework.validation.BeanPropertyBindingResult: 1 errors Field error in object 'property' on field 'title': rejected value [null]; codes [Cannot Be Empty !.property.title,Cannot Be Empty !.title,Cannot Be Empty !.java.lang.String,Cannot Be Empty !]; arguments []; default message [Cannot Be Empty !] and this is how i am displaying in jsp file <div class="control-group"> <div class="controls"> <label class="control-label"><span class="required">* </span>Property Type</label> <div class="controls"> <form:input path="title" placeholder="Pin Code" cssClass="form-control border-radius-4 textField"/> <form:errors path="title" style="color:red;"/> </div> </div> </div> Event though when i see the below one when i debug (1 Error its correct) org.springframework.validation.BeanPropertyBindingResult: 1 errors Why it is not displayed in jsp can any one hep me?

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  • How to make 2 incompatible types, but with the same members, interchangeable?

    - by Quigrim
    Yesterday 2 of the guys on our team came to me with an uncommon problem. We are using a third-party component in one of our winforms applications. All the code has already been written against it. They then wanted to incorporate another third-party component, by the same vender, into our application. To their delight they found that the second component had the exact same public members as the first. But to their dismay, the 2 components have completely separate inheritance hierarchies, and implement no common interfaces. Makes you wonder... Well, makes me wonder. An example of the problem: public class ThirdPartyClass1 { public string Name { get { return "ThirdPartyClass1"; } } public void DoThirdPartyStuff () { Console.WriteLine ("ThirdPartyClass1 is doing its thing."); } } public class ThirdPartyClass2 { public string Name { get { return "ThirdPartyClass2"; } } public void DoThirdPartyStuff () { Console.WriteLine ("ThirdPartyClass2 is doing its thing."); } } Gladly they felt copying and pasting the code they wrote for the first component was not the correct answer. So they were thinking of assigning the component instant into an object reference and then modifying the code to do conditional casts after checking what type it was. But that is arguably even uglier than the copy and paste approach. So they then asked me if I can write some reflection code to access the properties and call the methods off the two different object types since we know what they are, and they are exactly the same. But my first thought was that there goes the elegance. I figure there has to be a better, graceful solution to this problem.

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  • binary quicksort

    - by davit-datuashvili
    hi i want implement Binary quicksort algorithm from robert sedgewick book it looks like this public class quickb{ public static final int bitsword=32; public static void quicksortB(int a[],int l,int r,int d){ int i=l; int j=r-1; if (r<=l || d>bitsword) return ; while (j!=i) { while (digit(a[i],d)==0 && (i<j)) i++; while (digit(a[j],d)==1 && (j>i)) j++; int t=a[i]; a[i]=a[j]; a[j]=t; } if (digit(a[r-1],d)== 0) j++; quicksortB(a,l,j-1,d+1); quicksortB(a,j,r,d+1); } public static void main(String[]args){ int a[]=new int[]{4,7,3,9,8,2}; quicksortB(a,0,a.length-1,0); for (int i=0;i<a.length;i++){ System.out.println(a[i]); } } public static int digit(int m,int d){ return (m>>d)&1; } } but it show me error: java.lang.ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException: 6 at quickb.quicksortB(quickb.java:13) at quickb.main(quickb.java:32) what is wrong?

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  • Silverlight 4 caching issue?

    - by DavidS
    I am currently experiencing a weird caching problem it would seem. When I load my data intially, I return all the data within given dates and my graph looks as follows: Then I filter the data to return a subset of the original data for the same date range (not that it matters) and I get the following view of my data: However, I intermittently get the following when I refresh the same filterd view of the data: One can see that not all the data gets cached but only some of it i.e. for 12 Dec 2010 and 5 dec 2010(not shown here). I've looked at my queries and the correct data is getting pulled out. It is only on the presentation layer i.e. on Mainpage.xaml.cs that this erroneous data seems to exist. I've stepped through the code and the data is corect through all the layers except on the presentation layer. Has anyone experienced this before? Is there some sort of caching going in the background that is keeping that data in the background as I've got browser caching off? I am using the LoadOperation in the callback method within the Load method of the DomainContext if that helps...

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  • how to fetch data from Plist in Label

    - by SameSung Vs Iphone
    I have a RegistrationController screen to store email-id ,password,DOB,Height,Weight and logininController screen to match email-id and password to log-in purpose. Now In some third screen I have to fetch only the Height,Weight from the plist of the logged-in user to display it on the label.now if I Store the values of email-id and password in from LoginViewController in string and call it in the new screen to match if matches then gives Height,Weight ..if it corrects then how to fetch Height,Weight from the plist of the same one. how can i fetch from the stored plist in a string... the code which i used to match in LoginController -(NSArray*)readFromPlist { NSArray *documentPaths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDirectory = [documentPaths objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *documentPlistPath = [documentsDirectory stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"XYZ.plist"]; NSDictionary *dict = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithContentsOfFile:documentPlistPath]; NSArray *valueArray = [dict objectForKey:@"title"]; return valueArray; } - (void)authenticateCredentials { NSMutableArray *plistArray = [NSMutableArray arrayWithArray:[self readFromPlist]]; for (int i = 0; i< [plistArray count]; i++) { id object = [plistArray objectAtIndex:i]; if ([object isKindOfClass:[NSDictionary class]]) { NSDictionary *objDict = (NSDictionary *)object; if ([[objDict objectForKey:@"pass"] isEqualToString:emailTextFeild.text] && [[objDict objectForKey:@"title"] isEqualToString:passwordTextFeild.text]) { NSLog(@"Correct credentials"); return; } NSLog(@"INCorrect credentials"); } else { NSLog(@"Error! Not a dictionary"); } } }

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  • how to disable an onclick event?

    - by user1819709
    <form id="QandA" action="<?php echo htmlentities($action); ?>" method="post"> <table id="question"> <tr> <td colspan="2"> <a onclick="return plusbutton();"> <img src="Images/plussign.jpg" width="30" height="30" alt="Look Up Previous Question" class="plusimage" id="mainPlusbutton" name="plusbuttonrow"/> </a> <span id="plussignmsg">(Click Plus Sign to look up Previous Questions)</span> </td> </tr> </table> </form> In the code above I am able to replace an image with another image when the if statement is met. But my problem is that when the image is replaced, it does not disable the on click event. My question is that when the image is replaced, how do I disable the onclick event onclick="return plusbutton();?

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  • Changing UIViews during UIInterfaceOrientation on iPad

    - by FreeAppl3
    I am trying to change views on rotation because my views have to be significantly different from portrait to landscape. Now the code I am using works once then the app freezes when trying to rotate back. Either direction does not make a difference. For example: If I am in Landscape and rotate to portrait everything works great until I rotate back to landscape then it freezes and does absolutely nothing. Here is the code I am using to achieve this In my "viewDidLoad" method [[UIDevice currentDevice] beginGeneratingDeviceOrientationNotifications]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(didRotate:) name:UIDeviceOrientationDidChangeNotification object:nil]; Then I call this for the rotation: - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { // Return YES for supported orientations return YES; } - (void)didRotate:(NSNotification *)notification { UIDeviceOrientation orientation = [[UIDevice currentDevice] orientation]; if ((orientation == UIDeviceOrientationLandscapeLeft) || (orientation == UIDeviceOrientationLandscapeLeft)) { // present the other viewController, it's only viewable in landscape [self.view addSubview:landScapeView]; } if ((orientation == UIDeviceOrientationLandscapeRight) || (orientation == UIDeviceOrientationLandscapeRight)) { // present the other viewController, it's only viewable in landscape [self.view addSubview:landScapeView]; } else if ((orientation == UIDeviceOrientationPortrait || (orientation == UIDeviceOrientationPortrait)) { // get rid of the landscape controller [self.view addSubview:portrait]; } else if ((orientation == UIDeviceOrientationPortraitUpsideDown || (orientation == UIDeviceOrientationPortraitUpsideDown)) { // get rid of the landscape controller [self.view addSubview:portrait]; } }

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  • Optimize jQuery code

    - by Dannemannen
    Greetings, Just built some stuff with jQuery, everything works perfect(!), but I would like it to be as optimzed as possible.. what small changes can I do to my code? $(document).ready(function() { // hide the indicator, we use it later $(".indicator").hide(); // start the animation of the progressbar $(".fill").animate({ width: "50px",}, 4000, function() { $(".indicator").effect("pulsate", { times:999 }, 2000);}); // notify-me ajax function $(".btn-submit").click(function() { // get the variable email and put it in a new variable var email = $("input#mail").val(); var dataString = 'mail='+email; $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/mail.php", data: dataString, dataType: "json", success: function(msg){ // JSON return, lets do some magic if(msg.status == "ok") { $("#response-box").fadeIn("slow").delay(2000).fadeOut("slow"); $("#fade").fadeIn("slow").delay(2000).fadeOut("slow"); $("#response-box .inner").html("<h1>Thank you.</h1>We'll keep in touch!"); $("#mail").val("e.g. [email protected]"); } else { $("#response-box").fadeIn("slow").delay(2000).fadeOut("slow"); $("#fade").fadeIn("slow").delay(2000).fadeOut("slow"); $("#response-box .inner").html("<h1>Oops.</h1>Please try again!"); } } }); //make sure the form doesn't post return false; }); });

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  • Using the read function to read in a file.

    - by robUK
    Hello, gcc 4.4.1 I am using the read function to read in a wave file. However, when it gets to the read function. Execution seems to stop and freezes. I am wondering if I am doing anything wrong with this. The file size test-short.wave is: 514K. What I am aiming for is to read the file into the memory buffer chunks at a time. Currently I just testing this. Many thanks for any suggestions, #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <errno.h> #include <fcntl.h> #include <string.h> #include <unistd.h> int main(void) { char buff = malloc(10240); int32_t fd = 0; int32_t bytes_read = 0; char *filename = "test-short.wav"; /* open wave file */ if((fd = (open(filename, O_RDWR)) == -1)) { fprintf(stderr, "open [ %s ]\n", strerror(errno)); return 1; } printf("Opened file [ %s ]\n", filename); printf("sizeof(buff) [ %d ]\n", sizeof(buff)); printf("strlen(buff) [ %d ]\n", strlen(buff)); bytes_read = read(fd, buff, sizeof(buff)); printf("Bytes read [ %d ]\n", bytes_read); return 0; }

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  • In Castle Windsor, can I register a Interface component and get a proxy of the implementation?

    - by Thiado de Arruda
    Lets consider some cases: _windsor.Register(Component.For<IProductServices>().ImplementedBy<ProductServices>().Interceptors(typeof(SomeInterceptorType)); In this case, when I ask for a IProductServices windsor will proxy the interface to intercept the interface method calls. If instead I do this : _windsor.Register(Component.For<ProductServices>().Interceptors(typeof(SomeInterceptorType)); then I cant ask for windsor to resolve IProductServices, instead I ask for ProductServices and it will return a dynamic subclass that will intercept virtual method calls. Of course the dynamic subclass still implements 'IProductServices' My question is : Can I register the Interface component like the first case, and get the subclass proxy like in the second case?. There are two reasons for me wanting this: 1 - Because the code that is going to resolve cannot know about the ProductServices class, only about the IProductServices interface. 2 - Because some event invocations that pass the sender as a parameter, will pass the ProductServices object, and in the first case this object is a field on the dynamic proxy, not the real object returned by windsor. Let me give an example of how this can complicate things : Lets say I have a custom collection that does something when their items notify a property change: private void ItemChanged(object sender, PropertyChangedEventArgs e) { int senderIndex = IndexOf(sender); SomeActionOnItemIndex(senderIndex); } This code will fail if I added an interface proxy, because the sender will be the field in the interface proxy and the IndexOf(sender) will return -1.

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  • Applying a function that may fail to all values in a list

    - by Egwor
    I want to apply a function f to a list of values, however function f might randomly fail (it is in effect making a call out to a service in the cloud). I thought I'd want to use something like map, but I want to apply the function to all elements in the list and afterwards, I want to know which ones failed and which were successful. Currently I am wrapping the response objects of the function f with an error pair which I could then effectively unzip afterwards i.e. something like g : (a->b) -> a -> [ b, errorBoolean] f : a-> b and then to run the code ... map g (xs) Is there a better way to do this? The other alternative approach was to iterate over the values in the array and then return a pair of arrays, one which listed the successful values and one which listed the failures. To me, this seems to be something that ought to be fairly common. Alternatively I could return some special value. What's the best practice in dealing with this??

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  • Properly obsoleting old members in an XML Serializable class in C# VB .NET

    - by George
    Hi! Some time ago I defined a class that was serialized using XML. That class contained a serializable propertyA of integer type. Now I have extended and updated this class, whereby a new propertyB was added, whose type is another class that also has several serializable properties. The new propertyB is now supposed to play the role of propertyA, that is since type of propertyB is another class, one of its members would contain the value that previously propertyA contained, thus making peroptyA obsolete. What I am trying to figure out is how do I make sure that when I desireliaze the OLD version of this class (without propertyB in it), I make sure that the desreializer would take the value of propertyA from the old calss and set it as a value of one of the members of propertyB in a new class? Private WithEvents _Position As Position = New Position(Alignment.MiddleMiddle, 0, True, 0, True) Public Property Position() As Position 'NEW composite property that holds the value of the obsolted property, i.e. Alignment Get Return _Position End Get Set(ByVal value As Position) _Position = value End Set End Property Private _Alignment As Alignment = Alignment.MiddleMiddle <Xml.Serialization.XmlIgnore(), Obsolete("Use Position property instead.")> _ Public Property Alignment() As Alignment'The old, obsoleted property that I guess must be left for compliance with deserializing the old version of this class Get Return _Alignment End Get Set(ByVal value As Alignment) _Alignment = value End Set End Property Can you help me, please?

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  • Implementing inotifycollectionchanged interface

    - by George
    Hello, I need to implement a collection with special capabilities. In addition, I want to bind this collection to a ListView, Therefore I ended up with the next code (I omitted some methods to make it shorter here in the forum): public class myCollection<T> : INotifyCollectionChanged { private Collection<T> collection = new Collection<T>(); public event NotifyCollectionChangedEventHandler CollectionChanged; public void Add(T item) { collection.Insert(collection.Count, item); OnCollectionChange(new NotifyCollectionChangedEventArgs(NotifyCollectionChangedAction.Add, item)); } protected virtual void OnCollectionChange(NotifyCollectionChangedEventArgs e) { if (CollectionChanged != null) CollectionChanged(this, e); } } I wanted to test it with a simple data class: public class Person { public string GivenName { get; set; } public string SurName { get; set; } } So I created an instance of myCollection class as follows: myCollection<Person> _PersonCollection = new myCollection<Person>(); public myCollection<Person> PersonCollection { get { return _PersonCollection; } } The problem is that the ListView does not update when the collection updates although I implemented the INotifyCollectionChanged interface. I know that my binding is fine (in XAML) because when I use the ObservableCollecion class instead of myCollecion class like this: ObservableCollection<Person> _PersonCollection = new ObservableCollection<Person>(); public ObservableCollection<Person> PersonCollection { get { return _PersonCollection; } } the ListView updates What is the problem?

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  • Easy HTTPS to PHP script

    - by Tom
    Hi, here is my scenario: I have a website with php, mySQL. I have a software application that has a login screen and sends usernames and passwords over the web by http: public String GetWebPageSource(String pURL) { try { byte[] vReceivedBytes = null; using (System.Net.WebClient vWebClient = new System.Net.WebClient()) { vReceivedBytes = vWebClient.DownloadData(pURL); } int vBomLen = 3; byte[] vStrippedBytes = new byte[vReceivedBytes.Length - vBomLen]; Array.Copy(vReceivedBytes, vBomLen, vStrippedBytes, 0, vReceivedBytes.Length - vBomLen); return System.Text.Encoding.UTF8.GetString(vStrippedBytes); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.Message); return null; } } So to send a username and password I would write: GetWebPageSource("http://mywebsite.com/Login.php?username=stackoverflow&password=iscool") and the php file would spit out some text saying whether the password is accepted or denied. However this is NOT secure. So I want to make it secure... https. How easy is it to integrate https? How much will the code change? How much do I have to handle? What is transparent to me. Do I have to check if a cookie already exists and if not write the methods for authentication or is there librarys already provided that will do it for me?

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  • C++ STL 101: Overload function causes build error

    - by Sidjal
    Trivial code that works if I do not overload myfunc. void myfunc(int i) { std::cout << "calling myfunc with arg " << i << std::endl; } void myfunc(std::string s) { std::cout << "calling myfunc with arg " << s << std::endl; } void testalgos() { std::vector<int> v; v.push_back(1); v.push_back(2); std::vector<std::string> s; s.push_back("one"); s.push_back("two"); std::for_each( v.begin(), v.end(), myfunc); std::for_each( s.begin(), s.end(), myfunc); return; } int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { std::cout << "Hello World" << std::endl; testalgos(); return 0; } The following build errors repeat for both for_each calls. error C2914: 'std::for_each' : cannot deduce template argument as function argument is ambiguous error C2784: '_Fn1 std::for_each(_InIt,_InIt,_Fn1)' : could not deduce template argument for '_InIt' from 'std::_Vector_iterator<_Ty,_Alloc'. It does work if I do not overload myfunc.Can someone explain what is happening here. TIA

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  • Finding occurrences of element before and after the element in Array

    - by user3718040
    I am writing a algorithm, if an array contain 3 does not contain between two 1s. like this int array={5, 2, 10, 3, 15, 1, 2, 2} the above array contain 3, before 3 there is no 1 and after 3 is one 1 it should return True. int array={3,2,18,1,0,3,-11,1,3} in this array after first element of 3 there is two 1 it should return False. I have try following code public class Third { public static void main(String[] args){ int[] array = {1,2,4,3, 1}; for(int i=0;i<array.length;i++) { if(array[i]==3) { for(int j=0;j<array[i];j++) { if(array[j]==1) { System.out.println("I foud One before "+array[j]); }else { break; } System.out.println("yes i found the array:"+array[i]); } for(int z=0;z>array[i];z++) { if(array[z]==1) { System.out.println("I found after 3 is :"+array[z]); } break; } } } } } I am not getting exact result from my above code which i want.

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  • PHP - Calling function inside another class -> function

    - by Kolind
    I'm trying to do this: class database { function editProvider($post) { $sql = "UPDATE tbl SET "; foreach($post as $key => $val): if($key != "providerId") { $val = formValidate($val); $sqlE[] = "`$key`='$val'"; } endforeach; $sqlE = implode(",", $sqlE); $where = ' WHERE `id` = \''.$post['id'].'\''; $sql = $sql . $sqlE . $where; $query = mysql_query($sql); if($query){ return true; } } // }//end class And then use this function * INSIDE of another class *: function formValidate($string){ $string = trim($string); $string = mysql_real_escape_string($string); return $string; } // .. on $val. Why doesn't this work? if I write in a field of the form, it's not escaping anything at all. How can that be? * UPDATE * handler.php: if(isset($_GET['do'])){ if($_GET['do'] == "addLogin") { $addLogin = $db->addLogin($_POST); } if($_GET['do'] == "addProvider") { $addProvider = $db->addProvider($_POST); } if($_GET['do'] == "editProfile") { $editProfile = $db->editProfile($_POST); } if($_GET['do'] == "editProvider") { $editProvider = $db->editProvider($_POST); } } //end if isset get do ** The editProvider function works fine except for this :-) **

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  • how to compare two tables fields name with another value in mysql?

    - by I Like PHP
    I have two tables table_school school_open_time|school_close_time|school_day 8:00 AM | 9:00PM | Monday 10:00 AM | 7:00PM | Wednesday table_college college_open_time|college_close_time|college_day 10:00 AM | 8:00PM | Monday 10:00 AM | 9:00PM | Tuesday 10:00 AM | 5:00PM | Wednesday Now I want to select school_open_time school_close time, college_open_time and college_close_time according to today (means college_day=school_day=today), and also if there is no row for a specific day in any of one table then it display blank field ( LEFT JOIN , I think I can use). Please suggest me best and optimized query for this. UPDATE: if there is no open time and close time for school then college_open_time and college_close_time has to be returned( not to be filled in database,just return) as school_open_time and school_close_time. and there always must be college_open_time and college_close_time for a given day MORE UPDATE: i m using below query SELECT college_open_time,college_close_time ,school_open_time, school_close_time FROM tbl_college LEFT JOIN tbl_school ON school_owner_id=college_owner_id WHERE college_owner_id='".$_session['user_id']."' AND college_day='".date('l',time())."'"; it return single row (left hand having some value and right hand having blank value) when there is no row of a given day in table_school, BUT display seven rows with same value on left hand side(college_open_time, college_close_time) and 6 blank row on right hand side (school_open_time and school_close_time) i need only one row when both table have a row of a given day but using above query take only first row of corresponding table_school where school_owner_id is 50(let), it not see the condition that school_day name should be given day

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  • Is Using Tuples in my .NET 4.0 Code a Poor Design Decision?

    - by Jason Webb
    With the addition of the Tuple class in .net 4, I have been trying to decide if using them in my design is a bad choice or not. The way I see it, a Tuple can be a shortcut to writing a result class (I am sure there are other uses too). So this: public class ResultType { public string StringValue { get; set; } public int IntValue { get; set; } } public ResultType GetAClassedValue() { //..Do Some Stuff ResultType result = new ResultType { StringValue = "A String", IntValue = 2 }; return result; } Is equivalent to this: public Tuple<string, int> GetATupledValue() { //...Do Some stuff Tuple<string, int> result = new Tuple<string, int>("A String", 2); return result; } So setting aside the possibility that I am missing the point of Tuples, is the example with a Tuple a bad design choice? To me it seems like less clutter, but not as self documenting and clean. Meaning that with the type ResultType, it is very clear later on what each part of the class means but you have extra code to maintain. With the Tuple<string, int> you will need to look up and figure out what each Item represents, but you write and maintain less code. Any experience you have had with this choice would be greatly appreciated.

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  • How To Select First Ancestor That Matches A Selector?

    - by Zach
    General: How can I select the first matching ancestor of an element in jQuery? Example: Take this HTML block <table> <tbody> <tr> <td> <a href="#" class="remove">Remove</a> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> <a href="#" class="remove">Remove</a> </td> </tr> </tbody> </table> I can remove a row in the table by clicking "Remove" using this jQuery code: $('.remove').click(function(){ $(this).parent().parent().hide(); return false; }); This works, but it's pretty fragile. If someone puts the <a> into a <div>, for example, it would break. Is there a selector syntax in jQuery that follows this logic: "Here's an element, now find the closest ancestor that matches some selection criteria and return it" Thanks

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  • Mapping many-to-many association table with extra column(s)

    - by user635524
    My database contains 3 tables: User and Service entities have many-to-many relationship and are joined with the SERVICE_USER table as follows: USERS - SERVICE_USER - SERVICES SERVICE_USER table contains additional BLOCKED column. What is the best way to perform such a mapping? These are my Entity classes @Entity @Table(name = "USERS") public class User implements java.io.Serializable { private String userid; private String email; @Id @Column(name = "USERID", unique = true, nullable = false,) public String getUserid() { return this.userid; } .... some get/set methods } @Entity @Table(name = "SERVICES") public class CmsService implements java.io.Serializable { private String serviceCode; @Id @Column(name = "SERVICE_CODE", unique = true, nullable = false, length = 100) public String getServiceCode() { return this.serviceCode; } .... some additional fields and get/set methods } I followed this example http://giannigar.wordpress.com/2009/09/04/m ... using-jpa/ Here is some test code: User user = new User(); user.setEmail("e2"); user.setUserid("ui2"); user.setPassword("p2"); CmsService service= new CmsService("cd2","name2"); List<UserService> userServiceList = new ArrayList<UserService>(); UserService userService = new UserService(); userService.setService(service); userService.setUser(user); userService.setBlocked(true); service.getUserServices().add(userService); userDAO.save(user); The problem is that hibernate persists User object and UserService one. No success with the CmsService object I tried to use EAGER fetch - no progress Is it possible to achieve the behaviour I'm expecting with the mapping provided above? Maybe there is some more elegant way of mapping many to many join table with additional column?

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  • Dynamic Array of Objects Sans Vector Class

    - by Connor Black
    I am doing a homework assignment for my summer OO class and we need to write two classes. One is called Sale and the other is called Register. I've written my Sale class; here's the .h file: enum ItemType {BOOK, DVD, SOFTWARE, CREDIT}; class Sale { public: Sale(); // default constructor, // sets numerical member data to 0 void MakeSale(ItemType x, double amt); ItemType Item(); // Returns the type of item in the sale double Price(); // Returns the price of the sale double Tax(); // Returns the amount of tax on the sale double Total(); // Returns the total price of the sale void Display(); // outputs sale info private: double price; // price of item or amount of credit double tax; // amount of sales tax double total; // final price once tax is added in. ItemType item; // transaction type }; For the Register class we need to include a dynamic array of Sale objects in our member data. We cannot use the vector class. How is this done? Here's my 'Register' '.h' class Register{ public: Register(int ident, int amount); ~Register(); int GetID(){return identification;} int GetAmount(){return amountMoney;} void RingUpSale(ItemType item, int basePrice); void ShowLast(); void ShowAll(); void Cancel(); int SalesTax(int n); private: int identification; int amountMoney; };

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  • Operator overloading in generic struct: can I create overloads for specific kinds(?) of generic?

    - by Carson Myers
    I'm defining physical units in C#, using generic structs, and it was going okay until I got the error: One of the parameters of a binary operator must be the containing type when trying to overload the mathematical operators so that they convert between different units. So, I have something like this: public interface ScalarUnit { } public class Duration : ScalarUnit { } public struct Scalar<T> where T : ScalarUnit { public readonly double Value; public Scalar(double Value) { this.Value = Value; } public static implicit operator double(Scalar<T> Value) { return Value.Value; } } public interface VectorUnit { } public class Displacement : VectorUnit { } public class Velocity : VectorUnit { } public struct Vector<T> where T : VectorUnit { #... public static Vector<Velocity> operator /(Vector<Displacement> v1, Scalar<Duration> v2) { return new Vector<Velocity>(v1.Magnitude / v2, v1.Direction); } } There aren't any errors for the + and - operators, where I'm just working on a Vector<T>, but when I substitute a unit for T, suddenly it doesn't like it. Is there a way to make this work? I figured it would work, since Displacement implements the VectorUnit interface, and I have where T : VectorUnit in the struct header. Am I at least on the right track here? I'm new to C# so I have difficulty understanding what's going on sometimes.

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