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  • Android ListView: how to select an item?

    - by mmo
    I am having trouble with a ListView I created: I want an item to get selected when I click on it. My code for this looks like: protected void onResume() { ... ListView lv = getListView(); lv.setOnItemSelectedListener(new OnItemSelectedListener() { public void onItemSelected(AdapterView<?> adapterView, View view, int pos, long id) { Log.v(TAG, "onItemSelected(..., " + pos + ",...) => selected: " + getSelectedItemPosition()); } public void onNothingSelected(AdapterView<?> adapterView) { Log.v(TAG, "onNothingSelected(...) => selected: " + getSelectedItemPosition()); } }); lv.setOnItemClickListener(new OnItemClickListener() { public void onItemClick(AdapterView<?> adapterView, View view, int pos, long id) { lv.setSelection(pos); Log.v(TAG, "onItemClick(..., " + pos + ",...) => selected: " + getSelectedItemPosition()); } }); ... } When I run this and click e.g. on the second item (i.e. pos=1) I get: 04-03 23:08:36.994: V/DisplayLists(663): onItemClick(..., 1,...) => selected: -1 i.e. even though the OnItemClickListener is called with the proper argument and calls a setSelection(1), there is no item selected (and hence also OnItemSelectedListener.onItemSelected(...) is never called) and getSelectedItemPosition() still yields -1 after the setSelection(1)-call. What am I missing? Michael PS.: My list does have =2 elements...

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  • Creating many polygons with OpenGL is slow?

    - by user146780
    I want to draw many polygons to the screen but i'm quickly noticing that it slows down quickly. As a test I did this: for(int i = 0; i < 50; ++i) { glBegin( GL_POLYGON); glColor3f( 0.0f, 1, 0.0f ); glVertex2f( 500.0 + frameGL.GetCameraX(), 0.0f + frameGL.GetCameraY()); glColor3f( 0.0f, 1.0f, 0.0f ); glVertex2f( 900.0 + frameGL.GetCameraX(), 0.0f + frameGL.GetCameraY()); glColor3f( 0.0f, 0.0f, 0.5 ); glVertex2f(900.0 + frameGL.GetCameraX(), 500.0f + frameGL.GetCameraY() + (150)); glColor3f( 0.0f, 1.0f, 0.0f ); glVertex2f( 500 + frameGL.GetCameraX(), 500.0f + frameGL.GetCameraY()); glColor3f( 1.0f, 1.0f, 0.0f ); glVertex2f( 300 + frameGL.GetCameraX(), 200.0f + frameGL.GetCameraY()); glEnd(); } This is only 50 polygons and already it's gtting slow. I can't upload them directly to the card because my program will allow the user to reshape the verticies. My question is, how can I speed this up. I'm not using depth. I also know it's not my GetCamera() functions because if I create 500,000 polygons spread apart t's fine, it just has trouble showing them in the view. If a graphics card can support 500,000,000 on screen polygons per second, this should be easy right? Thanks

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  • Best Functional Approach

    - by dbyrne
    I have some mutable scala code that I am trying to rewrite in a more functional style. It is a fairly intricate piece of code, so I am trying to refactor it in pieces. My first thought was this: def iterate(count:Int,d:MyComplexType) = { //Generate next value n //Process n causing some side effects return iterate(count - 1, n) } This didn't seem functional at all to me, since I still have side effects mixed throughout my code. My second thought was this: def generateStream(d:MyComplexType):Stream[MyComplexType] = { //Generate next value n return Stream.cons(n, generateStream(n)) } for (n <- generateStream(initialValue).take(2000000)) { //process n causing some side effects } This seemed like a better solution to me, because at least I've isolated my functional value-generation code from the mutable value-processing code. However, this is much less memory efficient because I am generating a large list that I don't really need to store. This leaves me with 3 choices: Write a tail-recursive function, bite the bullet and refactor the value-processing code Use a lazy list. This is not a memory sensitive app (although it is performance sensitive) Come up with a new approach. I guess what I really want is a lazily evaluated sequence where I can discard the values after I've processed them. Any suggestions?

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  • Longer execution through Java shell than console?

    - by czuk
    I have a script in Python which do some computations. When I run this script in console it takes about 7 minutes to complete but when I run it thought Java shell it takes three times longer. I use following code to execute the script in Java: this.p = Runtime.getRuntime().exec("script.py --batch", envp); this.input = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(p.getInputStream())); this.output = new BufferedWriter(new OutputStreamWriter(p.getOutputStream())); this.error = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(p.getErrorStream())); Do you have any suggestion why the Python script runs three time longer in Java than in a console? update The computation goes as follow: Java sends data to the Python. Python reads the data. Python generates a decision tree --- this is a long operation. Python sends a confirmation that the tree is ready. Java receives the confirmation. Later there is a series of communications between Java and Python but it takes only several second.

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  • jQuery prevAll displaying text in backward ordering

    - by SoulieBaby
    hi all, I'm trying to use jQuery to get all the paragraphs before the first h2 tag in my content. Here's the code I'm using: $(".content").find("h2:first").prevAll().text() Which is grabbing the content, although it's displaying it in backwards order. Example content: <div class="content"> <p>paragraph 1</p> <p>paragraph 2</p> <p>paragraph 3</p> <h2>First h2 tag</h2> <p>paragraph 4</p> <p>paragraph 5</p> <p>paragraph 6</p> <h2>Second h2 tag</h2> </div> The above code is outputting: <p>paragraph 3</p> <p>paragraph 2</p> <p>paragraph 1</p> Is there any way of reversing this, so it's in the correct order? I have tried using nextAll using different codes, but it seems to grab all of my content, or not work at all lol

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  • The use of getters and setters for different programming languages [closed]

    - by leonhart88
    So I know there are a lot of questions on getters and setters in general, but I couldn't find something exactly like my question. I was wondering if people change the use of get/set depending on different languages. I started learning with C++ and was taught to use getters and setters. This is what I understand: In C++ (and Java?), a variable can either be public or private, but we cannot have a mix. For example, I can't have a read-only variable that can still be changed inside the class. It's either all public (can read and change it), or all private (can't read and can only change inside the class). Because of this (and possibly other reasons), we use getters and setters. In MATLAB, I can control the "setaccess" and "getaccess" properties of variables, so that I can make things read-only (can directly access the property, but can't overwrite it). In this case, I don't feel like I need a getter because I can just do class.property. Also, in Python it is considered "Pythonic" to not use getters/setters and to only put things into properties if needed. I don't really understand why its OK to have all public variables in Python, because that's opposite of what I learned when I started with C++. I'm just curious what other people's thoughts are on this. Would you use getters and setters for all languages? Would you only use it for C++/Java and do direct access in MATLAB and Python (which is what I am currently doing)? Is the second option considered bad? For my purposes, I am only referring to simple getters and setters (just return/set the value and do not do anything else). Thanks!

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  • R plotting multiple histograms on single plot to .pdf as a part of R batch script

    - by Bryce Thomas
    I am writing R scripts which play just a small role in a chain of commands I am executing from a terminal. Basically, I do much of my data manipulation in a Python script and then pipe the output to my R script for plotting. So, from the terminal I execute commands which look something like $python whatever.py | R CMD BATCH do_some_plotting.R. This workflow has been working well for me so far, though I have now reached a point where I want to overlay multiple histograms on the same plot, inspired by this answer to another user's question on Stackoverflow. Inside my R script, my plotting code looks like this: pdf("my_output.pdf") plot(hist(d$original,breaks="FD",prob=TRUE), col=rgb(0,0,1,1/4),xlim=c(0,4000),main="original - This plot is in beta") plot(hist(d$minus_thirty_minutes,breaks="FD",prob=TRUE), col=rgb(1,0,0,1/4),add=T,xlim=c(0,4000),main="minus_thirty_minutes - This plot is in beta") Notably, I am using add=T, which is presumably meant to specify that the second plot should be overlaid on top of the first. When my script has finished, the result I am getting is not two histograms overlaid on top of each other, but rather a 3-page PDF whose 3 individual plots contain the titles: i) Histogram of d$original ii) original - This plot is in beta iii) Histogram of d$minus_thirty_minutes So there's two points here I'm looking to clarify. Firstly, even if the plots weren't overlaid, I would expect just a 2-page PDF, not a 3-page PDF. Can someone explain why I am getting a 3-page PDF? Secondly, is there a correction I can make here somewhere to get just the two histograms plotted, and both of them on the same plot (i.e. 1-page PDF)? The other Stackoverflow question/answer I linked to in the first paragraph did mention that alpha-blending isn't supported on all devices, and so I'm curious whether this has anything to do with it. Either way, it would be good to know if there is a R-based solution to my problem or whether I'm going to have to pipe my data into a different language/plotting engine.

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  • What makes you trust that a piece of open source software is not malicious?

    - by Daniel DiPaolo
    We developers are in a unique position when it comes to the ability to not only be skeptical about the capabilities provided by open source software, but to actively analyze the code since it is freely available. In fact, one may even argue that open source software developers have a social responsibility to do so to contribute to the community. But at what point do you as a developer say, "I better take a look at what this is doing before I trust using it" for any given thing? Is it a matter of trusting code with your personal information? Does it depend on the source you're getting it from? What spurred this question on was a post on Hacker News to a javascript bookmarklet that supposedly tells you how "exposed" your information on Facebook is as well as recommending some fixes. I thought for a second "I'd rather not start blindly running this code over all my (fairly locked down) Facebook information so let me check it out". The bookmarklet is simple enough, but it calls another javascript function which at the time (but not anymore) was highly compressed and undecipherable. That's when I said "nope, not gonna do it". So even though I could have verified the original uncompressed javascript from the Github site and even saved a local copy to verify and then run without hitting their server, I wasn't going to. It's several thousand lines and I'm not a total javascript guru to begin with. Yet, folks are using it anyway. Even (supposedly) bright developers. What makes them trust the script? Did they all scrutinize it line by line? Do they know the guy personally and trust him not to do anything bad? Do they just take his word? What makes you trust that a piece of open source software is not malicious?

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  • Hibernate Exception Fixed By Alt+Tab

    - by Lee Theobald
    Hi all, I've got a very curious problem in Hibernate that I would like some opinions on. In my code if I do the following: Go to page A Click a link on page A to be taken to page B Click on data item on page B Exception thrown I get an error telling me: failed to lazily initialize a collection of role: XYZ, no session or session was closed Fair enough. But when I do the same thing but add an alt+tab in the middle, everything is fine. E.g. Go to page A Click a link on page A to be taken to page B Hit ALt+Tab to switch to another application Hit ALt+Tab to switch back to the web browser Click on data item on page B Everything is fine. I'm a little confused as to how switching focus from my application makes it act as I want it to. Does anyone have any light to shine on the subject? I don't think it's a locking issue as even if I do the second set of steps quicker than the first, still no error. It's a Seam application using Hibernate 3.3.2.GA & 3.4.0.GA.

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  • print friendly version of floated list

    - by Brad
    I have a list of phone extensions that I want to print a friendly version of it. I have a print css for it to print appropriately onto paper, the extensions are located within an unordered list, which are floated to the left. <ul> <li>Larry Hughes <span class="ext">8291</span></li> <li>Chuck Davis <span class="ext">3141</span></li> <li>Kevin Skillis <span class="ext">5115</span></li> </ul> I float it left, and when it prints the second page, it leaves off the name part of the list (in Firefox, works fine in Google Chrome and IE), see here: http://cl.ly/de965aea63f66c13ba32 I am referring to this: http://www.alistapart.com/articles/goingtoprint/ - they mentioned something about applying a float:none; to the content part of the page. If I do that, how should I go about making the list show up in 4 columns? It is a dynamic list, pulled from a database. Any help is appreciated.

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  • Want to mimic iphone address book search (In terms of interface & interaction)

    - by mr-sk
    Hi, When you do a search in the address book the flow is: 1) Select the search bar 2) The right most transparent a-z index is removed 3) A transparent black window is placed over the current UITableView 4) When you begin typing, a new UITableView is loaded with no data 5) The UITableView is populated with data as you type. 6) If you select an item you are brought to it 7) If you cancel the search you return to the main UITalbeView My first real question is, how do I load a new UITableView when a user begins searching? Is it as easy as popping a new view on the stack? It would then be a seperate .m/.h file with its own implementation? The second question is how do you remove the right most index? Or just that just go away when you render the new (blank) UITableView? I've gotten search working, but mine does it in the same UITableView, which when you start contains like 2K results, is grouped (A results under A Heading, etc) and has a right most index. I'd be happy leaving the results in the table, if I could; 1) Remove the rightmost a-z index 2) Drop the table groupings 3) Tell the view I only have N search results so it will build the scroll bar correctly. Thanks for your input; sk

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  • Running processes at different times stops events from working - C

    - by Jamie Keeling
    Hello, This is a question which follows on from my previously answered question here At first I assumed I had a problem with the way I was creating my events due to the handles for OpenEvent returning NULL, I have managed to find the real cause however I am not sure how to go about it. Basically I use Visual Studio to launch both Process A and B at the same time, in the past my OpenEvent handle wouldn't work due to Process A looking for the address of the event a fraction of a second before Process B had time to make it. My solution was to simply allow Process B to run before Process A, fixing the error. The problem I have now is that Process B now reads events from Process A and as you expect it too returns a null handle when trying to open the events from Process A. I am creating the events in WM_CREATE message of both processes, furthermore I also create a thread at the same time to open/read/act upon the events. It seems if I run them at the same time they don't get chance to see each other, alternatively if I run one before the other one of them misses out and can't open a Handle. Can anyone suggest a solution? Thanks.

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  • Add a value to an element in a list of sets

    - by Kapelson
    Hello. I'm using python, and I have a list of sets, constructed like this: list = [set([])]*n ...where n is the number of sets I want in the list. I want to add a value to a specific set in the list. Say, the second set. I tried list[1].add(value) But this instead adds the value to each set in the list. This behaviour is pretty non-intuitive to me. Through further tests, I think I've found the problem: the list apparently contains 10 instances of the same set, or ten pointers to the same set, or something. Constructing the list through repeated calls of list.append(set([])) allowed me to use the syntax above to add elements to single sets. So my question is this: what exactly is going on in my first list-construction technique? It is clear I don't understand the syntax so well. Also, is there a better way to intialize an n-element list? I've been using this syntax for a while and this is my first problem with it.

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  • Using hover to swap images, I don't want to swap images if I'm on '.this_page'...

    - by richoid
    When I land on the page, another function (not shown, that works fine) sets the class of the appropriate nav to '.this_page' and then I roll over, and the images swap correctly, but when I hover and leave 'img.this_page' it swaps, the second time I do the hover. I don't want it 'img.this_page' to swap. I tried unbinding mouseout, but on hover apparently it rebinds... so each time you hover, it resets. Page is at http://flourgarden.com/wp/ Here's my function: function hoverNavs() { var baseURL='http://www.flourgarden.com/wp/wp-content/themes/flourgarden/images/nav'; var cache=[]; $j('.lcolumn a img').each(function() { var t = $j(this); var src1 = t.attr('src'); // initial src var newSrc = src1.substring(src1.lastIndexOf('/'), src1.lastIndexOf('.')); // let's get file name without extension i = baseURL+newSrc+'_select.png'; cache.push(i); t.hover(function(){ $j(this).attr('src', baseURL+newSrc+ '_select.' + /[^.]+$/.exec(src1)); //last part is for extension }, function(){ if($j(this).class == "this_page") { $j(this).attr('src', baseURL+newSrc+ '_select.' + /[^.]+$/.exec(src1)); } else { $j(this).attr('src', baseURL+newSrc+ '.' + /[^.]+$/.exec(src1)); } }); }); }

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  • "Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoSuchMethodError Do i miss library in the installed JDk?

    - by Ahmad
    Hello every body I was using the JDK very well writing the code then i use "javac" to compile it then "java" to run it But Recently when i write a code and compile it then if i try to run it this exception appears to me "Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoSuchMethodError " at first i thought there is something wrong in my code , i searched in the internet for a solving for this problem but i didn't find anything may help me Then i try to run the "HelloWorld" example i made it before, it runs i copied the code and pasted it in another file and changed the name to "HelloWorld2" and compile it by "javac" and tried to run it by "java" the same exception appears i was surprised why? it is the same code then i used the "javap" which decompile the code with both i found this difference in the first one (the old one) "public static void main(java.lang.String[])"; but in the second (the new one) "public static void main(String[])"; without java.lang then i compiled the old one which works and runs by "javac" and when i try to run it, it didn't run and give me the same exception i tried with some of my old codes it run and when i compile it by "javac" it doesn't work I searched to find a solution to this problem and i found nothing

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  • How to add a has_many association on all models

    - by joshsz
    Right now I have an initializer that does this: ActiveRecord::Base.send :has_many, :notes, :as => :notable ActiveRecord::Base.send :accepts_nested_attributes_for, :notes It builds the association just fine, except when I load a view that uses it, the second load gives me: can't dup NilClass from: /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:2184:in `dup' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:2184:in `scoped_methods' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:2188:in `current_scoped_methods' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:2171:in `scoped?' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:2439:in `send' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:2439:in `initialize' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/reflection.rb:162:in `new' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/reflection.rb:162:in `build_association' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/associations/association_collection.rb:423:in `build_record' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/associations/association_collection.rb:102:in `build' (my app)/controllers/manifests_controller.rb:21:in `show' Any ideas? Am I doing this the wrong way? Interestingly if I move the association onto just the model I'm working with at the moment, I don't get this error. I figure I must be building the global association incorrectly.

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  • PHP: problem rendering large images (error 321)

    - by JP19
    Hi ... its me again with a php problem :) Following is part of my PHP script which is rendering JPEG images. ... $tf=$requested_file; $image_type="jpeg"; header("Content-type: image/${image_type}"); $CMD="\$image=imagecreatefrom${image_type}('$tf'); image${image_type}(\$image);"; eval($CMD); exit; ... There is no syntactical error, because above code is working fine for small images, but for large images, it gives: Error 321 (net::ERR_INVALID_CHUNKED_ENCODING): Unknown error. in the browser. To be sure, I created two images using imagemagick from same source image - one resized to 10% of original and other 90%. http://mostpopularsports.net/images/misc/ttt10.jpg works http://mostpopularsports.net/images/misc/ttt90.jpg gives Error 301 in the browser. There is a related question with solution posted by OP here Error writing content through Apache. but I cannot understand how to make the fix. Can someome help me with it? I have looked at the headers in Chrome. For the first request, everything is fine. For the second request - the request headers are all garbled. Both images are jpeg (as they are created from imagemagick. But still to be sure I checked): misc/ttt10.jpg: JPEG image data, JFIF standard 1.01 misc/ttt90.jpg: JPEG image data, JFIF standard 1.01 Finally, the way I fixed is, remove the Transfer-Encoding: chunked header from the response. [This header was sent by apache only when the data was large enough]. (I had an internal proxy, so did it in the proxy script - otherwise one may need to do it in apache settings). There were some good answers and I have selected the one that helped me solve the problem best. thanks JP

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  • Cannot pass null to server using jQuery AJAX. Value received at the server is the string "null".

    - by Tom
    I am converting a javascript/php/ajax application to use jQuery to ensure compatibility with browsers other than Firefox. I am having trouble passing true, false, and null values using jQuery's ajax function. Javascript code: $.ajax ( { url : <server_url>, dataType: 'json', type : 'POST', success : receiveAjaxMessage, data: { valueTrue : true, valueFalse : false, valueNull : null } } ); PHP code: var_dump($_POST); Server output: array(3) { ["valueTrue"]=> string(4) "true" ["valueFalse"]=> string(5) "false" ["valueNull"]=> string(4) "null" } The problem is that the null, true, and false values are being converted to strings. The Javascript AJAX code currently in use passes null, true, and false correctly but only works in Firefox. Does anyone know how to solve this problem using jQuery? Here is some working code (not using jQuery) to compare with the code not-working code given above. Javascript Code: ajaxPort.send ( <server_url>, { valueTrue : true, valueFalse : false, valueNull : null } ); PHP code: var_dump(json_decode(file_get_contents('php://input'), true)); Server output: array(3) { ["valueTrue"]=> bool(true) ["valueFalse"]=> bool(false) ["valueNull"]=> NULL } Note that the null, true, and false values are correctly received. Note also that in the second method the $_POST array is not used in the PHP code. I think this is the key to the problem, but I cannot find a way to replicate this behavior using jQuery.

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  • Django - partially validating form

    - by aeter
    I'm new to Django, trying to process some forms. I have this form for entering information (creating a new ad) in one template: class Ad(models.Model): ... category = models.CharField("Category",max_length=30, choices=CATEGORIES) sub_category = models.CharField("Subcategory",max_length=4, choices=SUBCATEGORIES) location = models.CharField("Location",max_length=30, blank=True) title = models.CharField("Title",max_length=50) ... I validate it with "is_valid()" just fine. Basically for the second validation (another template) I want to validate only against "category" and "sub_category": In another template, I want to use 2 fields from the same form ("category" and "sub_category") for filtering information - and now the "is_valid()" method would not work correctly, cause it validates the entire form, and I need to validate only 2 fields. I have tried with the following: ... if request.method == 'POST': # If a filter for data has been submitted: form = AdForm(request.POST) try: form = form.clean() category = form.category sub_category = form.sub_category latest_ads_list = Ad.objects.filter(category=category) except ValidationError: latest_ads_list = Ad.objects.all().order_by('pub_date') else: latest_ads_list = Ad.objects.all().order_by('pub_date') form = AdForm() ... but it doesn't work. How can I validate only the 2 fields category and sub_category?

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  • Clearing Session in Global Application_Error

    - by Zarigani
    Whenever an unhandled exception occurs on our site, I want to: Send a notification email Clear the user's session Send the user to a error page ("Sorry, a problem occurred...") The first and last I've had working for a long time but the second is causing me some issues. My Global.asax.vb includes: Sub Application_Error(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) ' Send exception report Dim ex As System.Exception = Nothing If HttpContext.Current IsNot Nothing AndAlso HttpContext.Current.Server IsNot Nothing Then ex = HttpContext.Current.Server.GetLastError End If Dim eh As New ErrorHandling(ex) eh.SendError() ' Clear session If HttpContext.Current IsNot Nothing AndAlso HttpContext.Current.Session IsNot Nothing Then HttpContext.Current.Session.Clear() End If ' User will now be sent to the 500 error page (by the CustomError setting in web.config) End Sub When I run a debug, I can see the session being cleared, but then on the next page the session is back again! I eventually found a reference that suggests that changes to session will not be saved unless Server.ClearError is called. Unfortunately, if I add this (just below the line that sets "ex") then the CustomErrors redirect doesn't seem to kick in and I'm left with a blank page? Is there a way around this?

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  • GUID or int entity key with SQL Compact/EF4?

    - by David Veeneman
    This is a follow-up to an earlier question I posted on EF4 entity keys with SQL Compact. SQL Compact doesn't allow server-generated identity keys, so I am left with creating my own keys as objects are added to the ObjectContext. My first choice would be an integer key, and the previous answer linked to a blog post that shows an extension method that uses the Max operator with a selector expression to find the next available key: public static TResult NextId<TSource, TResult>(this ObjectSet<TSource> table, Expression<Func<TSource, TResult>> selector) where TSource : class { TResult lastId = table.Any() ? table.Max(selector) : default(TResult); if (lastId is int) { lastId = (TResult)(object)(((int)(object)lastId) + 1); } return lastId; } Here's my take on the extension method: It will work fine if the ObjectContext that I am working with has an unfiltered entity set. In that case, the ObjectContext will contain all rows from the data table, and I will get an accurate result. But if the entity set is the result of a query filter, the method will return the last entity key in the filtered entity set, which will not necessarily be the last key in the data table. So I think the extension method won't really work. At this point, the obvious solution seems to be to simply use a GUID as the entity key. That way, I only need to call Guid.NewGuid() method to set the ID property before I add a new entity to my ObjectContext. Here is my question: Is there a simple way of getting the last primary key in the data store from EF4 (without having to create a second ObjectContext for that purpose)? Any other reason not to take the easy way out and simply use a GUID? Thanks for your help.

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  • Compatibility jquery with IE - click function and fade

    - by Julien Fotnaine
    Here my script : http://jsfiddle.net/3XwZv/153/ HTML <div id="box1" class="choice" style="background:blue;"> <div class="selection ordinateur"> <div class="choix1"><a class="link1" href="#"></a></div> </div> </div> <div id="box2" class="choice" style="display:none;background:red;"> <div class="selection ordinateur"> <div class="choix1"><a class="link2" href="#"></a></div> </div> </div> <div id="box3" class="choice" style="display:none;background:green;"> <div class="selection ordinateur"> <div class="choix1"><a href="#"></a></div> </div> </div> JS $(".link1").click(function() { $('#box1').fadeOut("slow", function(){ $('#box2').css("display","block"); $('#box2').replaceWith(div); $('#box1').fadeIn("slow"); }); $('.link1').fadeOut("slow"); return false; }); $(".link2").click(function() { $('#box2').fadeOut("slow", function(){ $('#box3').css("display","block"); $('#box3').replaceWith(div); $('#box2').fadeIn("slow"); }); $('.link2').fadeOut("slow"); return false; }); The main goal is that when you click on the giant square, I have three differents action. However, in Internet Explorer I block to the second. (the red square does not go to the green square). Please I need your help guys!

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  • SQL Aggregate all Purchases for a certain product with same rebatecode

    - by debuggerlikeanother
    Hi SO, i would like to aggregate all purchases for a certain product that used the same rebatecode (using SQL Server 2005) Assume we have the following table: ID ProductID Product RebateCode Amount 1 123 7HM ABC 1 2 123 7HM XYZ 2 3 124 7HM ABC 10 4 124 7HM XYZ 20 5 125 2EB LOI 4 6 126 2EB LOI 40 CREATE TABLE #ProductSales(ID SMALLINT, ProductID int, Product varchar(6), RebateCode varchar(4), Amount int) GO INSERT INTO #ProductSales select 1, 123, '7HM', 'A', 1 union all select 2, 123, '7HM', 'B', 2 union all select 3, 124, '7HM', 'A', 10 union all select 4, 124, '7HM', 'B', 20 union all select 5, 125, '7HM', 'A', 100 union all select 6, 125, '7HM', 'B', 200 union all select 7, 125, '7HM', 'C', 3 union all select 8, 126, '2EA', 'E', 4 union all select 8, 127, '2EA', 'E', 40 union all select 9, 128, '2EB', 'F', 5 union all select 9, 129, '2EB', 'F', 50 union all select 10, 130, '2EB', 'F', 500 GO SELECT * FROM #ProductSales GO /* And i would like to have the following result Product nrOfProducts CombinationRebateCode SumAmount ABC LOI XYZ 7HM 2 ABC, XYZ 33 11 0 22 2EB 2 LOI 44 0 44 0 .. */ CREATE TABLE #ProductRebateCode(Product varchar(6), nrOfProducts int, sumAmountRebateCombo int, rebateCodeCombination varchar(80), A int, B int, C int, E int, F int) Go INSERT INTO #ProductRebateCode select '7HM', 2, 33, 'A, B', 2, 2, 0, 0, 0 union all select '7HM', 1, 303, 'A, B, C', 1, 1, 1, 0, 0 union all select '2EA', 2, 44, 'E', 0, 0, 0, 2, 0 union all select '2EB', 3, 555, 'E', 0, 0, 0, 0, 2 Select * from #ProductRebateCode -- Drop Table #ProductSales IF EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM tempdb.dbo.sysobjects WHERE name LIKE '#ProductSales%') DROP TABLE #ProductSales -- Drop Table #ProductRebateCode IF EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM tempdb.dbo.sysobjects WHERE name LIKE '#ProductRebateCode%') DROP TABLE #ProductRebateCode I would like to have the result like in the example (see second select (#ProductRebateCode). I tried to achieve it with the crosstab from this post: http://www.sqlteam.com/forums/topic.asp?TOPIC_ID=6216&whichpage=6. exec CrossTab2b @SQL = 'SELECT [ProductID], Product, RebateCode, Amount FROM #ProductSales' ,@PivotCol = 'RebateCode' ,@Summaries = 'Sum(Amount ELSE 0)[_Sum], Count([ProductID])[_nrOfProducts]' /* SUM(Amount ELSE 0)[Amount], COUNT(Amount)[Qty] */ ,@GroupBy = 'RebateCode, Product' ,@OtherFields = 'Product' I believe that this could work, but i am unable to solve it. Do you believe that it is possible to achieve what i am trying without MDX or the other fancy ?DX-Stuff? Best regards And Thanks a lot debugger the other

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  • What's an effective way to move data from one open browser tab to another?

    - by slk
    I am looking for a quick way to grab some data off of one Web page and throw it into another. I don't have access to the query string in the URL of the second page, so passing the data that way is not an option. Right now, I am using a Greasemonkey user script in tandem with a JS bookmarklet trigger: javascript:doIt(); // ==UserScript== // @include public_site // @include internal_site // ==/UserScript== if (document.location.host.match(internal_site)) { var datum1 = GM_getValue("d1"); var datum2 = GM_getValue("d2"); } unsafeWindow.doIt = function() { if(document.location.host.match(public_site)) { var d1 = innerHTML of page element 1; var d2 = innerHTML of page element 2; //Next two lines use setTimeout to bypass GM_setValue restriction window.setTimeout(function() {GM_setValue("d1", d1);}, 0); window.setTimeout(function() {GM_setValue("d2", d2);}, 0); } else if(document.location.host.match(internal_site)) { document.getElementById("field1").value = datum1; document.getElementById("field2").value = datum2; } } While I am open to another method, I would prefer to stay with this basic model if possible, as this is just a small fraction of the code in doIt() which is used on several other pages, mostly to automate date-based form fills; people really like their "magic button." The above code works, but there's an interruption to the workflow: In order for the user to know which page on the public site to grab data from, the internal page has to be opened first. Then, once the GM cookie is set from the public page, the internal page has to be reloaded to get the proper information into the internal page variables. I'm wondering if there's any way to GM_getValue() at bookmarklet-clicktime to prevent the need for a refresh. Thanks!

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  • Is the C++ compiler optimizer allowed to break my destructor ability to be called multiple times?

    - by sharptooth
    We once had an interview with a very experienced C++ developer who couldn't answer the following question: is it necessary to call the base class destructor from the derived class destructor in C++? Obviously the answer is no, C++ will call the base class destructor automagically anyway. But what if we attempt to do the call? As I see it the result will depend on whether the base class destructor can be called twice without invoking erroneous behavior. For example in this case: class BaseSafe { public: ~BaseSafe() { } private: int data; }; class DerivedSafe { public: ~DerivedSafe() { BaseSafe::~BaseSafe(); } }; everything will be fine - the BaseSafe destructor can be called twice safely and the program will run allright. But in this case: class BaseUnsafe { public: BaseUnsafe() { buffer = new char[100]; } ~BaseUnsafe () { delete[] buffer; } private: char* buffer; }; class DerivedUnsafe { public: ~DerivedUnsafe () { BaseUnsafe::~BaseUnsafe(); } }; the explicic call will run fine, but then the implicit (automagic) call to the destructor will trigger double-delete and undefined behavior. Looks like it is easy to avoid the UB in the second case. Just set buffer to null pointer after delete[]. But will this help? I mean the destructor is expected to only be run once on a fully constructed object, so the optimizer could decide that setting buffer to null pointer makes no sense and eliminate that code exposing the program to double-delete. Is the compiler allowed to do that?

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