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  • How to Save data in txt file in MATLAB

    - by Jessy
    I have 3 txt files s1.txt, s2.txt, s3.txt.Each have the same format and number of data.I want to combine only the second column of each of the 3 files into one file. Before I combine the data, I sorted it according to the 1st column: UnSorted file: s1.txt s2.txt s3.txt 1 23 2 33 3 22 4 32 4 32 2 11 5 22 1 10 5 28 2 55 8 11 7 11 Sorted file: s1.txt s2.txt s3.txt 1 23 1 10 2 11 2 55 2 33 3 22 4 32 4 32 5 28 5 22 8 11 7 11 Here is the code I have so far: BaseFile ='s' n=3 fid=fopen('RT.txt','w'); for i=1:n %Open each file consecutively d(i)=fopen([BaseFile num2str(i)'.txt']); %read data from file A=textscan(d(i),'%f%f') a=A{1} b=A{2} ab=[a,b]; %sort the data according to the 1st column B=sortrows(ab,1); %delete the 1st column after being sorted B(:,1)=[] %write to a new file fprintf(fid,'%d\n',B'); %close (d(i)); end fclose(fid); How can I get the output in the new txt file in this format? 23 10 11 55 33 22 32 32 28 22 11 11 instead of this format? 23 55 32 22 10 33 32 11 11 22 28 11

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  • Using hover to swap images, I don't want to swap images if I'm on '.this_page'...

    - by richoid
    When I land on the page, another function (not shown, that works fine) sets the class of the appropriate nav to '.this_page' and then I roll over, and the images swap correctly, but when I hover and leave 'img.this_page' it swaps, the second time I do the hover. I don't want it 'img.this_page' to swap. I tried unbinding mouseout, but on hover apparently it rebinds... so each time you hover, it resets. Page is at http://flourgarden.com/wp/ Here's my function: function hoverNavs() { var baseURL='http://www.flourgarden.com/wp/wp-content/themes/flourgarden/images/nav'; var cache=[]; $j('.lcolumn a img').each(function() { var t = $j(this); var src1 = t.attr('src'); // initial src var newSrc = src1.substring(src1.lastIndexOf('/'), src1.lastIndexOf('.')); // let's get file name without extension i = baseURL+newSrc+'_select.png'; cache.push(i); t.hover(function(){ $j(this).attr('src', baseURL+newSrc+ '_select.' + /[^.]+$/.exec(src1)); //last part is for extension }, function(){ if($j(this).class == "this_page") { $j(this).attr('src', baseURL+newSrc+ '_select.' + /[^.]+$/.exec(src1)); } else { $j(this).attr('src', baseURL+newSrc+ '.' + /[^.]+$/.exec(src1)); } }); }); }

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  • What makes you trust that a piece of open source software is not malicious?

    - by Daniel DiPaolo
    We developers are in a unique position when it comes to the ability to not only be skeptical about the capabilities provided by open source software, but to actively analyze the code since it is freely available. In fact, one may even argue that open source software developers have a social responsibility to do so to contribute to the community. But at what point do you as a developer say, "I better take a look at what this is doing before I trust using it" for any given thing? Is it a matter of trusting code with your personal information? Does it depend on the source you're getting it from? What spurred this question on was a post on Hacker News to a javascript bookmarklet that supposedly tells you how "exposed" your information on Facebook is as well as recommending some fixes. I thought for a second "I'd rather not start blindly running this code over all my (fairly locked down) Facebook information so let me check it out". The bookmarklet is simple enough, but it calls another javascript function which at the time (but not anymore) was highly compressed and undecipherable. That's when I said "nope, not gonna do it". So even though I could have verified the original uncompressed javascript from the Github site and even saved a local copy to verify and then run without hitting their server, I wasn't going to. It's several thousand lines and I'm not a total javascript guru to begin with. Yet, folks are using it anyway. Even (supposedly) bright developers. What makes them trust the script? Did they all scrutinize it line by line? Do they know the guy personally and trust him not to do anything bad? Do they just take his word? What makes you trust that a piece of open source software is not malicious?

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  • How to debug memory allocation issues?

    - by amitabh
    Hi I am writing an iPhone app that that is trying to create a second a view when the user clicks on an element in UITableView. The code looks like ReplyToViewController *reply = [[ReplyToViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ReplyTo" bundle:nil]; reply.delegate = self; Message *message = [resultData objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; int dbid = [message.bizid intValue]; NSLog(@"dbid=%d",dbid); reply.currentMessage = message; reply.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController:reply animated:YES]; The reply object gets created properly and the view is proper. Last line in above code segment calls some framework code which eventually calls the viewDidLoad method of the ReplyToViewController. Address of the reply object in the above code and the address of the object in viewDidLoad is not same. Any idea where this new object is coming from? How do I debug? I also added init method the following method in ReplyToViewController hoping that it will get called and I can find who is creating this new object. But it does not stop in this method. Any help will be greatly appreciated. - (id) init { /* first initialize the base class */ self = [super init]; return self; } // Following gets called from the 1st code segment. - (id)initWithNibName:(NSString *)nibNameOrNil bundle:(NSBundle *)nibBundleOrNil { if (self = [super initWithNibName:nibNameOrNil bundle:nibBundleOrNil]) { // Custom initialization } return self; } - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; NSLog(currentMessage.text]; // THIS returns nil and the program fails later in the code. }

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  • Creating a new object destroys an older object with different name in C++

    - by Mikael
    First question here! So, I am having some problems with pointers in Visual C++ 2008. I'm writing a program which will control six cameras and do some processing on them so to clean things up I have created a Camera Manager class. This class handles all operations which will be carried out on all the cameras. Below this is a Camera class which interacts with each individual camera driver and does some basic image processing. Now, the idea is that when the manager is initialised it creates two cameras and adds them to a vector so that I can access them later. The catch here is that when I create the second camera (camera2) the first camera's destructor is called for some reason, which then disconnects the camera. Normally I'd assume that the problem is somewhere in the Camera class, but in this case everything works perfectly as long as I don't create the camera2 object. What's gone wrong? CameraManager.h: #include "stdafx.h" #include <vector> #include "Camera.h" class CameraManager{ std::vector<Camera> cameras; public: CameraManager(); ~CameraManager(); void CaptureAll(); void ShowAll(); }; CameraManager.cpp: #include "stdafx.h" #include "CameraManager.h" CameraManager::CameraManager() { printf("Camera Manager: Initializing\n"); [...] Camera *camera1 = new Camera(NodeInfo,1, -44,0,0); cameras.push_back(*camera1); // Adding the following two lines causes camera1's destructor to be called. Why? Camera *camera2 = new Camera(NodeInfo,0, 44,0,0); cameras.push_back(*camera2); printf("Camera Manager: Ready\n"); }

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  • How can I measure the time it takes a file to upload to a PHP script?

    - by Gustav Bertram
    I am trying to measure the time a script takes to upload a file to a PHP script, inside the receiving script. Here's a short example: <form action="#" enctype="multipart/form-data" method="post"> Upload: <input type="file" name="datafile" size="40"> <input type="submit" value="Send"> </form> <?php $upload_time = time() - $_SERVER['REQUEST_TIME']; echo $upload_time . " seconds."; I've submitted 4MB, 25MB, 100MB and 1.4GB files. They took anything from a fraction of a second, to almost a minute, yet the script above always yielded 0 seconds. NOTE: I know that this is a duplicate question, but the accepted answer on the other question did not work for me (at least, initially): Detect how long it takes for a file to upload (PHP) I've tried it using PHP 5.3.3 with Apache 2.2.16 on Ubuntu 10.4. UPDATE: I've discovered that both the Apache header and Ajax solutions work. In fact, the solution on the duplicate question also works. The critical element to making these solutions work is to ensure that the following values in the php.ini are sufficiently high: memory_limit = 1000M upload_max_filesize = 1000M post_max_size = 1000M I am accepting the Apache header solution, since it only uses PHP.

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  • Can't understand sessions in Rails

    - by ciss
    Hello everyone. Please don't bit my for my misunderstanding. The sessions are very new for me, and i have some problems. Okay i read many information about sessions and especially rails session. But this don't give me right imagine about sessions. Did i understand right, when users send request to server (get) - Server create a new session (and store this some file in hard drive with session id), session id - is a random generated num? so, server create a new session (and store session on drive) after this server send back answer to client and set session_id in cookies? Ok, i debug some params and see some results: debug(session): {:_csrf_token=>"jeONIfNxFmnpDn/xt6I0icNK1m3EB3CzT9KMntNk7KU=", :session_id=>"06c5628155efaa6446582c491499af6d", "flash"=>{}} debug(cookies): {"remember_user_token"=>"1::3GFRFyXb83lffzwPDPQd", "_blog_session"=>"BAh7CDoQX2NzcmZfdG9rZW4iMWplT05JZk54Rm1ucERuL3h0NkkwaWNOSzFtM0VCM0N6VDlLTW50Tms3S1U9Og9zZXNzaW9uX2lkIiUwNmM1NjI4MTU1ZWZhYTY0NDY1ODJjNDkxNDk5YWY2ZCIKZmxhc2hJQzonQWN0aW9uQ29udHJvbGxlcjo6Rmxhc2g6OkZsYXNoSGFzaHsABjoKQHVzZWR7AA==--348c88b594e98f4bf6389d94383134fbe9b03095"} Okay, i know, what _csrf_token helps to prevent csrf. session_id - is id of the session which stored on hard drive (by default) but what is _blog_session in cookies? also, remeber_user_token containes my id (1::*) and what about second part, what is it? Sorry for this stupid questions, i know what i can easy use any nice auth-plugins (authlogic/clearance/devise), but i want to fully understand sessions. Thank you. (also sorry for my english, this is not my native language)

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  • Display one div if nothing is selected

    - by Levani
    I use this javascript to display different div classes upon selection. I need to display one div class if nothing is selected, for example when page is loaded, and that replace it with one of the divs according to the selection... <script type="text/javascript"><!-- var lastDiv = ""; function showDiv(divName) { // hide last div if (lastDiv) { document.getElementById(lastDiv).className = "hiddenDiv"; } //if value of the box is not nothing and an object with that name exists, then change the class if (divName && document.getElementById(divName)) { document.getElementById(divName).className = "visibleDiv"; lastDiv = divName; } } //--> </script> css: <style type="text/css" media="screen"><!-- .hiddenDiv { display: none; } .visibleDiv { display: block; border: 1px grey solid; } --></style> HTML: <form id="FormName" action="blah.php" method="get" name="FormName"> <select name="selectName" size="1" onChange="showDiv(this.value);"> <option value="">Choose One...</option> <option value="one">first</option> <option value="two">second</option> <option value="three">third</option> </select> </form> <p id="one" class="hiddenDiv">This is paragraph 1.</p> <p id="two" class="hiddenDiv">This is paragraph 2.</p> <p id="three" class="hiddenDiv">This is paragraph 3.</p> Can anyone please help?

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  • Stretching across 2 rows in Table Layout

    - by Will03uk
    How do I stretch across 2 columns in the Table Layout. I have 2 rows with a label and edit text on 1 row and I want to have a single button stretch across the whole second row. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <TableLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:background="#000000" android:stretchColumns="1"> <TableRow> <TextView android:text = "Name: " /> <EditText android:id = "@+id/txtAddName" android:gravity = "right" android:layout_width = "fill_parent" /> </TableRow> <TableRow> <TextView android:text = "Phone: " /> <EditText android:id = "@+id/txtAddPhone" android:gravity = "right" android:layout_width = "fill_parent" /> </TableRow> <TableRow> <Button android:id = "@+id/btnAdd" android:text = "Add Entrie" android:layout_width = "fill_parent" /> </TableRow> <TableRow> <Button android:id = "@+id/btnShow" android:text = "Show all Entries" android:layout_width = "fill_parent" /> </TableRow> <TableRow> <Button android:id = "@+id/btnDelete" android:text = "Delete all Entries" android:layout_width = "fill_parent" /> </TableRow> </TableLayout>

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  • What's the correct way to pass parameters from VBScript to COM interface implemented in C#?

    - by nopopem
    I'm trying to expose a fairly simple C# class to COM which should be usable from VBScript (among others). Some objects need to be created via COM calls and will be used in furter calls later on. The definition of the exposed classes and interfaces looks like this: namespace Test { [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIDispatch)] public interface IComInterface { IFoo CreateFoo(); void UseFoo(int x, IFoo f); } [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] public sealed class CComInterface : IComInterface { public CComInterface() {} public IFoo CreateFoo() { return new Foo(); } public void UseFoo(int x, IFoo f) { f.Bar(); } } [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIDispatch)] public interface IFoo { void Bar(); } [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] public class Foo : IFoo { internal Foo() {} public void Bar() {} } } The simplest thinkable COM client in VBScript does this: Dim ci Set ci = WScript.CreateObject("Test.CComInterface") Dim foo Set foo = ci.CreateFoo foo.Bar ci.UseFoo 0, foo While the call to Bar succeeds, calling UseFoo fails with "Error 5: invalid procedure call or invalid argument" The generated IDL seems ok to me: dispinterface IComInterface { properties: methods: [id(0x60020003)] IFoo* CreateFoo(); [id(0x60020004)] void UseFoo( [in] long x, [in] IFoo* f); }; The vbs call succeeds when I wrap the second parameter in parentheses like this: ci.UseFoo 0, (foo) As far as I understand (I'm no VBScript expert however) this forces the reference to foo to be passed by value, i.e. a copy of the reference is being made. How can I change the interface so that it can be called with the foo reference directly? Since this will be a public interface used by customers I don't like the idea of having to explain why all the objects created need to be passed back in an extra pair of parentheses...

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  • Optimize master-detail insert statements

    - by Dave Jarvis
    Quest After a day of running (against nearly 1 GB of data), a set of statements are tumbling down to 40 inserts per second. I am looking to increase that by an order of magnitude or two. SQL Code The code to insert the information comes in two parts: a master record and detail records. The master record: INSERT INTO MONTH_REF (DISTRICT_ID, STATION_ID, CATEGORY_ID, YEAR, MONTH) VALUES ('101', '0066', '010', 1984, 07); The detail records: INSERT INTO DAILY (MONTH_REF_ID, AMOUNT, DAILY_FLAG_ID, DAY) VALUES ((SELECT ID FROM MONTH_REF M WHERE M.DISTRICT_ID = '101' AND M.STATION_ID = '0066' AND M.CAT EGORY_ID = '010' AND M.YEAR = 1984 AND M.MONTH = 07), 0, ' ', 1); INSERT INTO DAILY (MONTH_REF_ID, AMOUNT, DAILY_FLAG_ID, DAY) VALUES ((SELECT ID FROM MONTH_REF M WHERE M.DISTRICT_ID = '101' AND M.STATION_ID = '0066' AND M.CAT EGORY_ID = '010' AND M.YEAR = 1984 AND M.MONTH = 07), 0.5, ' ', 2); INSERT INTO DAILY (MONTH_REF_ID, AMOUNT, DAILY_FLAG_ID, DAY) VALUES ((SELECT ID FROM MONTH_REF M WHERE M.DISTRICT_ID = '101' AND M.STATION_ID = '0066' AND M.CAT EGORY_ID = '010' AND M.YEAR = 1984 AND M.MONTH = 07), 0, 'T', 3); Proposed Solution INSERT INTO MONTH_REF (DISTRICT_ID, STATION_ID, CATEGORY_ID, YEAR, MONTH) VALUES ('101', '0066', '010', 1984, 07); SET @month_ref_id := (SELECT LAST_INSERT_ID()); INSERT INTO DAILY (MONTH_REF_ID, AMOUNT, DAILY_FLAG_ID, DAY) VALUES (@month_ref_id, 0, ' ', 1); INSERT INTO DAILY (MONTH_REF_ID, AMOUNT, DAILY_FLAG_ID, DAY) VALUES (@month_ref_id, 0.5, ' ', 2); INSERT INTO DAILY (MONTH_REF_ID, AMOUNT, DAILY_FLAG_ID, DAY) VALUES (@month_ref_id, 0, 'T', 3); Constraints The MONTH_REF table has an AUTO_INCREMENT primary key and is indexed on it. The DAILY table has no index and no primary key. A primary key can be added to the DAILY table, if it would help. Question Is there a more efficient way to execute the (billion or so) insert statements than the proposed solution? Thank you!

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  • Unit Testing an Event Firing From a Thread

    - by Dougc
    I'm having a problem unit testing a class which fires events when a thread starts and finishes. A cut down version of the offending source is as follows: public class ThreadRunner { private bool keepRunning; public event EventHandler Started; public event EventHandler Finished; public void StartThreadTest() { this.keepRunning = true; var thread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(this.LongRunningMethod)); thread.Start(); } public void FinishThreadTest() { this.keepRunning = false; } protected void OnStarted() { if (this.Started != null) this.Started(this, new EventArgs()); } protected void OnFinished() { if (this.Finished != null) this.Finished(this, new EventArgs()); } private void LongRunningMethod() { this.OnStarted(); while (this.keepRunning) Thread.Sleep(100); this.OnFinished(); } } I then have a test to check that the Finished event fires after the LongRunningMethod has finished as follows: [TestClass] public class ThreadRunnerTests { [TestMethod] public void CheckFinishedEventFiresTest() { var threadTest = new ThreadRunner(); bool finished = false; object locker = new object(); threadTest.Finished += delegate(object sender, EventArgs e) { lock (locker) { finished = true; Monitor.Pulse(locker); } }; threadTest.StartThreadTest(); threadTest.FinishThreadTest(); lock (locker) { Monitor.Wait(locker, 1000); Assert.IsTrue(finished); } } } So the idea here being that the test will block for a maximum of one second - or until the Finish event is fired - before checking whether the finished flag is set. Clearly I've done something wrong as sometimes the test will pass, sometimes it won't. Debugging seems very difficult as well as the breakpoints I'd expect to be hit (the OnFinished method, for example) don't always seem to be. I'm assuming this is just my misunderstanding of the way threading works, so hopefully someone can enlighten me.

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  • vba: what does ReDim Preserve do and simple array question

    - by every_answer_gets_a_point
    i am looking at someone else's vba excel code. they are doing ReDim Preserve dataMatrix(7, i) in both loops. what does this do? also, it seems like the second loop just overwrites the data in the first, loop, is that correct? Dim dataMatrix() As String Worksheets.Item("ETS").Select Do While Trim(Cells(r, 1)) <> "" Debug.Print "The line: ", Trim(Cells(r, 1)), r r = r + 1 dataMatrix(1, i) = Trim(Cells(r, 1)) ''file name dataMatrix(2, i) = Trim(Cells(r, 2)) ''sample type dataMatrix(3, i) = Trim(Cells(r, 3)) ''sample name dataMatrix(4, i) = "ETS" '' dataMatrix(5, i) = Trim(Cells(r, 5)) ''Response dataMatrix(6, i) = Trim(Cells(r, 6)) ''ISTD Response dataMatrix(7, i) = Trim(Cells(r, 10)) ''Calculated Conc i = i + 1 ReDim Preserve dataMatrix(7, i) Loop r = 5 Worksheets.Item("ETG").Select Do While Trim(Cells(r, 1)) <> "" Debug.Print "The line: ", Trim(Cells(r, 1)), r r = r + 1 dataMatrix(1, i) = Trim(Cells(r, 1)) ''file name dataMatrix(2, i) = Trim(Cells(r, 2)) ''sample type dataMatrix(3, i) = Trim(Cells(r, 3)) ''sample name dataMatrix(4, i) = "ETG" dataMatrix(5, i) = Trim(Cells(r, 5)) ''Response dataMatrix(6, i) = Trim(Cells(r, 6)) ''ISTD Response dataMatrix(7, i) = Trim(Cells(r, 10)) ''Calculated Conc i = i + 1 ReDim Preserve dataMatrix(7, i) Loop

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  • ADO.NET Data Services Media type requires a ';' character before a parameter definition.

    - by idahosaedokpayi
    I am experimenting with ADO.NET and I am seeing this error on the second attempt to browse the service: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" standalone="yes" ?> <error xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/ado/2007/08/dataservices/metadata"> <code /> <message xml:lang="en-US">Media type requires a ';' character before a parameter definition.</message> </error> The first attempt is normal. I am working with an exactly identical service on an internal development network and it is fine. I am including my connection string: <add name="J4Entities" connectionString="metadata=res://*;provider=System.Data.SqlClient;provider connection string=&quot;Data Source=MNSTSQL01N;Initial Catalog=J4;Integrated Security=True;MultipleActiveResultSets=True&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient"/> and my Data service class: using System; using System.Data.Services; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.ServiceModel.Web; public class Data : DataService< J4Model.J4Entities > { // This method is called only once to initialize service-wide policies. public static void InitializeService(IDataServiceConfiguration config) { // TODO: set rules to indicate which entity sets and service operations are visible, updatable, etc. // Examples: config.SetEntitySetAccessRule("*", EntitySetRights.AllRead); // config.SetServiceOperationAccessRule("MyServiceOperation", ServiceOperationRights.All); } } Is there something obvious I am not doing?

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  • ASP.Net event only being raised every other time?

    - by eftpotrm
    I have an ASP.Net web user control which represents a single entry in a list. To allow users to reorder the items, each item has buttons to move the item up or down the list. Clicking on one of these raises an event to the parent page, which then shuffles the items in the placeholder control. Code fragments from the list entry: Public Event UpClicked As System.EventHandler Protected Sub btnUp_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnUp.Click RaiseEvent UpClicked(Me, New EventArgs()) End Sub And the parent container: rem (within the code to add an individual item to the placeholder) AddHandler l_oItem.UpClicked, AddressOf UpClicked Protected Sub UpClicked(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) MoveItem(DirectCast(sender, ScriptListItem), -1) End Sub It originally looked in testing like every other time the value for sender (verified by its properties) that reaches UpClicked is of an adjacent ListItem, not the one I've just clicked on - the first click is always wrong, then the second for the correct control. At present, testing appears to show that the button's click event is just being ignored every other time through. Breakpoints on the click events within the control simply aren't being hit, though the events are definitely being established. Why?

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  • Prevent hash navigation url

    - by Koningh
    I have the following problem: I'm using a slider (coda) to let people navigate trough some 'pages'. The slider uses hash links to navigate to the next page/slide. If a user is at page one (#page1), there is a link which will lead the user to page 2 (#page2) and so on. At the top of the slider the numbers of the pages appear as a link, but only when the page is visited. So if there are six pages and the user navigates from the first to the second and then the third one, there are only three links at the top of the slider (to page one, two and three). The problem is that a user can navigate to page five (or any page actually) without first visiting the pages previous to page five by just using the hash URL and typing the whole link in their address bar. For example if I would type www.mydomain.com/slider/index.php#page5 the slider automatically navigates to the fifth slide/page of the slider and thereby skipping the first four. I want to allow users to navigate to #page5 only if they have visited the first four (So by clicking trough the slides). This means that if they would go to #page5 directly by typing the URL in the address bar, I would like them to be send to the first page (#page1). Does anyone have any idea on solving this?

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  • Deploy to web container, bundle web container or embed web container...

    - by Jason
    I am developing an application that needs to be as simple as possible to install for the end user. While the end users will likely be experience Linux users (or sales engineers), they don't really know anything about Tomcat, Jetty, etc, nor do I think they should. So I see 3 ways to deploy our applications. I should also state that this is the first app that I have had to deploy that had a web interface, so I haven't really faced this question before. First is to deploy the application into an existing web container. Since we only deploy to Suse or RedHat this seems easy enough to do. However, we're not big on the idea of multiple apps running in one web container. It makes it harder to take down just one app. The next option is to just bundle Tomcat or Jetty and have the startup/shutdown scripts launch our bundled web container. Or 3rd, embed.. This will probably provide the same user experience as the second option. I'm curious what others do when faced with this problem to make it as fool proof as possible on the end user. I've almost ruled out deploying into an existing web container as we often like to set per application resource limits and CPU affinity, which I believe would affect all apps deployed into a web container/app server and not just a specific application. Thank you.

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  • Modifying bundled properties from visitor

    - by ravenspoint
    How should I modify the bundled properties of a vertex from inside a visitor? I would like to use the simple method of sub-scripting the graph, but the graph parameter passed into the visitor is const, so compiler disallows changes. I can store a reference to the graph in the visitor, but this seems weird. /** A visitor which identifies vertices as leafs or trees */ class bfs_vis_leaf_finder:public default_bfs_visitor { public: /** Constructor @param[in] total reference to int variable to store total number of leaves @param[in] g reference to graph ( used to modify bundled properties ) */ bfs_vis_leaf_finder( int& total, graph_t& g ) : myTotal( total ), myGraph( g ) { myTotal = 0; } /** Called when the search finds a new vertex If the vertex has no children, it is a leaf and the total leaf count is incremented */ template <typename Vertex, typename Graph> void discover_vertex( Vertex u, Graph& g) { if( out_edges( u, g ).first == out_edges( u, g ).second ) { myTotal++; //g[u].myLevel = s3d::cV::leaf; myGraph[u].myLevel = s3d::cV::leaf; } else { //g[u].myLevel = s3d::cV::tree; myGraph[u].myLevel = s3d::cV::tree; } } int& myTotal; graph_t& myGraph; };

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  • Making a button click and process using javascript with Asp.Net

    - by user944919
    I'm having two buttons and one button is hidden. Now when I click the visible button I need to do two things 1.Open Iframe. 2.Automatically make the 2nd Button(Hidden)to be clicked. When the second button is clicked I need to display the message on top of the IFrame which I have mentioned as function showStickySuccessToast() Now I am able to open IFrame but I'm unable to make the Hidden button clicked automatically. This is what I'm having: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#<%=Button1.ClientID%>").click(function(event){ $('#<%=TextBox1.ClientID%>').change(function () { $('#various3').attr('href', $(this).val()); }); }); function showStickySuccessToast() { $().toastmessage('showToast', { text: 'Finished Processing!', sticky: false, position: 'middle-center', type: 'success', closeText: '', close: function () { } }); } }) </script> Here are my two buttons how I'm working with: <a id="various3" href="#"><asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" Text="Button" OnClientClick="Button2_Click"/></a> <asp:Button ID="Button2" runat="server" Text="Button" Visible="False" OnClick="Button2_Click"/> And in the button2_Click event: Protected Sub Button2_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button2.Click System.Web.UI.ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock(Page, GetType(Page), "Script", "showStickySuccessToast();", True) End Sub

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  • My IF statement is changing variables in PHP

    - by user1902509
    I am fairly new to the whole programming thing, so forgive me if this is a stupid question. It seems odd that I haven't run into it before. I am trying to make an order form for a cake. You fill out the form, submit it, and it will then display the order in a new window, where you then hit "submit," and upload it to the Database. I have a series of If Statements to check for errors in the form before submitting it. Here is a simplified version of the code. Writing means any writing you want on the cake, Name is your name, and cake is what type of cake you want (the default is "None"). try { $name = trim($params->name); $cake = trim($params->cake); $writing = trim($params->writing); if (strlen($name) < 3){ throw new Exception("Please enter Your name."); } if ($cake = "None") { throw new Exception("Please select a Cake" } if ($cake = "Caramel Apple Pie" or $cake = "Pumpkin Pie" or $cake = "Eggnog Pie" and strlen($writing) > 1) { throw new Exception("We are sorry, but you can't write on any of our specialty pies."); } } catch(Exception $x) { $error = $x->getmessage(); } So what is happening is that when I go and hit submit the first time, the correct cake type comes up, but when you submit it the second time, the error comes up saying that I have "None" selected. All the other values are there and remain the same. I think the problem is that the first "IF" statement (Where it says "If($cake = "None")) is automatically changing $cake to "None" because I have tried commenting just that statement out, and it will then change the cake to be "Caramel Apple Pie," which is in the top of the next IF statement. Anyone know why it is doing this? And how to fix it?

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  • How to add root node in the output method = text

    - by Akhil
    My sample input is <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <ns0:JDBC_RECEIVERDATA_MT_response xmlns:ns0="urn:parmalat.com.au:TESTSQL_REPLICATION"> <Statement_response> <response_1> <row> <XML_F52E2B61-18A1-11d1-B105-00805F49916B><![CDATA[<TransactionLog TID="1400" SeqNo="3337446" SQLTransaction="Insert into TankerLoads Values(141221,53,299,18,1,426148,6,&apos;Nov 19 2007 12:00AM&apos;,&apos;Dec 30 1899 12:59PM&apos;,3.00,20682,0,&apos;Zevo&apos;,&apos;Nov 19 2007 12:00AM&apos;,0)"/></row> <row> <XML_F52E2B61-18A1-11d1-B105-00805F49916B>um = 141221"/&gt;&lt;TransactionLog TID="1400" SeqNo="3337452" SQLTransaction="Insert into MilkPickups Values(790195,141221,0,&amp;apos;Nov 19 2007 12:00AM&amp;apos;,2433,&amp;apos;Nov 19 2007 12:00AM&amp;apos;,&amp;apos;Dec 30 1899 11:26AM&amp;apos;,3131,2.90)"/&gt; Like this I have mutiple records and my output should be like <root> <TransactionLog TID="1400" SeqNo="3337446" SQLTransaction="Insert into TankerLoads Values(141221,53,299,18,1,426148,6,'Nov 19 2007 12:00AM','Dec 30 1899 12:59PM',3.00,20682,0,'Zevo','Nov 19 2007 12:00AM',0)" /> <TransactionLog TID="1400" SeqNo="3337447" SQLTransaction="Update TankerLoads Set TankerNum = 53,DriverNum = 299,CarterNum = 18,MilkTypeNum = 1,SampleNum = 426148,ReceivalBayNum = 6,UnloadDate = 'Nov 19 2007 12:00AM',UnloadTime = 'Dec 30 1899 12:59PM',Temperature = 3.00,Volume = 20682,NetWeight = 0,WeighbridgeDocket = 'Zevo',LoadPickupDate = 'Nov 19 2007 12:00AM',IsValidated = 0 Where TankerLoadNum = 141221" /></root> AND I AM USING OUTPUT METHOD AS TEXT BECAUSE IF I USE XML THE TAG ARE REPLACED WITH &LT &GT WHICH I DONT MOREOVER IF YOU SEE THE ABOVE TWO ROWS THE LAST LINE IS HALF THE RECORD IS IN THE FIRST ROW AND CONTINUING THE OTHER HALF IN THE SECOND ROW SO i USED WHICH LEAVES SINGLE SPACE SO EVEN I DONT WANT THAT SINGLE SPACE..I HOPE I AM CLEAR IF NOT PLEASE LET ME KNOW I WILL ADD MORE COMMENTS..TPLEASE HELP ME OUT..THNKYOU

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  • How to access the members of this data in PHP?

    - by George Edison
    Okay. Now I give up. I have been playing with this for hours. I have a variable name $data. The variable contains these contents: (extracted by using var_export()) array ( 'headers' => array ( 'content-type' => 'multipart/alternative; boundary="_689e1a7d-7a0a-442a-bd6c-a1fb1dc2993e_"', ), 'ctype_parameters' => array ( 'boundary' => '_689e1a7d-7a0a-442a-bd6c-a1fb1dc2993e_', ), 'parts' => array ( 0 => stdClass::__set_state(array( 'headers' => array ( 'content-type' => 'text/plain; charset="iso-8859-1"', 'content-transfer-encoding' => 'quoted-printable', ), 'ctype_primary' => 'text', )), ), ) I removed some non-essential data. I want to access the headers value (on the second line above) - simple: $data->headers I want to access the headers value (on the fourteenth line after the stdClass:: stuff) - how? How can I possibly access the values within the stdClass::__set_state section? I tried var_export($data->parts); but all I get is NULL

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  • Is something along the lines of nested memoization needed here?

    - by Daniel
    System.Transactions notoriously escalates transactions involving multiple connections to the same database to the DTC. The module and helper class, ConnectionContext, below are meant to prevent this by ensuring multiple connection requests for the same database return the same connection object. This is, in some sense, memoization, although there are multiple things being memoized and the second is dependent on the first. Is there some way to hide the synchronization and/or mutable state (perhaps using memoization) in this module, or perhaps rewrite it in a more functional style? (It may be worth nothing that there's no locking when getting the connection by connection string because Transaction.Current is ThreadStatic.) type ConnectionContext(connection:IDbConnection, ownsConnection) = member x.Connection = connection member x.OwnsConnection = ownsConnection interface IDisposable with member x.Dispose() = if ownsConnection then connection.Dispose() module ConnectionManager = let private _connections = new Dictionary<string, Dictionary<string, IDbConnection>>() let private getTid (t:Transaction) = t.TransactionInformation.LocalIdentifier let private removeConnection tid = let cl = _connections.[tid] for (KeyValue(_, con)) in cl do con.Close() lock _connections (fun () -> _connections.Remove(tid) |> ignore) let getConnection connectionString (openConnection:(unit -> IDbConnection)) = match Transaction.Current with | null -> new ConnectionContext(openConnection(), true) | current -> let tid = getTid current // get connections for the current transaction let connections = match _connections.TryGetValue(tid) with | true, cl -> cl | false, _ -> let cl = Dictionary<_,_>() lock _connections (fun () -> _connections.Add(tid, cl)) cl // find connection for this connection string let connection = match connections.TryGetValue(connectionString) with | true, con -> con | false, _ -> let initial = (connections.Count = 0) let con = openConnection() connections.Add(connectionString, con) // if this is the first connection for this transaction, register connections for cleanup if initial then current.TransactionCompleted.Add (fun args -> let id = getTid args.Transaction removeConnection id) con new ConnectionContext(connection, false)

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  • How expensive is a context switch? Is it better to implement a manual task switch than to rely on OS

    - by Vilx-
    The title says it all. Imagine I have two (three, four, whatever) tasks that have to run in parallel. Now, the easy way to do this would be to create separate threads and forget about it. But on a plain old single-core CPU that would mean a lot of context switching - and we all know that context switching is big, bad, slow, and generally simply Evil. It should be avoided, right? On that note, if I'm writing the software from ground up anyway, I could go the extra mile and implement my own task-switching. Split each task in parts, save the state inbetween, and then switch among them within a single thread. Or, if I detect that there are multiple CPU cores, I could just give each task to a separate thread and all would be well. The second solution does have the advantage of adapting to the number of available CPU cores, but will the manual task-switch really be faster than the one in the OS core? Especially if I'm trying to make the whole thing generic with a TaskManager and an ITask, etc?

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  • Geohashing - recursively find neighbors of neighbors

    - by itsme
    I am now looking for an elegant algorithm to recursively find neighbors of neighbors with the geohashing algorithm (http://www.geohash.org). Basically take a central geohash, and then get the first 'ring' of same-size hashes around it (8 elements), then, in the next step, get the next ring around the first etc. etc. Have you heard of an elegant way to do so? Brute force could be to take each neighbor and get their neighbors simply ignoring the massive overlap. Neighbors around one central geohash has been solved many times (here e.g. in Ruby: http://github.com/masuidrive/pr_geohash/blob/master/lib/pr_geohash.rb) Edit for clarification: Current solution, with passing in a center key and a direction, like this (with corresponding lookup-tables): def adjacent(geohash, dir) base, lastChr = geohash[0..-2], geohash[-1,1] type = (geohash.length % 2)==1 ? :odd : :even if BORDERS[dir][type].include?(lastChr) base = adjacent(base, dir) end base + BASE32[NEIGHBORS[dir][type].index(lastChr),1] end (extract from Yuichiro MASUI's lib) I say this approach will get ugly soon, because directions gets ugly once we are in ring two or three. The algorithm would ideally simply take two parameters, the center area and the distance from 0 being the center geohash only (["u0m"] and 1 being the first ring made of 8 geohashes of the same size around it (= [["u0t", "u0w"], ["u0q", "u0n"], ["u0j", "u0h"], ["u0k", "u0s"]]). two being the second ring with 16 areas around the first ring etc. Do you see any way to deduce the 'rings' from the bits in an elegant way?

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