Search Results

Search found 16987 results on 680 pages for 'second'.

Page 550/680 | < Previous Page | 546 547 548 549 550 551 552 553 554 555 556 557  | Next Page >

  • The use of getters and setters for different programming languages [closed]

    - by leonhart88
    So I know there are a lot of questions on getters and setters in general, but I couldn't find something exactly like my question. I was wondering if people change the use of get/set depending on different languages. I started learning with C++ and was taught to use getters and setters. This is what I understand: In C++ (and Java?), a variable can either be public or private, but we cannot have a mix. For example, I can't have a read-only variable that can still be changed inside the class. It's either all public (can read and change it), or all private (can't read and can only change inside the class). Because of this (and possibly other reasons), we use getters and setters. In MATLAB, I can control the "setaccess" and "getaccess" properties of variables, so that I can make things read-only (can directly access the property, but can't overwrite it). In this case, I don't feel like I need a getter because I can just do class.property. Also, in Python it is considered "Pythonic" to not use getters/setters and to only put things into properties if needed. I don't really understand why its OK to have all public variables in Python, because that's opposite of what I learned when I started with C++. I'm just curious what other people's thoughts are on this. Would you use getters and setters for all languages? Would you only use it for C++/Java and do direct access in MATLAB and Python (which is what I am currently doing)? Is the second option considered bad? For my purposes, I am only referring to simple getters and setters (just return/set the value and do not do anything else). Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How to write a JOIN statement to combine data from disparate tables

    - by Amarundo
    I have the following 2 procedures that I use as my source for a report. As of now, I'm presenting 2 different tables in my SQL Server Reporting Services 2008 R2 report, because it doesn't let me put them together as they belong to 2 different data sets. I want to present them in a single table, but I have not been successful trying to use JOIN here. How do I do that? NOTE: cName in IAgentQueueStats corresponds to UserId in AgentActivityLog. /*** Aggregate values for Call Center Agents for calls, talk and hold time ***/ /*** The detail/row values is per 30-minute interval ***/ ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[sp_IAgentQueueStats_OnlyCalls_Grouped] @p_StartDate datetime, @p_EndDate datetime, @p_Agents varchar(8000) AS SELECT [cName] ,sum([nAnswered]) SumNAnswered ,sum([nAnsweredAcd]) SumNAnsweredAcd ,sum([tTalkAcd]) SumTTalkAcd ,sum([nHoldAcd]) SumNHoldAcd ,sum([tHoldAcd]) SumTHoldAcd ,sum([tAcw]) SumTAcw FROM [I3_IC].[dbo].[IAgentQueueStats] WHERE dIntervalStart between @p_StartDate and DATEADD(s, 86400-1, @p_EndDate) AND CHARINDEX ( cName ,@p_Agents)> 0 AND cReportGroup <> '*' AND cHKey3 = '*' and cHKey4 ='*' AND nEnteredAcd > 0 AND cReportGroup <> 'CCFax Email' GROUP BY cName And here is the second one: /*** Aggregate values for Call Center Agents for status/activity time ***/ /*** The detail/row values is per start-time/end-time ***/ ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[sp_AgentActivity_Grouped] @p_StartDate datetime, @p_EndDate datetime, @p_Agents varchar(8000) AS SELECT [UserId],[StatusCategory],SUM([StateDuration]) [StatusDuration] FROM ( SELECT [UserId] ,[StatusGroup] ,[StatusKey] , CASE [StatusKey] WHEN 'Available' THEN 'Productive' WHEN 'Follow Up' THEN 'Productive' WHEN 'Campaign Call' THEN 'Productive' WHEN 'Awaiting Callback' THEN 'Productive' WHEN 'In a Meeting' THEN 'Not Your Fault' WHEN 'Project Work' THEN 'Not Your Fault' WHEN 'At a Training Session'THEN 'Not Your Fault' WHEN 'System Issues' THEN 'Not Your Fault' WHEN 'Test' THEN 'Not Your Fault' WHEN 'At Lunch' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'Available, Forward' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'Available, Follow-Me' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'At Play' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'AcdAgentNotAnswering' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'Do Not Disturb' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'Available, No ACD' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'Away from desk' THEN 'Non Productive' ELSE [StatusKey] END StatusCategory ,stateduration FROM [I3_IC].[dbo].[AgentActivityLog] WHERE [StatusDateTime] between @p_StartDate and DATEADD(s, 86400-1, @p_EndDate) AND CHARINDEX ( [UserId] ,@p_Agents)> 0 AND [StatusKey] not in ('Gone Home','Out of the Office','On Vacation','Out of Town') ) a GROUP BY [UserId],[StatusCategory] ORDER BY [UserId], [StatusCategory] desc BTW, if I take some time to comment/reply on your posts, it's not lack of interest, but of understanding...

    Read the article

  • Does "delegate" mean a type or an object?

    - by Michal Czardybon
    Reading from MSDN: "A delegate is a type that references a method. Once a delegate is assigned a method, it behaves exactly like that method." Does then "delegate" mean a type or an object?! ...It cannot be both. It seems to me that the single word is used in two different meanings: a type containing a reference to a method of some specified signature, an object of that type, which can be actually called like a method. I would prefer a more precise vocabulary and use "delegate type" for the first case. I have been recently reading a lot about events and delegates and that ambiguity was making me confused many times. Some other uses of "delegate" word in MSDN in the first meaning: "Custom event delegates are needed only when an event generates event data" "A delegate declaration defines a class that is derived from the class System.Delegate" Some other uses of "delegate" word in MSDN in the second meaning: "specify a delegate that will be called upon the occurrence of some event" "Delegates are objects that refer to methods. They are sometimes described as type-safe function pointers" What do you think? Why did people from Microsoft introduced this ambiguity? Am I the only person to have conceptual problems with different notions being referenced with the same word.

    Read the article

  • How can I store this kind of graph in neo4j for fast traversal?

    - by James
    This is a graph whose nodes exist in many connected components at once because a node's relationships are a collection of edge groups such that only one edge per edge group can be present at once. I need to be able to find all of the connected components that a node exists in. What would be the best way to store this graph in neo4j to quickly find all of the connected components that a node exists in? Is there a way to use the built in traversals to do this? Also: is there a name for this kind of graph? I'd appreciate any help/ideas. Update: Sorry for not being clear. All nodes are of the same type. Nodes have a variable number of edge groups. Exactly one edge from each edge group needs to be chosen for a particular connected component. I'm going to try to explain through example: Node x1 is related to: (x2 or x3 or x4) AND (x5 or x6) AND (x7) Node x2 is related to: (x8) AND (x9 or x10) So x1's first edge group is (x2, x3, x4), its second edge group is (x5, x6), and its third edge group is (x7). So here are a few connected components that x1 exists in: CC1: x1 is related to: x2, x5, x7 x2 is related to: x8 x9 CC2: x1 is related to: x2, x6, x7 x2 is related to: x8, x9 CC3: x1 is related to: x3, x5, x7 CC4: x1 is related to: x3, x6, x7 etc. I'm grateful for your help in this.

    Read the article

  • Export sheet from Excel to CSV

    - by Mike Wills
    I am creating a spread sheet to help ease the entry of data into one of our systems. They are entering inventory items into this spread sheet to calculate the unit cost of the item (item cost + tax + S&H). The software we purchased cannot do this. Aan invoice can have one or more lines (duh!) and I calculate the final unit cost. This is working fine. I then want to take that data and create a CSV from that so they can load it into our inventory system. I currently have a second tab that is laid out like I want the CSV, and I do an equal cell (=Sheet!A3) to get the values on the "export sheet". The problem is when they save this to a CSV, there are many blank lines that need to be deleted before they can upload it. I want a file that only contains the data that is needed. I am sure this could be done in VBA, but I don't know where to start or know how to search for an example to start. Any direction or other options would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Using hover to swap images, I don't want to swap images if I'm on '.this_page'...

    - by richoid
    When I land on the page, another function (not shown, that works fine) sets the class of the appropriate nav to '.this_page' and then I roll over, and the images swap correctly, but when I hover and leave 'img.this_page' it swaps, the second time I do the hover. I don't want it 'img.this_page' to swap. I tried unbinding mouseout, but on hover apparently it rebinds... so each time you hover, it resets. Page is at http://flourgarden.com/wp/ Here's my function: function hoverNavs() { var baseURL='http://www.flourgarden.com/wp/wp-content/themes/flourgarden/images/nav'; var cache=[]; $j('.lcolumn a img').each(function() { var t = $j(this); var src1 = t.attr('src'); // initial src var newSrc = src1.substring(src1.lastIndexOf('/'), src1.lastIndexOf('.')); // let's get file name without extension i = baseURL+newSrc+'_select.png'; cache.push(i); t.hover(function(){ $j(this).attr('src', baseURL+newSrc+ '_select.' + /[^.]+$/.exec(src1)); //last part is for extension }, function(){ if($j(this).class == "this_page") { $j(this).attr('src', baseURL+newSrc+ '_select.' + /[^.]+$/.exec(src1)); } else { $j(this).attr('src', baseURL+newSrc+ '.' + /[^.]+$/.exec(src1)); } }); }); }

    Read the article

  • Why ASP.NET menu control ignores roles in Web.sitemap?

    - by MainMa
    Hi, I have a website with a menu based on sitemap. ActiveDirectoryRoleProvider is a custom class. securityTrimmingEnabled of sitemap provider is set to true. Now, nevertheless the roles set in the sitemap file, site menu displays every sitemap entity. So for example if I have in sitemap a node with roles="*", a second one with roles="Administrators" and a third one with roles="Foo" and I login as a member of Administrators group but not Foo group, the site menu will display all three items. On the other hand, if I have a node which does not specify roles attribute but has children, this node will never be displayed. If I put: <%= HttpContext.Current.User.IsInRole("Administrators") ? "Admin" : "Not admin"%> <%= HttpContext.Current.User.IsInRole("Foo") ? "Foo" : "Not foo"%> before the menu, it displays that I'm Admin, but Not foo, which is just fine. So if it knows that I'm Admin but Not foo, why does it continue to display Foo's sitemap nodes? Note: changing authorizations has no effect on the menu. It continues to show every item, even for the pages I'm unable to access.

    Read the article

  • Code Contracts: Do we have to specify Contract.Requires(...) statements redundantly in delegating me

    - by herzmeister der welten
    I'm intending to use the new .NET 4 Code Contracts feature for future development. This made me wonder if we have to specify equivalent Contract.Requires(...) statements redundantly in a chain of methods. I think a code example is worth a thousand words: public bool CrushGodzilla(string weapon, int velocity) { Contract.Requires(weapon != null); // long code return false; } public bool CrushGodzilla(string weapon) { Contract.Requires(weapon != null); // specify contract requirement here // as well??? return this.CrushGodzilla(weapon, int.MaxValue); } For runtime checking it doesn't matter much, as we will eventually always hit the requirement check, and we will get an error if it fails. However, is it considered bad practice when we don't specify the contract requirement here in the second overload again? Also, there will be the feature of compile time checking, and possibly also design time checking of code contracts. It seems it's not yet available for C# in Visual Studio 2010, but I think there are some languages like Spec# that already do. These engines will probably give us hints when we write code to call such a method and our argument currently can or will be null. So I wonder if these engines will always analyze a call stack until they find a method with a contract that is currently not satisfied? Furthermore, here I learned about the difference between Contract.Requires(...) and Contract.Assume(...). I suppose that difference is also to consider in the context of this question then?

    Read the article

  • Ability to switch Persistence Unit dynamically within the application (JPA)

    - by MVK
    My application data access layer is built using Spring and EclipseLink and I am currently trying to implement the following feature - Ability to switch the current/active persistence unit dynamically for a user. I tried various options and finally ended up doing the following. In the persistence.xml, declare multiple PUs. Create a class with as many EntityManagerFactory attributes as there are PUs defined. This will act as a factory and return the appropriate EntityManager based on my logic public class MyEntityManagerFactory { @PersistenceUnit(unitName="PU_1") private EntityManagerFactory emf1; @PersistenceUnit(unitName="PU_2") private EntityManagerFactory emf2; public EntityManager getEntityManager(int releaseId) { // Logic goes here to return the appropriate entityManeger } } My spring-beans xml looks like this.. <!-- First persistence unit --> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean" id="emFactory1"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="PU_1" /> </bean> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager" id="transactionManager1"> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="emFactory1"/> </bean> <tx:annotation-driven transaction-manager="transactionManager1"/> The above section is repeated for the second PU (with names like emFactory2, transactionManager2 etc). I am a JPA newbie and I know that this is not the best solution. I appreciate any assistance in implementing this requirement in a better/elegant way! Thanks!

    Read the article

  • set width of bars in matlab bar plot on logarithmic scale

    - by KatyB
    I am a bit confused on how to draw a bar graph for the following example: x_lims = [1000,10000;10000,100000;100000,1000000;1000000,10000000;10000000,... 100000000;100000000,1000000000;1000000000,10000000000;... 10000000000,100000000000;100000000000,1e12]; ex1 = [277422033.049038;24118536.4203188;2096819.03295482;... 182293.402068030;15905;1330;105;16;1]; Here, x_lims is the x axis limits for each individual bar and ex1 is the count. How can I plot these on a bar graph so that the width of each individual bar along the x axis is defined by the distance between x_lims(:,1) and x_lims(:,2) and the y value is defined by ex1? So far I have: bar(log10(x_lims(:,1)),log10(ex1)); set(gca,'Xtick',3:11,'YTick',0:9); set(gca,'Xticklabel',10.^get(gca,'Xtick'),... 'Yticklabel',10.^get(gca,'Ytick')); But I would like to (1) have the labels to be the same as if they were created using semilogx or semilogy e.g. 10^9, and (2) I would like to remove the space between the bars, for the first bar, for example, I would like to have it extend horizontally from 1000 to 10000 and then the second bar from 10000 to 100000, and so on. How can this be done?

    Read the article

  • Best Functional Approach

    - by dbyrne
    I have some mutable scala code that I am trying to rewrite in a more functional style. It is a fairly intricate piece of code, so I am trying to refactor it in pieces. My first thought was this: def iterate(count:Int,d:MyComplexType) = { //Generate next value n //Process n causing some side effects return iterate(count - 1, n) } This didn't seem functional at all to me, since I still have side effects mixed throughout my code. My second thought was this: def generateStream(d:MyComplexType):Stream[MyComplexType] = { //Generate next value n return Stream.cons(n, generateStream(n)) } for (n <- generateStream(initialValue).take(2000000)) { //process n causing some side effects } This seemed like a better solution to me, because at least I've isolated my functional value-generation code from the mutable value-processing code. However, this is much less memory efficient because I am generating a large list that I don't really need to store. This leaves me with 3 choices: Write a tail-recursive function, bite the bullet and refactor the value-processing code Use a lazy list. This is not a memory sensitive app (although it is performance sensitive) Come up with a new approach. I guess what I really want is a lazily evaluated sequence where I can discard the values after I've processed them. Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • Is the C++ compiler optimizer allowed to break my destructor ability to be called multiple times?

    - by sharptooth
    We once had an interview with a very experienced C++ developer who couldn't answer the following question: is it necessary to call the base class destructor from the derived class destructor in C++? Obviously the answer is no, C++ will call the base class destructor automagically anyway. But what if we attempt to do the call? As I see it the result will depend on whether the base class destructor can be called twice without invoking erroneous behavior. For example in this case: class BaseSafe { public: ~BaseSafe() { } private: int data; }; class DerivedSafe { public: ~DerivedSafe() { BaseSafe::~BaseSafe(); } }; everything will be fine - the BaseSafe destructor can be called twice safely and the program will run allright. But in this case: class BaseUnsafe { public: BaseUnsafe() { buffer = new char[100]; } ~BaseUnsafe () { delete[] buffer; } private: char* buffer; }; class DerivedUnsafe { public: ~DerivedUnsafe () { BaseUnsafe::~BaseUnsafe(); } }; the explicic call will run fine, but then the implicit (automagic) call to the destructor will trigger double-delete and undefined behavior. Looks like it is easy to avoid the UB in the second case. Just set buffer to null pointer after delete[]. But will this help? I mean the destructor is expected to only be run once on a fully constructed object, so the optimizer could decide that setting buffer to null pointer makes no sense and eliminate that code exposing the program to double-delete. Is the compiler allowed to do that?

    Read the article

  • Implementing a scrabble trainer (cheater)

    - by bstullkid
    Hello, I've recently been playing alot of online scrabble so I decided to make a program that quickly searches through a dictionary of 200,000+ words with an input of up to any 26 letters. My first attempt was fail as it took a while when you input 8 or more letters (just a basic look through dictionary and cancel out a letter if its found kind of thing), so I made a tree like structure containing only an array of 26 of the same structure and a flag to indicate the end of a word, doing that It can output all possible words in under a second even with an input of 26 characters. But it seems that when I input 12 or more letters with some of the same characters repeated i get duplicates; can anyone see why I would be getting duplicates with this code? (ill post my program at the bottom) Also, the next step once the duplicates are weeded out is to actually be able to input the letters on the game board and then have it calculate the best word you can make on a given board. I am having trouble trying to figure out a good algorithm that can analyze a scrabble board and an input of letters and output a result; the possible words that could be made I have no problem with but actually checking a board efficiently (ie can this word fit here, or here etc... without creating a non dictionary word in the process on some other string of letters) Anyone have a idea for an approach at that? (given a scrabble board, and an input of 7 letters, find all possible valid words or word sets that you can make) lol crap i forgot to email myself the code from my other computer thats in another state... ill post it on monday when I get back there! btw the dictionary im using is sowpods (http://www.calvin.edu/~rpruim/scrabble/ospd3.txt)

    Read the article

  • Creating many polygons with OpenGL is slow?

    - by user146780
    I want to draw many polygons to the screen but i'm quickly noticing that it slows down quickly. As a test I did this: for(int i = 0; i < 50; ++i) { glBegin( GL_POLYGON); glColor3f( 0.0f, 1, 0.0f ); glVertex2f( 500.0 + frameGL.GetCameraX(), 0.0f + frameGL.GetCameraY()); glColor3f( 0.0f, 1.0f, 0.0f ); glVertex2f( 900.0 + frameGL.GetCameraX(), 0.0f + frameGL.GetCameraY()); glColor3f( 0.0f, 0.0f, 0.5 ); glVertex2f(900.0 + frameGL.GetCameraX(), 500.0f + frameGL.GetCameraY() + (150)); glColor3f( 0.0f, 1.0f, 0.0f ); glVertex2f( 500 + frameGL.GetCameraX(), 500.0f + frameGL.GetCameraY()); glColor3f( 1.0f, 1.0f, 0.0f ); glVertex2f( 300 + frameGL.GetCameraX(), 200.0f + frameGL.GetCameraY()); glEnd(); } This is only 50 polygons and already it's gtting slow. I can't upload them directly to the card because my program will allow the user to reshape the verticies. My question is, how can I speed this up. I'm not using depth. I also know it's not my GetCamera() functions because if I create 500,000 polygons spread apart t's fine, it just has trouble showing them in the view. If a graphics card can support 500,000,000 on screen polygons per second, this should be easy right? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Implement a threading to prevent UI block on a bug in an async function

    - by Marcx
    I think I ran up againt a bug in an async function... Precisely the getDirectoryListingAsync() of the File class... This method is supposted to return an object containing the lists of files in a specified folder. I found that calling this method on a direcory with a lot of files (in my tests more than 20k files), after few seconds there is a block on the UI until the process is completed... I think that this method is separated in two main block: 1) get the list of files 2) create the array with the details of the files The point 1 seems to be async (for a few second the ui is responsive), then when the process pass from point 1 to point 2 the block of the UI occurs until the complete event is dispathed... Here's some (simple) code: private function checkFiles(dir:File):void { if (dir.exists) { dir.addEventListener( FileListEvent.DIRECTORY_LISTING, listaImmaginiLocale); dir.getDirectoryListingAsync(); // after this point, for the firsts seconds the UI respond well (point 1), // few seconds later (point 2) the UI is frozen } } private function listaImmaginiLocale( event:FileListEvent ):void { // from this point on the UI is responsive again... } Actually in my projects there are some function that perform an heavy cpu usage and to prevent the UI block I implemented a simple function that after some iteration will wait giving time to UI to be refreshed. private var maxIteration:int = 150000; private function sampleFunct(offset:int = 0) :void { if (offset < maxIteration) { // do something // call the recursive function using a timeout.. // if the offset in multiple by 1000 the function will wait 15 millisec, // otherwise it will be called immediately // 1000 is a random number for the pourpose of this example, but I usually change the // value based on how much heavy is the function itself... setTimeout(function():void{aaa(++offset);}, (offset%1000?15:0)); } } Using this method I got a good responsive UI without afflicting performance... I'd like to implement it into the getDirectoryListingAsync method but I don't know if it's possibile how can I do it where is the file to edit or extend.. Any suggestion???

    Read the article

  • What do you call the highlight as you hover over an OPTION in a SELECT, and how can I "un"highlight

    - by devils-avacado
    I'm working on dropdowns in IE6 (SELECT with OPTIONs as children). I'm experiencing the problem where, in IE6, dropdown menus are truncated to the width of the SELECT element. I used this jquery to fix it: var css_expanded = { 'width' : 'auto', 'position' : 'absolute', 'left' : '564px', 'top' : '393px' } var css_off = { 'width' : '190px', 'position' : 'relative', 'left' : '0', 'top' : '0' } if($.browser.msie) { $('#dropdown') .bind('mouseover', function() { $(this).css(css_expanded); }) .bind('click', function() { $(this).toggleClass('clicked'); }) .bind('mouseout', function() { if (!$(this).hasClass('clicked')) { $(this).css(css_off); } }) .bind('change blur focusout', function() { $(this).removeClass('clicked') .css(css_off) }); }; It works fine in IE7+8, but in IE6, if the user clicks on a SELECT and does not click any OPTION but instead clicks somewhere else on the page, outside the SELECT (blur), the SELECT still has a "highlight", the same as if they were hovering over an OPTION with my mouse (in my case, a blue color), and the width is not restored until the user clicks outside the SELECT a second time. In other browsers, blur causes every OPTION to not be highlighted. Using JS, how can I de-highlight an option after the dropdown has lost focus.

    Read the article

  • Unpacking varargin to individual variables

    - by Richie Cotton
    I'm writing a wrapper to a function that takes varargin as its inputs. I want to preserve the function signature in the wrapper, but nesting varargin causes all the variable to be lumped together. function inner(varargin) %#ok<VANUS> % An existing function disp(nargin) end function outer(varargin) % My wrapper inner(varargin); end outer('foo', 1:3, {}) % Uh-oh, this is 1 I need a way to unpack varargin in the outer function, so that I have a list of individual variables. There is a really nasty way to do this by constructing a string of the names of the variables to pass the inner, and calling eval. function outer2(varargin) %#ok<VANUS> % My wrapper, second attempt inputstr = ''; for i = 1:nargin inputstr = [inputstr 'varargin{' num2str(i) '}']; %#ok<AGROW> if i < nargin inputstr = [inputstr ', ']; %#ok<AGROW> end end eval(['inner(' inputstr ')']); end outer2('foo', 1:3, {}) % 3, as it should be Can anyone think of a less hideous way of doing things, please?

    Read the article

  • How to delete a row from a typed dataset and save it to a database?

    - by Zingam
    I am doing this as a small project to learn about disconnected and connected models in .NET 4.0 and SQL Server 2008 R2. I have three tables: Companies (PK CompanyID) Addresses (PK AddressID, FK CompanyID) ContactPersons (PK ContactPersonID, FK CompanyID) CompanyID is assigned manually by the users. The other IDs are auto-generated. Companies has a one-to-many relationship with ContactPerson. I have set any changes to cascade. I display all records in Companies in a DataGridView and when a row is clicked, the corresponding records in ContactPersons are displayed in a second DataGridView. I have successfully implemented updating and inserting new records but I completely fail in my attempts to delete rows and save the changes to the database. I us a typed dataset. If I use this: DataRow[] contactPersonRows = m_SoldaCompaniesFileDataSet.ContactPersons.Select("ContactPersonID = " + this.m_CurrentContactPerson.ContactPersonID); m_SoldaCompaniesFileDataSet.ContactPersons.Rows.Remove(contactPersonRows[0]); The records are displayed properly in the DataGridView but are not saved in the database later. If I use this: DataRow row = m_SoldaCompaniesFileDataSet.ContactPersons.Rows.Find(this.m_CurrentContactPerson.ContactPersonID); row.Delete(); The records are set but I get an exeception: DeletedRowInaccessibleException, when I try to refresh the DataGridView. The exception pop-s up in the auto-generated dataset.design file. I am pretty much stuck at this point since yesterday. I cannot find anything anywhere that remotely resembles my problem. And I cannot understand actually what is going on.

    Read the article

  • PhotoChooserTask + Navigation.

    - by user562405
    I taken two Images & added event (MouseButtonDown) for them. When first image handles event to open Gallery. Second image handles events for open camera. When user has choosed his image from the gallery, I want to navigate to next page. Its navigates. But before completing navigation process, it displays MainPage & then moves toward next page. I didnt want to display the MainPage once user chooses the image from the gallery. Plz help. Thanks in advance. public partial class MainPage : PhoneApplicationPage { PhotoChooserTask objPhotoChooser; CameraCaptureTask cameraCaptureTask; // Constructor public MainPage() { InitializeComponent(); objPhotoChooser = new PhotoChooserTask(); objPhotoChooser.Completed += new EventHandler<PhotoResult>(objPhotoChooser_Completed); cameraCaptureTask = new CameraCaptureTask(); cameraCaptureTask.Completed += new EventHandler<PhotoResult>(objCameraCapture_Completed); } void objPhotoChooser_Completed(object sender, PhotoResult e) { if (e != null && e.TaskResult == TaskResult.OK) { //Take JPEG stream and decode into a WriteableBitmap object App.CapturedImage = PictureDecoder.DecodeJpeg(e.ChosenPhoto); //Delay navigation until the first navigated event NavigationService.Navigated += new NavigatedEventHandler(navigateCompleted); } } void navigateCompleted(object sender, EventArgs e) { //Do the delayed navigation from the main page this.NavigationService.Navigate(new Uri("/ImageViewer.xaml", UriKind.RelativeOrAbsolute)); NavigationService.Navigated -= new NavigatedEventHandler(navigateCompleted); } void objCameraCapture_Completed(object sender, PhotoResult e) { if (e.TaskResult == TaskResult.OK) { //Take JPEG stream and decode into a WriteableBitmap object App.CapturedImage = PictureDecoder.DecodeJpeg(e.ChosenPhoto); //Delay navigation until the first navigated event NavigationService.Navigated += new NavigatedEventHandler(navigateCompleted); } } protected override void OnBackKeyPress(System.ComponentModel.CancelEventArgs e) { e.Cancel = true; } private void image1_MouseLeftButtonDown(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { objPhotoChooser.Show(); } private void image2_MouseLeftButtonDown(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { cameraCaptureTask.Show(); }

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to access Joomla 1.5 user variables (like user id) from a Flex 4 application using a PHP Data Service?

    - by Zachary G. Schroeder
    I have written a script (in two files) that correctly displays a Joomla user id, like this: //this is testy.php define( '_JEXEC', 1 ); define('JPATH_BASE', dirname(FILE)); define( 'DS', DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR ); require_once ( JPATH_BASE .DS.'includes'.DS.'defines.php' ); require_once ( JPATH_BASE .DS.'includes'.DS.'framework.php' ); $mainframe =& JFactory::getApplication('site'); $id = JFactory::getUser()-id; The above file is located in the Joomla root folder. The other file is in a different directory and is as follows: //this is testid.php include '../../joomla/testy.php'; echo $id; However, and here is the rub, when I change the "echo" to a "return" and put the second code snippet inside my Flex 4 Data Service script file, like this... function getUserId() { include '../../joomla/testy.php'; return $id; } ...I get a Flex error that says this: Fatal error: Class 'JRequest' not found in /var/www/html/joomla/libraries/joomla/import.php on line 33 I am extremely confused by this error and would appreciate any suggestions that the stackoverflow community may have. Thanks so much! Zach

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET: I'm getting strange output when styling a Label control...

    - by pkiyan
    .labelOne { border-width:thin; border-style:solid; border-color:Red; background-color:Silver; } <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" CssClass="labelOne"> <h1>Hello world</h1> </asp:Label> <br /><br /> <asp:Label ID="Label2" runat="server" BorderColor="Black" BorderStyle="Solid" BorderWidth="1px" BackColor="Silver"> <h1>Hello world</h1> </asp:Label> Hello. In the code sample above I have 2 Label controls with their contents set to an h1 header tag. The first Label is styled using css, and the second with the Label's inline properties (both Labels have identical styling). But the first Label doesn't output properly, it's border is broken. If I replace the first Label's markup with plain "Hello world" text it renders properly, but it breaks again when I use markup. Can someone explain why this is happening?

    Read the article

  • Making a button click and process using javascript with Asp.Net

    - by user944919
    I'm having two buttons and one button is hidden. Now when I click the visible button I need to do two things 1.Open Iframe. 2.Automatically make the 2nd Button(Hidden)to be clicked. When the second button is clicked I need to display the message on top of the IFrame which I have mentioned as function showStickySuccessToast() Now I am able to open IFrame but I'm unable to make the Hidden button clicked automatically. This is what I'm having: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#<%=Button1.ClientID%>").click(function(event){ $('#<%=TextBox1.ClientID%>').change(function () { $('#various3').attr('href', $(this).val()); }); }); function showStickySuccessToast() { $().toastmessage('showToast', { text: 'Finished Processing!', sticky: false, position: 'middle-center', type: 'success', closeText: '', close: function () { } }); } }) </script> Here are my two buttons how I'm working with: <a id="various3" href="#"><asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" Text="Button" OnClientClick="Button2_Click"/></a> <asp:Button ID="Button2" runat="server" Text="Button" Visible="False" OnClick="Button2_Click"/> And in the button2_Click event: Protected Sub Button2_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button2.Click System.Web.UI.ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock(Page, GetType(Page), "Script", "showStickySuccessToast();", True) End Sub

    Read the article

  • Deploy to web container, bundle web container or embed web container...

    - by Jason
    I am developing an application that needs to be as simple as possible to install for the end user. While the end users will likely be experience Linux users (or sales engineers), they don't really know anything about Tomcat, Jetty, etc, nor do I think they should. So I see 3 ways to deploy our applications. I should also state that this is the first app that I have had to deploy that had a web interface, so I haven't really faced this question before. First is to deploy the application into an existing web container. Since we only deploy to Suse or RedHat this seems easy enough to do. However, we're not big on the idea of multiple apps running in one web container. It makes it harder to take down just one app. The next option is to just bundle Tomcat or Jetty and have the startup/shutdown scripts launch our bundled web container. Or 3rd, embed.. This will probably provide the same user experience as the second option. I'm curious what others do when faced with this problem to make it as fool proof as possible on the end user. I've almost ruled out deploying into an existing web container as we often like to set per application resource limits and CPU affinity, which I believe would affect all apps deployed into a web container/app server and not just a specific application. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Does playing a Program from VS2005 cause a program to work any different than the .exe file?

    - by Bryan
    There is a program where I work that works fine when running the .exe file but works differently from expected when opened in VS2005 and played from there. I am therefore asking on here if anyone knows of anything that would work in the .exe file but not the debug from VS? I am not able to post the code for the buttons I'm talking about but I'll try to explain the best I can. There is a receiver hooked up to the computer. When the button is pressed on the program, it shows a message and waits for a signal to be received. After the signal is heard the first message box is supposed to close and another is supposed to open. When using the .exe file this happens just fine. However when playing from the program from VS2005 (the same one from which the .exe was made) the second message doesn't come up when it is supposed to and when I can make it come up, the first box doesn't close. There is also a timer involved if that helps. Also, is there a fundamental difference between how the two operate when executing the program? If I need to make anything more clear or give more details please let me know.

    Read the article

  • How can I prevent double file uploading with Amazon S3?

    - by Tony
    I decided to use Amazon S3 for document storage for an app I am creating. One issue I run into is while I need to upload the files to S3, I need to create a document object in my app so my users can perform CRUD actions. One solution is to allow for a double upload. A user uploads a document to the server my Rails app lives on. I validate and create the object, then pass it on to S3. One issue with this is progress indicators become more complicated. Using most out-of-the-box plugins would show the client that file has finished uploading because it is on my server, but then there would be a decent delay when the file was going from my server to S3. This also introduces unnecessary bandwidth (at least it does not seem necessary) The other solution I am thinking about is to upload the file directly to S3 with one AJAX request, and when that is successful, make a second AJAX request to store the object in my database. One issue here is that I would have to validate the file after it is uploaded which means I have to run some clean up code in S3 if the validation fails. Both seem equally messy. Does anyone have something more elegant working that they would not mind sharing? I would imagine this is a common situation with "cloud storage" being quite popular today. Maybe I am looking at this wrong.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 546 547 548 549 550 551 552 553 554 555 556 557  | Next Page >