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  • Is the C++ compiler optimizer allowed to break my destructor ability to be called multiple times?

    - by sharptooth
    We once had an interview with a very experienced C++ developer who couldn't answer the following question: is it necessary to call the base class destructor from the derived class destructor in C++? Obviously the answer is no, C++ will call the base class destructor automagically anyway. But what if we attempt to do the call? As I see it the result will depend on whether the base class destructor can be called twice without invoking erroneous behavior. For example in this case: class BaseSafe { public: ~BaseSafe() { } private: int data; }; class DerivedSafe { public: ~DerivedSafe() { BaseSafe::~BaseSafe(); } }; everything will be fine - the BaseSafe destructor can be called twice safely and the program will run allright. But in this case: class BaseUnsafe { public: BaseUnsafe() { buffer = new char[100]; } ~BaseUnsafe () { delete[] buffer; } private: char* buffer; }; class DerivedUnsafe { public: ~DerivedUnsafe () { BaseUnsafe::~BaseUnsafe(); } }; the explicic call will run fine, but then the implicit (automagic) call to the destructor will trigger double-delete and undefined behavior. Looks like it is easy to avoid the UB in the second case. Just set buffer to null pointer after delete[]. But will this help? I mean the destructor is expected to only be run once on a fully constructed object, so the optimizer could decide that setting buffer to null pointer makes no sense and eliminate that code exposing the program to double-delete. Is the compiler allowed to do that?

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  • Problem Routing domains subfolder

    - by hkda150
    Hi there, I'm pretty new to ASP.NET MVC and I hope it is not a too silly question. So here it comes. I have ... a ASP.NET MVC application with a domain similar to http://mydomain/mysubfoler1/myappfolder My problem... The problem for me is the routing of my application (it worked fine without using a subfolder after the domain-name). The applications homepage loads not to bad, with css files but without ressources like images (defined in css files) and without jQuery ajax calls similar to /mycontroller/myaction links are only working once (the second time I get a page similar to this link: http://mydomain/mysubfoler1/myappfolder/myController/myController/myAction) Here's my Global.asax contaning the routing: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "myController", action = "Index", id = "" } defaults ); routes.MapRoute( "Root", "", new { controller = "myController", action = "Index", id = "" } ); } protected void Application_Start() { ViewEngines.Engines.Clear(); ViewEngines.Engines.Add(new MyApplicationWeb.LocalizationWebFormViewEngine()); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); //RouteDebug.RouteDebugger.RewriteRoutesForTesting(RouteTable.Routes); } Any suggestions? My first suggestion was to use areas like: "mysubfolder1/myappfolder/{controller}/{action}/{id}" (but without any luck) Thank you very much for your help!

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  • TypeError when using v 0.8.1 of FLOT library, but no error with v. 0.7

    - by DanielAttard
    I need some help to figure out why I am getting an error when trying to create a simple graph using the jQuery FLOT library. When I reference version 0.7 of the FLOT library, the page renders correctly: http://attardpropertytax.ca/flot07.html But when I switch to version 0.8.1 of the FLOT library, the page returns an error saying: Uncaught TypeError: Cannot read property 'left' of null http://attardpropertytax.ca/flot81.html The HTML is the same for both pages, so I cannot figure out why the new version 0.8.1 of FLOT returns an error, but the old version 0.7 does not. Any ideas? I somehow stumbled across a work-around that managed to fix my problem. I'm nut sure why, but I had to comment-out the following two sections of code from the v. 0.8.1 FLOT library: This was the first spot: // If the grid is visible, add its border width to the offset for (var a in plotOffset) { if(typeof(options.grid.borderWidth) == "object") { plotOffset[a] += showGrid ? options.grid.borderWidth[a] : 0; } else { plotOffset[a] += showGrid ? options.grid.borderWidth : 0; } } And this was the second spot: if (isNaN(v) || v < axis.min || v > axis.max // skip those lying on the axes if we got a border || (t == "full" && ((typeof bw == "object" && bw[axis.position] > 0) || bw > 0) && (v == axis.min || v == axis.max))) continue; I'm sure eventually @DNS will be taking a look at this question and maybe he will be able to help me understand what is going wrong with my code. Thanks.

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  • jquery fail to retrieve accurate data from sibling field.

    - by i need help
    wonder what's wrong <table id=tblDomainVersion> <tr> <td>Version</td> <td>No of sites</td> </tr> <tr> <td class=clsversion>1.25</td> <td><a id=expanddomain>3 sites</a><span id=spanshowall></span></td> </tr> <tr> <td class=clsversion>1.37</td> <td><a id=expanddomain>7 sites</a><span id=spanshowall></span></td> </tr> </table> $('#expanddomain').click(function() { //the siblings result incorrect //select first row will work //select second row will no response var versionforselected= $('#expanddomain').parent().siblings("td.clsversion").text(); alert(versionforselected); $.ajax({ url: "ajaxquery.php", type: "POST", data: 'version='+versionforselected, timeout: 900000, success: function(output) { output= jQuery.trim(output); $('#spanshowall').html(output); }, }); });

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  • Bizzare results when running two Visual Studio Express C++ 2008 solutions

    - by Jamie Keeling
    This is a follow on from my previous question although this is about something else. I've been having a problem where for some reason my message that I pass from one process to another only displays the first letter, in this case "M". My application based on a MSDN sample so to make sure I hadn't missed something I create a seperate solution, added the MSDN sample (Without any changes for my needs) and unsuprisingly it works fine. Now for the weird bit, when I run the MSDN sample running (As in debugging) and have my own application running, the text prints out fine without any problems. The second I run my on it's own without the original MSDN sample being open it fails to work and only shows an "M". I've looked in the debugger and don't seem to notice anything suspicious (It's a slightly dated picture, I've fixed the data type inconsistency). Can anyone provide a solution as to this? I've never encountered anything like this before. To look at my source code it's easier to just look at the link I posted at the top of the question, there's no point in me posting it twice. Thank you for any help.

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  • Problem with incomplete input when using Attoparsec

    - by Dan Dyer
    I am converting some functioning Haskell code that uses Parsec to instead use Attoparsec in the hope of getting better performance. I have made the changes and everything compiles but my parser does not work correctly. I am parsing a file that consists of various record types, one per line. Each of my individual functions for parsing a record or comment works correctly but when I try to write a function to compile a sequence of records the parser always returns a partial result because it is expecting more input. These are the two main variations that I've tried. Both have the same problem. items :: Parser [Item] items = sepBy (comment <|> recordType1 <|> recordType2) endOfLine For this second one I changed the record/comment parsers to consume the end-of-line characters. items :: Parser [Item] items = manyTill (comment <|> recordType1 <|> recordType2) endOfInput Is there anything wrong with my approach? Is there some other way to achieve what I am attempting?

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  • How do I bind to a custom view in Cocoa using Xcode 4?

    - by Newt
    I'm a beginner when it comes to writing Mac apps and working with Cocoa, so please forgive my ignorance. I'm looking to create a custom view, that exposes some properties, which I can then bind to an NSObjectController. Since it's a custom view, the Bindings Inspector obviously doesn't list any of the properties I've added to the view that I can then bind to using Interface Builder. After turning to the Stackoverflow/Google for help, I've stumbled across a couple of possible solutions, but neither seem to be quite right for my situation. The first suggested creating an IBPlugin, which would then mean my bindings would be available in the Bindings Inspector. I could then bind the view to the controller using IB. Apparently IBPlugins aren't supported in Xcode 4, so that one's out the window. I'm also assuming (maybe wrongly) that IBPlugins are no longer supported because there's a better way of doing such things these days? The second option was to bind the controller to the view programmatically. I'm a bit confused as to exactly how I would achieve this. Would it require subclassing NSObjectController so I can add the calls to bind to the view? Would I need to add anything to the view to support this? Some examples I've seen say you'd need to override the bind method, and others say you don't. Also, I've noticed that some example custom views call [self exposeBinding:@"bindingName"] in the initializer. From what I gather from various sources, this is something that's related to IBPlugins and isn't something I need to do if I'm not using them. Is that correct? I've found a post on Stackoverflow here which seems to discuss something very similar to my problem, but there wasn't any clear winner as to the best answer. The last comment by noa on 12th Sept seems interesting, although they mention you should be calling exposeBinding:. Is this comment along the right track? Is the call to exposeBinding really necessary? Apologies for any dumb questions. Any help greatly appreciated.

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  • GDI: Dynamical Multiple Graphics in a page?

    - by SirLenz0rlot
    Hi all, I'm quite new to drawing shapes, graphics, bitmaps etc. I googled for a few days,but still havent got a real clue what to do, so please help me: I want to draw a floorplan with certain objects(represented as circles) moving on it. When I click on a object, it needs to show something. So far, I ve been able to draw some circles on a graphic and been able to move the dots by clearing the graphic every time. Ofcourse, this isnt a real solution, since I cant keep track of the different objects on the floorplan (which i need for my clickevent and movings). I hope I explained my problem ok here. This is the (stripped version of the) sourcecode that gets called every second: (dev (of type Device) is the object i want to draw) Graphics gfx = FloorplanTabPage.CreateGraphics(); gfx.Clear(Color.White); foreach (Device dev in _deviceList) { Pen myPen = new Pen(Color.Black) { Width = 10 }; dev.InRoom != null) { myPen.Color = Color.DarkOrchid; int x = dev.InRoom.XPos + (dev.InRoom.Width / 2) - 5; int y = (dev.InRoom.YPos + (dev.InRoom.Height / 2) - 5; if (dev.ToRoom != null) { x = (x + (dev.ToRoom.XPos + (dev.ToRoom.Width / 2)) / 2; y = (y + (dev.ToRoom.YPos + (dev.ToRoom.Height / 2)) / 2; } gfx.DrawEllipse(myPen, x, y, 10, 10); gfx.DrawString(dev.Name, new Font("Arial", 10), Brushes.Purple, x, y - 15); } }

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  • in Rails, with check_box_tag, how do I keep the checkboxes checked after submitting query?

    - by Sebastien Paquet
    Ok, I know this is for the Saas course and people have been asking questions related to that as well but i've spent a lot of time trying and reading and I'm stuck. First of all, When you have a model called Movie, is it better to use Ratings as a model and associate them or just keep Ratings in an array floating in space(!). Second, here's what I have now in my controller: def index @movies = Movie.where(params[:ratings].present? ? {:rating => (params[:ratings].keys)} : {}).order(params[:sort]) @sort = params[:sort] @ratings = Ratings.all end Now, I decided to create a Ratings model since I thought It would be better. Here's my view: = form_tag movies_path, :method => :get do Include: - @ratings.each do |rating| = rating.rating = check_box_tag "ratings[#{rating.rating}]" = submit_tag "Refresh" I tried everything that is related to using a conditional ternary inside the checkbox tag ending with " .include?(rating) ? true : "" I tried everything that's supposed to work but it doesn't. I don't want the exact answer, I just need guidance.Thanks in advance!

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  • How would you organize this in asp.net mvc?

    - by chobo
    I have an asp.net mvc 2.0 application that contains Areas/Modules like calendar, admin, etc... There may be cases where more than one area needs to access the same Repo, so I am not sure where to put the Data Access Layers and Repositories. First Option: Should I create Data Access Layer files (Linq to SQL in my case) with their accompanying Repositories for each area, so each area only contains the Tables, and Repositories needed by those areas. The benefit is that everything needed to run that module is one place, so it is more encapsulated (in my mind anyway). The downside is that I may have duplicate queries, because other modules may use the same query. Second Option Or, would it be better to place the DAL and Repositories outside the Area's and treat them as Global? The advantage is I won't have any duplicate queries, but I may be loading a lot of unnecessary queries and DAL tables up for certain modules. It is also more work to reuse or modify these modules for future projects (though the chance of reusing them is slim to none :)) Which option makes more sense? If someone has a better way I'd love to hear it. Thanks!

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  • Access to map data

    - by herzl shemuelian
    I have a complex map that defined typedef short short1 typedef short short2 typedef map<short1,short2> data_list; typedef map<string,list> table_list; I have a class that fill table_list class GroupingClass { table_list m_table_list; string Buildkey(OD e1){ string ostring; ostring+=string(e1.m_Date,sizeof(Date)); ostring+=string(e1.m_CT,sizeof(CT)); ostring+=string(e1.m_PT,sizeof(PT)); return ostring; } void operator() (const map<short1,short2>::value_type& myPair) { OptionsDefine e1=myPair.second; string key=Buildkey(e1); m_table_list[key][e1.m_short2]=e1.m_short2; } operator table_list() { return m_table_list; } }; and I use it by table_list TL2 GroupingClass gc; TL2=for_each(mapOD.begin(), mapOD.end(), gc); but when I try to access to internal map I have problems for example data_list tmp; tmp=TL2["AAAA"]; short i=tmp[1]; //I dont update i variable but if i use a loop by itrator this work properly why this no work at first way thanks herzl

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  • Compile for mixed platform (32, 64) and reference a 32 or 64 bit DLL resolved at runtime

    - by Nigel Aston
    Using VS2010 under windows 32 or 64 bit. Our C# app calls a 3rd party DLL (managed) that interfaces to an unmanaged DLL. The 3rd party DLL API appears identical in 32 or 64 bit although underneath it links to a 32 or 64 bit unmanaged DLL. We want our C# app to run on either 32 or 64 bit OS, ideally it will auto detect the OS and load the appropriate 32rd party DLL - via a simple factory class which tests the Enviroment. So the neatest solution would be a runtime folder containing: OurApp.exe 3rdParty32.DLL 3rdPartyUnmanaged32.DLL 3rdParty64.DLL 3rdPartyUnmanaged64.DLL However, the interface for the managed 3rdParty 32 and 64 dll is identical so both cannot be referenced within the same VS2010 project: when adding the second the warning triangle is shown and it does not get referenced. Is my only answer to create two extra library DLL projects to reference the 3rdParty 32 and 64 Dlls? So I would end up with this project arrangement: Project 1: Builds OurApp.exe, dynamically creates an object for project2 or project3. Project 2: Builds OurApp32.DLL which references 3rdParty32.dll Project 3: Builds OurApp64.DLL which references 3rdParty64.dll

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  • Why do I get null objects in a many-to-many bag?

    - by Jim Geurts
    I have a bag defined for a many-to-many list: <class name="Author" table="Authors"> <id name="Id" column="AuthorId"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="Name" /> <bag name="Books" table="Author_Book_Map" where="IsDeleted=0" fetch="join"> <key column="AuthorId" /> <many-to-many class="Book" column="BookId" where="IsDeleted=0" /> </bag> </class> If I return all author objects using something like the following, I will get what initially appeared to be duplicate Author records: Session.Query<Author>().List<Author>() The extra author objects are created when an author is mapped to Book objects that have IsDeleted = 1 and IsDeleted = 0. Rather than creating one Author object with an enumerable that contains only the books with IsDeleted = 0, it will create two author objects. The first author object has a Books enumerable that contains books with IsDeleted = 0. The second author object will contain an enumerable of null book objects. Similarly, if an object only has one book map, and that map points to a book with IsDeleted = 1, then an author object is returned with a Books collection having one null object. I'm thinking part of the problem stems from the map table objects linking to rows that satisfy the where condition on the bag object but do not meet the many-to-many where condition. This is happening with NHibernate version 3.0.0.4980. Is this a configuration issue or something else?

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  • How can I prevent double file uploading with Amazon S3?

    - by Tony
    I decided to use Amazon S3 for document storage for an app I am creating. One issue I run into is while I need to upload the files to S3, I need to create a document object in my app so my users can perform CRUD actions. One solution is to allow for a double upload. A user uploads a document to the server my Rails app lives on. I validate and create the object, then pass it on to S3. One issue with this is progress indicators become more complicated. Using most out-of-the-box plugins would show the client that file has finished uploading because it is on my server, but then there would be a decent delay when the file was going from my server to S3. This also introduces unnecessary bandwidth (at least it does not seem necessary) The other solution I am thinking about is to upload the file directly to S3 with one AJAX request, and when that is successful, make a second AJAX request to store the object in my database. One issue here is that I would have to validate the file after it is uploaded which means I have to run some clean up code in S3 if the validation fails. Both seem equally messy. Does anyone have something more elegant working that they would not mind sharing? I would imagine this is a common situation with "cloud storage" being quite popular today. Maybe I am looking at this wrong.

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  • What is Wordpress doing for content encoding in it's mysql database?

    - by qbxk
    For some convoluted reasons best left behind us, I require direct access the contents of a wordpress database. I'm using mysql 5.0.70-r1 on gentoo with wordpress 2.6, and perl 5.8.8 ftr. So, sometimes we get high-order characters in the blog, we have quite a few authors contributing too, for the most part these characters end up in wp's database in wp_posts.post_content or wp_postmeta.meta_value, Wordpress is displaying these correctly on it's site, but the database stores it using single byte encoding that I can't figure out how to convert to the correct string. Today's example: the blog shows this, and doesn't even seem to escape any chars in the html, Hãhãhães but the database, when viewed via the mysql prompt, has, Hãhãhães So clearly this is some kind of double-byte encoding issue, but I don't know how I can correct it. I need to be able to pull that second string from the database (b/c that's what it gives me) and convert it to the first one, and i need to do so using perl. also, just to help unmuddy any waters, I took these strings and printed out the ascii codes for each character using perl's ord() function. Here is the output of the "wrong" string H = 72 à = 195 £ = 163 h = 104 à = 195 £ = 163 h = 104 à = 195 £ = 163 e = 101 s = 115 This is the correct string, that I need to produce in my script H = 72 ã = 227 h = 104 ã = 227 h = 104 ã = 227 e = 101 s = 115

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  • Load javascript in app engine

    - by user624392
    I got so confused loading javascript in app engine. I am using django template. In my base html file. First I can't load my downloaded jquery from local say d:/jquery.js like <script src="d:\jquery.js" type="text/javascript" ></script></head>, This line is in my base html file. It works when I load jquery from remote. Like <script src="https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.5.1/jquery.min.js"type="text/javascript" ></script></head> I dont know why. Second, I can't load my own-created javascript to my html file, say I create a javascript like layout. Js and I try to load it like this in my child html file, which, by the way, inherits from the base html. <body><script src="layout.js" type="text/javascript"></script></body>, And it doesn't work at all, the only way it works I have tried is that I put the actual javascript in the body of my base html file. Like <body><script> $(document).ready( $("#yes"). Click(function() { $("#no"). Hide("slow"); })); </script> I dont know why either... Any help?

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  • ASP.NET: I'm getting strange output when styling a Label control...

    - by pkiyan
    .labelOne { border-width:thin; border-style:solid; border-color:Red; background-color:Silver; } <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" CssClass="labelOne"> <h1>Hello world</h1> </asp:Label> <br /><br /> <asp:Label ID="Label2" runat="server" BorderColor="Black" BorderStyle="Solid" BorderWidth="1px" BackColor="Silver"> <h1>Hello world</h1> </asp:Label> Hello. In the code sample above I have 2 Label controls with their contents set to an h1 header tag. The first Label is styled using css, and the second with the Label's inline properties (both Labels have identical styling). But the first Label doesn't output properly, it's border is broken. If I replace the first Label's markup with plain "Hello world" text it renders properly, but it breaks again when I use markup. Can someone explain why this is happening?

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  • Excel - Best Way to Connect With Access Data

    - by gamerzfuse
    Hello there, Here is the situation we have: a) I have an Access database / application that records a significant amount of data. Significant fields would be hours, # of sales, # of unreturned calls, etc b) I have an Excel document that connects to the Access database and pulls data in to visualize it As it stands now, the Excel file has a Refresh button that loads new data. The data is loaded into a large PivotTable. The main 'visual form' then uses VLOOKUP to get the results from the form, based on the related hours. This operation is slow (~10 seconds) and seems to be redundant and inefficient. Is there a better way to do this? I am willing to go just about any route - just need directions. Thanks in advance! Update: I have confirmed (due to helpful comments/responses) that the problem is with the data loading itself. removing all the VLOOKUPs only took a second or two out of the load time. So, the questions stands as how I can rapidly and reliably get the data without so much time involvement (it loads around 3000 records into the PivotTables).

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  • How long is the time frame between context switches on Windows?

    - by mattcodes
    Reading CLR via C# 2.0 (I dont have 3.0 with me at the moment) Is this still the case: If there is only one CPU in a computer, only one thread can run at any one time. Windows has to keep track of the thread objects, and every so often, Windows has to decide which thread to schedule next to go to the CPU. This is additional code that has to execute once every 20 milliseconds or so. When Windows makes a CPU stop executing one thread's code and start executing another thread's code, we call this a context switch. A context switch is fairly expensive because the operating system has to: So circa CLR via C# 2.0 lets say we are on Pentium 4 2.4ghz 1 core non-HT, XP. Every 20 milliseconds? Where a CLR thread or Java thread is mapped to an OS thread only a maximum of 50 threads per second may get a chance to to run? I've read that context switching is very fast in mircoseconds here on SO, but how often roughly (magnitude style guesses) will say a modest 5 year old server Windows 2003 Pentium Xeon single core give the OS the opportunity to context switch? 20ms in the right area? I dont need exact figures I just want to be sure that's in the right area, seems rather long to me.

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  • Does the managed main UI thread stay on the same (unmanaged) Operation System thread?

    - by Daniel Rose
    I am creating a managed WPF UI front-end to a legacy Win32-application. The WPF front-end is the executable; as part of its startup routines I start the legacy app as a DLL in a second thread. Any UI-operation (including CreateWindowsEx, etc.) by the legacy app is invoked back on the main UI-thread. As part of the shutdown process of the app I want to clean up properly. Among other things, I want to call DestroyWindow on all unmanaged windows, so they can properly clean themselves up. Thus, during shutdown I use EnumWindows to try to find all my unmanaged windows. Then I call DestroyWindow one the list I generate. These run on the main UI-thread. After this background knowledge, on to my actual question: In the enumeration procedure of EnumWindows, I have to check if one of the returned top-level windows is one of my unmanaged windows. I do this by calling GetWindowThreadProcessId to get the process id and thread id of the window's creator. I can compare the process id with Process.GetCurrentProcess().Id to check if my app created it. For additional security, I also want to see if my main UI-thread created the window. However, the returned thread id is the OS's ThreadId (which is different than the managed thread id). As explained in this question, the CLR reserves the right to re-schedule the managed thread to different OS threads. Can I rely on the CLR to be "smart enough" to never do this for the main UI thread (due to thread-affinity of the UI)? Then I could call GetCurrentThreadId to get the main UI-thread's unmanaged thread id for comparison.

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  • Are the formatted addresses of a Google location unique?

    - by Hans
    I want our users of a web site to be able to either search and pick an address or mark a location on a map decide how accurate this address/location is I am in the process of implementing the first part with jquery, jquery ui's autocomplete, google map, and google geocoder. For the second part I will generate a radiobutton list based on the address elements/alternatives of the first part on the client side with jquery. My concern, however, is how to convey the choices to the server side. The Google geocoder includes a number of useful metadata that I want to store. A possibility is to store the complete json object in a hidden form field, but I can't trust the users. Such a solution would enable an unfriendly insertion of spam in the data. If the addresses/locations would have a unique identifyer I could store just these and let the server refetch/evaluate the data. The alternative geonames.org web service has such ids. But are for example the formatted addresses of a Google location unique? Any tips?

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  • In a Windows forms application, how can I setup can I set up the SelectedIndexChanged handle for 4 d

    - by Alex
    In a Windows forms application, within a DataGridView, I have 4 different DataGridCombobox controlshow can I set up the handler SelectedIndexChanged handler for the first combobox via the EditingControlShowing event. I added code for a second combobox but the SelectedIndexChanged didn't get wired up. Here's my code. Any advice would be appreciated. private ComboBox countryCombo; private EventHandler countryHandler; private ComboBox partCombo; private EventHandler partHandler; private void dataGridView2_EditingControlShowing(object sender, DataGridViewEditingControlShowingEventArgs e) { countryCombo = e.Control as ComboBox; if (countryCombo != null) { //remove any existing handler if there is one countryCombo.SelectedIndexChanged -= countryHandler; //add the new handler countryCombo.SelectedIndexChanged += new EventHandler(countryCombo_SelectedIndexChanged); } if (partCombo != null) { partCombo.SelectedIndexChanged -= partHandler; partCombo.SelectedIndexChanged += new EventHandler(partCombo_SelectedIndexChanged); } } private void countryCombo_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { ComboBox box = (ComboBox) sender; //MessageBox.Show(box.Items.Count.ToString()); int rowNum = dataGridView2.CurrentCell.RowIndex; dataGridView2.BeginEdit(false); dataGridView2.Rows[0].Cells[2].Value = "abcdef"; dataGridView2.EndEdit(); } private void dataGridView2_CellContentClick(object sender, DataGridViewCellEventArgs e) { int cellColumn = e.ColumnIndex; //MessageBox.Show("Column is: " + cellColumn.ToString()); } private void partCombo_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { ComboBox box = (ComboBox)sender; string partNumber = box.SelectedValue as string; // ToDo: now we need to get the HTSUS from the database so we can //populate the field int rowNum = dataGridView2.CurrentCell.RowIndex; dataGridView2.BeginEdit(false); dataGridView2.Rows[0].Cells[2].Value = "abcdef"; dataGridView2.EndEdit(); } } Al D.

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  • Strange data swapping error occurs when I attempt to update rows in my table from another table in m

    - by Wesley
    So I have a table of data that is 10,000 lines long. Several of the columns in the table simply describe information about one of the columns, meaning, that only one column has the content, and the rest of the columns describe the location of the content (its for a book). Right now, only 6,000 of the 10,000 rows' content column is filled with its content. Rows 6-10,000's content column simply says null. I have another table in the db that has the content for rows 6,000-10,000, with the correct corresponding primary key which would (seemingly) make it easy to update the 10,000 row table. I have been trying an update query such as the following: UPDATE table(10,000) SET content_column = (SELECT content FROM table(6,000-10,000) WHERE table(10,000).id = table(6-10,000.id) Which kind of works, the only problem is that it pulls in the data from the second table just fine, but it replaces the existing content column with null. So rows 1-6,000's content column become null, and rows 6-10,000's content column have the correct values...Pretty strange I thought anyway. Does anybody have any thoughts about where I am going wrong? If you could show me a better sql query, I would appreciate it! Thanks

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  • ASP.NET 2.0 + Firefox/Safari - UI Issues?

    - by Tejaswi Yerukalapudi
    I'm developing on a system that was originally developed five years ago. I don't have access to the complete source code of the system, but it is completely driven by XML and runs on ASP.NET 2.0. This was originally written for IE6, but since Microsoft has officially decided to dump it, we moved to IE7. Some javascript is added on the client side, but nothing that changes the UI has been done. (We had to integrate a credit card reader into the system) This code is accessed primarily on tablet PCs running windows, but I'd like to persuade my company to use the iPad. [The tablet somehow costs around 3k$. I think selling a 3000$ device to a client when you have the iPad for 500$ is ridiculous.] Now, my problem is if we open it in any other browser (Tested it on safari / firefox), the UI is completely messed up with elements completely out of place. Doesn't ASP.NET generate HTML that runs on any browser? My second question is if there are any credit card readers available in the market that integrate with the iPad. I don't really care about the software part as it's taken care by our company, I just need it to read the card details and post it to the server. Thanks, Teja.

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  • jQuery.data() works in Mac OS WebKit, but not on iPhone OS?

    - by rpj
    I'm playing around with jQTouch for an iPhone OS app that I've been toying with off and on for a while. I wanted to try my hand building it as a web app so I started playing with jQTouch. For reference, here is the page+source (all my code is currently in index.html so you can just "View Source" to see it all): http://rpj.me/doughapp.com/wd/ Essentially, I'm trying to save pertinent JSON objects retrieved from Google Local into DOM objects using the data() method (in this example, obj is the Google Local object): $('#locPane').data('selected', obj); then later (in a different "pane"), retrieving that object to be used: $('#locPane').bind('pageAnimationEnd', function(e, inf) { var selobj = $(this).data('selected'); // use 'selobj' here ... } In Chromium and Safari on the desktop OS (Snow Leopard in my case), this works perfectly (try it out). However, the same code returns undefined for the call to $(this).data('selected') in the second snippet above. I've also tried $('#' + e.target.id).data('selected') and even the naive $('#locPane').data('selected'). All variants return undefined in the iPhone OS version of WebKit, but not on the desktop. Interestingly, the running this on Mobile Safari in the iPhone Simulator fails as well. If you look at the full source, you'll see that I even try to save this object into my global jQTouch object (named jqt in my code). This, too, fails on the mobile platform. Has anyone else ever ran into this? I'll admit to not being a web/javascript programmer by trade, so if I'm making an idiot's error please call me out on it. Thank you in advance for the help! -RPJ Update: I didn't make it clear in the original post, but I'm open to any workaround if it works consistently. Since I'm having trouble storing these objects in general, anything that allows me to keep them around is good enough for now. Thanks!

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