Search Results

Search found 16987 results on 680 pages for 'second'.

Page 551/680 | < Previous Page | 547 548 549 550 551 552 553 554 555 556 557 558  | Next Page >

  • Code Contracts: Do we have to specify Contract.Requires(...) statements redundantly in delegating me

    - by herzmeister der welten
    I'm intending to use the new .NET 4 Code Contracts feature for future development. This made me wonder if we have to specify equivalent Contract.Requires(...) statements redundantly in a chain of methods. I think a code example is worth a thousand words: public bool CrushGodzilla(string weapon, int velocity) { Contract.Requires(weapon != null); // long code return false; } public bool CrushGodzilla(string weapon) { Contract.Requires(weapon != null); // specify contract requirement here // as well??? return this.CrushGodzilla(weapon, int.MaxValue); } For runtime checking it doesn't matter much, as we will eventually always hit the requirement check, and we will get an error if it fails. However, is it considered bad practice when we don't specify the contract requirement here in the second overload again? Also, there will be the feature of compile time checking, and possibly also design time checking of code contracts. It seems it's not yet available for C# in Visual Studio 2010, but I think there are some languages like Spec# that already do. These engines will probably give us hints when we write code to call such a method and our argument currently can or will be null. So I wonder if these engines will always analyze a call stack until they find a method with a contract that is currently not satisfied? Furthermore, here I learned about the difference between Contract.Requires(...) and Contract.Assume(...). I suppose that difference is also to consider in the context of this question then?

    Read the article

  • How can I store this kind of graph in neo4j for fast traversal?

    - by James
    This is a graph whose nodes exist in many connected components at once because a node's relationships are a collection of edge groups such that only one edge per edge group can be present at once. I need to be able to find all of the connected components that a node exists in. What would be the best way to store this graph in neo4j to quickly find all of the connected components that a node exists in? Is there a way to use the built in traversals to do this? Also: is there a name for this kind of graph? I'd appreciate any help/ideas. Update: Sorry for not being clear. All nodes are of the same type. Nodes have a variable number of edge groups. Exactly one edge from each edge group needs to be chosen for a particular connected component. I'm going to try to explain through example: Node x1 is related to: (x2 or x3 or x4) AND (x5 or x6) AND (x7) Node x2 is related to: (x8) AND (x9 or x10) So x1's first edge group is (x2, x3, x4), its second edge group is (x5, x6), and its third edge group is (x7). So here are a few connected components that x1 exists in: CC1: x1 is related to: x2, x5, x7 x2 is related to: x8 x9 CC2: x1 is related to: x2, x6, x7 x2 is related to: x8, x9 CC3: x1 is related to: x3, x5, x7 CC4: x1 is related to: x3, x6, x7 etc. I'm grateful for your help in this.

    Read the article

  • Making a button click and process using javascript with Asp.Net

    - by user944919
    I'm having two buttons and one button is hidden. Now when I click the visible button I need to do two things 1.Open Iframe. 2.Automatically make the 2nd Button(Hidden)to be clicked. When the second button is clicked I need to display the message on top of the IFrame which I have mentioned as function showStickySuccessToast() Now I am able to open IFrame but I'm unable to make the Hidden button clicked automatically. This is what I'm having: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#<%=Button1.ClientID%>").click(function(event){ $('#<%=TextBox1.ClientID%>').change(function () { $('#various3').attr('href', $(this).val()); }); }); function showStickySuccessToast() { $().toastmessage('showToast', { text: 'Finished Processing!', sticky: false, position: 'middle-center', type: 'success', closeText: '', close: function () { } }); } }) </script> Here are my two buttons how I'm working with: <a id="various3" href="#"><asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" Text="Button" OnClientClick="Button2_Click"/></a> <asp:Button ID="Button2" runat="server" Text="Button" Visible="False" OnClick="Button2_Click"/> And in the button2_Click event: Protected Sub Button2_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button2.Click System.Web.UI.ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock(Page, GetType(Page), "Script", "showStickySuccessToast();", True) End Sub

    Read the article

  • Does playing a Program from VS2005 cause a program to work any different than the .exe file?

    - by Bryan
    There is a program where I work that works fine when running the .exe file but works differently from expected when opened in VS2005 and played from there. I am therefore asking on here if anyone knows of anything that would work in the .exe file but not the debug from VS? I am not able to post the code for the buttons I'm talking about but I'll try to explain the best I can. There is a receiver hooked up to the computer. When the button is pressed on the program, it shows a message and waits for a signal to be received. After the signal is heard the first message box is supposed to close and another is supposed to open. When using the .exe file this happens just fine. However when playing from the program from VS2005 (the same one from which the .exe was made) the second message doesn't come up when it is supposed to and when I can make it come up, the first box doesn't close. There is also a timer involved if that helps. Also, is there a fundamental difference between how the two operate when executing the program? If I need to make anything more clear or give more details please let me know.

    Read the article

  • integrating jquery with AJAX using MVC for ddl/html.dropdownlist

    - by needhelp
    the situation: a user on the page in question selects a category from a dropdown which then dynamically populates all the users of that category in a second dropdown beside it. all the data is being retrieved using LinqtoSQL and i was wondering if this can be done a) using html.dropdownlist in a strongly typed view? b) using jquery to trigger the ajax request on selected index change instead of a 'populate' button trigger? sorry i dont have code as what i was trying really wasnt working at all. I am having trouble with how to do it conceptually and programatically! will appreciate any links to examples etc greatly! thanks in advance! EDIT: this is kind of what i was trying to achieve.. first the ViewPage: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready function TypeSearch() { $.getJSON("/Home/Type", null, function(data) { //dont know what to do here }); } </script> <p> <label for="userType">userType:</label> <%= Html.DropDownList("userType") %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("userType", "*") %> <input type="submit" runat="server" onclick="TypeSearch()" /> <label for="accountNumber">accountNumber:</label> <%= Html.DropDownList("accountNumber") %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("accountNumber", "*") %> </p> Then home controller action: public ActionResult Type() { string accountType = dropdownvalue; List<Account> accounts = userRep.GetAccountsByType(accountType).ToList(); return Json(accounts); }

    Read the article

  • Update list dom only if list displayed

    - by Nikolaj Borisik
    Sometimes we use one store for few views(list, carousel,dataviews) and when we refresh(load, filter) store data, dom of all view that use this store will be rebuild, but some views is not displayed in this time, and may be will not show with these data. How we can refresh list dom only if it displayed, not every time when it store refresh? Issue examle Ext.define("Test.view.Main", { extend: 'Ext.tab.Panel', config: { tabBarPosition: 'bottom', items: [ ] }, constructor : function(){ this.callParent(arguments); var store = Ext.create('Ext.data.Store',{ data :[ {title : 'One'}, {title : 'Two'}, {title : 'Three'} ] }), firstList = Ext.create('Ext.List',{ title : 'tab1', store : store, itemTpl : '{title}', onItemDisclosure : function(){ store.add({title : 'Four'}); } }), secondList = Ext.create('Ext.List',{ title : 'tab2' , store : store, itemTpl : '{title}' }), thirdList = Ext.create('Ext.List',{ title : 'tab3', store : store, itemTpl : '{title}' }); this.add([ firstList, secondList, thirdList ]) ; } }); When tap on item in the first list, in store will be added new item. And dom of all list will be change although second and third list not displayed I see one option. Create one main store and create separate stores for each views. And when view show fill it store from Main store. But it look not good. Any other ideas?

    Read the article

  • How can I prevent double file uploading with Amazon S3?

    - by Tony
    I decided to use Amazon S3 for document storage for an app I am creating. One issue I run into is while I need to upload the files to S3, I need to create a document object in my app so my users can perform CRUD actions. One solution is to allow for a double upload. A user uploads a document to the server my Rails app lives on. I validate and create the object, then pass it on to S3. One issue with this is progress indicators become more complicated. Using most out-of-the-box plugins would show the client that file has finished uploading because it is on my server, but then there would be a decent delay when the file was going from my server to S3. This also introduces unnecessary bandwidth (at least it does not seem necessary) The other solution I am thinking about is to upload the file directly to S3 with one AJAX request, and when that is successful, make a second AJAX request to store the object in my database. One issue here is that I would have to validate the file after it is uploaded which means I have to run some clean up code in S3 if the validation fails. Both seem equally messy. Does anyone have something more elegant working that they would not mind sharing? I would imagine this is a common situation with "cloud storage" being quite popular today. Maybe I am looking at this wrong.

    Read the article

  • PHP's fopen is terminally failing

    - by Skittles
    Okay, I have GOT to be missing something totally rudimentary here. I have an extremely simple use of PHP's fopen function, but for some reason, it will not open the file no matter what I do. The odd part about this is that I use fopen in another function in the same script and it's working perfectly. I'm using the fclose in both functions. So, I know it's not a matter of a rogue file handle. I have confirmed the file's path and the existence of the target file also. I'm running the script at the command-line as root, so I know it's not apache that's the cause. And since I am running the script as root, I am fairly confident that permissions are not the issue. So, what on earth am I missing here? function get_file_list() { $file = '/home/site/tmp/return_files_list.txt'; $fp = fopen($file, 'r') or die("Could not open file: /home/site/tmp/return_files_list.txt for reading.\n"); $files_list = array(); while($line = fgets($fp)) { $files_list[] = $line; } fclose($fp); return $files_list; } function num_records_in_file($filename) { $fp = fopen( $filename, 'r' ); # or die("Could not open file: $filename\n"); $counter = 0; if ($fp) { while (!feof( $fp )) { $line = fgets( $fp ); $arr = explode( '|', $line ); if (( ( $arr[0] != 'HDR' && $arr[0] != 'TRL' ) && $arr[0] != '' )) { ++$counter; continue; } } } fclose( $fp ); return $counter; } As requested, here's both functions. The second function is passed an absolute path to the file. That is what I used to confirm that the file is there and that the path is correct.

    Read the article

  • Using hover to swap images, I don't want to swap images if I'm on '.this_page'...

    - by richoid
    When I land on the page, another function (not shown, that works fine) sets the class of the appropriate nav to '.this_page' and then I roll over, and the images swap correctly, but when I hover and leave 'img.this_page' it swaps, the second time I do the hover. I don't want it 'img.this_page' to swap. I tried unbinding mouseout, but on hover apparently it rebinds... so each time you hover, it resets. Page is at http://flourgarden.com/wp/ Here's my function: function hoverNavs() { var baseURL='http://www.flourgarden.com/wp/wp-content/themes/flourgarden/images/nav'; var cache=[]; $j('.lcolumn a img').each(function() { var t = $j(this); var src1 = t.attr('src'); // initial src var newSrc = src1.substring(src1.lastIndexOf('/'), src1.lastIndexOf('.')); // let's get file name without extension i = baseURL+newSrc+'_select.png'; cache.push(i); t.hover(function(){ $j(this).attr('src', baseURL+newSrc+ '_select.' + /[^.]+$/.exec(src1)); //last part is for extension }, function(){ if($j(this).class == "this_page") { $j(this).attr('src', baseURL+newSrc+ '_select.' + /[^.]+$/.exec(src1)); } else { $j(this).attr('src', baseURL+newSrc+ '.' + /[^.]+$/.exec(src1)); } }); }); }

    Read the article

  • Creating a new object destroys an older object with different name in C++

    - by Mikael
    First question here! So, I am having some problems with pointers in Visual C++ 2008. I'm writing a program which will control six cameras and do some processing on them so to clean things up I have created a Camera Manager class. This class handles all operations which will be carried out on all the cameras. Below this is a Camera class which interacts with each individual camera driver and does some basic image processing. Now, the idea is that when the manager is initialised it creates two cameras and adds them to a vector so that I can access them later. The catch here is that when I create the second camera (camera2) the first camera's destructor is called for some reason, which then disconnects the camera. Normally I'd assume that the problem is somewhere in the Camera class, but in this case everything works perfectly as long as I don't create the camera2 object. What's gone wrong? CameraManager.h: #include "stdafx.h" #include <vector> #include "Camera.h" class CameraManager{ std::vector<Camera> cameras; public: CameraManager(); ~CameraManager(); void CaptureAll(); void ShowAll(); }; CameraManager.cpp: #include "stdafx.h" #include "CameraManager.h" CameraManager::CameraManager() { printf("Camera Manager: Initializing\n"); [...] Camera *camera1 = new Camera(NodeInfo,1, -44,0,0); cameras.push_back(*camera1); // Adding the following two lines causes camera1's destructor to be called. Why? Camera *camera2 = new Camera(NodeInfo,0, 44,0,0); cameras.push_back(*camera2); printf("Camera Manager: Ready\n"); }

    Read the article

  • Why ASP.NET menu control ignores roles in Web.sitemap?

    - by MainMa
    Hi, I have a website with a menu based on sitemap. ActiveDirectoryRoleProvider is a custom class. securityTrimmingEnabled of sitemap provider is set to true. Now, nevertheless the roles set in the sitemap file, site menu displays every sitemap entity. So for example if I have in sitemap a node with roles="*", a second one with roles="Administrators" and a third one with roles="Foo" and I login as a member of Administrators group but not Foo group, the site menu will display all three items. On the other hand, if I have a node which does not specify roles attribute but has children, this node will never be displayed. If I put: <%= HttpContext.Current.User.IsInRole("Administrators") ? "Admin" : "Not admin"%> <%= HttpContext.Current.User.IsInRole("Foo") ? "Foo" : "Not foo"%> before the menu, it displays that I'm Admin, but Not foo, which is just fine. So if it knows that I'm Admin but Not foo, why does it continue to display Foo's sitemap nodes? Note: changing authorizations has no effect on the menu. It continues to show every item, even for the pages I'm unable to access.

    Read the article

  • Javascript not working in IE but works in Firefox chrome

    - by user1290528
    So i have the following php page with a java script that gets the total of items based on their quatity, then inputs the total into a text box for each item. In ie the text boxes are being filled with $NaN. While in firefox, chrome the text boxes are filled with the correct values. Any help would be graatly appreciated. <?php echo $_SESSION['SESS_MEMBER_ID']; require_once('auth.php'); ?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN"> <html> <head> <meta content="text/html; charset=ISO-8859-1" http-equiv="Content-Type"> <title>Breakfast Menu</title> <link href="loginmodule.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css"> <script type='text/javascript'> var totalarray=new Array(); var totalarray2= new Array(); var runningtotal = 0; var runningtotal2 = 0; var discount = .2; var discounttotal = 0; var discount1 = 0; runningtotal = runningtotal * 1; runningtotal2 = runningtotal2 * 1; function displayResult(price,init) { var newstring = "quantity"+init; var totstring = "total"+init; var quantity = document.getElementById(newstring).value; var quantity = parseFloat(quantity); var test = price * quantity; var test = test.toFixed(2); document.getElementById(newstring).value = quantity; document.getElementById(totstring).value = "$" + test; totalarray[init] = test; getTotal(); } function getTotal(){ runningtotal = 0; var i=0; for (i=0;i<totalarray.length;i++){ totalarray[i] = totalarray[i] *1; runningtotal = runningtotal + totalarray[i]; discounttotal = totalarray[i] * discount; discounttotal = totalarray[i] - discounttotal; This line is where IE shows its first error document.getElementById('totalcost').value="$" + runningtotal.toFixed(2); } var orderpart1 = document.getElementById('totalcost').value; var orderpart1 = orderpart1.substr(1); var orderpart1 = orderpart1 * 1; var orderpart2 = document.getElementById('totalcost2').value; var orderpart2 = orderpart2.substr(1); var orderpart2 = orderpart2 * 1; var ordertot = orderpart1 + orderpart2; document.getElementById('ordertotal').value ="$"+ ordertot.toFixed(2) } function displayResult2(price2,init2) { var newstring2 = "quantity2"+init2; var totstring2 = "total2"+init2; var quantity2 = document.getElementById(newstring2).value; var quantity2 = parseFloat(quantity2); var test2 = price2 * quantity2; var test2 = test2.toFixed(2); document.getElementById(newstring2).value = quantity2; document.getElementById(totstring2).value = "$" + test2; totalarray2[init2] = test2; getTotal2(); } function getTotal2(){ runningtotal2 = 0; var i=0; for (i=0;i<totalarray2.length;i++){ totalarray2[i] = totalarray2[i] *1; runningtotal2 = runningtotal2+ totalarray2[i]; This is where IE shows its second error document.getElementById('totalcost2').value="$" + runningtotal2.toFixed(2); }//IE Shows Second error here var orderpart1 = document.getElementById('totalcost').value; var orderpart1 = orderpart1.substr(1); var orderpart1 = orderpart1 * 1; var orderpart2 = document.getElementById('totalcost2').value; var orderpart2 = orderpart2.substr(1); var orderpart2 = orderpart2 * 1; var ordertot = orderpart1 + orderpart2; document.getElementById('ordertotal').value ="$"+ ordertot.toFixed(2); } </script> </head> <body> <?php include("newnew.php"); ?> <td style="vertical-align: top; width: 80%; height:80%;"><br> <div style="text-align: center;"> <form action="testplaceorder.php" method="post" onSubmit="return confirm('Are you sure?');"> <h4>Employee Breakfast Order Form</h4> <h1 align="left">Breakfest Foods</h1> <table border='0' cellpadding='0' cellspacing='0'> <tr> <td> <table width="100%" border="1"> <tr> <th>Item&nbsp&nbsp&nbsp&nbsp&nbsp</th> <th>Price&nbsp&nbsp&nbsp&nbsp&nbsp </th> <th>Quantity&nbsp&nbsp&nbsp&nbsp&nbsp</th> <th>Total&nbsp&nbsp&nbsp&nbsp&nbsp</th> </tr> <?php mysql_connect("localhost", "seniorproject", "farmingdale123") or die(mysql_error()); mysql_select_db("fsenior") or die(mysql_error()); $result = mysql_query("SELECT name, price,foodid FROM Food where foodtype='br'") or die(mysql_error()); $init = 0; while(list($name, $price, $brId) = mysql_fetch_row($result)) { echo "<tr> <td>$name</td> <td>\$$price</td> <td><select name='quantity$init' id='quantity$init' onchange='displayResult($price,$init)'><option>0</option><option>1</option><option>2</option><option>3</option><option>4</option><option>5</option><option>6</option><option>7</option><option>8</option><option>9</option></td> <td><input name='total$init' type='text' id='total$init' readonly='readonly' value='\$0.00'></td> </tr>" ; echo "<script type='text/javascript'>displayResult($price,$init);</script>"; $foodname = "'SESS_FOODNAME_" . $init . "'"; $foodid = "'SESS_FOODID_" . $init."'"; $_SESSION[$foodname] = $name; $_SESSION[$foodid] = $brId; $init = $init+1; } $_SESSION['SESS_INIT'] = $init; ?> <tr> <td></td> <td></td> <td>Total Cost</td> <td><input name='totalcost' type='text' id='totalcost' readonly='readonly' value='$0.00'></td> </tr> <tr><td></td><td></td><td>Discount</td><td><input name='discountvalue1' id ='discountvalue1' type='text' readonly='readonly' value='20%'></td> </tr> <tr><td></td><td></td><td>Total After Discount</td><td><input name='discounttotal1' id ='discounttotal1' type='text' readonly='readonly' value='$0.00'></td></tr> </table> <tr> <td><br></td> </tr> </table> <h1 align="left">Breakfest Drinks</h1> <table border='0' cellpadding='0' cellspacing='0'> <tr> <td> <table width="100%" border="1"> <tr> <th>Item&nbsp&nbsp&nbsp&nbsp&nbsp</th> <th>Price&nbsp&nbsp&nbsp&nbsp&nbsp </th> <th>Quantity&nbsp&nbsp&nbsp&nbsp&nbsp</th> <th>Total&nbsp&nbsp&nbsp&nbsp&nbsp</th> </tr> <?php mysql_connect("localhost", "****", "***") or die(mysql_error()); mysql_select_db("fsenior") or die(mysql_error()); $result2 = mysql_query("SELECT drinkname, price,drinkid FROM Drinks where drinktype='br'") or die(mysql_error()); $init2 = 0; while(list($name2, $price2, $brId2) = mysql_fetch_row($result2)) { echo "<tr> <td>$name2</td> <td>\$$price2</td> <td><select name='quantity2$init2' id='quantity2$init2' onchange='displayResult2($price2,$init2)'><option>0</option><option>1</option><option>2</option><option>3</option><option>4</option><option>5</option><option>6</option><option>7</option><option>8</option><option>9</option></td> <td><input name='total2$init2' type='text' id='total2$init2' readonly='readonly' value='\$0.00'></td> </tr>" ; echo "<script type='text/javascript'>displayResult2($price2,$init2);</script>"; $drinkname = "'SESS_DRINKNAME_" . $init2 . "'"; $drinkid = "'SESS_DRINKID_" . $init2."'"; $_SESSION[$drinkname] = $name2; $_SESSION[$drinkid] = $brId2; $init2 = $init2+1; } $_SESSION['SESS_INIT2'] = $init2; ?> <tr> <td></td> <td></td> <td>Total Cost</td> <td><input name='totalcost2' type='text' id='totalcost2' readonly='readonly' value='$0.00'></td> </tr> </table> <tr> <td><br></td> </tr> </table> <table border="2"> <tr><td>Total Order Cost:</td><td> <?php echo "<input name='ordertotal' type='text' id='ordertotal' readonly='readonly' value='\$0.00'></td></table>"; ?> <p align="left"><input type='submit' name='submit' value='Submit'/></p> </form> </div></td> </tr> </tbody> </table></td> </tr> </tbody> </table> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • Android Signal 11 (SIGSEGV)

    - by Naturjoghurt
    I read many posts here and on other sites, but can not find the problem creating my Error: I use an AsyncTask because I want to easily manipulate the UI Thread before and after Execution. In doInBackground I create a ThreadPoolExecutor and execute Runnables. If I only execute 1 Runnable with the Executor, there is no Problem, but if I execute another Runnable I get following Error: 06-26 18:00:42.288: A/libc(25073): Fatal signal 11 (SIGSEGV) at 0x7f486162 (code=1), thread 25106 (pool-1-thread-2) 06-26 18:00:42.304: D/dalvikvm(25073): GC_CONCURRENT freed 119K, 2% free 8908K/9056K, paused 4ms+4ms, total 45ms 06-26 18:00:42.327: I/System.out(25073): In Check All with Prefix: a and Length: 4 06-26 18:00:42.390: I/DEBUG(126): *** *** *** *** *** *** *** *** *** *** *** *** *** *** *** *** 06-26 18:00:42.390: I/DEBUG(126): Build fingerprint: 'google/yakju/maguro:4.2.2/JDQ39/573038:user/release-keys' 06-26 18:00:42.390: I/DEBUG(126): Revision: '9' 06-26 18:00:42.390: I/DEBUG(126): pid: 25073, tid: 25106, name: pool-1-thread-2 >>> de.uni_duesseldorf.cn.distributed_computing2 <<< 06-26 18:00:42.390: I/DEBUG(126): signal 11 (SIGSEGV), code 1 (SEGV_MAPERR), fault addr 7f486162 ... 06-26 18:00:42.538: I/DEBUG(126): memory map around fault addr 7f486162: 06-26 18:00:42.538: I/DEBUG(126): 60292000-60391000 06-26 18:00:42.538: I/DEBUG(126): (no map for address) 06-26 18:00:42.538: I/DEBUG(126): bed14000-bed35000 [stack] I set up the ThreadPoolExecutor like this: // numberOfPackages: Number of Runnables to be executed public void initializeThreadPoolExecutor (int numberOfPackages) { int corePoolSize = Runtime.getRuntime().availableProcessors(); int maxPoolSize = numberOfPackages; long keepAliveTime = 60; final BlockingQueue workingQueue = new LinkedBlockingQueue(); executor = new ThreadPoolExecutor(corePoolSize, maxPoolSize, keepAliveTime, TimeUnit.SECONDS, workingQueue); } I have no clue, why it fails when starting the second Thread. Maybe Memory Leaks? Any Help appreciated. Thanks in Advance

    Read the article

  • Deploy to web container, bundle web container or embed web container...

    - by Jason
    I am developing an application that needs to be as simple as possible to install for the end user. While the end users will likely be experience Linux users (or sales engineers), they don't really know anything about Tomcat, Jetty, etc, nor do I think they should. So I see 3 ways to deploy our applications. I should also state that this is the first app that I have had to deploy that had a web interface, so I haven't really faced this question before. First is to deploy the application into an existing web container. Since we only deploy to Suse or RedHat this seems easy enough to do. However, we're not big on the idea of multiple apps running in one web container. It makes it harder to take down just one app. The next option is to just bundle Tomcat or Jetty and have the startup/shutdown scripts launch our bundled web container. Or 3rd, embed.. This will probably provide the same user experience as the second option. I'm curious what others do when faced with this problem to make it as fool proof as possible on the end user. I've almost ruled out deploying into an existing web container as we often like to set per application resource limits and CPU affinity, which I believe would affect all apps deployed into a web container/app server and not just a specific application. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Modifying resource contents of a running executable

    - by mrwoik
    All, I store my application settings in a resource. When my program first loads, I read the specified resource using WinAPI. I then parse the retrieved byte data. This works flawlessly for me. Now let's say that a user alters a setting in my application. He/she checks a checkbox control. I would like to save the updated setting to my resource. However, it seems that my call to UpdateResource will not work while my application is running. I can't modify my resource data even though it is the same size. First, is it possible to modify a running image's resource data? Second, if that is not possible, what alternatives do I have for storing settings internally within my application? NOTE: I must have the settings within my running executable. They cannot be on the harddrive or in the registry. Please don't even suggest that as an option.

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to access Joomla 1.5 user variables (like user id) from a Flex 4 application using a PHP Data Service?

    - by Zachary G. Schroeder
    I have written a script (in two files) that correctly displays a Joomla user id, like this: //this is testy.php define( '_JEXEC', 1 ); define('JPATH_BASE', dirname(FILE)); define( 'DS', DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR ); require_once ( JPATH_BASE .DS.'includes'.DS.'defines.php' ); require_once ( JPATH_BASE .DS.'includes'.DS.'framework.php' ); $mainframe =& JFactory::getApplication('site'); $id = JFactory::getUser()-id; The above file is located in the Joomla root folder. The other file is in a different directory and is as follows: //this is testid.php include '../../joomla/testy.php'; echo $id; However, and here is the rub, when I change the "echo" to a "return" and put the second code snippet inside my Flex 4 Data Service script file, like this... function getUserId() { include '../../joomla/testy.php'; return $id; } ...I get a Flex error that says this: Fatal error: Class 'JRequest' not found in /var/www/html/joomla/libraries/joomla/import.php on line 33 I am extremely confused by this error and would appreciate any suggestions that the stackoverflow community may have. Thanks so much! Zach

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET: I'm getting strange output when styling a Label control...

    - by pkiyan
    .labelOne { border-width:thin; border-style:solid; border-color:Red; background-color:Silver; } <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" CssClass="labelOne"> <h1>Hello world</h1> </asp:Label> <br /><br /> <asp:Label ID="Label2" runat="server" BorderColor="Black" BorderStyle="Solid" BorderWidth="1px" BackColor="Silver"> <h1>Hello world</h1> </asp:Label> Hello. In the code sample above I have 2 Label controls with their contents set to an h1 header tag. The first Label is styled using css, and the second with the Label's inline properties (both Labels have identical styling). But the first Label doesn't output properly, it's border is broken. If I replace the first Label's markup with plain "Hello world" text it renders properly, but it breaks again when I use markup. Can someone explain why this is happening?

    Read the article

  • Windows Phone 7, login screen redirect and a case for .exit?

    - by Jarrette
    I know this has been discussed ad nauseum, but I want to present my case.... 1. My start page in my app is login.xaml. The user logs in, the username and password are authenticated through my WCF service, the username is saved in isolated storage, and then the user is redirected to mainpage.xaml. When a user starts my app, and they already have a saved username in isolated storage, they are redirected to mainpage.xaml If the user hit's "back" hard button from mainpage.xaml, they are redirected to the login screen, which in turn redirects them back to the mainpage.xaml since they already have a saved local username. This is causing my app to fail certification currently since the user cannot hit the "back" button to exit the app from mainpage.xaml. My instinct here is to override the BackKeyPress in mainpage.xaml and exit the app somehow. By reading the other posts, I can see that this method is not available. My second idea was to somehow store a property in the app.xaml.cs page that would tell the app to exit when the login page is loaded and that property is set to true, but that seems a bit hacky as well.... Any ideas here?

    Read the article

  • Programming logic best practice - redundant checks

    - by eldblz
    I'm creating a large PHP project and I've a trivial doubt about how to proceed. Assume we got a class books, in this class I've the method ReturnInfo: function ReturnInfo($id) { if( is_numeric($id) ) { $query = "SELECT * FROM books WHERE id='" . $id . "' LIMIT 1;"; if( $row = $this->DBDrive->ExecuteQuery($query, $FetchResults=TRUE) ) { return $row; } else { return FALSE; } } else { throw new Exception('Books - ReturnInfo - id not valid.'); } } Then i have another method PrintInfo function PrintInfo($id) { print_r( $this->ReturnInfo($id) ); } Obviously the code sample are just for example and not actual production code. In the second method should I check (again) if id is numeric ? Or can I skip it because is already taken care in the first method and if it's not an exception will be thrown? Till now I always wrote code with redundant checks (no matter if already checked elsewhere i'll check it also here) Is there a best practice? Is just common sense? Thank you in advance for your kind replies.

    Read the article

  • using replace to produce javascript code, django

    - by durdenk
    I want to use highcharts with my django site but it requires a comlex javascript code such as below. So I wanted to get this script in my python code and replace apropriate portions then write it in my template, first question is, is this a dump way to do that for a person not knowing javascript. I can read it tough. Second question is, Why I cant replace this string. Lets say this string is a variable like this. lineChartsTemplate = """ ... ... """ if I try and do lineChartsTemplate .replace('dataCategory', dataCategory) it basically suppossed to change dataCategory text with my dataCategory variable, but no such luck. I need guidance here. thx. $(function () { var chart = new Highcharts.Chart({ chart: { renderTo: 'container', type: 'bar' }, xAxis: { categories: dataCategory }, yAxis: { }, legend: { layout: 'vertical', floating: true, backgroundColor: '#FFFFFF', align: 'right', verticalAlign: 'top', y: 60, x: -60 }, tooltip: { formatter: function() { return '<b>'+ this.series.name +'</b><br/>'+ this.x +': '+ this.y; } }, plotOptions: { }, series: [{ data: dataList , name : 'Satislar'}] }); });

    Read the article

  • Ability to switch Persistence Unit dynamically within the application (JPA)

    - by MVK
    My application data access layer is built using Spring and EclipseLink and I am currently trying to implement the following feature - Ability to switch the current/active persistence unit dynamically for a user. I tried various options and finally ended up doing the following. In the persistence.xml, declare multiple PUs. Create a class with as many EntityManagerFactory attributes as there are PUs defined. This will act as a factory and return the appropriate EntityManager based on my logic public class MyEntityManagerFactory { @PersistenceUnit(unitName="PU_1") private EntityManagerFactory emf1; @PersistenceUnit(unitName="PU_2") private EntityManagerFactory emf2; public EntityManager getEntityManager(int releaseId) { // Logic goes here to return the appropriate entityManeger } } My spring-beans xml looks like this.. <!-- First persistence unit --> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean" id="emFactory1"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="PU_1" /> </bean> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager" id="transactionManager1"> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="emFactory1"/> </bean> <tx:annotation-driven transaction-manager="transactionManager1"/> The above section is repeated for the second PU (with names like emFactory2, transactionManager2 etc). I am a JPA newbie and I know that this is not the best solution. I appreciate any assistance in implementing this requirement in a better/elegant way! Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How to debug memory allocation issues?

    - by amitabh
    Hi I am writing an iPhone app that that is trying to create a second a view when the user clicks on an element in UITableView. The code looks like ReplyToViewController *reply = [[ReplyToViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ReplyTo" bundle:nil]; reply.delegate = self; Message *message = [resultData objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; int dbid = [message.bizid intValue]; NSLog(@"dbid=%d",dbid); reply.currentMessage = message; reply.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController:reply animated:YES]; The reply object gets created properly and the view is proper. Last line in above code segment calls some framework code which eventually calls the viewDidLoad method of the ReplyToViewController. Address of the reply object in the above code and the address of the object in viewDidLoad is not same. Any idea where this new object is coming from? How do I debug? I also added init method the following method in ReplyToViewController hoping that it will get called and I can find who is creating this new object. But it does not stop in this method. Any help will be greatly appreciated. - (id) init { /* first initialize the base class */ self = [super init]; return self; } // Following gets called from the 1st code segment. - (id)initWithNibName:(NSString *)nibNameOrNil bundle:(NSBundle *)nibBundleOrNil { if (self = [super initWithNibName:nibNameOrNil bundle:nibBundleOrNil]) { // Custom initialization } return self; } - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; NSLog(currentMessage.text]; // THIS returns nil and the program fails later in the code. }

    Read the article

  • Inline function v. Macro in C -- What's the Overhead (Memory/Speed)?

    - by Jason R. Mick
    I searched Stack Overflow for the pros/cons of function-like macros v. inline functions. I found the following discussion: Pros and Cons of Different macro function / inline methods in C ...but it didn't answer my primary burning question. Namely, what is the overhead in c of using a macro function (with variables, possibly other function calls) v. an inline function, in terms of memory usage and execution speed? Are there any compiler-dependent differences in overhead? I have both icc and gcc at my disposal. My code snippet I'm modularizing is: double AttractiveTerm = pow(SigmaSquared/RadialDistanceSquared,3); double RepulsiveTerm = AttractiveTerm * AttractiveTerm; EnergyContribution += 4 * Epsilon * (RepulsiveTerm - AttractiveTerm); My reason for turning it into an inline function/macro is so I can drop it into a c file and then conditionally compile other similar, but slightly different functions/macros. e.g.: double AttractiveTerm = pow(SigmaSquared/RadialDistanceSquared,3); double RepulsiveTerm = pow(SigmaSquared/RadialDistanceSquared,9); EnergyContribution += 4 * Epsilon * (RepulsiveTerm - AttractiveTerm); (note the difference in the second line...) This function is a central one to my code and gets called thousands of times per step in my program and my program performs millions of steps. Thus I want to have the LEAST overhead possible, hence why I'm wasting time worrying about the overhead of inlining v. transforming the code into a macro. Based on the prior discussion I already realize other pros/cons (type independence and resulting errors from that) of macros... but what I want to know most, and don't currently know is the PERFORMANCE. I know some of you C veterans will have some great insight for me!!

    Read the article

  • Passing models between controllers in MVC4

    - by wtfsven
    I'm in the middle of my first foray into web development with MVC4, and I've run into a problem that I just know is one of the core issues in web development in general, but can't seem to wrap my mind around it. So I have two models: Employee and Company. Employee has a Company, therefore /Employee/Create contains a field that is either a dropdown list for selecting an existing Company, or an ActionLink to /Company/Create if none exists. But here's the issue: If a user has to create a Company, I need to preserve the existing Employee model across both Views--over to /Company/Create, then back to /Employee/Create. So my first approach was to pass the Employee model to /Company/Create with a @Html.ActionLink("Add...", "Create", "Organization", Model , null), but then when I get to Company's Create(Employee emp), all of emp's values are null. The second problem is that if I try to come back to /Employee/Create, I'd be passing back an Employee, which would resolve to the POST Action. Basically, the whole idea is to save the state of the /Employee/Create page, jump over to /Company/Create to create a Company record, then back to /Employee/Create to finish creating the Employee. I know there is a well understood solution to this because , but I can't seem to phase it well enough to get a good Google result out of it. I've though about using Session, but it seems like doing so would be a bit of a kludge. I'd really like an elegant solution to this.

    Read the article

  • PHP: Use a string as an array index path to retreive a value.

    - by Charles
    Say I have an array like: Array ( [0] => Array ( [Data] => Array ( [id] => 1 [title] => Manager [name] => John Smith ) ) [1] => Array ( [Data] => Array ( [id] => 1 [title] => Clerk [name] => ( [first] => Jane [last] => Smith ) ) ) ) I want to be able to build a function that I can pass a string to that will act as the array index path and return the appropriate array value without using eval(). Is that possible? function($indexPath, $arrayToAccess) { //$indexPath would be something like [0]['Data']['name'] which would return //"Manager" or it could be [1]['Data']['name']['first'] which would return //"Jane" but the amount of array indexs that will be in the index path can //change, so there might be 3 like the first example, or 4 like the second. return $arrayToAccess[$indexPath] <-obviously wont work }

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 547 548 549 550 551 552 553 554 555 556 557 558  | Next Page >