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  • Is the C++ compiler optimizer allowed to break my destructor ability to be called multiple times?

    - by sharptooth
    We once had an interview with a very experienced C++ developer who couldn't answer the following question: is it necessary to call the base class destructor from the derived class destructor in C++? Obviously the answer is no, C++ will call the base class destructor automagically anyway. But what if we attempt to do the call? As I see it the result will depend on whether the base class destructor can be called twice without invoking erroneous behavior. For example in this case: class BaseSafe { public: ~BaseSafe() { } private: int data; }; class DerivedSafe { public: ~DerivedSafe() { BaseSafe::~BaseSafe(); } }; everything will be fine - the BaseSafe destructor can be called twice safely and the program will run allright. But in this case: class BaseUnsafe { public: BaseUnsafe() { buffer = new char[100]; } ~BaseUnsafe () { delete[] buffer; } private: char* buffer; }; class DerivedUnsafe { public: ~DerivedUnsafe () { BaseUnsafe::~BaseUnsafe(); } }; the explicic call will run fine, but then the implicit (automagic) call to the destructor will trigger double-delete and undefined behavior. Looks like it is easy to avoid the UB in the second case. Just set buffer to null pointer after delete[]. But will this help? I mean the destructor is expected to only be run once on a fully constructed object, so the optimizer could decide that setting buffer to null pointer makes no sense and eliminate that code exposing the program to double-delete. Is the compiler allowed to do that?

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  • How can I prevent double file uploading with Amazon S3?

    - by Tony
    I decided to use Amazon S3 for document storage for an app I am creating. One issue I run into is while I need to upload the files to S3, I need to create a document object in my app so my users can perform CRUD actions. One solution is to allow for a double upload. A user uploads a document to the server my Rails app lives on. I validate and create the object, then pass it on to S3. One issue with this is progress indicators become more complicated. Using most out-of-the-box plugins would show the client that file has finished uploading because it is on my server, but then there would be a decent delay when the file was going from my server to S3. This also introduces unnecessary bandwidth (at least it does not seem necessary) The other solution I am thinking about is to upload the file directly to S3 with one AJAX request, and when that is successful, make a second AJAX request to store the object in my database. One issue here is that I would have to validate the file after it is uploaded which means I have to run some clean up code in S3 if the validation fails. Both seem equally messy. Does anyone have something more elegant working that they would not mind sharing? I would imagine this is a common situation with "cloud storage" being quite popular today. Maybe I am looking at this wrong.

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  • Real Time Sound Captureing J2ME

    - by Abdul jalil
    i am capturing sound in J2me and send these bytes to remote system, i then play these bytes on remote system.five second voice is capture and send to remote system. i get the repeated sound again .i am making a sound messenger please help me where i am doing wrong i am using the follown code . String remoteTimeServerAddress="192.168.137.179"; sc = (SocketConnection) Connector.open("socket://"+remoteTimeServerAddress+":13"); p = Manager.createPlayer("capture://audio?encoding=pcm&rate=11025&bits=16&channels=1"); p.realize(); RecordControl rc = (RecordControl)p.getControl("RecordControl"); ByteArrayOutputStream output = new ByteArrayOutputStream(); OutputStream outstream =sc.openOutputStream(); rc.setRecordStream(output); rc.startRecord(); p.start(); int size=output.size(); int offset=0; while(true) { Thread.currentThread().sleep(5000); rc.commit(); output.flush(); size=output.size(); if(size0) { recordedSoundArray=output.toByteArray(); outstream.write(recordedSoundArray,0,size); } output.reset(); rc.reset(); rc.setRecordStream(output); rc.startRecord(); }

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  • Basic problems (type inference or something else?) in Objective-C/Cocoa.

    - by Matt
    Hi, Apologies for how basic these questions are to some. Just started learning Cocoa, working through Hillegass' book, and am trying to write my first program (a GUI Cocoa app that counts the number of characters in a string). I tried this: NSString *string = [textField stringValue]; NSUInteger *stringLength = [string length]; NSString *countString = (@"There are %u characters",stringLength); [label setStringValue:countString]; But I'm getting errors like: Incompatible pointer conversion initializing 'NSUInteger' (aka 'unsigned long'), expected 'NSUInteger *'[-pedantic] for the first line, and this for the second line: Incompatible pointer types initializing 'NSUInteger *', expected 'NSString *' [-pedantic] I did try this first, but it didn't work either: [label setStringValue:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"There are %u characters",[[textField stringValue] length]]] On a similar note, I've only written in easy scripting languages before now, and I'm not sure when I should be allocing/initing objects and when I shouldn't. For example, when is it okay to do this: NSString *myString = @"foo"; or int *length = 5; instead of this: NSString *myString = [[NSString alloc] initWithString:"foo"]; And which ones should I be putting into the header files? I did check Apple's documentation, and CocoaDev, and the book I'm working for but without luck. Maybe I'm looking in the wrong places.. Thanks to anyone who takes the time to reply this: it's appreciated, and thanks for being patient with a beginner. We all start somewhere. EDIT Okay, I tried the following again: [label setStringValue:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"There are %u characters",[[textField stringValue] length]]] And it actually worked this time. Not sure why it didn't the first time, though I think I might have typed %d instead of %u by mistake. However I still don't understand why the code I posted at the top of my original post doesn't work, and I have no idea what the errors mean, and I'd very much like to know because it seems like I'm missing something important there.

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  • GUID or int entity key with SQL Compact/EF4?

    - by David Veeneman
    This is a follow-up to an earlier question I posted on EF4 entity keys with SQL Compact. SQL Compact doesn't allow server-generated identity keys, so I am left with creating my own keys as objects are added to the ObjectContext. My first choice would be an integer key, and the previous answer linked to a blog post that shows an extension method that uses the Max operator with a selector expression to find the next available key: public static TResult NextId<TSource, TResult>(this ObjectSet<TSource> table, Expression<Func<TSource, TResult>> selector) where TSource : class { TResult lastId = table.Any() ? table.Max(selector) : default(TResult); if (lastId is int) { lastId = (TResult)(object)(((int)(object)lastId) + 1); } return lastId; } Here's my take on the extension method: It will work fine if the ObjectContext that I am working with has an unfiltered entity set. In that case, the ObjectContext will contain all rows from the data table, and I will get an accurate result. But if the entity set is the result of a query filter, the method will return the last entity key in the filtered entity set, which will not necessarily be the last key in the data table. So I think the extension method won't really work. At this point, the obvious solution seems to be to simply use a GUID as the entity key. That way, I only need to call Guid.NewGuid() method to set the ID property before I add a new entity to my ObjectContext. Here is my question: Is there a simple way of getting the last primary key in the data store from EF4 (without having to create a second ObjectContext for that purpose)? Any other reason not to take the easy way out and simply use a GUID? Thanks for your help.

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  • What is Wordpress doing for content encoding in it's mysql database?

    - by qbxk
    For some convoluted reasons best left behind us, I require direct access the contents of a wordpress database. I'm using mysql 5.0.70-r1 on gentoo with wordpress 2.6, and perl 5.8.8 ftr. So, sometimes we get high-order characters in the blog, we have quite a few authors contributing too, for the most part these characters end up in wp's database in wp_posts.post_content or wp_postmeta.meta_value, Wordpress is displaying these correctly on it's site, but the database stores it using single byte encoding that I can't figure out how to convert to the correct string. Today's example: the blog shows this, and doesn't even seem to escape any chars in the html, Hãhãhães but the database, when viewed via the mysql prompt, has, Hãhãhães So clearly this is some kind of double-byte encoding issue, but I don't know how I can correct it. I need to be able to pull that second string from the database (b/c that's what it gives me) and convert it to the first one, and i need to do so using perl. also, just to help unmuddy any waters, I took these strings and printed out the ascii codes for each character using perl's ord() function. Here is the output of the "wrong" string H = 72 à = 195 £ = 163 h = 104 à = 195 £ = 163 h = 104 à = 195 £ = 163 e = 101 s = 115 This is the correct string, that I need to produce in my script H = 72 ã = 227 h = 104 ã = 227 h = 104 ã = 227 e = 101 s = 115

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  • finding N contiguous zero bits in an integer to the left of the MSB from another

    - by James Morris
    First we find the MSB of the first integer, and then try to find a region of N contiguous zero bits within the second number which is to the left of the MSB from the first integer. Here is the C code for my solution: typedef unsigned int t; unsigned const t_bits = sizeof(t) * CHAR_BIT; _Bool test_fit_within_left_of_msb( unsigned width, t val1, t val2, unsigned* offset_result) { unsigned offbit = 0; unsigned msb = 0; t mask; t b; while(val1 >>= 1) ++msb; while(offbit + width < t_bits - msb) { mask = (((t)1 << width) - 1) << (t_bits - width - offbit); b = val2 & mask; if (!b) { *offset_result = offbit; return true; } if (offbit++) /* this conditional bothers me! */ b <<= offbit - 1; while(b <<= 1) offbit++; } return false; } Aside from faster ways of finding the MSB of the first integer, the commented test for a zero offbit seems a bit extraneous, but necessary to skip the highest bit of type t if it is set. I have also implemented similar algorithms but working to the right of the MSB of the first number, so they don't require this seemingly extra condition. How can I get rid of this extra condition, or even, are there far more optimal solutions?

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  • What do you call the highlight as you hover over an OPTION in a SELECT, and how can I "un"highlight

    - by devils-avacado
    I'm working on dropdowns in IE6 (SELECT with OPTIONs as children). I'm experiencing the problem where, in IE6, dropdown menus are truncated to the width of the SELECT element. I used this jquery to fix it: var css_expanded = { 'width' : 'auto', 'position' : 'absolute', 'left' : '564px', 'top' : '393px' } var css_off = { 'width' : '190px', 'position' : 'relative', 'left' : '0', 'top' : '0' } if($.browser.msie) { $('#dropdown') .bind('mouseover', function() { $(this).css(css_expanded); }) .bind('click', function() { $(this).toggleClass('clicked'); }) .bind('mouseout', function() { if (!$(this).hasClass('clicked')) { $(this).css(css_off); } }) .bind('change blur focusout', function() { $(this).removeClass('clicked') .css(css_off) }); }; It works fine in IE7+8, but in IE6, if the user clicks on a SELECT and does not click any OPTION but instead clicks somewhere else on the page, outside the SELECT (blur), the SELECT still has a "highlight", the same as if they were hovering over an OPTION with my mouse (in my case, a blue color), and the width is not restored until the user clicks outside the SELECT a second time. In other browsers, blur causes every OPTION to not be highlighted. Using JS, how can I de-highlight an option after the dropdown has lost focus.

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  • Is something along the lines of nested memoization needed here?

    - by Daniel
    System.Transactions notoriously escalates transactions involving multiple connections to the same database to the DTC. The module and helper class, ConnectionContext, below are meant to prevent this by ensuring multiple connection requests for the same database return the same connection object. This is, in some sense, memoization, although there are multiple things being memoized and the second is dependent on the first. Is there some way to hide the synchronization and/or mutable state (perhaps using memoization) in this module, or perhaps rewrite it in a more functional style? (It may be worth nothing that there's no locking when getting the connection by connection string because Transaction.Current is ThreadStatic.) type ConnectionContext(connection:IDbConnection, ownsConnection) = member x.Connection = connection member x.OwnsConnection = ownsConnection interface IDisposable with member x.Dispose() = if ownsConnection then connection.Dispose() module ConnectionManager = let private _connections = new Dictionary<string, Dictionary<string, IDbConnection>>() let private getTid (t:Transaction) = t.TransactionInformation.LocalIdentifier let private removeConnection tid = let cl = _connections.[tid] for (KeyValue(_, con)) in cl do con.Close() lock _connections (fun () -> _connections.Remove(tid) |> ignore) let getConnection connectionString (openConnection:(unit -> IDbConnection)) = match Transaction.Current with | null -> new ConnectionContext(openConnection(), true) | current -> let tid = getTid current // get connections for the current transaction let connections = match _connections.TryGetValue(tid) with | true, cl -> cl | false, _ -> let cl = Dictionary<_,_>() lock _connections (fun () -> _connections.Add(tid, cl)) cl // find connection for this connection string let connection = match connections.TryGetValue(connectionString) with | true, con -> con | false, _ -> let initial = (connections.Count = 0) let con = openConnection() connections.Add(connectionString, con) // if this is the first connection for this transaction, register connections for cleanup if initial then current.TransactionCompleted.Add (fun args -> let id = getTid args.Transaction removeConnection id) con new ConnectionContext(connection, false)

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  • PHP's fopen is terminally failing

    - by Skittles
    Okay, I have GOT to be missing something totally rudimentary here. I have an extremely simple use of PHP's fopen function, but for some reason, it will not open the file no matter what I do. The odd part about this is that I use fopen in another function in the same script and it's working perfectly. I'm using the fclose in both functions. So, I know it's not a matter of a rogue file handle. I have confirmed the file's path and the existence of the target file also. I'm running the script at the command-line as root, so I know it's not apache that's the cause. And since I am running the script as root, I am fairly confident that permissions are not the issue. So, what on earth am I missing here? function get_file_list() { $file = '/home/site/tmp/return_files_list.txt'; $fp = fopen($file, 'r') or die("Could not open file: /home/site/tmp/return_files_list.txt for reading.\n"); $files_list = array(); while($line = fgets($fp)) { $files_list[] = $line; } fclose($fp); return $files_list; } function num_records_in_file($filename) { $fp = fopen( $filename, 'r' ); # or die("Could not open file: $filename\n"); $counter = 0; if ($fp) { while (!feof( $fp )) { $line = fgets( $fp ); $arr = explode( '|', $line ); if (( ( $arr[0] != 'HDR' && $arr[0] != 'TRL' ) && $arr[0] != '' )) { ++$counter; continue; } } } fclose( $fp ); return $counter; } As requested, here's both functions. The second function is passed an absolute path to the file. That is what I used to confirm that the file is there and that the path is correct.

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  • Why ASP.NET menu control ignores roles in Web.sitemap?

    - by MainMa
    Hi, I have a website with a menu based on sitemap. ActiveDirectoryRoleProvider is a custom class. securityTrimmingEnabled of sitemap provider is set to true. Now, nevertheless the roles set in the sitemap file, site menu displays every sitemap entity. So for example if I have in sitemap a node with roles="*", a second one with roles="Administrators" and a third one with roles="Foo" and I login as a member of Administrators group but not Foo group, the site menu will display all three items. On the other hand, if I have a node which does not specify roles attribute but has children, this node will never be displayed. If I put: <%= HttpContext.Current.User.IsInRole("Administrators") ? "Admin" : "Not admin"%> <%= HttpContext.Current.User.IsInRole("Foo") ? "Foo" : "Not foo"%> before the menu, it displays that I'm Admin, but Not foo, which is just fine. So if it knows that I'm Admin but Not foo, why does it continue to display Foo's sitemap nodes? Note: changing authorizations has no effect on the menu. It continues to show every item, even for the pages I'm unable to access.

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  • ASP.NET: I'm getting strange output when styling a Label control...

    - by pkiyan
    .labelOne { border-width:thin; border-style:solid; border-color:Red; background-color:Silver; } <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" CssClass="labelOne"> <h1>Hello world</h1> </asp:Label> <br /><br /> <asp:Label ID="Label2" runat="server" BorderColor="Black" BorderStyle="Solid" BorderWidth="1px" BackColor="Silver"> <h1>Hello world</h1> </asp:Label> Hello. In the code sample above I have 2 Label controls with their contents set to an h1 header tag. The first Label is styled using css, and the second with the Label's inline properties (both Labels have identical styling). But the first Label doesn't output properly, it's border is broken. If I replace the first Label's markup with plain "Hello world" text it renders properly, but it breaks again when I use markup. Can someone explain why this is happening?

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  • Passing models between controllers in MVC4

    - by wtfsven
    I'm in the middle of my first foray into web development with MVC4, and I've run into a problem that I just know is one of the core issues in web development in general, but can't seem to wrap my mind around it. So I have two models: Employee and Company. Employee has a Company, therefore /Employee/Create contains a field that is either a dropdown list for selecting an existing Company, or an ActionLink to /Company/Create if none exists. But here's the issue: If a user has to create a Company, I need to preserve the existing Employee model across both Views--over to /Company/Create, then back to /Employee/Create. So my first approach was to pass the Employee model to /Company/Create with a @Html.ActionLink("Add...", "Create", "Organization", Model , null), but then when I get to Company's Create(Employee emp), all of emp's values are null. The second problem is that if I try to come back to /Employee/Create, I'd be passing back an Employee, which would resolve to the POST Action. Basically, the whole idea is to save the state of the /Employee/Create page, jump over to /Company/Create to create a Company record, then back to /Employee/Create to finish creating the Employee. I know there is a well understood solution to this because , but I can't seem to phase it well enough to get a good Google result out of it. I've though about using Session, but it seems like doing so would be a bit of a kludge. I'd really like an elegant solution to this.

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  • Modifying resource contents of a running executable

    - by mrwoik
    All, I store my application settings in a resource. When my program first loads, I read the specified resource using WinAPI. I then parse the retrieved byte data. This works flawlessly for me. Now let's say that a user alters a setting in my application. He/she checks a checkbox control. I would like to save the updated setting to my resource. However, it seems that my call to UpdateResource will not work while my application is running. I can't modify my resource data even though it is the same size. First, is it possible to modify a running image's resource data? Second, if that is not possible, what alternatives do I have for storing settings internally within my application? NOTE: I must have the settings within my running executable. They cannot be on the harddrive or in the registry. Please don't even suggest that as an option.

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  • How do I post back information from a webpage that has post-generated content?

    - by meanbunny
    Ok so I am very new to html and the web. Right now I am trying to generate list items on the fly and then have them post back to the web server so I know what the person is trying to obtain. Here is the code for generating the list items: foreach (var item in dataList) { MyDataList.InnerHtml += "<li><a runat='server' onclick='li_Click' id='" + item.Name + "-button'></a></li>"; } Further down I have my click event. protected void li_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //How do I determine here which item was actually clicked? } My question is how do I determine which list item was clicked? Btw, the code running behind is C#. EDIT 1 LinkButton link = new LinkButton(); link.ID = "all-button"; link.Text = "All"; link.Click += new EventHandler(link_Click); MyDataList.Controls.Add(link); Then below I have my link_Click event that never seems to hit a breakpoint. void link_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (sender != null) { if (sender.GetType() == typeof(LinkButton)) { LinkButton button = (LinkButton)sender; if (button.ID == "all-button") { } } } } I know this has to be possible I just cant figure out what I am missing. Edit 2 Ok ok I think I know what the problem is. I was trying to add a second list inside of another list. This was causing the whole thing to have problems. It is working now.

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  • Code Contracts: Do we have to specify Contract.Requires(...) statements redundantly in delegating me

    - by herzmeister der welten
    I'm intending to use the new .NET 4 Code Contracts feature for future development. This made me wonder if we have to specify equivalent Contract.Requires(...) statements redundantly in a chain of methods. I think a code example is worth a thousand words: public bool CrushGodzilla(string weapon, int velocity) { Contract.Requires(weapon != null); // long code return false; } public bool CrushGodzilla(string weapon) { Contract.Requires(weapon != null); // specify contract requirement here // as well??? return this.CrushGodzilla(weapon, int.MaxValue); } For runtime checking it doesn't matter much, as we will eventually always hit the requirement check, and we will get an error if it fails. However, is it considered bad practice when we don't specify the contract requirement here in the second overload again? Also, there will be the feature of compile time checking, and possibly also design time checking of code contracts. It seems it's not yet available for C# in Visual Studio 2010, but I think there are some languages like Spec# that already do. These engines will probably give us hints when we write code to call such a method and our argument currently can or will be null. So I wonder if these engines will always analyze a call stack until they find a method with a contract that is currently not satisfied? Furthermore, here I learned about the difference between Contract.Requires(...) and Contract.Assume(...). I suppose that difference is also to consider in the context of this question then?

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  • Deploy to web container, bundle web container or embed web container...

    - by Jason
    I am developing an application that needs to be as simple as possible to install for the end user. While the end users will likely be experience Linux users (or sales engineers), they don't really know anything about Tomcat, Jetty, etc, nor do I think they should. So I see 3 ways to deploy our applications. I should also state that this is the first app that I have had to deploy that had a web interface, so I haven't really faced this question before. First is to deploy the application into an existing web container. Since we only deploy to Suse or RedHat this seems easy enough to do. However, we're not big on the idea of multiple apps running in one web container. It makes it harder to take down just one app. The next option is to just bundle Tomcat or Jetty and have the startup/shutdown scripts launch our bundled web container. Or 3rd, embed.. This will probably provide the same user experience as the second option. I'm curious what others do when faced with this problem to make it as fool proof as possible on the end user. I've almost ruled out deploying into an existing web container as we often like to set per application resource limits and CPU affinity, which I believe would affect all apps deployed into a web container/app server and not just a specific application. Thank you.

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  • Windows Phone 7, login screen redirect and a case for .exit?

    - by Jarrette
    I know this has been discussed ad nauseum, but I want to present my case.... 1. My start page in my app is login.xaml. The user logs in, the username and password are authenticated through my WCF service, the username is saved in isolated storage, and then the user is redirected to mainpage.xaml. When a user starts my app, and they already have a saved username in isolated storage, they are redirected to mainpage.xaml If the user hit's "back" hard button from mainpage.xaml, they are redirected to the login screen, which in turn redirects them back to the mainpage.xaml since they already have a saved local username. This is causing my app to fail certification currently since the user cannot hit the "back" button to exit the app from mainpage.xaml. My instinct here is to override the BackKeyPress in mainpage.xaml and exit the app somehow. By reading the other posts, I can see that this method is not available. My second idea was to somehow store a property in the app.xaml.cs page that would tell the app to exit when the login page is loaded and that property is set to true, but that seems a bit hacky as well.... Any ideas here?

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  • Is there a way to access Joomla 1.5 user variables (like user id) from a Flex 4 application using a PHP Data Service?

    - by Zachary G. Schroeder
    I have written a script (in two files) that correctly displays a Joomla user id, like this: //this is testy.php define( '_JEXEC', 1 ); define('JPATH_BASE', dirname(FILE)); define( 'DS', DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR ); require_once ( JPATH_BASE .DS.'includes'.DS.'defines.php' ); require_once ( JPATH_BASE .DS.'includes'.DS.'framework.php' ); $mainframe =& JFactory::getApplication('site'); $id = JFactory::getUser()-id; The above file is located in the Joomla root folder. The other file is in a different directory and is as follows: //this is testid.php include '../../joomla/testy.php'; echo $id; However, and here is the rub, when I change the "echo" to a "return" and put the second code snippet inside my Flex 4 Data Service script file, like this... function getUserId() { include '../../joomla/testy.php'; return $id; } ...I get a Flex error that says this: Fatal error: Class 'JRequest' not found in /var/www/html/joomla/libraries/joomla/import.php on line 33 I am extremely confused by this error and would appreciate any suggestions that the stackoverflow community may have. Thanks so much! Zach

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  • CakePHP - Sorting using HABTM Join Table Field

    - by Ashok
    Hello Cake Gurus, here's my problem: Table1: Posts id - int title - varchar Table2: Categories id - int name - varchar HABTM JoinTable: categories_posts id - int post_id - int category_id - int postorder - int As you can see, the join table contains a field called 'postorder' - This is for ordering the posts in a particular category. For example, Posts: Post1, Post2, Post3, Post4 Categories: Cat1, Cat2 Ordering: Cat1 - Post1, Post3, Post2 Cat2 - Post3, Post1, Post4 Now in CakePHP, $postpages = $this->Post->Category->find('all'); gives me a array like Array ( [0] => Array ( [Category] => Array ( [id] => 13 [name] => Cat1 ) [Post] => Array ( [0] => Array ( [id] => 1 [title] => Post2 [CategoriesPost] => Array ( [id] => 17 [post_id] => 1 [category_id] => 13 [postorder] => 3 ) ) [1] => Array ( [id] => 4 [title] => Post1 [CategoriesPost] => Array ( [id] => 21 [post_id] => 4 [category_id] => 13 [postorder] => 1 ) ) ) ) ) As you can see [Post], they are not ordered according to [CategoriesPost].postorder but are ordered according to [CategoriesPost].id. How can I get the array ordered according to [CategoriesPost].postorder? Thanks in advance for your time :) Edit: The Queries from Cake's SQL Log are: SELECT `Category`.`id`, `Category`.`name` FROM `categories` AS `Category` WHERE 1 = 1 SELECT `Post`.`id`, `Post`.`title`, `CategoriesPost`.`id`, `CategoriesPost`.`post_id`, `CategoriesPost`.`category_id`, `CategoriesPost`.`postorder` FROM `posts` AS `Post` JOIN `categories_posts` AS `CategoriesPost` ON (`CategoriesPost`.`category_id` IN (13, 26, 27, 28, 29, 30, 31, 32, 33, 34, 35, 36, 37, 38, 39, 40, 41, 42, 43, 44, 45, 46, 47, 48, 49, 50, 51, 52) AND `CategoriesPost`.`post_id` = `Post`.`id`) What I am looking for is how to make cake put a Order By CategoriesPost.postorder in that second SELECT SQL Query.

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  • Ability to switch Persistence Unit dynamically within the application (JPA)

    - by MVK
    My application data access layer is built using Spring and EclipseLink and I am currently trying to implement the following feature - Ability to switch the current/active persistence unit dynamically for a user. I tried various options and finally ended up doing the following. In the persistence.xml, declare multiple PUs. Create a class with as many EntityManagerFactory attributes as there are PUs defined. This will act as a factory and return the appropriate EntityManager based on my logic public class MyEntityManagerFactory { @PersistenceUnit(unitName="PU_1") private EntityManagerFactory emf1; @PersistenceUnit(unitName="PU_2") private EntityManagerFactory emf2; public EntityManager getEntityManager(int releaseId) { // Logic goes here to return the appropriate entityManeger } } My spring-beans xml looks like this.. <!-- First persistence unit --> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean" id="emFactory1"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="PU_1" /> </bean> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager" id="transactionManager1"> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="emFactory1"/> </bean> <tx:annotation-driven transaction-manager="transactionManager1"/> The above section is repeated for the second PU (with names like emFactory2, transactionManager2 etc). I am a JPA newbie and I know that this is not the best solution. I appreciate any assistance in implementing this requirement in a better/elegant way! Thanks!

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  • Creating a new object destroys an older object with different name in C++

    - by Mikael
    First question here! So, I am having some problems with pointers in Visual C++ 2008. I'm writing a program which will control six cameras and do some processing on them so to clean things up I have created a Camera Manager class. This class handles all operations which will be carried out on all the cameras. Below this is a Camera class which interacts with each individual camera driver and does some basic image processing. Now, the idea is that when the manager is initialised it creates two cameras and adds them to a vector so that I can access them later. The catch here is that when I create the second camera (camera2) the first camera's destructor is called for some reason, which then disconnects the camera. Normally I'd assume that the problem is somewhere in the Camera class, but in this case everything works perfectly as long as I don't create the camera2 object. What's gone wrong? CameraManager.h: #include "stdafx.h" #include <vector> #include "Camera.h" class CameraManager{ std::vector<Camera> cameras; public: CameraManager(); ~CameraManager(); void CaptureAll(); void ShowAll(); }; CameraManager.cpp: #include "stdafx.h" #include "CameraManager.h" CameraManager::CameraManager() { printf("Camera Manager: Initializing\n"); [...] Camera *camera1 = new Camera(NodeInfo,1, -44,0,0); cameras.push_back(*camera1); // Adding the following two lines causes camera1's destructor to be called. Why? Camera *camera2 = new Camera(NodeInfo,0, 44,0,0); cameras.push_back(*camera2); printf("Camera Manager: Ready\n"); }

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  • How can I store this kind of graph in neo4j for fast traversal?

    - by James
    This is a graph whose nodes exist in many connected components at once because a node's relationships are a collection of edge groups such that only one edge per edge group can be present at once. I need to be able to find all of the connected components that a node exists in. What would be the best way to store this graph in neo4j to quickly find all of the connected components that a node exists in? Is there a way to use the built in traversals to do this? Also: is there a name for this kind of graph? I'd appreciate any help/ideas. Update: Sorry for not being clear. All nodes are of the same type. Nodes have a variable number of edge groups. Exactly one edge from each edge group needs to be chosen for a particular connected component. I'm going to try to explain through example: Node x1 is related to: (x2 or x3 or x4) AND (x5 or x6) AND (x7) Node x2 is related to: (x8) AND (x9 or x10) So x1's first edge group is (x2, x3, x4), its second edge group is (x5, x6), and its third edge group is (x7). So here are a few connected components that x1 exists in: CC1: x1 is related to: x2, x5, x7 x2 is related to: x8 x9 CC2: x1 is related to: x2, x6, x7 x2 is related to: x8, x9 CC3: x1 is related to: x3, x5, x7 CC4: x1 is related to: x3, x6, x7 etc. I'm grateful for your help in this.

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  • Difference between two PHP times as years, months and days for PHP version 5.2

    - by Dominor Novus
    Forward: I've scanned through the existing questions/answers on this matter. This is not a duplicitous question; I cannot find a working solution from the accepted answers. The main questions/answers I've reviewed can be found here: How to calculate the difference between two dates using PHP? What I need: A calucalation of the difference between two dates expressed as years, months and days that works with PHP version: 5.2. <?php $current_date = date('d-M-Y'); $future_date = '2012-11-01'; ?> What I've tried: Most answers I find online don't seem to exact in that they don't factor in leap years. This highly rated answer won't work because DateTime-diff() is php 5.3+. This accepted answer results in (i.e. the second block of code aimed at PHP 5.2) results in the following being parsed: Array ( [y] = 25 [m] = 11 [d] = 7 [h] = 3 [i] = 15 [s] = 19 [invert] = 0 [days] = 9473 ) Array ( [y] = 25 [m] = 11 [d] = 7 [h] = 3 [i] = 15 [s] = 19 [invert] = 1 [days] = 9473 ) I can't tell if I've incorrectly applied the code or it's simply a case of me not knowing how to manipulate the array.

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  • Making a button click and process using javascript with Asp.Net

    - by user944919
    I'm having two buttons and one button is hidden. Now when I click the visible button I need to do two things 1.Open Iframe. 2.Automatically make the 2nd Button(Hidden)to be clicked. When the second button is clicked I need to display the message on top of the IFrame which I have mentioned as function showStickySuccessToast() Now I am able to open IFrame but I'm unable to make the Hidden button clicked automatically. This is what I'm having: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#<%=Button1.ClientID%>").click(function(event){ $('#<%=TextBox1.ClientID%>').change(function () { $('#various3').attr('href', $(this).val()); }); }); function showStickySuccessToast() { $().toastmessage('showToast', { text: 'Finished Processing!', sticky: false, position: 'middle-center', type: 'success', closeText: '', close: function () { } }); } }) </script> Here are my two buttons how I'm working with: <a id="various3" href="#"><asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" Text="Button" OnClientClick="Button2_Click"/></a> <asp:Button ID="Button2" runat="server" Text="Button" Visible="False" OnClick="Button2_Click"/> And in the button2_Click event: Protected Sub Button2_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button2.Click System.Web.UI.ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock(Page, GetType(Page), "Script", "showStickySuccessToast();", True) End Sub

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