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  • C# Convert string to nullable type (int, double, etc...)

    - by Nathan Koop
    I am attempting to do some data conversion. Unfortunately, much of the data is in strings, where it should be int's or double, etc... So what I've got is something like: double? amount = Convert.ToDouble(strAmount); The problem with this approach is if strAmount is empty, if it's empty I want it to amount to be null, so when I add it into the database the column will be null. So I ended up writing this: double? amount = null; if(strAmount.Trim().Length>0) { amount = Convert.ToDouble(strAmount); } Now this works fine, but I now have five lines of code instead of one. This makes things a little more difficult to read, especially when I have a large amount of columns to convert. I thought I'd use an extension to the string class and generic's to pass in the type, this is because it could be a double, or an int, or a long. So I tried this: public static class GenericExtension { public static Nullable<T> ConvertToNullable<T>(this string s, T type) where T: struct { if (s.Trim().Length > 0) { return (Nullable<T>)s; } return null; } } But I get the error: Cannot convert type 'string' to 'T?' Is there a way around this? I am not very familiar with creating methods using generics.

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  • pointer to a pointer in a linked list

    - by user1596497
    I'm trying to set a linked list head through pointer to a pointer. I can see inside the function that the address of the head pointer is changing but as i return to the main progran it becomes NULL again. can someone tell me what I'm doing wrong ?? #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> typedef void(*fun_t)(int); typedef struct timer_t { int time; fun_t func; struct timer_t *next; }TIMER_T; void add_timer(int sec, fun_t func, TIMER_T *head); void run_timers(TIMER_T **head); void timer_func(int); int main(void) { TIMER_T *head = NULL; int time = 1; fun_t func = timer_func; while (time < 1000) { printf("\nCalling add_timer(time=%d, func=0x%x, head=0x%x)\n", time, func, &head); add_timer(time, func, head); time *= 2; } run_timers(&head); return 0; } void add_timer(int sec, fun_t func, TIMER_T *head) { TIMER_T ** ppScan=&head; TIMER_T *new_timer = NULL; new_timer = (TIMER_T*)malloc(sizeof(TIMER_T)); new_timer->time = sec; new_timer->func = func; new_timer->next = NULL; while((*ppScan != NULL) && (((**ppScan).time)<sec)) ppScan = &(*ppScan)->next; new_timer->next = *ppScan; *ppScan = new_timer; }

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  • Android: Scheduling application to start with repeating alarms not working

    - by vikramagain
    I get my Broadcast receiver to set a recurring alarm, to fire up a service. Unfortunately this does not result in the service being called repeatedly (based on logcat). I've experimented with different values for the time interval too. Can someone help? (I'm testing through Eclipse on Android 3.2 Motorola xoom) Below is the code for the Broadcast receiver. alarm = (AlarmManager) arg0.getSystemService(Context.ALARM_SERVICE); Intent intentUploadService = new Intent (arg0, com.vikramdhunta.UploaderService.class); Calendar calendar = Calendar.getInstance(); calendar.setTimeInMillis(System.currentTimeMillis()); calendar.add(Calendar.SECOND, 3); PendingIntent pi = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(arg0, 0, intentUploadService , 0); alarm.setRepeating(AlarmManager.RTC_WAKEUP, calendar.getTimeInMillis(), 5, pi); Below is the code for the Service class public UploaderService() { super("UploaderService"); mycounterid = globalcounter++; } @Override protected void onHandleIntent(Intent intent) { synchronized(this) { try { for (int i = 1;i < 5;i++) { // doesn't do much right now.. but this should appear in logcat Log.i(TAG,"OK " + globalcounter++ + " uploading..." + System.currentTimeMillis()); } } catch(Exception e) { } } } @Override public void onCreate() { super.onCreate(); Log.d("TAG", "Service created."); } @Override public IBinder onBind(Intent arg0) { return null; } @Override public int onStartCommand(Intent intent, int flags, int startId) { Log.i(TAG, "Starting upload service..." + mycounterid); return super.onStartCommand(intent,flags,startId); }

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  • Dataset holds a table called "Table", not the table I pass in?

    - by dotnetdev
    Hi, I have the code below: string SQL = "select * from " + TableName; using (DS = new DataSet()) using (SqlDataAdapter adapter = new SqlDataAdapter()) using (SqlConnection sqlconn = new SqlConnection(connectionStringBuilder.ToString())) using (SqlCommand objCommand = new SqlCommand(SQL, sqlconn)) { sqlconn.Open(); adapter.SelectCommand = objCommand; adapter.Fill(DS); } System.Windows.Forms.MessageBox.Show(DS.Tables[0].TableName); return DS; However, every time I run this code, the dataset (DS) is filled with one table called "Table". It does not represent the table name I pass in as the parameter TableName and this parameter does not get mutated so I don't know where the name Table comes from. I'd expect the table to be the same as the tableName parameter I pass in? Any idea why this is not so? EDIT: Important fact: This code needs to return a dataset because I use the dataRelation object in another method, which is dependent on this, and without using a dataset, that method throws an exception. The code for that method is: DataRelation PartToIntersection = new DataRelation("XYZ", this.LoadDataToTable(tableName).Tables[tableName].Columns[0], // Treating the PartStat table as the parent - .N this.LoadDataToTable("PartProducts").Tables["PartProducts"].Columns[0]); // 1 // PartsProducts (intersection) to ProductMaterial DataRelation ProductMaterialToIntersection = new DataRelation("", ds.Tables["ProductMaterial"].Columns[0], ds.Tables["PartsProducts"].Columns[1]); Thanks

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  • I need to convert the result of a stored procedure in a dbml file to IQueryable to view a list in an

    - by RJ
    I have a MVC project that has a Linq to SQL dbml class. It is a table called Clients that houses client information. I can easily get the information to display in a View using the code I followed in Nerd Dinner but I have added a stored procedure to the dbml and it's result set is of IQueryable, not IQueryable. I need to convert IQueryable to IQueryable so I can display it in the same View. The reason for the sproc is so I can pass a search string tothe sproc and return the same information as a full list but filtered on the search. I know I can use Linq to filter the whole list but I don't want the whole list so I am using the sproc. Here is the code in my ClientRepository with a comment where I need to convert. What code goes in the commented spot. public IQueryable<Client> SelectClientsBySearch(String search) { IQueryable<SelectClientsBySearchResult> spClientList = (from p in db.SelectClientsBySearch(search) select p).AsQueryable(); //what is the code to convert IQueryable<SelectClientsBySearchResult> to IQueryable<Client> return clientList; }

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  • C# function called after dependency property have been set

    - by mizipzor
    My code currently looks like this: private Foo myFoo; public Foo CurrentFoo { get { return myFoo; } set { SetFoo(value); } } private void SetFoo(Foo newFoo) { // Do stuff // Here be dragons myFoo = newFoo; } To be able to bind it in XAML/WPF I need to turn Foo into a dependency property: public static DependencyProperty CurrentFooProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("CurrentFoo", typeof(Foo), typeof(FooHandler), new PropertyMetadata(false)); public Foo CurrentFoo { get { return (Foo)GetValue(CurrentFooProperty); } set { SetValue(CurrentFooProperty, value); } } Ive heard that you shouldnt do magic inside the actual C# property set {}, since it might not be called but the value is written directly to the dependency property. If this is false, let me know, it seems like the most obvious and simple route to take. I know I can add a validation function to the dependency property but I assume that it shouldnt be used for this? I need to communicate the change to legacy systems that cannot yet be bound in XAML. Whats the best way to approach this problem?

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  • how to get contents of site use HTTPS

    - by cashmoney
    ex of site using ssl ( HTTPs ) : https://www.eb2a.com 1 - i tried to get its content using file_get_contents, but not work and give error ex : <?php $contents = file_get_contents("https://www.eb2a.com/"); echo $contents; ?> 2 - i tried to use fopen, but not work and give error ex: <?php $url = 'https://www.eb2a.com/'; $contents = fopen($url, 'r'); echo "$contents"; ?> 3 - i tried to use CURL, but not work and give BLANK PAGE ex : function cURL($url, $ref, $header, $cookie, $p){ $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYHOST, 0); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, $_SERVER['HTTP_USER_AGENT']); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_REFERER, $ref); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, 0); if ($p) { curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_CUSTOMREQUEST, "POST"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $p); } $result = curl_exec($ch); curl_close($ch); if ($result){ return $result; }else{ return ''; } } $file = cURL('https://www.eb2a.com/','https://www.eb2a.com/',0,0,null); echo $file any one have any idea ??

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  • NSOutlineView not redrawing

    - by Septih
    Hello, I have an NSOutlineView with checkboxes. I have the checkbox state bound to a node item with the key shouldBeCopied. In the node item I have the getters and setters like so: -(BOOL)shouldBeCopied { if([[self parent] shouldBeCopied]) return YES; return shouldBeCopied; } -(void)setShouldBeCopied:(BOOL)value { shouldBeCopied = value; if(value && [[self children] count] > 0) [[self delegate] reloadData]; } The idea here is that if the parent is checked, so should the children. The problem I'm having is that when I check the parent, it does not update that view of the children if they are already expanded. I can understand that it should not be updated by the bindings because i'm not actually changing the value. But should reloadData not cause the bindings to re-get the value, thus calling -shouldBeCopied for the children? I have tried a few other things such as -setNeedsDisplay and -reloadItem:nil reloadChildren:YES but none work. I've noticed that the display gets refreshed when I swap to xcode and then back again and that's all I want, so how do I get it to behave that way?

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  • NSTimer won't stop it only resets when invalidated & released

    - by J Fries
    When I press my stop button to stop the timer it just resets to the original time and begins counting down again. I have looked everywhere and all I have found is "invalidate" and it isn't working. I want the time to stop when I hit stop and the label to display the original time. I also turned off automatic counting so I could try releasing and it is giving me an error: 0x10e20a5: movl 16(%edx), %edx EXC_BAD_ACCESS (code=2, address=0x10) `NSTimer *rockettTimer; int rocketCount; @interface FirstViewController () @property (strong, nonatomic) IBOutlet UILabel *rocketTimer; - (IBAction)stopButton:(id)sender; - (IBAction)startButton:(id)sender; @end @implementation FirstViewController @synthesize rocketTimer; -(void) rocketTimerRun{ rocketCount = rocketCount - 1; int minuts = rocketCount / 60; int seconds = rocketCount - (minuts * 60); NSString *timerOutput = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d:%.2d", minuts, seconds]; rocketTimer.text = timerOutput; } - (IBAction)startButton:(id)sender { rocketCount = 180; rockettTimer = [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:1.0 target:self selector:@selector(rocketTimerRun) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; - (IBAction)stopButton:(id)sender { [rockettTimer invalidate]; //[rockettTimer release]; } - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; // Do any additional setup after loading the view, typically from a nib. } - (void)viewDidUnload { [self setRocketTimer:nil]; [super viewDidUnload]; // Release any retained subviews of the main view. } - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation: (UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { if ([[UIDevice currentDevice] userInterfaceIdiom] == UIUserInterfaceIdiomPhone) { return (interfaceOrientation != UIInterfaceOrientationPortraitUpsideDown); } else { return YES; } } @end`

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  • OSX launchctl programmatically as root

    - by Lukas1
    I'm trying to start samba service using launchctl from OSX app as root, but I get error status -60031. I can run without problems the command in Terminal: sudo launchctl load -F /System/Library/LaunchDaemons/com.apple.AppleFileServer.plist` In the objective-c code, I'm using (I know it's deprecated, but that really shouldn't be the issue here) AuthorizationExecuteWithPrivileges method. Here's the code: NSString *command = @"launchctl"; // Conversion of NSArray args to char** args here (not relevant part of the code) OSStatus authStatus = AuthorizationCreate(NULL, kAuthorizationEmptyEnvironment, kAuthorizationFlagDefaults, &_authRef); if (authStatus != errAuthorizationSuccess) { NSLog(@"Failed to create application authorization: %d", (int)authStatus); return; } FILE* pipe = NULL; AuthorizationFlags flags = kAuthorizationFlagDefaults; AuthorizationItem right = {kAuthorizationRightExecute, 0, NULL, 0}; AuthorizationRights rights = {1, &right}; // Call AuthorizationCopyRights to determine or extend the allowable rights. OSStatus stat = AuthorizationCopyRights(_authRef, &rights, NULL, flags, NULL); if (stat != errAuthorizationSuccess) { NSLog(@"Copy Rights Unsuccessful: %d", (int)stat); return; } OSStatus status = AuthorizationExecuteWithPrivileges(_authRef, command.UTF8String, flags, args, &pipe); if (status != errAuthorizationSuccess) { NSLog(@"Error executing command %@ with status %d", command, status); } else { // some other stuff } I have also tried using different flags then kAuthorizationFlagDefaults, but that led to either the same problem or error code -60011 - invalid flags. What am I doing wrong here, please?

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  • Reading from an write-only(OUT) parameter in pl/sql

    - by sqlgrasshopper5
    When I tried writing to an read-only parameter(IN) of a function, Oracle complains with an error. But that is not the case when reading from an write-only(OUT) parameter of a function. Oracle silently allows this without any error. What is the reason for this behaviour?. The following code executes without any assignment happening to "so" variable: create or replace function foo(a OUT number) return number is so number; begin so := a; --no assignment happens here a := 42; dbms_output.put_line('HiYA there'); dbms_output.put_line('VAlue:' || so); return 5; end; / declare somevar number; a number := 6; begin dbms_output.put_line('Before a:'|| a); somevar := foo(a); dbms_output.put_line('After a:' || a); end; / Here's the output I got: Before a:6 HiYA there VAlue: After a:42

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  • When to use @Singleton in a Jersey resource

    - by dexter
    I have a Jersey resource that access the database. Basically it opens a database connection in the initialization of the resource. Performs queries on the resource's methods. I have observed that when I do not use @Singleton, the database is being open at each request. And we know opening a connection is really expensive right? So my question is, should I specify that the resource be singleton or is it really better to keep it at per request especially when the resource is connecting to the database? My resource code looks like this: //Use @Singleton here or not? @Path(/myservice/) public class MyResource { private ResponseGenerator responser; private Log logger = LogFactory.getLog(MyResource.class); public MyResource() { responser = new ResponseGenerator(); } @GET @Path("/clients") public String getClients() { logger.info("GETTING LIST OF CLIENTS"); return responser.returnClients(); } ... // some more methods ... } And I connect to the database using a code similar to this: public class ResponseGenerator { private Connection conn; private PreparedStatement prepStmt; private ResultSet rs; public ResponseGenerator(){ Class.forName("org.h2.Driver"); conn = DriverManager.getConnection("jdbc:h2:testdb"); } public String returnClients(){ String result; try{ prepStmt = conn.prepareStatement("SELECT * FROM hosts"); rs = prepStmt.executeQuery(); ... //do some processing here ... } catch (SQLException se){ logger.warn("Some message"); } finally { rs.close(); prepStmt.close(); // should I also close the connection here (in every method) if I stick to per request // and add getting of connection at the start of every method // conn.close(); } return result } ... // some more methods ... } Some comments on best practices for the code will also be helpful.

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  • How to check if an entityset is populated

    - by TheQ
    How can i check if an entityset of a linq-object is populated or not? Example code below. My model have two methods, one joins data, and the other does not: public static Member GetMemberWithSettings(Guid memberId) { using (DataContext db = new DataContext()) { DataLoadOptions dataLoadOptions = new DataLoadOptions(); dataLoadOptions.LoadWith<Member>(x => x.Settings); db.LoadOptions = dataLoadOptions; var query = from x in db.Members where x.MemberId == memberId select x; return query.FirstOrDefault(); } } public static Member GetMember(Guid memberId) { using (DataContext db = new DataContext()) { var query = from x in db.Members where x.MemberId == memberId select x; return query.FirstOrDefault(); } } Then my control have the following code: Member member1 = Member.GetMemberWithSettings(memberId); Member member2 = Member.GetMember(memberId); Debug.WriteLine(member1.Settings.Count); Debug.WriteLine(member2.Settings.Count); The last line will generate a "Cannot access a disposed object" exception. I know that i can get rid of that exception just by not disposing the datacontext, but then the last line will generate a new query to the database, and i don't want that. What i would like is something like: Debug.WriteLine((member1.Settings.IsPopulated()) ? member1.Settings.Count : -1); Debug.WriteLine((member2.Settings.IsPopulated()) ? member2.Settings.Count : -1); Is it possible?

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  • android - how to cache an image from a remote site

    - by Lynnooi
    Hi, Can anyone please provide me some example on how to save an image i fetch from websites into a cache. I had try to include the following function into my code and call it once i run the activity. public void getRemoteImage(String imageUrl) { imageUrl = "http://marga.mobile9.com/download/thumb/295/sexylady7_xo6npovn.jpg"; URL aURL = null; URLConnection conn = null; Bitmap bmp = null; CacheResult cache_result = CacheManager.getCacheFile(imageUrl, new HashMap()); if (cache_result == null) { try { aURL = new URL(imageUrl); conn = aURL.openConnection(); conn.connect(); InputStream is = conn.getInputStream(); cache_result = new CacheManager.CacheResult(); CacheManager.saveCacheFile(imageUrl, cache_result); } catch (Exception e) { //return null; } } bmp = BitmapFactory.decodeStream(cache_result.getInputStream());*/ Toast.makeText(context,"Please work.. namo namo namo", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); //return bmp; } However, I got a nullPointerException. Can someone please help me with it as i'm quite new in android.

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  • Linq-to-XML explicit casting in a generic method

    - by vlad
    I've looked for a similar question, but the only one that was close didn't help me in the end. I have an XML file that looks like this: <Fields> <Field name="abc" value="2011-01-01" /> <Field name="xyz" value="" /> <Field name="tuv" value="123.456" /> </Fields> I'm trying to use Linq-to-XML to get the values from these fields. The values can be of type Decimal, DateTime, String and Int32. I was able to get the fields one by one using a relatively simple query. For example, I'm getting the 'value' from the field with the name 'abc' using the following: private DateTime GetValueFromAttribute(IEnumerable<XElement> fields, String attName) { return (from field in fields where field.Attribute("name").Value == "abc" select (DateTime)field.Attribute("value")).FirstOrDefault() } this is placed in a separate function that simply returns this value, and everything works fine (since I know that there is only one element with the name attribute set to 'abc'). however, since I have to do this for decimals and integers and dates, I was wondering if I can make a generic function that works in all cases. this is where I got stuck. here's what I have so far: private T GetValueFromAttribute<T>(IEnumerable<XElement> fields, String attName) { return (from field in fields where field.Attribute("name").Value == attName select (T)field.Attribute("value").Value).FirstOrDefault(); } this doesn't compile because it doesn't know how to convert from String to T. I tried boxing and unboxing (i.e. select (T) (Object) field.Attribute("value").Value but that throws a runtime Specified cast is not valid exception as it's trying to convert the String to a DateTime, for instance. Is this possible in a generic function? can I put a constraint on the generic function to make it work? or do I have to have separate functions to take advantage of Linq-to-XML's explicit cast operators?

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  • InPlaceBitmapMetadataWriter.TrySave() returns true but does nothing

    - by mephisto123
    On some .JPG files (EPS previews, generated by Adobe Illustrator) in Windows 7 InPlaceBitmapMetadataWriter.TrySave() returns true after some SetQuery() calls, but does nothing. Code sample: BitmapDecoder decoder; BitmapFrame frame; BitmapMetadata metadata; InPlaceBitmapMetadataWriter writer; decoder = BitmapDecoder.Create(s, BitmapCreateOptions.PreservePixelFormat | BitmapCreateOptions.IgnoreColorProfile, BitmapCacheOption.Default); frame = decoder.Frames[0]; metadata = frame.Metadata as BitmapMetadata; writer = frame.CreateInPlaceBitmapMetadataWriter(); try { writer.SetQuery("System.Title", title); writer.SetQuery(@"/app1/ifd/{ushort=" + exiftagids[0] + "} ", (title + '\0').ToCharArray()); writer.SetQuery(@"/app13/irb/8bimiptc/iptc/object name", title); return writer.TrySave(); } catch { return false; } Image sample You can reproduce problem (if you have Windows 7) by downloading image sample and using this code sample to set title on this image. Image has enough room for metadata - and this code sample works fine on my WinXP. Same code works fine on Win7 with other .JPG files. Any ideas are welcome :)

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  • [Netbeans 6.9] Java MethodOverloading error with double values

    - by Nimitips
    Here is a part of my code I'm having trouble with: ===Class Overload=== public class Overload { public void testOverLoadeds() { System.out.printf("Square of integer 7 is %d\n",square(7)); System.out.printf("Square of double 7.5 is %d\n",square(7.5)); }//..end testOverloadeds public int square(int intValue) { System.out. printf("\nCalled square with int argument: %d\n",intValue); return intValue * intValue; }//..end square int public double square(double doubleValue) { System.out.printf("\nCalled square with double argument: %d\n", doubleValue); return doubleValue * doubleValue; }//..end square double }//..end class overload ===Main=== public static void main(String[] args) { Overload methodOverload = new Overload(); methodOverload.testOverLoadeds(); } It compiles with no error, however when I try to run it the output is: Called square with int argument: 7 Square of integer 7 is 49 Exception in thread "main" java.util.IllegalFormatConversionException: d != java.lang.Double at java.util.Formatter$FormatSpecifier.failConversion(Formatter.java:3999) at java.util.Formatter$FormatSpecifier.printInteger(Formatter.java:2709) at java.util.Formatter$FormatSpecifier.print(Formatter.java:2661) at java.util.Formatter.format(Formatter.java:2433) at java.io.PrintStream.format(PrintStream.java:920) at java.io.PrintStream.printf(PrintStream.java:821) at methodoverload.Overload.square(Overload.java:19) at methodoverload.Overload.testOverLoadeds(Overload.java:8) at methodoverload.Main.main(Main.java:9) Called square with double argument:Java Result: 1 What am I doing wrong? I'm on Ubuntu 10.10, Netbeans 6.9. Thanks.

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  • Why jquery have problem with onbeforeprint event?

    - by Cesar Lopez
    Hi all, I have the following function. $(function() { $(".sectionHeader:gt(0)").click(function() { $(this).next(".fieldset").slideToggle("fast"); }); $("img[alt='minimize']").click(function(e) { $(this).closest("table").next(".fieldset").slideUp("fast"); e.stopPropagation(); return false; }); $("img[alt='maximize']").click(function(e) { $(this).closest("table").next(".fieldset").slideDown("fast"); e.stopPropagation(); return false; }); }); <script type="text/javascript"> window.onbeforeprint = expandAll; function expandAll(){ $(".fieldset:gt(0)").slideDown("fast"); } </script> For this html <table class="sectionHeader" ><tr ><td>Heading 1</td></tr></table> <div style="display:none;" class="fieldset">Content 1</div> <table class="sectionHeader" ><tr ><td>Heading 2</td></tr></table> <div style="display:none;" class="fieldset">Content 2</div> I have several div class="fieldset" over the page, but when I do print preview or print, I can see all divs sliding down before opening the print preview or printing but on the actual print preview or print out they are all collapse. I would appreciate if anyone comes with a solution for this. Anyone have any idea why is this or how to fix it? Thanks. PS:Using a does not work either ( I assume because jquery using toggle) and its not the kind of question I am looking for.

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  • Calling arrays from other methods in a different class

    - by Jake H
    Hello, I need help dealing with an array in my java program. in my first class, "test", I set 4 variables and then send them to my other class (test2). arr[i] = new test2(id, fname, lname, case); at that point, variables are set and then I want to return those variables. So in the test2 class, I have a method that strictly returns one of those variables public int getId(){ return id; } I understand this is a little stupid, but professor gets what professor wants I guess. What I want to do now is in my main method in "test" I want to retrieve that variable and sort the array based on that int. Unfortunately, I have to create my own sort function, but I think this would work for what I want to do. for(j = 0; j < arr.length; j++){ int indexMin =j; for(i = j; i < arr.length;i++){ if(arr[i] < arr[indexMin]){ indexMin = i; } } int tmp = arr[j]; arr[j] = arr[indexMin]; arr[indexMin] = tmp; } I appreciate any help anyone could provide. Thank you

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  • Unit-testing a directive with isolated scope and bidirectional value

    - by unludo
    I want to unit test a directive which looks like this: angular.module('myApp', []) .directive('myTest', function () { return { restrict: 'E', scope: { message: '='}, replace: true, template: '<div ng-if="message"><p>{{message}}</p></div>', link: function (scope, element, attrs) { } }; }); Here is my failing test: describe('myTest directive:', function () { var scope, compile, validHTML; validHTML = '<my-test message="message"></my-test>'; beforeEach(module('myApp')); beforeEach(inject(function($compile, $rootScope){ scope = $rootScope.$new(); compile = $compile; })); function create() { var elem, compiledElem; elem = angular.element(validHTML); compiledElem = compile(elem)(scope); scope.$digest(); return compiledElem; } it('should have a scope on root element', function () { scope.message = 'not empty'; var el = create(); console.log(el.text()); expect(el.text()).toBeDefined(); expect(el.text()).not.toBe(''); }); }); Can you spot why it's failing? The corresponding jsFiddle Thanks :)

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  • Javascript memory leak/ performance issue?

    - by Tom
    I just cannot for the life of me figure out this memory leak in Internet Explorer. insertTags simple takes string str and places each word within start and end tags for HTML (usually anchor tags). transliterate is for arabic numbers, and replaces normal numbers 0-9 with a &#..n; XML identity for their arabic counterparts. fragment = document.createDocumentFragment(); for (i = 0, e = response.verses.length; i < e; i++) { fragment.appendChild((function(){ p = document.createElement('p'); p.setAttribute('lang', (response.unicode) ? 'ar' : 'en'); p.innerHTML = ((response.unicode) ? (response.surah + ':' + (i+1)).transliterate() : response.surah + ':' + (i+1)) + ' ' + insertTags(response.verses[i], '<a href="#" onclick="window.popup(this);return false;" class="match">', '</a>'); try { return p } finally { p = null; } })()); } params[0].appendChild( fragment ); fragment = null; I would love some links other than MSDN and about.com, because neither of them have sufficiently explained to me why my script leaks memory. I am sure this is the problem, because without it everything runs fast (but nothing displays). I've read that doing a lot of DOM manipulations can be dangerous, but the for loops a max of 286 times (# of verses in surah 2, the longest surah in the Qur'an).

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  • xpath evaluting error in andorid

    - by R_Dhorawat
    i'm running one application in android browser which contain the following code.. [ if (typeof XPathResult != "undefined") { //use build in xpath support for Safari 3.0 //alert("xpathExpr"+xpathExpr); //alert("doc"+doc); var xmlDocument = doc; if (doc.nodeType != 9) { xmlDocument = doc.ownerDocument; } results = xmlDocument.evaluate(xpathExpr,doc, function(prefix) { return namespaces[prefix] || null;}, XPathResult.ANY_TYPE, null ); var thisResult; result = []; var len = 0; do { thisResult = results.iterateNext(); if (thisResult) { result[len] = thisResult; len++; } } while ( thisResult ); } else { try{ if (doc.selectNodes) { result = doc.selectNodes(xpathExpr); } }catch(ex){} } return result; ] but when i run this app in Firefox control come in if statement and everything works fine.. but in android browser it's giving error ... XPathResult undefined... this time control come to else statement and even here it's showing that selectNodes is undefind and. so the result come as null whereas in Firefox it's giving list of nodes.. realy need it to be done ... help needed.. thanks...

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  • mysql_affected_rows() returns 0 for UPDATE statement even when an update actually happens

    - by Alex Moore
    I am trying to get the number of rows affected in a simple mysql update query. However, when I run this code below, PHP's mysql_affected_rows() always equals 0. No matter if foo=1 already (in which case the function should correctly return 0, since no rows were changed), or if foo currently equals some other integer (in which case the function should return 1). $updateQuery = "UPDATE myTable SET foo=1 WHERE bar=2"; mysql_query($updateQuery); if (mysql_affected_rows() > 0) { echo "affected!"; } else { echo "not affected"; // always prints not affected } The UPDATE statement itself works. The INT gets changed in my database. I have also double-checked that the database connection isn't being closed beforehand or anything funky. Keep in mind, mysql_affected_rows doesn't necessarily require you to pass a connection link identifier, though I've tried that too. Details on the function: mysql_affected_rows Any ideas? SOLUTION The part I didn't mention turned out to be the cause of my woes here. This PHP file was being called ten times consecutively in an AJAX call, though I was only looking at the value returned on the last call, ie. a big fat 0. My apologies!

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  • Help C++ifying this C style code.

    - by Flamewires
    Hey I'm used to developing in C and I would like to use C++ in a project. Can anyone give me an example of how I would translate this C-style code into C++ code. I know it should compile in a c++ complier but I'm talking using c++ techniques(I.e. classes, RAII) typedef struct Solution Solution; struct Solution { double x[30]; int itt_found; double value; }; Solution *NewSolution() { Solution *S = (Solution *)malloc(sizeof(Solution)); for (int i=0;<=30;i++) { S-x[i] = 0; } S-itt_found = -1; return S; } void FreeSolution(Solution *S) { if (S != NULL) free(S); } int main() { Solution *S = NewSolution(); S-value = eval(S-x);// evals is another function that returns a double S-itt_found = 0; FreeSolution(S); return EXIT_SUCCESS; } Ideally I would like to be able to so something like this in main, but I'm not sure exactly how to create the class, i've read a lot of stuff but incorporating it all together correctly seems a little hard atm. Solution S(30);//constructor that takes as an argument the size of the double array S.eval();//a method that would run eval on S.x[] and store result in S.value cout << S.value << endl; Ask if you need more info, thanks.

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  • Javascript Cookie problems IE

    - by blakey87
    Hi guys, been bagging my head over some Javascript, please help, I cant see why it simply wont find my cookie in IE 7 or 8 I am setting the cookie true through another event, but I just want to see IE pick up the cookie which I initially set. Works in firefox too, thanks in advance. var t=setTimeout("doAlert()",8000); var doAlertVar = true; document.cookie = "closed=0;expires=0;path="; function readCookie(name) { var nameEQ = name + "="; var ca = document.cookie; alert(ca); ca = ca.replace(/^\s*|\s*$/g,''); ca = document.cookie.split(';'); for(var i=0;i < ca.length;i++) { var c = ca[i]; while (c.charAt(0)==' ') c = c.substring(1,c.length); if (c.indexOf(nameEQ) == 0) return c.substring(nameEQ.length,c.length); } return null; } function doAlert(){ if(readCookie('closed')==1){ doAlertVar = false; } if(readCookie('closed')==0){ alert("unlicensed demo version\nbuy online at"); } t=setTimeout("doAlert()",5000); }

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