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  • Python unicode problem

    - by Somebody still uses you MS-DOS
    I'm receiving some data from a ZODB (Zope Object Database). I receive a mybrains object. Then I do: o = mybrains.getObject() and I receive a "Person" object in my project. Then, I can do b = o.name and doing print b on my class I get: José Carlos and print b.name.__class__ <type 'unicode'> I have a lot of "Person" objects. They are added to a list. names = [o.nome, o1.nome, o2.nome] Then, I trying to create a text file with this data. delimiter = ';' all = delimiter.join(names) + '\n' No problem. Now, when I do a print all I have: José Carlos;Jonas;Natália Juan;John But when I try to create a file of it: f = open("/tmp/test.txt", "w") f.write(all) I get an error like this (the positions aren't exaclty the same, since I change the names) UnicodeEncodeError: 'ascii' codec can't encode character u'\xe9' in position 84: ordinal not in range(128) If I can print already with the "correct" form to display it, why I can't write a file with it? Which encode/decode method should I use to write a file with this data? I'm using Python 2.4.5 (can't upgrade it)

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  • How to make a mapped field inherited from a superclass transient in JPA?

    - by Russ Hayward
    I have a legacy schema that cannot be changed. I am using a base class for the common features and it contains an embedded object. There is a field that is normally mapped in the embedded object that needs to be in the persistence id for only one (of many) subclasses. I have made a new id class that includes it but then I get the error that the field is mapped twice. Here is some example code that is much simplified to maintain the sanity of the reader: @MappedSuperclass class BaseClass { @Embedded private Data data; } @Entity class SubClass extends BaseClass { @EmbeddedId private SubClassId id; } @Embeddable class Data { private int location; private String name; } @Embeddable class SubClassId { private int thingy; private int location; } I have tried @AttributeOverride but I can only get it to rename the field. I have tried to set it to updatable = false, insertable = false but this did not seem to work when used in the @AttributeOverride annotation. See answer below for the solution to this issue. I realise I could change the base class but I really do not want to split up the embedded object to separate the shared field as it would make the surrounding code more complex and require some ugly wrapping code. I could also redesign the whole system for this corner case but I would really rather not. I am using Hibernate as my JPA provider.

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  • Should I go vor Arrays or Objects in PHP in a CouchDB/Ajax app?

    - by karlthorwald
    I find myself converting between array and object all the time in PHP application that uses couchDB and Ajax. Of course I am also converting objects to JSON and back (for sometimes couchdb but mostly Ajax), but this is not so much disturbing my workflow. At the present I have php objects that are returned by the CouchDB modules I use and on the other hand I have the old habbit to return arrays like array("error"="not found","data"=$dataObj) from my functions. This leads to a mixed occurence of real php objects and nested arrays and I cast with (object) or (array) if necessary. The worst thing is that I know more or less by heart what a function returns, but not what type (array or object), so I often run into type errors. My plan is now to always cast arrays to objects before returning from a function. Of course this implies a lot of refactoring. Is this the right way to go? What about the conversion overhead? Other ideas or tips? Edit: Kenaniah's answer suggests I should go the other way, this would mean I'd cast everything to arrays. And for all the Ajax / JSON stuff and also for CouchDB I would use $myarray = json_decode($json_data,$assoc = false) Even more work to change all the CouchDB and Ajax functions but in the end I have better code.

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  • Why can't the 'NonSerialized' attribute be used at the class level? How to prevent serialization of

    - by ck
    I have a data object that is deep-cloned using a binary serialization. This data object supports property changed events, for example, PriceChanged. Let's say I attached a handler to PriceChanged. When the code attempts to serialize PriceChanged, it throws an exception that the handler isn't marked as serializable. My alternatives: I can't easily remove all handlers from the event before serialization I don't want to mark the handler as serializable because I'd have to recursively mark all the handlers dependencies as well. I don't want to mark PriceChanged as NonSerialized - there are tens of events like this that could potentially have handlers. Ideally, I'd like .NET to just stop going down the object graph at that point and make that a 'leaf'. So why can't I just mark the handler class as 'NonSerialized'? -- I finally worked around this problem by making the handler implement ISerializable and doing nothing in the serialize constructor/ GetDataObject method. But, the handler still is serialized, just with all its dependencies set to null - so I had to account for that as well. Is there a better way to prevent serialization of an entire class?

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  • Getting an "i" from GEvent

    - by Cosizzle
    Hello, I'm trying to add an event listener to each icon on the map when it's pressed. I'm storing the information in the database and the value that I'm wanting to retrive is "i" however when I output "i", I get it's last value which is 5 (there are 6 objects being drawn onto the map) Below is the code, what would be the best way to get the value of i, and not the object itself. var drawLotLoc = function(id) { var lotLoc = new GIcon(G_DEFAULT_ICON); // create icon object lotLoc.image = url+"images/markers/lotLocation.gif"; // set the icon image lotLoc.shadow = ""; // no shadow lotLoc.iconSize = new GSize(24, 24); // set the size var markerOptions = { icon: lotLoc }; $.post(opts.postScript, {action: 'drawlotLoc', id: id}, function(data) { var markers = new Array(); // lotLoc[x].description // lotLoc[x].lat // lotLoc[x].lng // lotLoc[x].nighbourhood // lotLoc[x].lot var lotLoc = $.evalJSON(data); for(var i=0; i<lotLoc.length; i++) { var spLat = parseFloat(lotLoc[i].lat); var spLng = parseFloat(lotLoc[i].lng); var latlng = new GLatLng(spLat, spLng) markers[i] = new GMarker(latlng, markerOptions); myMap.addOverlay(markers[i]); GEvent.addListener(markers[i], "click", function() { console.log(i); // returning 5 in all cases. // I _need_ this to be unique to the object being clicked. console.log(this); }); } });

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  • Can a destructor be recursive?

    - by Cubbi
    Is this program well-defined, and if not, why exactly? #include <iostream> #include <new> struct X { int cnt; X (int i) : cnt(i) {} ~X() { std::cout << "destructor called, cnt=" << cnt << std::endl; if ( cnt-- > 0 ) this->X::~X(); // explicit recursive call to dtor } }; int main() { char* buf = new char[sizeof(X)]; X* p = new(buf) X(7); p->X::~X(); // explicit call to dtor delete[] buf; } My reasoning: although invoking a destructor twice is undefined behavior, per 12.4/14, what it says exactly is this: the behavior is undefined if the destructor is invoked for an object whose lifetime has ended Which does not seem to prohibit recursive calls. While the destructor for an object is executing, the object's lifetime has not yet ended, thus it's not UB to invoke the destructor again. On the other hand, 12.4/6 says: After executing the body [...] a destructor for class X calls the destructors for X's direct members, the destructors for X's direct base classes [...] which means that after the return from a recursive invocation of a destructor, all member and base class destructors will have been called, and calling them again when returning to the previous level of recursion would be UB. Therefore, a class with no base and only POD members can have a recursive destructor without UB. Am I right?

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  • Dynamically bind argument and default value to existing function in Javascript

    - by Scott
    Let's suppose you have some function someFunc() already defined in javascript, that may or may not have its own argument set defined. Is it possible to write another function to add a required argument and set that argument to a default for someFunc()? Something like: var someFunc = function(arg1, arg2 ...){ Do stuff...} var addRequired = function(argName, argValue, fn) { Add the required default arg to a function... } addRequired("x", 20, someFunc); Now someFunc would be defined roughly like so: someFunc = function(x, arg1, arg2...) { x = 20; Do stuff... } What I am really seeking is to not only bind a this value to a function (which I already know how to achieve), but also bind another object reference to that same function (the function not being known ahead of time, as a user will define it, but then the user's code has access to this second object reference for use in their own function). So in my simple example above, the "20" value will actually be an object reference. Thanks for any help you can offer.

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  • Auto populate a text field based on another text field

    - by Syed Aslam
    I am trying to auto-populate a text field based on the value of another input field. Currently trying to do this using observe_field helper like this: <%= observe_field( :account_name, :function => "alert('Name changed!')", :on => 'keyup' ) %> <% form_for(@account, :html => { :id => 'theform' }) do |f| %> <label for="accountname"> Account name </label> <%= form.text_field :name, :tabindex => '1' %> <label for="subdomain"> Subdomain </label> <%= form.text_field :subdomain, :tabindex => '2' %> <% end %> When the user enters text in the account_name text_field, I want to copy that convert into a subdomain (downcase and join by '-') and populate to subdomain text_field. But, in the process getting this error: element is null var method = element.tagName.toLowerCase(); protot...9227640 (line 3588) Where exactly am I going wrong here? Or is there a better way to do this?

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  • stop propagarion from draggable div to selectable table

    - by Zeus
    If I have a table which has selectable cells $("#selectTable").selectable({ filter: ">*>tr>td"}); and one of the cells contains a draggable div $(".dragMe").draggable({}); HTML like so: <table id="selectTable"> <tr> <td> 1 </td> <td> 2 </td> <td> 3 </td> <td> <div class="dragMe">drag me</div> </td> </tr> </table> How do I stop the cell containing the div from being selectable? I presume the div will intercept the click event before the table cell, but my attempts at using event.stopPropagation on the draggable element have led me nowhere so far... Any suggestions or tips for using draggable inside a selectable parent would be most appreciated! EDIT: It seems that adding the div element to the cancel option for the selectable almost works - $("#selectTable").selectable({ filter: ">*>tr>td", cancel: ':input,option,div'}); this prevents the div from being selected when you click on it, but not when you drag+select it along with surrounding elements. Edit I've solved this now, the solution to this question can be found here

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  • Switch statement usage - C

    - by Jamie Keeling
    Hello, I have a thread function on Process B that contains a switch to perform certain operations based on the results of an event sent from Process A, these are stored as two elements in an array. I set the first element to the event which signals when Process A has data to send and I have the second element set to the event which indicates when Process A has closed. I have began to implement the functionality for the switch statement but I'm not getting the results as I expect. Consider the following: // //Thread function DWORD WINAPI ThreadFunc(LPVOID passedHandle) { for(i = 0; i < 2; i++) { ghEvents[i] = OpenEvent(EVENT_ALL_ACCESS, FALSE, TEXT("Global\\ProducerEvents")); if(ghEvents[i] == NULL) { getlasterror = GetLastError(); } } dwProducerEventResult = WaitForMultipleObjects( 2, ghEvents, FALSE, INFINITE); switch (dwProducerEventResult) { case WAIT_OBJECT_0 + 0: { //Producer sent data //unpackedHandle = *((HWND*)passedHandle); MessageBox(NULL,L"Test",L"Test",MB_OK); break; } case WAIT_OBJECT_0 + 1: { //Producer closed ExitProcess(1); break; } default: return; } } As you can see if the event in the first array is signalled Process B should display a simple message box, if the second array is signalled the application should close. When I actually close Process A, Process B displays the message box instead. If I leave the first case blank (Do nothing) both applications close as they should. Furthermore Process B sends data an error is thrown (When I comment out the unpacking): Have I implemented my switch statement incorrectly? I though I handled the unpacking of the HWND correctly too, any suggestions? Thanks for your time.

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  • calll html button onclick event from asp server side login authenticate event

    - by CraigJSte
    Need to programmatically click an html button from a login event (code behind? the html button sends variables to Flash using method: no response - with no postback and uses ExternalInterface API via javascript. Going from SWF ASPX is great, but need to send User.Identity to SWF from ASPX via javascript after authenticate with login event which am having impossible time getting to work... (calling HTML event from Login button) tried scripting in javascript to login event with no luck, possibly because postback clears SWF variables - so perhaps keeping separate (login then html send) would work... Here is my relevant code: function sendToActionScript(value) { swfobject.getObjectById("Property").sendToActionScript(value); } </script> <object ..// SWF File embedded> </object <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:Login id="login1" OnAuthenticate="login1_Authenticate"/> </form> <form id="form" onsubmit="return false;"> <input type="text" name="input" id="input" value="" runat="server" /> <button id="btnInput" runat="server" causesvalidation="false" visible="true" style="width: 51px" onclick="sendToActionScript(this.form.input.value);" >Send</button><br /> </form> // CODE BEHIND protected void Login1_Authenticate(object sender, AuthenticateEventArgs e) { // do something to get User Id and Role //bind the string (user or role) to input.value //then call the HTML button onclick event to send it to SWF file. //which I could put in separate function and call from Login_Authenticate } Can anyone help me I am out of ideas. Craig

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  • [C#] How to use delegate to perform callback between caller and web service helper class?

    - by codemonkie
    I have 2 classes A and B, where they belongs to the same namespace but resides in seperate files namely a.cs and b.cs, where class B essentially is a helper wrapping a web service call as follow: public class A { public A() // constructor { protected static B b = new B(); } private void processResult1(string result) { // come here when result is successful } private void processResult2(string result) { // come here when result is failed } static void main() { b.DoJobHelper(...); } } public class B { private com.nowhere.somewebservice ws; public B() { this.ws = new com.nowhere.somewebservice(); ws.JobCompleted += new JobCompletedEventHandler(OnCompleted); } void OnCompleted(object sender, JobCompletedEventArgs e) { string s; Guid taskID = (Guid)e.UserState; switch (s) { case "Success": // Call processResult1(); break; case "Failed": // Call processResult2(); break; default: break; } } public void DoJobHelper() { Object userState = Guid.NewGuid(); ws.DoJob(..., userState); } } (1) I have seen texts on the net on using delegates for callbacks but failed to apply that to my case. All I want to do is to call the appropriate processResult() method upon OnCompleted() event, but dunno how to and where to declare the delegate: public delegate void CallBack(string s); (2) There is a sender object passed in to OnCompleted() but never used, did I miss anything there? Or how can I make good use of sender? Any helps appreciated.

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  • Show PDF in HTML in web

    - by Anil
    Hi, I'm using the object tag to render PDF in HTML, but I'm doing it in MVC like this: <object data="/JDLCustomer/GetPDFData?projID=<%=ViewData["ProjectID"]%>&folder=<%=ViewData["Folder"] %>" type="application/pdf" width="960" height="900"> </object> and Controller/Action is public void GetPDFData(string projID, Project_Thin.Folders folder) { Highmark.BLL.Models.Project proj = GetProject(projID); List<File> ff = proj.GetFiles(folder, false); if (ff != null && ff.Count > 0 && ff.Where(p => p.FileExtension == "pdf").Count() > 0) { ff = ff.Where(p => p.FileExtension == "pdf").ToList(); Response.ClearHeaders(); Highmark.BLL.PDF.JDLCustomerPDF pdfObj = new JDLCustomerPDF(ff, proj.SimpleDbID); byte[] bArr = pdfObj.GetPDF(Response.OutputStream); pdfObj = null; Response.ContentType = "application/" + System.IO.Path.GetExtension("TakeOffPlans").Replace(".", ""); Response.AddHeader("Content-disposition", "attachment; filename=\"TakeOffPlans\""); Response.BinaryWrite(bArr); Response.Flush(); } } The problem is, as I'm downloading data first from server and then return the byte data, it is taking some time in downloading, so I want to show some kind of progress to show processing. Please help me on this.

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  • MPMoviePlayerController problem at start

    - by Infinity
    Hello guys! I have a problem with MPMoviePlayerController, because when I start it in fullscreen it exists, but the song is still playing. I added the MPMoviePlayerDidExitFullscreenNotification notification and it says that when the video starts playin it exists the full screen. Here's my code: _multimediaPlayer = [[MPMoviePlayerController alloc] init]; _multimediaPlayer.controlStyle = MPMovieControlStyleDefault; _multimediaPlayer.initialPlaybackTime = 0; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(videoPlayBackDidFinish:) name:MPMoviePlayerPlaybackDidFinishNotification object:nil]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(videoPlayerDidExitFullscreen:) name:MPMoviePlayerDidExitFullscreenNotification object:nil]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(videoPlayerPlaybackStateChanged:) name:MPMoviePlayerPlaybackStateDidChangeNotification object:nil]; NSString *path = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@/mag_%d/%@", [FMUtils documentsFolderPathWithFile:nil], _magID, _pageObject.fileName]; if ([FMUtils fileExistsAtPath:path]) { _multimediaPlayer.contentURL = [NSURL fileURLWithPath:path]; } else { _multimediaPlayer.contentURL = [NSURL URLWithString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@%@", self.dataURL, _pageObject.fileName]]; } CGSize objectViewSize = self.frame.size; _multimediaPlayer.view.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, objectViewSize.width, objectViewSize.height); [self addSubview:_multimediaPlayer.view]; if (_pageObject.blink) { [_multimediaPlayer setFullscreen:YES animated:YES]; } [_multimediaPlayer play]; Most of the time it happens when the video is not downloaded and it needs to stream it. Do you have any idea why is this happen?

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  • If I select from an IQueryable then the Include is lost

    - by Connor Murphy
    The include does not work after I perform a select on the IQueryable query. Is there a way arround this? My query is public IQueryable<Network> GetAllNetworks() { var query = (from n in _db.NetworkSet .Include("NetworkContacts.Contact") .Include("NetworkContacts.Contact.RelationshipSource.Target") .Include("NetworkContacts.Contact.RelationshipSource.Source") select (n)); return query;; } I then try to populate mya ViewModel in my WebUI layer using the following code var projectedNetworks = from n in GetAllNetworks() select new NetworkViewModel { Name = n.Name, Contacts = from contact in networkList .SelectMany(nc => nc.NetworkContacts) .Where(nc => nc.Member == true) .Where(nc => nc.NetworkId == n.ID) .Select(c => c.Contact) select contact, }; return projectedNetworks; The problem now occurs in my newly createdNetworkViewModel The Contacts object does include any loaded data for RelationshipSource.Target or RelationshipSource.Source The data should is there when run from the original Repository IQueryable object. However the related include data does not seem to get transferred into the new Contacts collection that is created from this IQueryable using the Select New {} code above. Is there a way to preserve this Include data when it gets passed into a new object?

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  • maintaining continuous count in php

    - by LiveEn
    I have a small problem maintain a count for the position. i have written a function function that will select all the users within a page and positions them in the order. Eg: Mike Position 1 Steve Postion 2.............. .... Jacob Position 30 but the problem that i have when i move to the second page, the count is started from first Eg: Jenny should be number 31 but the list goes, Jenny Position 1 Tanya Position 2....... Below is my function function nrk($duty,$page,$position) { $url="http://www.test.com/people.php?q=$duty&start=$page"; $ch=curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_URL,$url); $result=curl_exec($ch); $dom = new DOMDocument(); @$dom->loadHTML($result); $xpath=new DOMXPath($dom); $elements = $xpath->evaluate("//div"); foreach ($elements as $element) { $name = $element->getElementsByTagName("name")->item(0)->nodeValue; $position=$position+1; echo $name." Position:".$position."<br>"; } return $position; } Below is the for loop where i try to loop thru the page count for ($page=0;$page<=$pageNumb;$page=$page + 10) { nrk($duty,$page,$position); } I dont want to maintain a array key value in the for each coz i drop certain names...

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  • Flex wordwrap issue with multiple text instances

    - by Craig Myles
    Hi, I have a scenario where I want to dynamically add words of text to a container so that it forms a paragraph of text which is wrapped neatly according to the size of the parent container. Each text element will have differing formatting, and will have differing user interaction options. For example, imagine the text " has just spoken out about ". Each word will be added to the container one at a time, at run time. The username in this case would be bold, and if clicked on will trigger an event. Same with the news article. The rest of the text is just plain text which, when clicked on, would do nothing. Now, I'm using Flex 3 so I don't have access to the fancy new text formatting tools. I've implemented a solution where the words are plotted onto a canvas, but this means that the words are wrapped at a particular y position (an arbitrary value I've chosen). When the container is resized, the words still wrap at that position which leaves lots of space. I thought about adding each text element to an Array Collection and using this as a datasource for a Tile List, but Tile Lists don't support variable column widths (in my limited knowledge) so each word would use the same amount of space which isn't ideal. Does anyone know how I can plot words onto a container so that I can retain formatting, events and word wrapping at paragraph level, even if the container is resized?

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  • Fixed div background

    - by Fahad
    I want to create a layout where I want to display an image to the left and content on the right. The image should stay constant when the content scrolls. The css I'm using: <style type="text/css"> html, body { margin:0; padding:0; } #page-container { margin:auto; width:900px; background-color:Black; background-image:url('images/desired_layout.png'); background-attachment: fixed; background-repeat:no-repeat; } #main-image { float:left; width:250px; height:687px; background-image:url('images/desired_layout.png'); background-attachment:fixed; background-repeat:no-repeat; } #content { margin-left:250px; background-color:Olive; height:800px; width:650px; } </style> The HTML: <div id="page-container"> <div id="main-image"></div> <div id="content"></div> </div> Alot of time on this site and I have understood that background-attachment:fixed positions the image in the entire viewport and not the element it is applied to. My question is how do I go about creating that kind of layout? I do not want to give that image as a background image, as if the window is resized, it might get hidden. I want scrollbars to appear if the window size is less than 900px( my page width) so that the image can be viewed at all times. That happens with this code, however I would like the image to start at my element instead. How do I go about doing this?? Thanks in Advance :)

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  • jquery-sortable using behavior of a linkedlist

    - by BabaBooey
    I suspect I'm not looking at this issue in the right way so here goes. I have essentially a LinkedList of data on a web page (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Linked_list) that I'd like to manipulate using traditional Linked List behavior (i.e. just updating the reference/id of the "next" object) for performance reasons. Where this gets a bit tricky is I'd ideally like to use Jquery's sortable to do this. Like the user would drag something up/down and I could just do an Ajax call to the server with the id of the object that moved and the new parent id of that object (and then behind the scenes I could figure out how to reconnect things..maybe need more data than that...). But every example I've seen where sortable is used they were sending the whole re-indexed list to the database to update which seems unnecessary to me. With a linked list to change an element's "index" I only need to make 3 updates which depending on the size of the list could be a big performance savings. Anyone have an example of what I'm trying to do...am I too far in left field?

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  • When developing a Microsoft Office Add-In (for Word), is it possible to store hidden metadata inform

    - by leftend
    I am trying to store metadata (basically a unique id) along with each cell of a table in a Word document. Currently, for the add-in I'm developing, I am querying the database, and building a table inside the Word document using the data that is retrieved. I want to be able to save any of the user's edits to the document, and persist it back to the database. My initial thought was to store a unique id along with each cell in the table so that I would be able to tell which records to update. I would also like to store some sort of "isChanged" flag within each cell so that I could tell which cells were changed. I found that I could add the needed information into the "ID" property of the cell - however, that information was not retained if the user saved the document, closed it, and re-opened it. I then tried storing the data by adding a data to the "Fields" collection - but that did not work and threw a runtime error. Here is the code that I tried: object t1 = Word.WdFieldType.wdFieldEmpty; object val = "myValue: " + counter; object preserveFormatting = true; tbl.Cell(i, j).Range.Fields.Add(tbl.Cell(i, j).Range, ref t1, ref val, ref preserveFormatting); This compiles fine, but throws this runtime error "This command is not available". So, is this possible at all? Or am I headed in the wrong direction? Thanks in advance.

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  • KeyUp processed for wrong control

    - by Mikael
    I have made a simple test application for the issue, two winforms each containing a button. The button on the first form opens the other form when clicked. It also subscribes to keyup events. The second form has its button set as "AcceptButton" and in the Clicked event we sleep for 1s and then set DialogResult to true (the sleep is to simulate some processing done) When enter is used to close this second form the KeyUp event of the button on the first form is triggered, even though the key was released well before the second had passed so the second form was still shown and focused. If any key other then enter is pressed in the second form the event is not triggered for the button on the first form. First form: public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); buttonForm2.KeyUp += new KeyEventHandler(cntKeyUp); } void cntKeyUp(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show(e.KeyCode.ToString()); } private void buttonForm2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { using (Form2 f = new Form2()) { f.ShowDialog(); } } Second form: private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Thread.Sleep(1000); this.DialogResult = DialogResult.OK; } Does anyone know why the event is triggered for the button on the non active form and what can be done to stop this from happening?

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  • In .NET when Aborting Thread, can this piece of code get corrupted?

    - by bosko
    Little intro: In complex multithreaded aplication (enterprise service bus EBS), I need to use Thread.Abort, because this EBS accepts user written modules which communicates with hardware security modules. So if this module gets deadlocked or hardware stops responding - i need to just unload this module and rest of this server aplication must keep runnnig. So there is abort sync mechanism which ensures that code can be aborted only in user section and this section must be marked as AbortAble. If this happen there is possibility that ThreadAbortException will be thrown in this pieace of code: public void StopAbortSection() { var id = Thread.CurrentThread.ManagedThreadId; lock (threadIdMap[id]) { .... } } If module is on AbortSection and Aplication decides to abort module, but after this decision but before actual Thread.Abort, module enters NonAbortableSection by calling this method, but lock is actualy taken on that locking object. So lock will block until Abort or abort can be executed before reaching this block by this code. But Object with this method is essential and i need to be sure that this pieace of code is safe to abort in any moment. Probably i have to mention that threadIdMap is Dictionary(int,ManualResetEvent), so locking object is instance of ManualResetEvent. I hope you now understad my question. Sorry for its largeness.

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  • Netbean6.8: Cant deploy an app if I have Message Driven Bean

    - by Harry Pham
    I create an Enterprise Application CustomerApp that also generated two projects CustomerApp-ejb and CustomerApp-war. In the CustomerApp-ejb, I create a SessionBean call CustomerSessionBean.java as below. package com.customerapp.ejb; import javax.ejb.Stateless; import javax.ejb.LocalBean; import javax.persistence.EntityManager; import javax.persistence.PersistenceContext; @Stateless @LocalBean public class CustomerSessionBean { @PersistenceContext(unitName = "CustomerApp-ejbPU") private EntityManager em; public void persist(Object object) { em.persist(object); } } Now I can deploy CustomerApp-war just fine. But as soon as I create a Message Driven Bean, I cant deploy CustomerApp-war anymore. When I create NotificationBean.java (message driven bean), In the project destination option, I click add, and have NotificationQueue for the Destination Name and Destination Type is Queue. Below are the code package com.customerapp.mdb; import javax.ejb.ActivationConfigProperty; import javax.ejb.MessageDriven; import javax.jms.Message; import javax.jms.MessageListener; @MessageDriven(mappedName = "jms/NotificationQueue", activationConfig = { @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "acknowledgeMode", propertyValue = "Auto-acknowledge"), @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "destinationType", propertyValue = "javax.jms.Queue") }) public class NotificationBean implements MessageListener { public NotificationBean() { } public void onMessage(Message message) { } } If I remove the @MessageDriven annotation, then I can deploy the project. Any idea why and how to fix it?

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  • Basic syntax for an animation loop?

    - by Moshe
    I know that jQuery, for example, can do animation of sorts. I also know that at the very core of the animation, there must me some sort of loop doing the animation. What is an example of such a loop? A complete answer should ideally answer the following questions: What is a basic syntax for an effective animation recursion that can animate a single property of a particular object at a time? The function should be able to vary its target object and property of the object. What arguments/parameters should it take? What is a good range of reiterating the loop? In milliseconds? (Should this be a parameter/argument to the function?) REMEMBER: The answer is NOT necessarily language specific, but if you are writing in a specific language, please specify which one. Error handling is a plus. {Nothing is more irritating (for our purposes) than an animation that does something strange, like stopping halfway through.} Thanks!

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  • Combining properties made available via webservices profile service aspnet

    - by Adam
    I really wasn't sure what the title for my question could be, so sorry if it's a bit vague. I'm working on an application that uses client application services for authentication/profile management etc. In web.config for my website, I have the following profile properties like this: <properties> <add name="FirstName" type="string" defaultValue="" customProviderData="FirstName;nvarchar"/> ... Basic things like first name, last name etc. I'm exposing properties for my client app like this: <system.web.extensions> <scripting> <webServices> <authenticationService enabled="true" requireSSL="false"/> <profileService enabled="true" readAccessProperties="UserProfile" writeAccessProperties="UserProfile"/> <roleService enabled="true"/> </webServices> </scripting> </system.web.extensions> What I'm wondering is whether it's possible to bundle all the individual profile properties into a single object for client apps to utilize? I originally had all my profile data stored as members of a single class (UserProfile) but I broke it all out so that I could use the SqlTableProfileProvider to store each field as individual columns in relevant tables. I know I can create an class with members for each type, I'm just not sure if there's an easy way to create an object with all my property values (other than assigning values to this object whenever I assign to the the standalone properties). I don't think I'm explaining this very well, so I'll try an example. Say in my website profile I have FirstName and LastName as properties. For my client application profileService I want to have one ReadAccessProperty FullName. Is there some way to automatically create FullName from the existing FirstName and LastName properties without having to also have a seperate FullName property (and manually assign data to it whenever I assign data to FirstName and LastName)?

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