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  • Get_user running at kernel mode returns error

    - by Fangkai Yang
    Hi, all, I have a problem with get_user() macro. What I did is as follows: I run the following program int main() { int a = 20; printf("address of a: %p", &a); sleep(200); return 0; } When the program runs, it outputs the address of a, say, 0xbff91914. Then I pass this address to a module running in Kernel Mode that retrieves the contents at this address (at the time when I did this, I also made sure the process didn't terminate, because I put it to sleep for 200 seconds... ): The address is firstly sent as a string, and I cast them into pointer type. int * ptr = (int*)simple_strtol(buffer, NULL,16); printk("address: %p",ptr); // I use this line to make sure the cast is correct. When running, it outputs bff91914, as expected. int val = 0; int res; res= get_user(val, (int*) ptr); However, res is always not 0, meaning that get_user returns error. I am wondering what is the problem.... Thank you!! -- Fangkai

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  • How to link pnglite library in c?

    - by zaplec
    Hi, I installed from kubuntu's package management this handy pnglite library. It contains just one header file "pnglite.h" and one object file "pnglite.o". I have found out where those files are, but I don't know how to link them. I'm using netbeans, but don't know how to link them in there. Also I don't understand how to link them at console. I have a little test program that I would like to test, but I get the error message "undefined reference to function: XXXXXXX". Both netbeans and at console I'm using gcc. That header file is in /usr/include directory, object file is in /usr/lib directory and my test program is under my programming directory at my home directory. Should I put that header and object into the same directory as where my source is? Or is there a way to link them from their current locations? I know that it should be possible to link them from where they are at the moment and I would like to know and understand how to do that. Any help will be appreciated :)

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  • Ldap_add() : Invalid Syntax

    - by Suezy
    I have a program here that uses the ldap_add, when i try to run the program, it displays an error: Warning: ldap_add() [function.ldap-add]: Add: Invalid syntax in /var/www/suey/costcenter.20090617.php on line 780 My lil' code here is: $ldapservers='ourServer'; $ds = ldap_connect($ldapservers); if ($ds){ $r = ldap_bind($ds, $ldaprootun, $ldaprootpw); $add = ldap_add($ds, "uid=$fuid, $ldapbasedn", $infonew); } ldapbasedn is set to o=ourGroup; infonew is an array of entries (person information) and am so sure that the array is not empty because i already tested it. the uid is not empty too. What could be wrong? Is it the entries(array)? or the server am trying to connect to? I tried testing the ldap_bind, and it also works well too..hmmm.. Pls help.. thanks! I found the problem.. it's in the index infonew["createdBy"] = getenv("REMOTE_USER"); it returns NULL! now, is that right?

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  • Mutex example / tutorial ?

    - by Nav
    I've noticed that asking questions for the sake of creating a reference list etc. is encouraged in SO. This is one such question, so that anyone Googling for a mutex tutorial will find a good one here. I'm new to multithreading, and was trying to understand how mutexes work. Did a lot of Googling and this is the only decent tutorial I found, but it still left some doubts of how it works because I created my own program and the locking didn't work. One absolutely non-intuitive syntax of the mutex is pthread_mutex_lock( &mutex1 );, where it looks like the mutex is being locked, when what I really want to lock is some other variable. Does this syntax mean that locking a mutex locks a region of code until the mutex is unlocked? Then how do threads know that the region is locked? And isn't such a phenomenon supposed to be called critical section? In short, could you please help with the simplest possible mutex example program and the simplest possible explanation on the logic of how it works? I'm sure this will help plenty of other newbies.

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  • function php with parameter 0

    - by Arnaud Ncy
    I have a function like this public function get_page($position) { switch ($position) { case "current": echo "current"; return $this->current_page; break; case "first": echo "first"; return $this->current_page >= 3 ? 1 : false; break; case "last": echo "last"; return $this->current_page <= $this->total_pages() - 2 ? ceil($this->count / $this->nb_items_to_show) : false; break; case "previous": echo "previous"; return $this->current_page - 1 >= 1 ? $this->current_page - 1 : false; break; case "next": echo "next"; return $this->current_page + 1 <= $this->total_pages() ? $this->current_page + 1 : false; break; case is_int($position): echo "int"; if ($position >= 1 && $position <= $this->total_pages()) { return $position; } else { return false; } break; default: echo "default"; return false; break; } } When I call the function, it works for every parameters except 0 and goes in "current" case in the switch. $paginator->get_page(0); If I call the function with quotes "0", it works. But the function could be called like this $paginator->get_page($paginator->get_page("current") - 2); How can I call the function with parameter 0 ?

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  • Long running transactions with Spring and Hibernate?

    - by jimbokun
    The underlying problem I want to solve is running a task that generates several temporary tables in MySQL, which need to stay around long enough to fetch results from Java after they are created. Because of the size of the data involved, the task must be completed in batches. Each batch is a call to a stored procedure called through JDBC. The entire process can take half an hour or more for a large data set. To ensure access to the temporary tables, I run the entire task, start to finish, in a single Spring transaction with a TransactionCallbackWithoutResult. Otherwise, I could get a different connection that does not have access to the temporary tables (this would happen occasionally before I wrapped everything in a transaction). This worked fine in my development environment. However, in production I got the following exception: java.sql.SQLException: Lock wait timeout exceeded; try restarting transaction This happened when a different task tried to access some of the same tables during the execution of my long running transaction. What confuses me is that the long running transaction only inserts or updates into temporary tables. All access to non-temporary tables are selects only. From what documentation I can find, the default Spring transaction isolation level should not cause MySQL to block in this case. So my first question, is this the right approach? Can I ensure that I repeatedly get the same connection through a Hibernate template without a long running transaction? If the long running transaction approach is the correct one, what should I check in terms of isolation levels? Is my understanding correct that the default isolation level in Spring/MySQL transactions should not lock tables that are only accessed through selects? What can I do to debug which tables are causing the conflict, and prevent those tables from being locked by the transaction?

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  • Lazarus Pascal - DB Connection - clarification

    - by itsols
    The following code is from the docs here: Program ConnectDB var AConnection : TSQLConnection; Procedure CreateConnection; begin AConnection := TIBConnection.Create(nil); AConnection.Hostname := 'localhost'; AConnection.DatabaseName := '/opt/firebird/examples/employee.fdb'; AConnection.UserName := 'sysdba'; AConnection.Password := 'masterkey'; end; begin CreateConnection; AConnection.Open; if Aconnection.Connected then writeln('Succesful connect!') else writeln('This is not possible, because if the connection failed, ' + 'an exception should be raised, so this code would not ' + 'be executed'); AConnection.Close; AConnection.Free; end. The main body of the code makes sense to me BUT I don't get where TSQLConnection came from. I cannot use CTRL + Space to autocomplete it either, which means my program has no reference to it. I'm trying to connect to Postgres by the way. Can someone please state what TSQLConnection is? Thanks!

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  • Text message intent - catch and send

    - by Espen
    Hi! I want to be able to control incoming text messages. My application is still on a "proof of concept" version and I'm trying to learn Android programming as I go. First my application need to catch incomming text messages. And if the message is from a known number then deal with it. If not, then send the message as nothing has happened to the default text message application. I have no doubt it can be done, but I still have some concern and I see some pitfalls at how things are done on Android. So getting the incomming text message could be fairly easy - except when there are other messaging applications installed and maybe the user wants to have normal text messages to pop up on one of them - and it will, after my application has had a look at it first. How to be sure my application get first pick of incomming text messages? And after that I need to send most text messages through to any other text message application the user has chosen so the user can actually read the message my application didn't need. Since Android uses intents that are relative at best, I don't see how I can enforce my application to get a peek at all incomming text messages, and then stop it or send it through to the default text messaging application...

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  • Conditionally overriding a system method via categories in Objective-C?

    - by adib
    Hi Is there a way to provide a method implementation (that bears the exact same name of a method defined by the framework) only when the method isn't already defined in the system? For example method [NSSomeClass someMethod:] exists only in Mac OS X 10.6 and if my app runs in 10.5, I will provide that method's definition in a category. But when the app runs in 10.6, I want the OS-provided method to run. Background: I'm creating an app targeted for both 10.5 and 10.6. The problem is that I recently realized that method +[NSSortDescriptor sortDescriptorWithKey:ascending:] only exists in 10.6 and my code is already littered by that method call. I could provide a default implementation for it (since this time it's not too difficult to implement it myself), but I want the "native" one to be called whenever my app runs on 10.6. Furthermore if I encounter similar problems in the future (with more difficult-to-implement-myself methods), I might not be able to get away with providing a one-liner replacement. This question vaguely similar to Override a method via ObjC Category and call the default implementation? but the difference is that I want to provide implementations only when the system doesn't already has one. Thanks.

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  • C# - How to change window state of Form, on a different thread?

    - by Dodi300
    Hello. Does anyone know how I can chage the window state of a form, from another thread? This is the code I'm using: private void button4_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string pathe = label1.Text; string name = Path.GetFileName(pathe); pathe = pathe.Replace(name, ""); string runpath = label2.Text; Process process; process = new Process(); process.EnableRaisingEvents = true; process.Exited += new System.EventHandler(process_Exited); process.StartInfo.FileName = @runpath; process.StartInfo.WorkingDirectory = @pathe; process.Start(); WindowState = FormWindowState.Minimized; } private void process_Exited(object sender, EventArgs e) { this.WindowState = FormWindowState.Normal; } It's meant to run a program and minimize, then return to the normal state once the program has closed. Although I get this error "Cross-thread operation not valid: Control 'Form1' accessed from a thread other than the thread it was created on." Any idea how to get this to work? Thanks.

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  • Exception on inserting into Access 2010 in C Sharp

    - by slao.it
    Hello, I am getting this exception when inserting into a Access 2010 database. Ex: System.Data.OleDb.OleDbException (0x80040E14): Syntax error in string in query expression ''CityName ?'. at System.Data.OleDb.OleDbCommand.ExecuteCommandTextErrorHandling(OleDbHResult hr) at System.Data.OleDb.OleDbCommand.ExecuteCommandTextForSingleResult(tagDBPARAMS dbParams, Object& executeResult) at System.Data.OleDb.OleDbCommand.ExecuteCommandText(Object& executeResult) at System.Data.OleDb.OleDbCommand.ExecuteCommand(CommandBehavior behavior, Object& executeResult) at System.Data.OleDb.OleDbCommand.ExecuteReaderInternal(CommandBehavior behavior, String method) at System.Data.OleDb.OleDbCommand.ExecuteNonQuery() at ReadingData.Program.Main(String[] args) in C:\Users\user\documents\visual studio 2010\Projects\ReadingData\ReadingData\Program.cs:line 238 INSERT INTO CranbrookMain (ID,BlockNo,Plot,SubPlot,Code,Type,LastName,FirstName,ServiceHome,ServiceAddress,ServiceCity,Notes) VALUES ('1','Y','37','DS','C2','O','SMITH','John','Service Inc.','520B SLATER ROAD N.W.','CityName','CityName ? ') insertSQL = "INSERT INTO CranbrookMain (ID,BlockNo,Plot,SubPlot,Code,Type,LastName," + "FirstName,ServiceHome,ServiceAddress,ServiceCity,Notes) VALUES (" + "'"+id+ "','" + blockNo + "','" + plot + "','" + subPlot + "','" + code + "','" + type + "','" + lastname + "','" + firstname + "','" + serviceHome + "','" + serviceAddress + "','" + serviceCity + "','" + notes +"')"; Console.WriteLine(); OleDbCommand cmd = new OleDbCommand(insertSQL, con); // creating query command cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); The error occurs in cmd.ExecuteNonQuery() function call. The above SQL INSERT statement works fine if I directly execute in the Access 2010 file.

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  • Unable to ping server from client B but able to ping from client A. Please help

    - by Soundar Rajan
    This is not really a programming question, but I am at my wit's end ... I am trying to configure a IIS 6.0/Windows Server 2003 web server with a ASP.net application. When I try to ping the server from client computer A I get the following: PING 74.208.192.xxx ==> Ping fails PING 74.208.192.xxx:80 ==> Ping succeeds! From client computer B, BOTH the pings fail. PING 74.208.192.xxx ==> Ping fails PING 74.208.192.xxx:80 ==> Ping fails with a message "Ping request could not find host 74.208.192.xxx:80" Both clients A and B are on the same subnet. The server is outside (a virtual server hosted by an ISP) I have an ASP.NET application in a virtual directory on the server. In IE or firefox, if I enter http://74.208.192.xxx/subdir/subdir/../Default.aspx, it works from both the clients! The server has default firewall settings but web server enabled (Port 80 is open).

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  • How do I set up routes to enable me to call different actions on the same controller?

    - by Remnant
    I am building my first asp.net mvc application for learning and development purposes and have come across an issue that I'd like some guidance with. Suppose I have a controller with two actions as follows: public class MyController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { dbData = GetData("DefaultParameter") return View(dbData); } public ActionResult UpdateView(string dbParameter) { dbData = GetData("dbParameter"); return View(dbData); } } On my webpage I have the following: <% using (Html.BeginForm("UpdateView", "MyController")) %> <% { %> <div class="dropdown"><%=Html.DropDownList("Selection", Model.List, new { onchange="this.form.submit();" })%></div> <% } %> I have the following route in Global.asax: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.MapRoute("Default", "{controller}", new { controller = "MyController", action = "Index"}); } The issue I am having is as follows: When I use the dropdownlist I get an error saying that /MyController/UpdateView could not be found. It therefore seems that I need to add an additional route as follows: routes.MapRoute("Default", "{controller}", new { controller = "MyController", action = "UpdateView"}); However, this causes two new issues for me: Due to the hierachy within the routing list, the similarity of the routes means that the one that appears first in the list is always executed. I don't see why I need to create another route for UpdateView. All I want to do is to retrieve new data from the database and update the view. I don't see what this has to do with the URL schema. It feels like I have gone down the wrong track here and I have missed something quite fundamental?

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  • why DataColumn AllowDbNull is true even if oracle db does not allow null

    - by matti
    Hi. I have column SomeId in table SomeLink. When I look with tOra or Sql Plus Worksheet both state: tOra: Column name Data type Default Null Comment SOMEID INTEGER {null} NOT NULL {null} Sql Plus: SOMEID NOT NULL NUMBER(38) I have authored a method that's intended to give default values to all NOT NULL fields that don't have values: public static void GetDefaultValuesForNonNullColumns(DataRow row) { foreach(DataColumn col in row.Table.Columns) { if (Convert.IsDBNull(row[col]) && !col.AllowDBNull) { if (ColumnIsNumeric(col.DataType)) row[col] = 0; else if (col.DataType == typeof(DateTime)) row[col] = DateTime.Now; else if (col.DataType == typeof(String)) row[col] = string.Empty; else if (col.DataType == typeof(Char)) row[col] = ' '; else throw new Exception(string.Format("Unsupported column type: {0}", col.DataType)); } } } When SOMEID is handled in loop the AllowDBNull = true. I really can't understand. The table is created in DataSet like this: _someLinkAdptr = _dbFactory.CreateDataAdapter(); _someLinkAdptr.SelectCommand = _dbFactory.CreateCommand(); _someLinkAdptr.SelectCommand.Connection = _cnctn; _someLinkAdptr.SelectCommand.CommandText = GetSomeLinkSelectTxtAndParams(_someLinkAdptr.SelectCommand, UndefinedValue.ToString(), UndefinedValue.ToString()); Select command returns no rows. The idea is that I can then use commandbuilder to get InsertCommand without building it myself. The row is added to dataset's table like this: private static void CreateDocLink(int anId, int anotherId) { DataRow row = _someDataSet.Tables["SomeLink"].NewRow(); row["AnId"] = anId; row["AnotherId"] = anotherId; Utility.GetDefaultValuesForNonNullColumns(row); _someDataSet.Tables["SomeLink"].Rows.Add(row); } When DataAdapter is updated to oracle db I get: ORA-01400: cannot insert NULL into (SOMESCHEMA.SOMELINK.SOMEID) Cheers & BR -Matti

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  • Is there a useDirtyFlag option for Tomcat 6 cluster configuration?

    - by kevinjansz
    In Tomcat 5.0.x you had the ability to set useDirtyFlag="false" to force replication of the session after every request rather than checking for set/removeAttribute calls. <Cluster className="org.apache.catalina.cluster.tcp.SimpleTcpCluster" managerClassName="org.apache.catalina.cluster.session.SimpleTcpReplicationManager" expireSessionsOnShutdown="false" **useDirtyFlag="false"** doClusterLog="true" clusterLogName="clusterLog"> ... The comments in the server.xml stated this may be used to make the following work: <% HashMap map = (HashMap)session.getAttribute("map"); map.put("key","value"); %> i.e. change the state of an object that has already been put in the session and you can be sure that this object still be replicated to the other nodes in the cluster. According to the Tomcat 6 documentation you only have two "Manager" options - DeltaManager & BackupManager ... neither of these seem to allow this option or anything like it. In my testing the default setup: <Cluster className="org.apache.catalina.ha.tcp.SimpleTcpCluster"/> where you get the DeltaManager by default, it's definitely behaving as useDirtyFlag="true" (as I'd expect). So my question is - is there an equivalent in Tomcat 6? Looking at the source I can see a manager implementation "org.apache.catalina.ha.session.SimpleTcpReplicationManager" which does have the useDirtyFlag but the javadoc comments in this state it's "Tomcat Session Replication for Tomcat 4.0" ... I don't know if this is ok to use - I'm guessing not as it's not mentioned in the main cluster configuration documentation.

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  • NoClassDefFoundError without any class name

    - by Safder
    Hello, I am trying to run a java task from ant. I am trying to run the "org.apache.tools.ant.launch.Launcher" class. I keep on getting the "NoClassDefFoundError" without any class name being specified. I am also getting a "ClassNotFoundException" along with that displaying a message "Could not find the main class: . Program will exit". Here's a snippet of the error [java] Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: [java] Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: [java] at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:200) [java] at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) [java] at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:188) [java] at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:307) [java] at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:301) [java] at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:252) [java] at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(ClassLoader.java:320) [java] Could not find the main class: . Program will exit. [java] Java Result: 1 Now I am trying to run an ant class from an ant jar and i specifiy the classpath where this class file resides using the "classpathref" attribute, however I still get this message. I checked the ant jar to check the Manifest and the "main" class is specified properly (it's "org.apache.tools.ant.launch.Launcher") . I have exhausted all my resources. Please help ! ! ! ps: My environment is Eclipse on Ubuntu 9.04

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  • Atomic swap in GNU C++

    - by Steve
    I want to verify that my understanding is correct. This kind of thing is tricky so I'm almost sure I am missing something. I have a program consisting of a real-time thread and a non-real-time thread. I want the non-RT thread to be able to swap a pointer to memory that is used by the RT thread. From the docs, my understanding is that this can be accomplished in g++ with: // global Data *rt_data; Data *swap_data(Data *new_data) { #ifdef __GNUC__ // Atomic pointer swap. Data *old_d = __sync_lock_test_and_set(&rt_data, new_data); #else // Non-atomic, cross your fingers. Data *old_d = rt_data; rt_data = new_data; #endif return old_d; } This is the only place in the program (other than initial setup) where rt_data is modified. When rt_data is used in the real-time context, it is copied to a local pointer. For old_d, later on when it is sure that the old memory is not used, it will be freed in the non-RT thread. Is this correct? Do I need volatile anywhere? Are there other synchronization primitives I should be calling? By the way I am doing this in C++, although I'm interested in whether the answer differs for C. Thanks ahead of time.

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  • C# app running as either Windows Form or as Console Application

    - by Aeolien
    I am looking to have one of my Windows Forms applications be run programmatically—from the command line. In preparation, I have separated the logic in its own class from the Form. Now I am stuck trying to get the application to switch back and forth based on the presence of command line arguments. Here is the code for the main class: static class Program { /// <summary> /// The main entry point for the application. /// </summary> [STAThread] static void Main() { string[] args = Environment.GetCommandLineArgs(); if (args.Length > 1) // gets passed its path, by default { CommandLineWork(args); return; } Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new Form1()); } private static void CommandLineWork(string[] args) { Console.WriteLine("It works!"); Console.ReadLine(); } where Form1 is my form and the It works! string is just a placeholder for the actual logic. Right now, when running this from within Visual Studio (with command line arguments), the phrase It works! is printed to the Output. However, when running the /bin/Debug/Program.exe file (or /Release for that matter) the application crashes. Am I going about this the right way? Would it make more sense (i.e. take less developer time) to have my logic class be a DLL that gets loaded by two separate applications? Or is there something entirely different that I'm not aware of? Thanks in advance!

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  • Problem with document.location.href

    - by novellino
    Hello, I am new to Javascript and Web development and I have a question regarding the document.location.href. I am using a cookie for storing the language the user prefers and then load the english or the swedish version depending on the language. The default language in the beginning is the same as the browser's language, and my index.jsp is the swedish one. The first time everything works fine. The problem is when the cookie exists already. The basic code is: if (language!=null && language!=""){ if (language=="en-US" || language=="en-us") document.location.href = "en/index.jsp"; } else{ //Explorer if (navigator.userLanguage) language = navigator.userLanguage; //other browsers else language = (navigator.language) ? navigator.language : navigator.userLanguage; if (language!=null && language!=""){ setCookie('language', language, 365, '/', 'onCheck'); if (language=="en-US" || language=="en-us") document.location.href = "en/index.jsp"; else if(language=="sv") document.location.href="index.jsp"; } } When the cookie exists we enter the first "if", and there, if the language is swedish it opens the default blabla/index.jsp page. When the language is set to engish it should open the blabla/en/index.jsp but instead it opens the blabla/en/en/index.jsp which of course is wrong. Does anyone know what I am doing wrong?? Thanks

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  • .NET Splash screen issues

    - by CODe
    I have a splash screen for my C# database application that is called via the Shown event. The splash screen contains some information that is preprocessed when the main form's constructor is called, hence why I'm using the Shown event, because that information should be available. However, when the splash screen is shown, the main form is whited out, and the menu bar, bottom menu bar, and even the gray background are all white and invisible. It looks like the program is hanging, but after the 5 second delay I have built in, the banner goes away and the program is shown normally. Also, on the banner, I have labels that are not shown when the splash screen displays... Here is my code, some reasoning behind why it isn't working would help greatly. SPLASH SCREEN CODE : public partial class StartupBanner : Form { public StartupBanner(int missingNum, int expiredNum) { InitializeComponent(); missingLabel.Text = missingNum.ToString() + " MISSING POLICIES"; expiredLabel.Text = expiredNum.ToString() + " EXPIRED POLICIES"; } } CALLING CODE : private void MainForm_Shown(object sender, EventArgs e) { StartupBanner startup = new StartupBanner(missingPoliciesNum, expiredPoliciesNum); startup.MdiParent = this; startup.Show(); Thread.Sleep(5000); startup.Close(); } Using startup.ShowDialog() shows the correct label information on the splash screen, but that locks up the application, and I need the splash to go away after about 5 seconds, which is why it's a splash. ;)

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  • UITouch Events and Table Views

    - by Andy
    I'm working on a navigation-based iPhone-only app that serves two main purposes: One, to present data in a hierarchical view, allowing users to drill down and eventually edit said data, and, two, to all users to perform a default action when the table view cell is tapped. I now need to offer a small set of options tied to the same data; however, both the didSelectRowAtIndexPath: and accessoryButtonTappedForRowAtIndexPath: methods are obviously taken. So, my options seem to be to implement a double-tap method, wherein the small list of additional options would be presented after (you guessed it) a double-tap on said table row; or, preferably, a tap-and-hold method. From what I can tell, tap-and-hold seems like the way to go in SDK 4.0 - which does me no good right this red-hot minute. I decided to go with the double-tap option, but I'm having a little trouble. First and foremost, the touchesBegan:withEvent: method does not seem to be getting called at all; a breakpoint placed within the method is never called while the application runs, and the table view responds exactly as it did before I inserted the method (which is to say, it performs the default action): - (void)touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { UITouch *aTouch = [touches anyObject]; if (aTouch.tapCount == 2) { [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self]; } } Second, I don't really need to handle a single-tap - the didSelectRowAtIndexPath: method can handle the single-tap just fine. The double-tap is the funky one I want to handle. I suspect the answer is going to contain the phrase, "You can't have the table view handle the single-tap and the touchesBegan: method handle the double-tap. The touch handling methods have to handle all of them." I would really appreciate some guidance from some of you who've dealt with this issue. Thanks in advance.

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  • How do I configure multiple Ubuntu Python installations to avoid App Engine's SSL error?

    - by Linc
    I have Karmic Koala which has Python 2.6 installed by default. However I can't run any Python App Engine projects because they require Python 2.5 and python ssl. To install ssl I installed python2.5-dev first while following some instructions I found elsewhere. sudo apt-get install libssl-dev sudo apt-get install python-setuptools sudo apt-get install python2.5-dev sudo easy_install-2.5 pyopenssl However, I am afraid this is not good for my Ubuntu installation since Ubuntu expects to see version 2.6 of Python when you type 'python' on the command line. Instead, it says '2.5.5'. I tried to revert to the original default version of Python by doing this: sudo apt-get remove python2.5-dev But that didn't seem to do anything either - when I type 'python' on the command line it still say 2.5.5. And App Engine still doesn't work after all this. I continue to get an SSL-related error whenever I try to run my Python app: AttributeError: 'module' object has no attribute 'HTTPSHandler' UPDATE: Just checked whether SSL actually installed as a result of those commands by typing this: $ python2.5 Python 2.5.5 (r255:77872, Apr 29 2010, 23:59:20) [GCC 4.4.1] on linux2 Type "help", "copyright", "credits" or "license" for more information. >>> import ssl Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> ImportError: No module named ssl >>> As you can see, SSL is still not installed, which explains the continuing App Engine error. If anyone knows how I can dig myself out of this hole, I would appreciate it.

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  • Images logging as 404s with Zend Framework

    - by azz0r
    Hello, Due to Zend rewriting URL's to module/controller/action, its reporting that images are coming through as a 404. Here is the error: [_requestUri:protected] => /images/Movie/124/thumb/main.png [_baseUrl:protected] => [_basePath:protected] => [_pathInfo:protected] => /images/Movie/124/thumb/main.png [_params:protected] => Array ( [controller] => images [action] => Movie [124] => thumb [module] => default ) [_rawBody:protected] => [_aliases:protected] => Array ( ) [_dispatched:protected] => 1 [_module:protected] => default [_moduleKey:protected] => module [_controller:protected] => images [_controllerKey:protected] => controller [_action:protected] => Movie [_actionKey:protected] => action Here is my HTACCESS SetEnv APPLICATION_ENV development RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -s [OR] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -l [OR] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -d RewriteRule ^.*$ - [NC,L] RewriteRule ^.*$ index.php [NC,L] I guess what I need todo is put some sort of image or /design detection so its not routing to index.php Ideas?

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  • IIS7 integrated mode MVC deploy 404 not found on some actions

    - by majkinetor
    Hello. Once deployed parts of my web-application stop working. Index-es on each controller do work, and one form posting via Ajax, other then that yields 404. I understand that nothing particular should be done in integrated mode. One interesting thing is that 1 AJAX action is working. I don't know how to proceed with troubleshooting. Some info: App is using default app pool set to integrated mode. WebApp is done in net framework 3.5. I use default routing model. Along web.config in root there is web.config in /View folder referencing HttpNotFoundHandler. OS is Windows Server 2008. Admins issued aspnet_regiis.exe -i IIS 7 Any help is appreciated. Thx. EDIT: Noticed one very strange thing. One ajax call works, other ajax call doesn't works as I login, but when I move to ther page and return to that one it starts working ?! Small video of the problem is available here

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  • Can I interrupt javascript code and then continue on a keystroke?

    - by Brian Ramsay
    I am porting an old game from C to Javascript. I have run into an issue with display code where I would like to have the main game code call display methods without having to worry about how those status messages are displayed. In the original code, if the message is too long, the program just waits for the player to toggle through the messages with the spacebar and then continues. This doesn't work in javascript, because while I wait for an event, all of the other program code continues. I had thought to use a callback so that further code can execute when the player hits the designated key, but I can't see how that will be viable with a lot of calls to display.update(msg) scattered throughout the code. Can I architect things differently so the event-based, asynchronous model works, or is there some other solution that would allow me to implement a more traditional event loop? Am I making sense? Example: // this is what the original code does, but obviously doesn't work in Javascript display = { update : function(msg) { // if msg is too long // wait for user input // ok, we've got input, continue } }; // this is more javascript-y... display = { update : function(msg, when_finished) { // show part of the message $(document).addEvent('keydown', function(e) { // display the rest of the message when_finished(); }); } }; // but makes for amazingly nasty game code do_something(param, function() { // in case do_something calls display I have to // provide a callback for everything afterwards // this happens next, but what if do_the_next_thing needs to call display? // I have to wait again do_the_next_thing(param, function() { // now I have to do this again, ad infinitum } }

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