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  • problems with retrieving data that was saved outside of a grails webflow

    - by callie16
    Hi, this is actually connected to an earlier question of mine here. Anyway, I have 3 domains that look like this: class A { ... static hasMany = [ b : B ] ... } class B { ... static belongsTo = [ a : A ] static hasMany = [ c : C ] ... } class C { ... static belongsTo = [ b : B ] ... } In my GSP page, I call an action in the Controller via a remote function in a javascript block (I'm using Dojo so I'm passing data to be saved this way... it's not a form per se so I use JSON for now to pass the data to the Controller). Let's say, I'm calling something like this: def someAction = { def jsonArr = [parse the JSON here] def tmpA = A.get(params.id) ... def tmpB = new B() b.someParam = jsonArr.someParam ... def tmpC = new C() tmpC.cParam = jsonArr.cParam tmpB.addToC(tmpC) tmpB.save(flush: true) //this may or may not be here but I'm adding it for the sake of completeness tmpA.addToB(tmpB) tmpA.save(flush: true) // NOTE: If I check here via println or whatnot, tmpA has a tmpB which has a tmpC... in other words, the data got saved. It's also in the DB. redirect(action: 'order' ...) } Then comes the fun part. Here's the webflow sample: def orderFlow = { ... someStateIShouldEndUpIn { on("next") { // or on previous... doesn't matter def anId = params.id def currA = A.get(anId) // this does NOT return a null value def testB = currA.b // this DOES return a null value }.to("somePage") ... } ... } Any ideas on why this happens? Moreover, when I dump the data of currA, b=null... instead of b=[] or b=[contents of tmpB]. Any help would be seriously appreciated... been at this for a couple of days now... Thanks!

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  • How do virtual destructors work?

    - by Prabhu
    Few hours back I was fiddling with a Memory Leak issue and it turned out that I really got some basic stuff about virtual destructors wrong! Let me put explain my class design. class Base { virtual push_elements() {} }; class Derived:public Base { vector<int> x; public: void push_elements(){ for(int i=0;i <5;i++) x.push_back(i); } }; void main() { Base* b = new Derived(); b->push_elements(); delete b; } The bounds checker tool reported a memory leak in the derived class vector. And I figured out that the destructor is not virtual and the derived class destructor is not called. And it surprisingly got fixed when I made the destructor virtual. Isn't the vector deallocated automatically even if the derived class destructor is not called? Is that a quirk in BoundsChecker tool or is my understanding of virtual destructor wrong?

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  • Codeigniter Session Data not available in other pages after login

    - by jswat
    So, I have set up a login page that verifies the user's credentials, and then sets codeigniter session data 'email' and 'is_logged_in' and a few other items. The first page after the login, the data is accessible. After that page, I can no longer access the session data. In fact, if I try reloading that first page, the session data is gone. I have tried storing it in the database, storing it unencrypted (bad idea I know, but it was for troubleshooting), and storing it encrypted. I have autoloaded the session library in config.php. Here's an example of the code I'm using to set the session data: $data = array( 'email' => $this->input->post('username'), 'is_logged_in' => true ); $this->session->set_userdata($data); And to retrieve it, I'm using : $this->session->userdata('email'); Or $this->session->userdata('is_logged_in'); I've done lots of work with PHP and cookies, and sessions before, but this is my first project with Codeigniter and I'm perplexed. Could it have something to do with directory issues? I have the login page and process controlled by a 'login' controller, and then it redirects to a 'site' controller. Thanks for your help, and please let me know if I need to clarify anything.

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  • redirecting the root domain - SEO and other issues, need some guidance!

    - by Jim Sp
    I'm not familiar with some of these forwarding methods and I need help. My issue is this: I have a site hosted on discountasp.net. My domain was registered through 1&1 and I redirected the DNS to what discountasp.net wanted. So when a user types www.mydomain.com, he/she sees the ASP.NET site hosted on discountasp.net, which is all fine My main page is Index.aspx, I really suck at html page design and I don't have time or the talent to fiddle with it (or money to get it done by a pro). The rest of the pages are fine. I want to use a good theme from tumblr or bloggr - one of the blog sites and create a page that I want to use as the first page - directly on blogger or tumblr - say yyy.blogspot.com (I have many reasons, so for now please don't bash my decision - let's just say that's what I want). That means when a user types www.mydomain.com, it should redirect it to the blogger or tumblr page. Everything else stays the sme - the links on the blogger page will say www.mydomain.com/xxxx and show up what's on the hosted website. I have setup the IIS rewrite rules etc. etc. so that all works just fine The bottom line is I want to show an external site's web page as my root page. I suppose I'm struggling to even explain what I want! I can of course do a response.redirect on the Index.aspx page - which is the simplest way to manage this, but the big question is will this hurt SEO in some way? If not, that would be what I do and leave the rest of the infrastructure intact (I have already done this to test and it works fine) Thank you very much j

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  • How do I update a NSTableView when its data source has changed?

    - by Jergason
    I am working along with Cocoa Programming For Mac OS X (a great book). One of the exercises the book gives is to build a simple to-do program. The UI has a table view, a text field to type in a new item and an "Add" button to add the new item to the table. On the back end I have a controller that is the data source and delegate for my NSTableView. The controller also implements an IBAction method called by the "Add" button. It contains a NSMutableArray to hold the to do list items. When the button is clicked, the action method fires correctly and the new string gets added to the mutable array. However, my data source methods are not being called correctly. Here they be: - (NSInteger)numberOfRowsInTableView:(NSTableView *)aTableView { NSLog(@"Calling numberOfRowsInTableView: %d", [todoList count]); return [todoList count]; } - (id)tableView:(NSTableView *)aTableView objectValueForTableColumn:(NSTableColumn *)aTableColumn row:(NSInteger)rowIndex { NSLog(@"Returning %@ to be displayed", [todoList objectAtIndex:rowIndex]); return [todoList objectAtIndex:rowIndex]; } Here is the rub. -numberOfRowsInTableView only gets called when the app first starts, not every time I add something new to the array. -objectValueForTableColumn never gets called at all. I assume this is because Cocoa is smart enough to not call this method when there is nothing to draw. Is there some method I need to call to let the table view know that its data source has changed, and it should redraw itself?

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  • Is Accessing USB from web application for cross browser cross os possible at all ?

    - by Ved
    Hey Guys, I am wondering if there is anyway we can achieve this. I heard different things about Silverlight 4 , Java Script or Active X control but not seen any demo of code for any of them. Does anyone know any web component that is available or how to write one. We really like capture client's USB drive via Web and read/write data on it. This has to work for ANY Operating system in Any web browser. Thanks UPDATED What about WPF in browser mode...I read that I can host my wpf apps inside browser and sort of like smart client. Here is a great example of doing this via silverlight 4 but author mentions about possibility of accessing USB on MAC via 1) Enable executing AppleScripts. This option will let us have the same amount of control on a mac machine as we do on a windows machine. 2) Add an overload to ComAutomationFactory.CreateObject() that calls the “Tell Application” command under the scenes and gets a AppleScript object. This option would work extremely well for Office automation. For any other operating system feature, you’ll have to code OS access twice.  I did not quite understand it. Has any tried this ?

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  • Logging to a file on Android

    - by Greg B
    Is there any way of retrieving log messages from an Android handset. I'm building an application which uses the GPS of my HTC Hero. I can run and debug the application from eclipse but this isn't a good use case of GPS, sat at my desk. When I fire the app up when I am walking around, I get an intermittent exception. Is there anyway I can output these exceptions to a text file on the SD card or output calls to Log.x("") to a text file so that I can see what the exception is. Thanks EDIT : Solution Here is the code I finally went with... Thread.currentThread().setUncaughtExceptionHandler(new Thread.UncaughtExceptionHandler() { @Override public void uncaughtException(Thread thread, Throwable ex) { PrintWriter pw; try { pw = new PrintWriter( new FileWriter(Environment.getExternalStorageDirectory()+"/rt.log", true)); ex.printStackTrace(pw); pw.flush(); pw.close(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } }); I had to wrap the line pw = new PrintWriter(new FileWriter(Environment.getExternalStorageDirectory()+"/rt.log", true)); in a try/catch as Eclipse would not let me compile the app. It kept saying Unhandled exception type IOException 1 quick fix Sorround with try/catch So I did and it all works which is fine by me but it does make me wonder what Eclipse was on about...

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  • What is a fast way to set debugging code at a given line in a function?

    - by Josh O'Brien
    Preamble: R's trace() is a powerful debugging tool, allowing users to "insert debugging code at chosen places in any function". Unfortunately, using it from the command-line can be fairly laborious. As an artificial example, let's say I want to insert debugging code that will report the between-tick interval calculated by pretty.default(). I'd like to insert the code immediately after the value of delta is calculated, about four lines up from the bottom of the function definition. (Type pretty.default to see where I mean.) To indicate that line, I need to find which step in the code it corresponds to. The answer turns out to be step list(c(12, 3, 3)), which I zero in on by running through the following steps: as.list(body(pretty.default)) as.list(as.list(body(pretty.default))[[12]]) as.list(as.list(as.list(body(pretty.default))[[12]])[[3]]) as.list(as.list(as.list(body(pretty.default))[[12]])[[3]])[[3]] I can then insert debugging code like this: trace(what = 'pretty.default', tracer = quote(cat("\nThe value of delta is: ", delta, "\n\n")), at = list(c(12,3,3))) ## Try it a <- pretty(c(1, 7843)) b <- pretty(c(2, 23)) ## Clean up untrace('pretty.default') Questions: So here are my questions: Is there a way to print out a function (or a parsed version of it) with the lines nicely labeled by the steps to which they belong? Alternatively, is there another easier way, from the command line, to quickly set debugging code for a specific line within a function? Addendum: I used the pretty.default() example because it is reasonably tame, but with real/interesting functions, repeatedly using as.list() quickly gets tiresome and distracting. Here's an example: as.list(as.list(as.list(as.list(as.list(as.list(as.list(as.list(as.list(body(# model.frame.default))[[26]])[[3]])[[2]])[[4]])[[3]])[[4]])[[4]])[[4]])[[3]]

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  • Right way to return proxy model instance from a base model instance in Django ?

    - by sotangochips
    Say I have models: class Animal(models.Model): type = models.CharField(max_length=255) class Dog(Animal): def make_sound(self): print "Woof!" class Meta: proxy = True class Cat(Animal): def make_sound(self): print "Meow!" class Meta: proxy = True Let's say I want to do: animals = Animal.objects.all() for animal in animals: animal.make_sound() I want to get back a series of Woofs and Meows. Clearly, I could just define a make_sound in the original model that forks based on animal_type, but then every time I add a new animal type (imagine they're in different apps), I'd have to go in and edit that make_sound function. I'd rather just define proxy models and have them define the behavior themselves. From what I can tell, there's no way of returning mixed Cat or Dog instances, but I figured maybe I could define a "get_proxy_model" method on the main class that returns a cat or a dog model. Surely you could do this, and pass something like the primary key and then just do Cat.objects.get(pk = passed_in_primary_key). But that'd mean doing an extra query for data you already have which seems redundant. Is there any way to turn an animal into a cat or a dog instance in an efficient way? What's the right way to do what I want to achieve?

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  • [IceFaces] Why are validators of unchanged components called?

    - by bitschnau
    I have a IceFaces-form and several input fields. Let's say I have this: <ice:selectOneMenu id="accountMenu" value="#{accountController.account.aId}" validator="#{accountController.validateAccount}"> <f:selectItems id="accountItems" value="#{accountController.accountItems}" /> </ice:selectOneMenu> and this: <ice:selectOneMenu id="costumerMenu" value="#{customerController.customer.cId}" validator="#{customerController.validateCustomer"> <f:selectItems id="customerItems" value="#{customerController.customerItems}" /> </ice:selectOneMenu> If I change one value, the respective validator is called, what is fine. But also the other validator is called, which is not fine, because the user get's an irritating message to insert a value to a field he maybe was just going to pay attention to. It's like poking the user with a stick to "Hurry up now!". BAD! I thought the attribute "partialSubmit" is controlling this behaviour, so only the one DOM-part is submitted, which is affected by the user interaction, but if I declare the both components to be partially submitted, nothing changes. Still both validators are called if one component value is changed. How can I prevent the whole form from being validated until it is submitted completely?

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  • Best way to get a random number from 1 to 50 which ISN'T x

    - by Cocorico
    Hi guys! So this is probably programming 101 stuff, but I have a problem: I have 2 numbers which are between 0 and 49. Let's call them x and y. Now I want to get a couple of other numbers which are not x or y, but are also between 0 and 49 (I am using Objective C but this is more of a general theory question I think?). Method I thought of is: int a; int b; int c; do { a = arc4random() % 49; } while ((a == x) || (a == y)); do { b = arc4random() % 49; } while ((b == x) || (b == y) || (b == a)); do { c = arc4random() % 49; } while ((c == x) || (c == y) || (c == a) || (c == b)); But it seem kind of bad to me, I don't know, I am just trying to learn to be a better programmer, what would be the most elegant sweet way to do this for best practices? Thanks!

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  • jQuery or CSS - How do you make a link in a table row appear underlined even when the cursor is in a

    - by adam
    I have a table of 3-4 columns, the central one being task names that are also links(yet another todo app..groan). Im trying to make it so that whenever the mouse hovers over any part of the table row - not just the link itself - the link will appear underlined. Its a small detail but its been annoying me like hell and i refuse to let it get the better of me now. At first i tried jQuery with a (forgive the obvious syntax errors but this is the jist) $('#row_in_question').hover( function(){ $(this).find(...the link..).toggleClass("highlighted") }, function(){ $(this).find(...the link..).toggleClass("highlighted") } ); with this as a styling for the a element in general .highlighted { text-decoration: underlined; } and it did indeed toggle the highlighted class on that link - however css inheritance got in the way and no visual changes made. Since i previously styled that link to have no underline when not hovered it wouldnt change the style. So how do i go about this? I dont want the whole row to become clickable, I just want the text to become underlined.

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  • How use unobtrusive validation without a model

    - by Ross Cyrus
    i have simple a form wich made by htmlHelper(mvc3) then inside of it i have 2 input field 1:type=text 2:type=submit to submit the form. there is no model behind.so i need to perfom a clientside validation on the textfield before submit it to the server.but i dont know how. i tried this puting manualy the 'data-* artibute , but does not work : @using( Html.BeginForm()) { <label for="UserName" >User Name</label> <div class="editor-field"> <input type="text" data-val="true" data-val-requierd="You must provide an user Name" id="userName" name="userName" placeholder="Enter Your User Name" /> </div> <input type="submit" value="Recover" /> } the "jquery.validate.min.js" and jquery.validate.unobtrusive.min.js and jquery.validate.min.js and jquery.validate.unobtrusive.min.js are loaded to the page. It doesnt let me to answer my self ,so i put it here : I solve it my self,just made an other view wich has its own model and Required on its propertyis and then just copy the renderd html to my own,and i got this and works : <input data-val="true" data-val-required="You must provide an user Name" id="UserName" name="UserName" type="text" value="" placeholder="Enter your User Name"/> <span class="field-validation-valid" data-valmsg-for="UserName" data-valmsg-replace="true"></span> And there is no type="Required".any way thank you guys.

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  • How to check if a node's value in one XML is present in another XML with a specific attribute?

    - by Manish
    The question seems to be little confusing. So let me describe my situation through an example: Suppose I have an XML: A.xml <Cakes> <Cake>Egg</Cake> <Cake>Banana</Cake> </Cakes> Another XML: B.xml <Cakes> <Cake show="true">Egg</Cake> <Cake show="true">Strawberry</Cake> <Cake show="false">Banana</Cake> </Cakes> Now I want to show some text say "TRUE" if all the Cake in A.xml have show="true" in B.xml else "FALSE". In the above case, it will print FALSE. I need to develop an XSL for that. I can loop through all the Cake in A.xml and check if that cake has show="true" in B.xml but I don't know how to break in between (and set a variable) if a show="false" is found. Is it possible? Any help/comments appreciated.

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  • Virtual destructor - How does it work?

    - by Prabhu
    Hello All, Few hours back I was fiddling with a Memory Leak issue and it turned out that I really got some basic stuff about virtual destructor wrong!! Let me put explain my class design. class Base { virtual push_elements()<br>{}<br> }; class Derived:public Base { vector<int> x; public: void push_elements(){ for(int i=0;i <5;i++) x.push_back(i); } }; void main() { Base* b = new Derived(); b->push_elements(); delete b; } The bounds checker tool reported a memory leak in the derived class vector. And I figured out that the destructor is not virtual and the derived class destructor is not called.And it surprisingly got fixed when I made the destructor virtual. But my question is "isn't the vector deallocated automatically even if the derived class destructor is not called"? Is that a quirk in BoundsChecker tool or is my understanding of virtual destructor is wrong:)

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  • Loading default value in a dropdown and calling onchange event

    - by J. Davidson
    Hi i have following dropdown <div class="fcolumn"> <label class="text" for="o_Id">Months:</label> <select class="textMonths" id="o_Id" name="periodName" > <option value="000">Select Period--</option> </select> </div> In the following jquery, first it loads fnLoadP() in a drop down list. Than as a default I am loading one of the values in drop down which is '10'. It loads too as default value. But it should be executing $("#o_Id").change.. which it doesn't. $(document).ready(function () { var sProfileUserId = null; $("#o_Id").change(function () { //---- }); fnLoadP(); $("select[name='pName']").val('10'); }); }); Basically my goal is. After dropdown values are loaded, to load '10' as default value and call onchange event in the dom. Please let me know how to fix it.

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  • Observer Design Pattern - multiple event types

    - by David
    I'm currently implementing the Observer design pattern and using it to handle adding items to the session, create error logs and write messages out to the user giving feedback on their actions (e.g. You've just logged out!). I began with a single method on the subject called addEvent() but as I added more Observers I found that the parameters required to detail all the information I needed for each listener began to grow. I now have 3 methods called addMessage(), addStorage() and addLog(). These add data into an events array that has a key related to the event type (e.g. log, message, storage) but I'm starting to feel that now the subject needs to know too much about the listeners that are attached. My alternative thought is to go back to addEvent() and pass an event type (e.g. USER_LOGOUT) along with the data associated and each Observer maintains it's own list of event handles it is looking for (possibly in a switch statement), but this feels cumbersome. Also, I'd need to check that sufficient data had also been passed along with the event type. What is the correct way of doing this? Please let me know if I can explain any parts of this further. I hope you can help and see the problem I'm battling with.

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  • Java - Call to start method on thread : how does it route to Runnable interface's run () ?

    - by Bhaskar
    Ok , I know the two standard ways to create a new thread and run it in Java : 1 Implement Runnable in a class , define run method ,and pass an instance of the class to a new Thread. When the start method on the thread instance is called , the run method of the class instance will be invoked. 2 Let the class derive from Thread, so it can to override the method run() and then when a new instance's start method is called , the call is routed to overridden method. In both methods , basically a new Thread object is created and its start method invoked. However , while in the second method , the mechanism of the call being routed to the user defined run() method is very clear ,( its a simple runtime polymorphism in play ), I dont understand how the call to start method on the Thread object gets routed to run() method of the class implementing Runnable interface. Does the Thread class have an private field of Type Runnable which it checks first , and if it is set then invokes the run method if it set to an object ? that would be a strange mechanism IMO. How does the call to start() on a thread get routed to the run method of the Runnable interface implemented by the class whose object is passed as a parameter when contructing the thread ?

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  • How to create an array of buttons in C++

    - by mangoman13
    Hi, I'm using C++ in VS2005 and have an 8x8 grid of buttons on a form. I want to have these buttons in an array, so when I click on any of them it will open the same event handler (I think that is what they are called), but I will know the index of which one was clicked on. I know how to do this in VB and C#, but I can't seem to figure it out with C++ Right now I have all my buttons labelled by their location, i.e. b00, b10, b21, etc. So I think what I am looking for is a way to do something like this: Button b[8][8]; //this causes me errors (error C2728: 'System::Windows::Forms::Button' : a native array cannot contain this managed type) and (error C2227: left of '->{ctor}' must point to class/struct/union/generic type) void Assignment(){ b[0][0] = b00; b[1][0] = b10; ... } and then in form1.h: private: System::Void b_Click(System::Object^ sender, System::EventArgs^ e) { //somehow read the coordinates into variables x and y //do something based on these values } Any help would be appreciated. Also let me know if I am going in the complete wrong direction with this. Thanks!

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  • Haskell lazy I/O and closing files

    - by Jesse
    I've written a small Haskell program to print the MD5 checksums of all files in the current directory (searched recursively). Basically a Haskell version of md5deep. All is fine and dandy except if the current directory has a very large number of files, in which case I get an error like: <program>: <currentFile>: openBinaryFile: resource exhausted (Too many open files) It seems Haskell's laziness is causing it not to close files, even after its corresponding line of output has been completed. The relevant code is below. The function of interest is getList. import qualified Data.ByteString.Lazy as BS main :: IO () main = putStr . unlines =<< getList "." getList :: FilePath -> IO [String] getList p = let getFileLine path = liftM (\c -> (hex $ hash $ BS.unpack c) ++ " " ++ path) (BS.readFile path) in mapM getFileLine =<< getRecursiveContents p hex :: [Word8] -> String hex = concatMap (\x -> printf "%0.2x" (toInteger x)) getRecursiveContents :: FilePath -> IO [FilePath] -- ^ Just gets the paths to all the files in the given directory. Are there any ideas on how I could solve this problem? The entire program is available here: http://haskell.pastebin.com/PAZm0Dcb

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  • Execute javascript in PHP

    - by Andreas Bonini
    I'm generating your typical Web 2.0 HTML page with PHP: it contains a lot of <script> tags and javascript code that will substantially change the DOM after the load event. Is there a way to get the final HTML code directly from PHP, without opening the page with any browser? For example, let's say the HTML for the page is (it's just an example): <html> <head> <script>...the jquery library code...</script> <script>$(document).ready(function() { $("body").append("<p>Hi!</p>");</script> </head> <body> </body> </html> This HTML is saved in the $html PHP variable. Now, I want to pass that variable to some function that will return $result = <html>....<body><p>Hi!</p></body></html>. Is this possible?

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  • Why does this work?

    - by jsoldi
    I was googling trying to find a way to call Control.DataBindings.Add without using a string literal but getting the property name from the property itself, which I think would be less error prone, at least for my particular case, since I normally let Visual Studio do the renaming when renaming a property. So my code would look something like DataBindings.Add(GetName(myInstance.myObject)... instead of DataBindings.Add("myObject".... So I found this: static string GetName<T>(T item) where T : class { var properties = typeof(T).GetProperties(); if (properties.Length != 1) throw new Exception("Length must be 1"); return properties[0].Name; } That would be called, assuming I have a property called One, this way: string name = GetName(new { this.One }); which would give me "One". I have no clue why does it work and whether is safe to use it or not. I don't even know what that new { this.One } means. And I don't know on which case could it happens that properties.Length is not 1. By the way, I just tested to rename my property One to Two and Visual Studio turned new { this.One } into new { One = this.Two }, which when used with the GetName function gave me "One", which make the whole thing useless since the name I would be passing to Control.DataBindings.Add would be still "One" after renaming the property.

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  • OptimisticLockException in inner transaction ruins outer transaction

    - by Pace
    I have the following code (OLE = OptimisticLockException)... public void outer() { try { middle() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); outer(); } } @Transactional public void middle() { try { inner() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); middle(); } @Transactional public void inner() { //Do DB operation } inner() is called by other non-transactional methods which is why both middle() and inner() are transactional. As you can see, I deal with OLEs by updating the entities and retrying the operation. The problem I'm having is that when I designed things this way I was assuming that the only time one could get an OLE was when a transaction closed. This is apparently not the case as the call to inner() is throwing an OLE even when the stack is outer()->middle()->inner(). Now, middle() is properly handling the OLE and the retry succeeds but when it comes time to close the transaction it has been marked rollbackOnly by Spring. When the middle() method call finally returns the closing aspect throws an exception because it can't commit a transaction marked rollbackOnly. I'm uncertain what to do here. I can't clear the rollbackOnly state. I don't want to force create a transaction on every call to inner because that kills my performance. Am I missing something or can anyone see a way I can structure this differently? EDIT: To clarify what I'm asking, let me explain my main question. Is it possible to catch and handle OLE if you are inside of an @Transactional method? FYI: The transaction manager is a JpaTransactionManager and the JPA provider is Hibernate.

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  • Can I force the auto-generated Linq-to-SQL classes to use an OUTER JOIN?

    - by Gary McGill
    Let's say I have an Order table which has a FirstSalesPersonId field and a SecondSalesPersonId field. Both of these are foreign keys that reference the SalesPerson table. For any given order, either one or two salespersons may be credited with the order. In other words, FirstSalesPersonId can never be NULL, but SecondSalesPersonId can be NULL. When I drop my Order and SalesPerson tables onto the "Linq to SQL Classes" design surface, the class builder spots the two FK relationships from the Order table to the SalesPerson table, and so the generated Order class has a SalesPerson field and a SalesPerson1 field (which I can rename to SalesPerson1 and SalesPerson2 to avoid confusion). Because I always want to have the salesperson data available whenever I process an order, I am using DataLoadOptions.LoadWith to specify that the two salesperson fields are populated when the order instance is populated, as follows: dataLoadOptions.LoadWith<Order>(o => o.SalesPerson1); dataLoadOptions.LoadWith<Order>(o => o.SalesPerson2); The problem I'm having is that Linq to SQL is using something like the following SQL to load an order: SELECT ... FROM Order O INNER JOIN SalesPerson SP1 ON SP1.salesPersonId = O.firstSalesPersonId INNER JOIN SalesPerson SP2 ON SP2.salesPersonId = O.secondSalesPersonId This would make sense if there were always two salesperson records, but because there is sometimes no second salesperson (secondSalesPersonId is NULL), the INNER JOIN causes the query to return no records in that case. What I effectively want here is to change the second INNER JOIN into a LEFT OUTER JOIN. Is there a way to do that through the UI for the class generator? If not, how else can I achieve this? (Note that because I'm using the generated classes almost exclusively, I'd rather not have something tacked on the side for this one case if I can avoid it).

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  • Entity Framework 5 Enum Naming

    - by Tyrel Van Niekerk
    I am using EF 5 with migrations and code first. It all works rather nicely, but there are some issues/questions I would like to resolve. Let's start with a simple example. Lets say I have a User table and a user type table. The user type table is an enum/lookup table in my app. So the user table has a UserTypeId column and a foreign key ref etc to UserType. In my poco, I have a property called UserType which has the enum type. To add the initial values to the UserType table (or add/change values later) and to create the table in the initial migrator etc. I need a UserType table poco to represent the actual table in the database and to use in the map files. I mapped the UserType property in the User poco to UserTypeId in the UserType poco. So now I have a poco for code first/migrations/context mapping etc and I have an enum. Can't have the same name for both, so do I have a poco called UserType and something else for the enum or have the poco for UserType be UserTypeTable or something? More importantly however, am I missing some key element in how code first works? I tried the example above, ran Add-Migration and it does not add the lookup table for the enum.

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