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  • Moving to an arbitrary position in a file in Python

    - by B Rivera
    Let's say that I routinely have to work with files with an unknown, but large, number of lines. Each line contains a set of integers (space, comma, semicolon, or some non-numeric character is the delimiter) in the closed interval [0, R], where R can be arbitrarily large. The number of integers on each line can be variable. Often times I get the same number of integers on each line, but occasionally I have lines with unequal sets of numbers. Suppose I want to go to Nth line in the file and retrieve the Kth number on that line (and assume that the inputs N and K are valid --- that is, I am not worried about bad inputs). How do I go about doing this efficiently in Python 3.1.2 for Windows? I do not want to traverse the file line by line. I tried using mmap, but while poking around here on SO, I learned that that's probably not the best solution on a 32-bit build because of the 4GB limit. And in truth, I couldn't really figure out how to simply move N lines away from my current position. If I can at least just "jump" to the Nth line then I can use .split() and grab the Kth integer that way. The nuance here is that I don't just need to grab one line from the file. I will need to grab several lines: they are not necessarily all near each other, the order in which I get them matters, and the order is not always based on some deterministic function. Any ideas? I hope this is enough information. Thanks!

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  • Best practice to test a web application, regarding domain name and integration with external service

    - by ycseattle
    I have run into these problems several times and was never able to find a comfortable solution. Let's say my website has the domain name MyDomain.com. When I run the tests on the test machine (a continuous integration server), I will modify the HOSTS file on this machine so the MyDomain.com is mapped to this local machine instead of the real production server. This doesn't work very well for many situations. For example, my application will create subdomain names user1.MyDomain.com dynamically but this is difficult to keep the testing flexible. Another problem is my web application will interact with Amazon S3, and sometimes other service like Amazon Simple Message Queue. I am only comfortable to include these interaction in my tests but I am never happy with my solution for mixing testing and production on Amazon services. Could somebody offer some tips on these issues? I would like to make my testing framework clean and flexible. I am sure this is a common question for all web applications and there must be a mature way to deal with these. Thanks!

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  • routing mvc on the web

    - by generic_noob
    Hi, I was wondering if anyone could possibly provide me some advice on how i could improve the routing (and/or architecture) to each 'section' of my application. (I'm writing in PHP5, and trying to use strict MVC) Basically, I have a generic index page for the app, and that will spew out boilerplate stuff like jquery and the css etc. and it also generates the main navidation for the entire site, but i'm unsure about the best approach to connect the 'main menu' items(hyperlinks) with their associated controllers. Up until now I have been appending strings into the url and using a 'switch' statement to branch to the correct controller(and view) by extracting the strings back out of '$GET[]' to let it execute the code for the corrosponding action. for instance if i had a basic crud system for customer data, the url to edit a customers details would look like 'www.example.com/index.php?page=customer&action=edit&id=4'. I'm worried that there is a security concern by doing it this way, and i'm not sure of an alternative to branch the main 'index.php' file to the correct controller for each action once the user has clicked the link. Would it be better to use mod_rewrite to disguise the controllers names? or to create a similar system to the ASP MVC framework, where there is a seperate routing system where each url is filtered to get the associated controller? Cheers!

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  • How to add second JOIN clause in Linq To Sql?

    - by Refracted Paladin
    I am having a lot of trouble coming up with the Linq equivalent of this legacy stored procedure. The biggest hurdle is it doesn't seem to want to let me add a second 'clause' on the join with tblAddress. I am getting a Cannot resolve method... error. Can anyone point out what I am doing wrong? Below is, first, the SPROC I need to convert and, second, my LINQ attempt so far; which is FULL OF FAIL! Thanks SELECT dbo.tblPersonInsuranceCoverage.PersonInsuranceCoverageID, dbo.tblPersonInsuranceCoverage.EffectiveDate, dbo.tblPersonInsuranceCoverage.ExpirationDate, dbo.tblPersonInsuranceCoverage.Priority, dbo.tblAdminInsuranceCompanyType.TypeName AS CoverageCategory, dbo.tblBusiness.BusinessName, dbo.tblAdminInsuranceType.TypeName AS TypeName, CASE WHEN dbo.tblAddress.AddressLine1 IS NULL THEN '' ELSE dbo.tblAddress.AddressLine1 END + ' ' + CASE WHEN dbo.tblAddress.CityName IS NULL THEN '' ELSE '<BR>' + dbo.tblAddress.CityName END + ' ' + CASE WHEN dbo.tblAddress.StateID IS NULL THEN '' WHEN dbo.tblAddress.StateID = 'ns' THEN '' ELSE dbo.tblAddress.StateID END AS Address FROM dbo.tblPersonInsuranceCoverage LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.tblInsuranceCompany ON dbo.tblPersonInsuranceCoverage.InsuranceCompanyID = dbo.tblInsuranceCompany.InsuranceCompanyID LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.tblBusiness ON dbo.tblBusiness.BusinessID = dbo.tblInsuranceCompany.BusinessID LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.tblAddress ON dbo.tblAddress.BusinessID = dbo.tblBusiness.BusinessID and tblAddress.AddressTypeID = 'b' LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.tblAdminInsuranceCompanyType ON dbo.tblPersonInsuranceCoverage.InsuranceCompanyTypeID = dbo.tblAdminInsuranceCompanyType.InsuranceCompanyTypeID LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.tblAdminInsuranceType ON dbo.tblPersonInsuranceCoverage.InsuranceTypeID = dbo.tblAdminInsuranceType.InsuranceTypeID WHERE tblPersonInsuranceCoverage.PersonID = @PersonID var coverage = from insuranceCoverage in context.tblPersonInsuranceCoverages where insuranceCoverage.PersonID == personID join insuranceCompany in context.tblInsuranceCompanies on insuranceCoverage.InsuranceCompanyID equals insuranceCompany.InsuranceCompanyID join address in context.tblAddresses on insuranceCompany.tblBusiness.BusinessID equals address.BusinessID where address.AddressTypeID = 'b' select new { insuranceCoverage.PersonInsuranceCoverageID, insuranceCoverage.EffectiveDate, insuranceCoverage.ExpirationDate, insuranceCoverage.Priority, CoverageCategory = insuranceCompany.tblAdminInsuranceCompanyType.TypeName, insuranceCompany.tblBusiness.BusinessName, TypeName = insuranceCoverage.InsuranceTypeID, Address = };

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  • jQuery.ajax() + empty JSON object = parse error

    - by roosteronacid
    I get a parse error when using jQuery to load some JSON data. Here's a snippet of my code: jQuery.ajax({ dataType: "json", success: function (json) { jQuery.each(json, function () { alert(this["columnName"]); }); } }); I get no errors when parsing a non-empty JSON object. So my guess is that the problem is with my serializer. Question is: how do I format an empty JSON object which jQuery won't consider malformed? This is what I've tried so far, with no success: {[]} {[null]} {} {null} {"rows": []} {"rows": null} {"rows": {}} UPDATE: I can understand that I've been somewhat vague--let me try and clarify: Parsing of the JSON object is not the issue here--JQuery is - I think. jQuery throws a parse-error (invokes the error function). It seems like jQuery's internal JSON validation is not accepting any of the before mentioned objects. Not even the valid ones. Output of the error function is: XMLHttpRequest: XMLHttpRequest readyState=4 status=200 textStatus: parsererror errorThrown: undefined This goes for all of the before mentioned objects.

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  • Is DB logging more secure than file logging for my PHP web app?

    - by iama
    I would like to log errors/informational and warning messages from within my web application to a log. I was initially thinking of logging all of these onto a text file. However, my PHP web app will need write access to the log files and the folder housing this log file may also need write access if log file rotation is desired which my web app currently does not have. The alternative is for me to log the messages to the MySQL database since my web app is already using the MySQL database for all its data storage needs. However, this got me thinking that going with the MySQL option is much better than the file option since I already have a configuration file with the database access information protected using file system permissions. If I now go with the log file option I need to tinker the file and folder access permissions and this will only make my application less secure and defeats the whole purpose of logging. Is this correct? I am using XAMPP for development and am a newbie to LAMP. Please let me know your recommendations for logging. Thanks.

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  • ASP.NET MVC: Can't figure out what VirtualPath is?

    - by Ryan_Pitts
    I have a View that displays a list of images and i am now trying to get it to display the images as thumbnails. Well, i'm pretty sure i got most of it right using VirtualPath's from a custom ActionResult although i can't seem to figure out what it is making the VirtualPath url?? BTW, i'm using XML to store the data from the images instead of SQL. Here is my code: Code from my custom ActionResult: public class ThumbnailResult : ActionResult { public ThumbnailResult(string virtualPath) { this.VirtualPath = virtualPath; } public string VirtualPath { get; set; } public override void ExecuteResult(ControllerContext context) { context.HttpContext.Response.ContentType = "image/bmp"; string fullFileName = context.HttpContext.Server.MapPath("~/Galleries/WhereConfusionMeetsConcrete/" + VirtualPath); using (System.Drawing.Image photoImg = System.Drawing.Image.FromFile(fullFileName)) { using (System.Drawing.Image thumbPhoto = photoImg.GetThumbnailImage(100, 100, null, new System.IntPtr())) { using (System.IO.MemoryStream ms = new System.IO.MemoryStream()) { thumbPhoto.Save(ms, System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Jpeg); context.HttpContext.Response.BinaryWrite(ms.ToArray()); context.HttpContext.Response.End(); } } } } } Code for my Controller: public ActionResult Thumbnail(string id) { return new ThumbnailResult(id); } Code for my View: <% foreach (var image in ViewData.Model) { %> <a href="../Galleries/TestGallery1/<%= image.Path %>"><img src="../Galleries/TestGallery1/thumbnail/<%= image.Path %>" alt="<%= image.Caption %>" /></a> <br /><br /><%= image.Caption %><br /><br /><br /> <% } %> Any help would be greatly appreciated!! Let me know of any questions you have as well. :) Thanks!

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  • What would be the best way to install (distribute) dynamic libraries in Mac OSX using CMake/Cpack ?

    - by YuppieNetworking
    Hello all, I have a project whose artifacts are two dynamic libraries, let's say libX.dylib and libY.dylib (or .so for linux distributions). There are no executables. Now I would like to distribute these libraries. Since I already use CMake to compile it, I looked at CPack and successfully generated .tgz and .deb packages for Linux. However, for Mac OSX I have no idea and the CPack Wiki about its generators did not help me much. I managed to generate a PackageMaker package, but as clearly stated at this packagemaker howto, there is no uninstall option when using this util. I then read a bit about Bundles, but I feel lost specially since I have no executable. Question: What is the correct way to generate a package for Mac OSX using CPack? My ideal scenario would be either something that installs as easily as a bundle or as a deb file in debian/ubuntu. Thanks for your help Edit One more detail: the code to one of these libraries is not open, so I can't expect the users to do a cmake; make; make install That's why I want a .deb, .tar.gz, bundle or whatsoever.

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  • Android - Looping Activity to Repeat MediaPlayer

    - by Austin Anderson
    I'm trying to create a soundboard for longer audio files and can't figure out how to stop an audio file and start it again without closing the activity. Let's say each audio file is one minute long. If I play the first audio file for 20 seconds and start the next audio file, the first stops playing and the second starts playing. However, if I click the first audio file again, the second stops playing and the first does not. I need help. This is driving me insane. bAudio1 = (ImageButton) findViewById(R.id.bAudio1); bAudio2 = (ImageButton) findViewById(R.id.bAudio2); mpAudio1 = MediaPlayer.create(this, R.raw.audio1); mpAudio2 = MediaPlayer.create(this, R.raw.audio2); bAudio1.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { if(mpAudio1.isPlaying()) { mpAudio1.stop(); } else { if(mpAudio2.isPlaying()) { mpAudio2.stop(); } mpAudio1.start(); } } }); bAudio2.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { if(mpAudio2.isPlaying()) { mpAudio2.stop(); } else { if(mpAudio1.isPlaying()) { mpAudio1.stop(); } mpAudio2.start(); } } }); Thanks.

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  • LINQ thinks I need an extra INNER JOIN, but why?

    - by Saurabh Kumar
    I have a LINQ query, which for some reason is generating an extra/duplicatre INNER JOIN. This is causing the query to not return the expected output. If I manually comment that extra JOIN from the generated SQL, then I get seemingly correct output. Can you detect what I might have done i nthis LINQ to have cuased this extra JOIN? Thanks. Here is my approx LINQ var ids = context.Code.Where(predicate); var rs = from r in ids group r by new { r.phonenumbers.person.PersonID} into g let matchcount=g.Select(p => p.phonenumbers.PhoneNum).Distinct().Count() where matchcount ==2 select new { personid = g.Key }; and here is the generated SQL (the duplicate join is [t7]) Declare @p1 VarChar(10)='Home' Declare @p2 VarChar(10)='111' Declare @p3 VarChar(10)='Office' Declare @p4 VarChar(10)='222' Declare @p5 int=2 SELECT [t9].[PersonID] AS [pid] FROM ( SELECT [t3].[PersonID], ( SELECT COUNT(*) FROM ( SELECT DISTINCT [t7].[PhoneValue] FROM [dbo].[Person] AS [t4] INNER JOIN [dbo].[PersonPhoneNumber] AS [t5] ON [t5].[PersonID] = [t4].[PersonID] INNER JOIN [dbo].[CodeMaster] AS [t6] ON [t6].[Code] = [t5].[PhoneType] INNER JOIN [dbo].[PersonPhoneNumber] AS [t7] ON [t7].[PersonID] = [t4].[PersonID] WHERE ([t3].[PersonID] = [t4].[PersonID]) AND ([t6].[Enumeration] = @p0) AND ((([t6].[CodeDescription] = @p1) AND ([t5].[PhoneValue] = @p2)) OR (([t6].[CodeDescription] = @p3) AND ([t5].[PhoneValue] = @p4))) ) AS [t8] ) AS [value] FROM ( SELECT [t0].[PersonID] FROM [dbo].[Person] AS [t0] INNER JOIN [dbo].[PersonPhoneNumber] AS [t1] ON [t1].[PersonID] = [t0].[PersonID] INNER JOIN [dbo].[CodeMaster] AS [t2] ON [t2].[Code] = [t1].[PhoneType] WHERE ([t2].[Enumeration] = @p0) AND ((([t2].[CodeDescription] = @p1) AND ([t1].[PhoneValue] = @p2)) OR (([t2].[CodeDescription] = @p3) AND ([t1].[PhoneValue] = @p4))) GROUP BY [t0].[PersonID] ) AS [t3] ) AS [t9] WHERE [t9].[value] = @p5

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  • scanf a byte then print it out?

    - by Sarah
    I've searched around to see if I can find this answer but I can't seem to (please let me know if I'm wrong). I am trying to use scanf to read in a byte, an unsigned int and a char in one .c file and I am trying to access this byte in a different .c file and print it out. (I have already checked to make sure I have included all the appropriate parameters everywhere) But I keep getting errors. The warnings are: database.c: In function ‘addCitizen’: database.c:23:2: warning: format ‘%hhu’ expects argument of type ‘int’, but argument 2 has type ‘byte *’ [-Wformat] database.c:24:2: warning: format ‘%u’ expects argument of type ‘unsigned int’, but argument 2 has type ‘int *’ [-Wformat] database.c:25:2: warning: format ‘%c’ expects argument of type ‘int’, but argument 2 has type ‘char *’ [-Wformat] where I'm scanf'ing: // Request loop while (count-- != 0) { while (1){ // Get values from the user int error = scanf ("%79s %hhu %u %c", tname, &tdist, &tyear, &tgender); addCitizen(db, tname, &tdist, &tyear, &tgender); where I'm printing: void addCitizen(Database *db, char *tname, byte *tdist, int *tyear, char *tgender){ //needs to find the right place in memory to put this stuff and then put it there printf("\nName is: %79s\n", tname); printf("District is: %hhu\n", tdist); printf("Year of birth is: %u\n", tyear); printf("Gender is:%c\n", tgender); I'm not sure where I'm going wrong?

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  • MySQL SELECT combining 3 SELECTs INTO 1

    - by Martin Tóth
    Consider following tables in MySQL database: entries: creator_id INT entry TEXT is_expired BOOL other: creator_id INT entry TEXT userdata: creator_id INT name VARCHAR etc... In entries and other, there can be multiple entries by 1 creator. userdata table is read only for me (placed in other database). I'd like to achieve a following SELECT result: +------------+---------+---------+-------+ | creator_id | entries | expired | other | +------------+---------+---------+-------+ | 10951 | 59 | 55 | 39 | | 70887 | 41 | 34 | 108 | | 88309 | 38 | 20 | 102 | | 94732 | 0 | 0 | 86 | ... where entries is equal to SELECT COUNT(entry) FROM entries GROUP BY creator_id, expired is equal to SELECT COUNT(entry) FROM entries WHERE is_expired = 0 GROUP BY creator_id and other is equal to SELECT COUNT(entry) FROM other GROUP BY creator_id. I need this structure because after doing this SELECT, I need to look for user data in the "userdata" table, which I planned to do with INNER JOIN and select desired columns. I solved this problem with selecting "NULL" into column which does not apply for given SELECT: SELECT creator_id, COUNT(any_entry) as entries, COUNT(expired_entry) as expired, COUNT(other_entry) as other FROM ( SELECT creator_id, entry AS any_entry, NULL AS expired_entry, NULL AS other_enry FROM entries UNION SELECT creator_id, NULL AS any_entry, entry AS expired_entry, NULL AS other_enry FROM entries WHERE is_expired = 1 UNION SELECT creator_id, NULL AS any_entry, NULL AS expired_entry, entry AS other_enry FROM other ) AS tTemp GROUP BY creator_id ORDER BY entries DESC, expired DESC, other DESC ; I've left out the INNER JOIN and selecting other columns from userdata table on purpose (my question being about combining 3 SELECTs into 1). Is my idea valid? = Am I trying to use the right "construction" for this? Are these kind of SELECTs possible without creating an "empty" column? (some kind of JOIN) Should I do it "outside the DB": make 3 SELECTs, make some order in it (let's say python lists/dicts) and then do the additional SELECTs for userdata? Solution for a similar question does not return rows where entries and expired are 0. Thank you for your time.

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  • Why does this work?

    - by jsoldi
    I was googling trying to find a way to call Control.DataBindings.Add without using a string literal but getting the property name from the property itself, which I think would be less error prone, at least for my particular case, since I normally let Visual Studio do the renaming when renaming a property. So my code would look something like DataBindings.Add(GetName(myInstance.myObject)... instead of DataBindings.Add("myObject".... So I found this: static string GetName<T>(T item) where T : class { var properties = typeof(T).GetProperties(); if (properties.Length != 1) throw new Exception("Length must be 1"); return properties[0].Name; } That would be called, assuming I have a property called One, this way: string name = GetName(new { this.One }); which would give me "One". I have no clue why does it work and whether is safe to use it or not. I don't even know what that new { this.One } means. And I don't know on which case could it happens that properties.Length is not 1. By the way, I just tested to rename my property One to Two and Visual Studio turned new { this.One } into new { One = this.Two }, which when used with the GetName function gave me "One", which make the whole thing useless since the name I would be passing to Control.DataBindings.Add would be still "One" after renaming the property.

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  • Can this be done in 1 line?

    - by Angelo
    Can this be done in 1 line with PHP? Would be awesome if it could: $out = array("foo","bar"); echo $out[0]; Something such as: echo array("foo","bar")[0]; Unfortunately that's not possible. Would it be possible like this? So I can do this for example in 1 line: echo array(rand(1,100), rand(1000,2000))[rand(0,1)]; So let's say I have this code: switch($r){ case 1: $ext = "com"; break; case 2: $ext = "nl"; break; case 3: $ext = "co.uk"; break; case 4: $ext = "de"; break; case 5: $ext = "fr"; break; } That would be much more simplified to do it like this: $ext = array("com","nl","co.uk","de","fr")[rand(1,5)];

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  • How to enter text into the "Write something..." box on Facebook and click Submit

    - by Peter Payne
    Hello, I am trying to manipulate Facebook pages in various ways, using Javascript browser elements. I'd need to be able to insert some text into the top "Type something..." box that shows on my site's fan page (or alternately, "click into" the field and I can type the text using GUI scripting), then click the "submit" button as if i'd done it by hand. It's tricky since the page is very Ajax heavy and I can't find the names of the elements I need to manipulate, let alone how to manipulate them as they're not using traditional form fields I'm used to. Can anyone help me figure out how to do this with javascript commands, which I'd be calling from Applescript on the Mac? Many thanks in advance. UPDATE Thanks for the comments below. Believe me, I am not trying to do anything spammy or douchy, mainly posting links to products that have gone live on page facebook page, but do it during the business day when people are on rather than at strange hours of the day. I am located in Japan so my sleep period is right when people are using FB. The solution I came up with for clicking the button was got using UI Browser, an outstanding tool if you're trying to script on the Mac. The script that clicked the button for me was: tell application "Safari" activate set thename to name of (get current tab of window 1) delay 3 tell application "System Events" tell process "Safari" try click button "Share" of group 1 of group 2 of list 3 of group 9 of UI element 1 of scroll area 1 of group 3 of window thename -- this one works on the mini? on error click button "Share" of group 1 of group 2 of list 3 of group 9 of UI element 1 of scroll area 1 of group 2 of window thename -- did not work end try end tell end tell end tell Hope this is useful to anyone.

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  • Deal with undefined values in code or in the template?

    - by David
    I'm writing a web application (in Python, not that it matters). One of the features is that people can leave comments on things. I have a class for comments, basically like so: class Comment: user = ... # other stuff where user is an instance of another class, class User: name = ... # other stuff And of course in my template, I have <div>${comment.user.name}</div> Problem: Let's say I allow people to post comments anonymously. In that case comment.user is None (undefined), and of course accessing comment.user.name is going to raise an error. What's the best way to deal with that? I see three possibilities: Use a conditional in the template to test for that case and display something different. This is the most versatile solution, since I can change the way anonymous comments are displayed to, say, "Posted anonymously" (instead of "Posted by ..."), but I've often been told that templates should be mindless display machines and not include logic like that. Also, other people might wind up writing alternate templates for the same application, and I feel like I should be making things as easy as possible for the template writer. Implement an accessor method for the user property of a Comment that returns a dummy user object when the real user is undefined. This dummy object would have user.name = 'Anonymous' or something like that and so the template could access it and print its name with no error. Put an actual record in my database corresponding to a user with user.name = Anonymous (or something like that), and just assign that user to any comment posted when nobody's logged in. I know I've seen some real-world systems that operate this way. (phpBB?) Is there a prevailing wisdom among people who write these sorts of systems about which of these (or some other solution) is the best? Any pitfalls I should watch out for if I go one way vs. another? Whoever gives the best explanation gets the checkmark.

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  • Auto increment with a Unit Of Work

    - by Derick
    Context I'm building a persistence layer to abstract different types of databases that I'll be needing. On the relational part I have mySQL, Oracle and PostgreSQL. Let's take the following simplified MySQL tables: CREATE TABLE Contact ( ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(30) ); CREATE TABLE Address ( ID varchar(15), CONTACT_ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(50) ); I use code to generate system specific alpha numeric unique ID's fitting 15 chars in this case. Thus, if I insert a Contact record with it's Addresses I have my generated Contact.ID and Address.CONTACT_IDs before committing. I've created a Unit of Work (amongst others) as per Martin Fowler's patterns to add transaction support. I'm using a key based Identity Map in the UoW to track the changed records in memory. It works like a charm for the scenario above, all pretty standard stuff so far. The question scenario comes in when I have a database that is not under my control and the ID fields are auto-increment (or in Oracle sequences). In this case I do not have the db generated Contact.ID beforehand, so when I create my Address I do not have a value for Address.CONTACT_ID. The transaction has not been started on the DB session since all is kept in the Identity Map in memory. Question: What is a good approach to address this? (Avoiding unnecessary db round trips) Some ideas: Retrieve the last ID: I can do a call to the database to retrieve the last Id like: SELECT Auto_increment FROM information_schema.tables WHERE table_name='Contact'; But this is MySQL specific and probably something similar can be done for the other databases. If do this then would need to do the 1st insert, get the ID and then update the children (Address.CONTACT_IDs) – all in the current transaction context.

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  • What's the idiomatic way of inheriting data access functionality as well as object properties?

    - by Knut Arne Vedaa
    Suppose the following (slightly pseudo-code for brevity): class Basic { String foo; } class SomeExtension extends Basic { String bar; } class OtherExtension extends Basic { String baz; } class BasicService { Basic getBasic() { } } class SomeExtensionService extends BasicService { SomeExtension getSomeExtension() { } } class OtherExtensionService extends BasicService { OtherExtension getOtherExtension() { } } What would be the most idiomatic, elegant way to implement the get-() service methods with the most possible code reuse? Obviously you could do it like this: class BasicService { Basic getBasic() { Basic basic = new Basic(); basic.setFoo("some kind of foo"); return basic; } } class SomeExtensionService { SomeExtension getSomeExtension() { SomeExtension someExtension = new SomeExtension; Basic basic = getBasic(); someExtension.setFoo(basic.getFoo()); someExtension.setBar("some kind of bar"); return someExtension; } } But this would be ugly if Basic has a lot of properties, and also you only need one object, as SomeExtension already inherits Basic. However, BasicService can obviously not return a SomeExtension object. You could also have the get methods not create the object themselves, but create it at the outermost level and pass it to the method for filling in the properties, but I find that too imperative. (Please let me know if the question is confusingly formulated.)

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  • How to handle duplicate values in d3.js

    - by Mario
    First I'm a d3.js noob :) How you can see from the title I've got a problem with duplicated data and aggregate the values is no option, because the name represent different bus stops. In this example maybe the stops are on the fron side and the back side of a building. And of course I like to show the names on the x-axis. If i created an example and the result is a bloody mess, see jsFiddel. x = index name = bus stop name n = value I've got a json e.g.: [{ "x": 0, "name": "Corniche St / Abu Dhabi Police GHQ", "n": 113 }, { "x": 1, "name": "Corniche St / Nation Towers", "n": 116 }, { "x": 2, "name": "Zayed 1st St / Al Khalidiya Public Garden", "n": 146 }, ... { "x": 49, "name": "Hamdan St / Tariq Bin Zeyad Mosque", "n": 55 }] The problem: It is possible that the name could appear more then once e.g. { "x": 1, "name": "Corniche St / Nation Towers", "n": 116 } and { "x": 4, "name": "Corniche St / Nation Towers", "n": 105 } I like to know is there a way to tell d3.js not to use distinct names and instead just show all names in sequence with their values. Any ideas or suggestions are very welcome :) If you need more information let me know. Thanks in advanced Mario

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  • question about jQuery droppable/draggable.

    - by FALCONSEYE
    I modified a sample photo manager application. photo manager application Instead of photos, I have employee records coming from a query. My version will let managers mark employees as on vacation, or at work. One of the things I did is to include employee ids like <a href="123">. I get the ids from event.target. This works for the click function but not for the "droppable" function. This is what I have for the click function: $('ul.gallery > li').click(function(ev) { var $item = $(this); var $unid = ev.target; var $target = $(ev.target); if ($target.is('a.ui-icon-suitcase')) { deleteImage($item,$unid); } else if ($target.is('a.ui-icon-arrowreturnthick-1-w')) { recycleImage($item,$unid); } return false; }); ev.target correctly gives the employee id. when i try the same in one of the droppable functions: $gallery.droppable({ accept: '#suitcase li', activeClass: 'custom-state-active', drop: function(ev, ui) { var $unid = ev.target; alert($unid); recycleImage(ui.draggable,$unid); } }); the alert(ui) gives me [object]. What's in this object? How do i get the href out of this? thanks

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  • When to drop an IT job

    - by Nippysaurus
    In my career I have had two programming jobs. Both these jobs were in a field that I am most familiar with (C# / MSSQL) but I have quit both jobs for the same reason: unmanageable code and bad (loose) company structure. There was something in common with both these jobs: small companies (in one I was the only developer). Currently I am in the following position: being given written instructions which are almost impossible to follow (somewhat of a fools errand). we are given short time constraints, but seldom asked how long work will take, and when we do it is always too long and needs to be shorter (and when it ends up taking longer than they need it to take, it's always our fault). there is no time for proper documenting, but we get blamed for not documenting (see previous point). Management is constantly screwing me around, saying I'm underperforming on a given task (which is not true, and switching me to a task which is much more confusing). So I must ask my fellow developers: how bad does a job need to be before you would consider jumping ship? And what to look out for when considering taking a job. In future I will be asking about documented procedures, release control, bug management and adoption of new technologies. EDIT: Let me add some more fuel to the fire ... I have been in my current job for just over a year, and the work I am doing almost never uses any of the knowledge I have gained from the other work I have been doing here. Everything is a giant learning curve. Because of this about 30% of my time is learning what is going on with this new product (who's owner / original developer has left the company), 30% trying to find the relevant documentation that helps the whole thing make sense, 30% actually finding where to make the change, 10% actually making the change.

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  • Logging to a file on Android

    - by Greg B
    Is there any way of retrieving log messages from an Android handset. I'm building an application which uses the GPS of my HTC Hero. I can run and debug the application from eclipse but this isn't a good use case of GPS, sat at my desk. When I fire the app up when I am walking around, I get an intermittent exception. Is there anyway I can output these exceptions to a text file on the SD card or output calls to Log.x("") to a text file so that I can see what the exception is. Thanks EDIT : Solution Here is the code I finally went with... Thread.currentThread().setUncaughtExceptionHandler(new Thread.UncaughtExceptionHandler() { @Override public void uncaughtException(Thread thread, Throwable ex) { PrintWriter pw; try { pw = new PrintWriter( new FileWriter(Environment.getExternalStorageDirectory()+"/rt.log", true)); ex.printStackTrace(pw); pw.flush(); pw.close(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } }); I had to wrap the line pw = new PrintWriter(new FileWriter(Environment.getExternalStorageDirectory()+"/rt.log", true)); in a try/catch as Eclipse would not let me compile the app. It kept saying Unhandled exception type IOException 1 quick fix Sorround with try/catch So I did and it all works which is fine by me but it does make me wonder what Eclipse was on about...

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  • C#, Can I check on a lock without trying to acquire it?

    - by Biff MaGriff
    Hello, I have a lock in my c# web app that prevents users from running the update script once it has started. I was thinking I would put a notification in my master page to let the user know that the data isn't all there yet. Currently I do my locking like so. protected void butRefreshData_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Thread t = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(UpdateDatabase)); t.Start(this); //sleep for a bit to ensure that javascript has a chance to get rendered Thread.Sleep(100); } public static void UpdateDatabase(object con) { if (Monitor.TryEnter(myLock)) { Updater.RepopulateDatabase(); Monitor.Exit(myLock); } else { Common.RegisterStartupScript(con, AlreadyLockedJavaScript); } } And I do not want to do if(Monitor.TryEnter(myLock)) Monitor.Exit(myLock); else //show processing labal As I imagine there is a slight possibility that it might display the notification when it isn't actually running. Is there an alternative I can use? Edit: Hi Everyone, thanks a lot for your suggestions! Unfortunately I couldn't quite get them to work... However I combined the ideas on 2 answers and came up with my own solution.

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  • Handling user interface in a multi-threaded application (or being forced to have a UI-only main thre

    - by Patrick
    In my application, I have a 'logging' window, which shows all the logging, warnings, errors of the application. Last year my application was still single-threaded so this worked [quite] good. Now I am introducing multithreading. I quickly noticed that it's not a good idea to update the logging window from different threads. Reading some articles on keeping the UI in the main thread, I made a communication buffer, in which the other threads are adding their logging messages, and from which the main thread takes the messages and shows them in the logging window (this is done in the message loop). Now, in a part of my application, the memory usage increases dramatically, because the separate threads are generating lots of logging messages, and the main thread cannot empty the communication buffer quickly enough. After the while the memory decreases again (if the other threads have finished their work and the main thread gradually empties the communication buffer). I solved this problem by having a maximum size on the communication buffer, but then I run into a problem in the following situation: the main thread has to perform a complex action the main thread takes some parts of the action and let's separate threads execute this while the seperate threads are executing their logic, the main thread processes the results from the other threads and continues with its work if the other threads are finished Problem is that in this situation, if the other threads perform logging, there is no UI-message loop, and so the communication buffer is filled, but not emptied. I see two solutions in solving this problem: require the main thread to do regular polling of the communication buffer only performing user interface logic in the main thread (no other logic) I think the second solution seems the best, but this may not that easy to introduce in a big application (in my case it performs mathematical simulations). Are there any other solutions or tips? Or is one of the two proposed the best, easiest, most-pragmatic solution? Thanks, Patrick

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  • Reading JSON with Javascript/jQuery

    - by Josephine
    I'm building a game in javascript/html5 and I'm trying to build a database of locked doors in a maze that can be loaded from and overwritten to throughout gameplay. I've found a large number of tutorials online, but nothing is working. I was wondering if someone could look at what I'm trying and let me know what I'm doing wrong. My JSON file looks like this: { "doors": [ {"left":true, "right":false, "bottom":false}, {"left":false, "right":false, "bottom":false}, {"right":false, "bottom":false, "top":false}, {"left":false, "right":false, "top":false} ] } I want to build the HTML page so that when a player collides with a door it checks if its locked or not like: if (player.x < leftDoor.x + leftDoor.width && player.x + player.width > leftDoor.x && player.y < leftDoor.y + leftDoor.height && player.y + player.height > leftDoor.y) { if(doors[0].left == true) alert("door is locked"); else window.location = ( "2.html?p1="); } However I'm having trouble reading from the JSON file itself. I've tried things like: function loadJson() { $(document).ready(function() { $.getJSON('info.json', function(doors) { alert(doors[0].left); }); }); } But nothing happens, and I need to be able to access the information in the HTML as well. I'd rather use jQuery, but I'm not opposed to straight JS if it works. I've been trying to do this for ages and I'm getting absolutely no where. If someone could help that would be amazing. Thanks!

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