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  • Save Xml in an Excel cell value causes ComException

    - by mas_oz2k1
    I am trying to save an object (Class1) as string in a cell value. My issue is that from time to time I have a ComException: HRESULT: 0x8007000E (E_OUTOFMEMORY) (It is kind of random but I have not identified any particular pattern yet) when I write the value into a cell. Any ideas will be welcome For illustration purposes: Let Class1 be the class to be converted to an Xml string. (Notice that I removed the xml declaration at the start of the string to avoid having the preamble present- non printable character) <Class1 xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" <ElementID HL690375</ElementID </Class1" Class1 myClass = new Class1(); this class is converted to a string s. s= ConvertObjectToXmlString(myClass); then s is assigned to a cell Range r = Application.ActiveCell; r.Value2 = s; Note: (1) If the string is too big, I limit it to 32000 chars and split the string in chunks of 32000 chars and save the chunks in multiple cells. (2) I do not to quote the string before adding to a cell. Do I need to? If so how it can be done? (3) All object contents are English. (4) C# code sample will be great but VB.net code is OK.

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  • User defined literal arguments are not constexpr?

    - by Pubby
    I'm testing out user defined literals. I want to make _fac return the factorial of the number. Having it call a constexpr function works, however it doesn't let me do it with templates as the compiler complains that the arguments are not and cannot be constexpr. I'm confused by this - aren't literals constant expressions? The 5 in 5_fac is always a literal that can be evaluated during compile time, so why can't I use it as such? First method: constexpr int factorial_function(int x) { return (x > 0) ? x * factorial_function(x - 1) : 1; } constexpr int operator "" _fac(unsigned long long x) { return factorial_function(x); // this works } Second method: template <int N> struct factorial { static const unsigned int value = N * factorial<N - 1>::value; }; template <> struct factorial<0> { static const unsigned int value = 1; }; constexpr int operator "" _fac(unsigned long long x) { return factorial_template<x>::value; // doesn't work - x is not a constexpr }

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  • Subclassing ViewPager Breaks Animation

    - by Ryan Thomas
    In my Android application I have an activity which uses a view pager to display 4+ pages (Fragments). I implemented buttons on each screen that move between pages by calling: pager.setCurrentItem(position, true); The view pager and fragments are all working as I desired. I then began looking for a solution to disable user swiping between pages so that the transition between pages in handled by the buttons only. The solution I found was mentioned in a few stackoverflow articles as well as This Blog that suggest subclassing the view pager to intercept touch events to disable swiping. I followed those examples by subclassing the view pager class as follows: public class ViewPager extends android.support.v4.view.ViewPager { private boolean enabled; public ViewPager(Context context, AttributeSet attrs) { super(context, attrs); this.enabled = true; } @Override public boolean onTouchEvent(MotionEvent event) { if (this.enabled) { return super.onTouchEvent(event); } return false; } @Override public boolean onInterceptTouchEvent(MotionEvent event) { if (this.enabled) { return super.onInterceptTouchEvent(event); } return false; } public void setSwipingEnabled(boolean enabled) { this.enabled = enabled; } } Using the subclassed view pager and calling setSwipingEnabled(false) works as was desired. The user can no longer move between pages with swipe gestures and I can still move between pages via button clicks by calling setCurrentItem(int position, boolean smoothScroll). However using the subclass breaks the animation between pages. When I call setCurrentItem(position, true) with android.support.v4.view.ViewPager I get very clean scrolling animations between pages. When I make the same call using the subclass the screen has a very brief 'flash' and then automatically draws the new page. I would like to know how to fix the animation while retaining the ability to disable user swiping between pages. I greatly appreciate any help with this. Let me know if you need any additional information. So far I have tested using a Samsung device running 2.3.5 and an AVD emulator targeting Android 2.3.3.

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  • How to get components from a JFrame with a GridLayout?

    - by NlightNfotis
    I have a question about Java and JFrame in particular. Let's say I have a JFrame that I am using with a GridLayout. Supposing that I have added JButtons in the JFrame, how can I gain access to the one I want using it's position (by position, I mean a x and a y, used to define the exact place on the Grid). I have tried several methods, for instance getComponentAt(int x, int y), and have seen that those methods do not work as intended when combined with GridLayout, or at least don't work as intended in my case. So I tried using getComponent(), which seems fine. The latest method, that seems to be on a right track for me is (assuming I have a JFrame with a GridLayout with 7 rows and 7 columns, x as columns, y as rows): public JButton getButtonByXAndY(int x, int y) { return (JButton) this.getContentPane().getComponent((y-1) * 7 + x); } Using the above, say I want to get the JButton at (4, 4), meaning the 25th JButton in the JFrame, I would index through the first 21 buttons at first, and then add 4 more, finally accessing the JButton I want. Problem is this works like that in theory only. Any ideas? P.S sorry for linking to an external website, but stack overflow won't allow me to upload the image, because I do not have the required reputation.

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  • Why does this work?

    - by jsoldi
    I was googling trying to find a way to call Control.DataBindings.Add without using a string literal but getting the property name from the property itself, which I think would be less error prone, at least for my particular case, since I normally let Visual Studio do the renaming when renaming a property. So my code would look something like DataBindings.Add(GetName(myInstance.myObject)... instead of DataBindings.Add("myObject".... So I found this: static string GetName<T>(T item) where T : class { var properties = typeof(T).GetProperties(); if (properties.Length != 1) throw new Exception("Length must be 1"); return properties[0].Name; } That would be called, assuming I have a property called One, this way: string name = GetName(new { this.One }); which would give me "One". I have no clue why does it work and whether is safe to use it or not. I don't even know what that new { this.One } means. And I don't know on which case could it happens that properties.Length is not 1. By the way, I just tested to rename my property One to Two and Visual Studio turned new { this.One } into new { One = this.Two }, which when used with the GetName function gave me "One", which make the whole thing useless since the name I would be passing to Control.DataBindings.Add would be still "One" after renaming the property.

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  • Datareceived Serialport event stops raising after some seconds

    - by Mario
    Hi, I was hoping someone could help me out with this problem. I have a system (VB .NET) where I must read a person's weight (RS232 Sluice) and id (Fingerprint - 2 biometric reader, rs232) and compare it to a database. I have 3 serialports in my app, one for the sluice and the other 2 are to receive the id from the fingerprint readers, both of which call the same sub to get the id from the reader. I've been testing just one reader and it seemed to work fine, I got data from the datareceived and joined it together to get the id. The problem comes at this moment: I put a finger, sends the id, if it's ok sends a message, otherwise, writes the id to a textbox. But in-between reads, if I let 5 or 10 seconds pass without putting a finger on the reader it seems like I get no data at all anymore, the datareceived event nevers gets raised but if I keep putting a finger constantly it works pretty good, this is really weird to me. I was thinking of some things: **Maybe the port gets closed somehow after some time? I never call the CLose() method **The fact both datareceived eventhandlers call the same method and delegate **Maybe the connection settings are missing something? I tested with hyperterminal and the port keeps getting info even after time without activity and I use the same config with my application, maybe I need to change more settings like DTEenable and RTSenable? Please I need some help with this issue, it's to control access so it needs to be running 24/7 thanks in advance!

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  • C++ socket concurrent server

    - by gregpi
    Hi all; Im writing a concurrent server that's supposed to have a communication channel and a data channel. The client initially connect to the communication channel to authenticate, upon successful authentication, the client is then connected to the data channel to access data. My program is already doing that, and im using threads.My only issue is that if I try to connect another client, I get a "cannot bind : address already in use" error. I have it this way: PART A Client connect to port 4567 (and enter his login info). A thread spawn to handle the client(repeated for each client that connects). In the thread created, I have a function(let's call it FUNC_A) that checks the client's login info(dont worry about how the check is done), if successful, the thread starts the data server(listening on 8976) then sends an OK to the client, once received the client attempts to connect to the data server. PART B Once a client connect to the data server, from inside FUNC_A the client is accepted and another thread is spawn to handle the client's connection to the data server.(hopefully everything is clear). Now, all that is working fine. However, if I try to connect with second client when it gets to PART B I get a "cannot bind error: address already in use". I've tried so many different ways, I've even tried spawning a thread to start the data server and accept the client and then start another thread to handle that connection. still no luck. Please give me a suggestion as to what I'm doing wrong, how do I go about doing this or what's the best way to implement it. Thank you

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  • Spring Security ACL: NotFoundException from JDBCMutableAclService.createAcl

    - by user340202
    Hello, I've been working on this task for too long to abandon the idea of using Spring Security to achieve it, but I wish that the community will provide with some support that will help reduce the regret that I have for choosing Spring Security. Enough ranting and now let's get to the point. I'm trying to create an ACL by using JDBCMutableAclService.createAcl as follows: [code] public void addPermission(IWFArtifact securedObject, Sid recipient, Permission permission, Class clazz) { ObjectIdentity oid = new ObjectIdentityImpl(clazz.getCanonicalName(), securedObject.getId()); this.addPermission(oid, recipient, permission); } @Override @Transactional(propagation = Propagation.REQUIRED, isolation = Isolation.READ_UNCOMMITTED, readOnly = false) public void addPermission(ObjectIdentity oid, Sid recipient, Permission permission) { SpringSecurityUtils.assureThreadLocalAuthSet(); MutableAcl acl; try { acl = this.mutableAclService.createAcl(oid); } catch (AlreadyExistsException e) { acl = (MutableAcl) this.mutableAclService.readAclById(oid); } // try { // acl = (MutableAcl) this.mutableAclService.readAclById(oid); // } catch (NotFoundException nfe) { // acl = this.mutableAclService.createAcl(oid); // } acl.insertAce(acl.getEntries().length, permission, recipient, true); this.mutableAclService.updateAcl(acl); } [/code] The call throws a NotFoundException from the line: [code] // Retrieve the ACL via superclass (ensures cache registration, proper retrieval etc) Acl acl = readAclById(objectIdentity); [/code] I believe this is caused by something related to Transactional, and that's why I have tested with many TransactionDefinition attributes. I have also doubted the annotation and tried with declarative transaction definition, but still with no luck. One important point is that I have used the statement used to insert the oid in the database earlier in the method directly on the database and it worked, and also threw a unique constraint exception at me when it tried to insert it in the method. I'm using Spring Security 2.0.8 and IceFaces 1.8 (which doesn't support spring 3.0 but definetely supprorts 2.0.x, specially when I keep caling SpringSecurityUtils.assureThreadLocalAuthSet()). My AppServer is Tomcat 6.0, and my DB Server is MySQL 6.0 I wish to get back a reply soon because I need to get this task off my way

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  • How to visually reject user input in a table?

    - by FX
    In the programming of a table-based application module (i.e. the user mostly enters tabular data in an already laid-out table), how would you reject user input for a given cell? The scenario is: the user edits the cell, enters something (text, picture, ...) and you want them to notice when they finish editing (hitting enter, for example) that their entry is not valid for your given "format" (in the wider meaning: it can be that they entered a string instead of a number, that their entry is too long, too short, they include a picture while it's not acceptable, ...). I can see two different things happening: You can rather easily fit their entry into your format, and you do so, but you want them to notice it so they can change if your guess is not good enough (example: they entered "15.47" in a field that needs to be an integer, so your program makes it "15") You cannot guess what to do with their entry, and want to inform them that it's not valid. My question specifically is: what visual display can you offer to inform the user that his input is invalid? Is it preferable to refuse to leave the editing mode, or not? The two things I can imagine are: using colors (red background if invalid, yellow background for my case 1 above) when you reject an input, do something like Apple does for password entry of user accounts: you make the cell "shaking" (i.e. oscillating left and right) for one second, and keep the focus/editing in their so they don't loose what they've typed. Let's hear your suggestions. PS: This question is, at least in my thought process, somehow a continuation and a specialization of my previous question on getting users to read error messages. PPS: Made this community wiki, was that the right thing to do on this kind of question or not?

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  • How can I send rich emails using the user's mail client ?

    - by Brann
    I need my .net program to send rich emails (usually containing table data, around 20 columns x 10 rows) using the user's mail infrastructure, allowing him to review/edit the mail before sending it, and storing the mail in his 'sent items' folder. mailto: seems the obvious choice, but unfortunately, it doesn't support neither attachments nor html bodies. It seems some clients support some extra features (e.g. Outlook 97 used to support a &Attach tag, but this is not the case for more recent versions). I could use mailto and try to format the text body to look nice (using tabs, etc), but this isn't really elegant and wouldn't support huge data. using automation seems a very huge task, as I would need to automate dozens of clients (4 or 5 versions of outlook, lotusnotes, thunderbid, etc.) ... This would be a huge task and it's not really my core business ... I could send emails through code and write my own mail form to let the user edit the mail, but this would have a lot of drawbacks : the user would need to manually configure the mail server settings he wouldn't have access to his contact directory the mail wouldn't be sent in his sent items folder This seems a quite common issue, but I haven't found any satisfying solution yet ; does someone knows of a library supporting this (ie containing automation logic for most mainstream email clients?). Or an alternative to mailto ?

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  • Technique for selectively formatting data in a PowerShell pipeline and output as HTML

    - by halr9000
    Say that you want to do some fancy formatting of some tabular output from powershell, and the destination is to be html (either for a webserver, or to be sent in an email). Let's say for example that you want certain numeric values to have a different background color. Whatever. I can think of two solid programmatic ways to accomplish this: output XML and transform with XSLT, or output HTML and decorate with CSS. XSLT is probably the harder of the two (I say that because I don't know it), but from what little I recall, it has the benefit of bring able to embed the selection criteria (xpath?) for aforementioned fancy formatting. CSS on the other hand needs a helping hand. If you wanted a certain cell to be treated specially, then you would need to distinguish it from its siblings with a class, id, or something along those lines. PowerShell doesn't really have a way to do that natively, so that would mean parsing the HTML as it leaves convertto-html and adding, for example, a "emphasis" class: <td class="emphasis">32MB</td> I don't like the idea of the required text parsing, especially given that I would rather be able to somehow emphasize what needs emphasizing in Powershell before it hits HTML. Is XSLT the best way? Have suggestions for how to markup the HTML after it leaves convertto-html or ideas of a different way?

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  • error while reading Excel sheet

    - by Lalit
    Hi, I have code to read Excel from c3 language : DataTable dtChildrenData = new DataTable(); OdbcConnection oConn = null; try { if (File.Exists(strSheetPath)) { oConn = new OdbcConnection(); oConn.ConnectionString = @"DSN=Excel Files;DBQ=" + strSheetPath + @";DriverId=1046;FIL=excel 12.0;MaxBufferSize=2048;PageTimeout=5;"; OdbcCommand oComm = new OdbcCommand(); oComm.Connection = oConn; oComm.CommandText = "Select * From [Sheet1$]"; DataSet ds = new DataSet(); OdbcDataAdapter oAdapter = new OdbcDataAdapter(oComm); oConn.Open(); oAdapter.Fill(ds); dtChildrenData = ds.Tables[0]; } } finally { oConn.Close(); } return dtChildrenData; But getting this error when i deploy the web application on IIS. Wherere as it is running fine locally. ERROR [IM002] [Microsoft][ODBC Driver Manager] Data source name not found and no default driver specified How to solve this. Please let me know if any information required to answer this question (about configuration)

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  • caching previous return values of procedures in scheme

    - by Brock
    In Chapter 16 of "The Seasoned Schemer", the authors define a recursive procedure "depth", which returns 'pizza nested in n lists, e.g (depth 3) is (((pizza))). They then improve it as "depthM", which caches its return values using set! in the lists Ns and Rs, which together form a lookup-table, so you don't have to recurse all the way down if you reach a return value you've seen before. E.g. If I've already computed (depthM 8), when I later compute (depthM 9), I just lookup the return value of (depthM 8) and cons it onto null, instead of recursing all the way down to (depthM 0). But then they move the Ns and Rs inside the procedure, and initialize them to null with "let". Why doesn't this completely defeat the point of caching the return values? From a bit of experimentation, it appears that the Ns and Rs are being reinitialized on every call to "depthM". Am I misunderstanding their point? I guess my question is really this: Is there a way in Scheme to have lexically-scoped variables preserve their values in between calls to a procedure, like you can do in Perl 5.10 with "state" variables?

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  • Java Generics Class Type Parameter Inference

    - by Pindatjuh
    Given the interface: public interface BasedOnOther<T, U extends BasedList<T>> { public T getOther(); public void staticStatisfied(final U list); } The BasedOnOther<T, U extends BasedList<T>> looks very ugly in my use-cases. It is because the T type parameter is already defined in the BasedList<T> part, so the "uglyness" comes from that T needs to be typed twice. Problem: is it possible to let the Java compiler infer the generic T type from BasedList<T> in a generic class/interface definition? Ultimately, I'd like to use the interface like: class X extends BasedOnOther<BasedList<SomeType>> { public SomeType getOther() { ... } public void staticStatisfied(final BasedList<SomeType> list) { ... } } Instead: class X extends BasedOnOther<SomeType, BasedList<SomeType>> { public SomeType getOther() { ... } public void staticStatisfied(final BasedList<SomeType> list) { ... } }

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  • Custom Server to communicate with my software?

    - by Zachary Brown
    I am working on a major project that I need for work. I am working on a project that requires software validation. I would like this to be handled by a custom server I will write in Python, this server will be the "gateway" between the user and product activation. The software program will be purchased from other companies in volume licensing. So this is what I need the server to do: 1). The user clicks to activate their software. (easy, all is good so far) 2). The software gets the distributor's id from another online server. ( this is also easy, and already coded.) 3). Then, the software asks my custom server if the distributor is allowed to activate anymore copies of the software. 4). The server will then check ( an online encoded text file ) to see if the distributor can or can't. If they can, it will tell the software that registration can proceede, at which point the software will pass the software serial number to the server. I have done my best to explain what I am trying to accomplish, but if something is not quite sensible, please let me know. Thanks to all members of Stackoverflow.com for the help in the past, and those who will help me now. I am using Python 2.6 Win. XP Home Edition

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  • Change Vimeo Video using JQuery

    - by Abs
    Hello all, How can I change the ID of the embedded vimeo video? Here is the embed code for example: <object width="578" height="325"> <param name="allowfullscreen" value="true" /> <param name="allowscriptaccess" value="always" /> <param name="movie" value="http://vimeo.com/moogaloop.swf?clip_id=11527784&amp; server=vimeo.com&amp;show_title=1&amp;show_byline=0&amp;show_portrait=0&amp;color=00ADEF&amp;fullscreen=1" /> <embed src="http://vimeo.com/moogaloop.swf?clip_id=11527784&amp; server=vimeo.com&amp;show_title=1&amp;show_byline=0&amp;show_portrait=0&amp; color=00ADEF&amp;fullscreen=1" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" allowfullscreen="true" allowscriptaccess="always" width="578" height="325"></embed></object> How can I change the clip_id in both the object value and the embed source using JQuery or just pure javascript? The effect this has is that it changes the video. I have tested this on Firefox, if this won't work on all browsers please let me know! Thanks all for any help

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  • Are .NET's regular expressions Turing complete?

    - by Robert
    Regular expressions are often pointed to as the classical example of a language that is not Turning complete. For example "regular expressions" is given in as the answer to this SO question looking for languages that are not Turing complete. In my, perhaps somewhat basic, understanding of the notion of Turning completeness, this means that regular expressions cannot be used check for patterns that are "balanced". Balanced meaning have an equal number of opening characters as closing characters. This is because to do this would require you to have some kind of state, to allow you to match the opening and closing characters. However the .NET implementation of regular expressions introduces the notion of a balanced group. This construct is designed to let you backtrack and see if a previous group was matched. This means that a .NET regular expressions: ^(?<p>a)*(?<-p>b)*(?(p)(?!))$ Could match a pattern that: ab aabb aaabbb aaaabbbb ... etc. ... Does this means .NET's regular expressions are Turing complete? Or are there other things that are missing that would be required for the language to be Turing complete?

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  • Oracle Forms on-button-pressed trigger to solve three scenarios

    - by DBase486
    Hello, I'm writing a when-button-pressed trigger on a save button for an Oracle Forms 6i form, and it has to fulfill a couple of scenarios. Here's some background information: the fields we're primarily concerned with are: n_number, alert_id, end_date For all three scenarios we are comparing candidate records against the following records in the database (for the sake of argument, let's assume they're the only records in the database so far): alert_id|| n_number|| end_date ------------------------------------- 1|| 5|| _______ 2|| 6|| 10/25/2009 Scenario 1: The user enters a new record: alert_id 1 n_number 5 end_date NULL Objective: prevent the user from committing duplicate rows Scenario 2: The user enters a new record: alert_id 1 n_number 10 end_date NULL Objective: Notify the user that this alert_id already exists, but allow the user the ability to commit the row, if desired. Scenario 3: The user enters a new record: alert_id 2 n_number 6 end_date NULL Objective: Notify the user that this alert_id has occurred in the past (i.e. it has a not-null end_date), but allow the user to commit the row, if desired. I've written the code, which seems to comply with the first two scenarios, but prevents me from fulfilling the third. Issues: When I enter the third scenario case, I am prompted to commit the record, but when I attempt this, the "duplicate_stop" alert pops up, preventing me. Issues: I'm getting the following error: ORA-01843: not a valid month. While testing the code for the third scenario in Toad (hard-coding the values, etc) things seemed to be fine. Why would I encounter these problems at run-time? Help is very much appreciated. Thank you

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  • Avoiding mass propagation of properties and events for exposure to ViewModels.

    - by firoso
    I have an MVVM application I am developing that is to the point where I'm ready to start putting together a user interface (my client code is largely functional) I'm now running into the issue that I'm trying to get my application data to where I need it so that it can be consumed by the view model and then bound to the view. Unfortunately, it seems that I've either got a few structural oversights, or I'm just going to have to face the reality that I need to be propogating events and raising excessive amounts of errors to notify view models that thier properties have changed. Let me go into some examples of my issue: I have a class "Unit" contained in a class "Test", contained in a class "Session" contained in a class "TestManager" which is contained in "TestDataModel" which is utilized by "TestViewModel" which is databound to by my "TestView" .... WHOA. Now, consider that Unit (the bottom of the heiarchy) has a property called "Results" that is updated periodically, I want to expose that to my viewmodel and then databind it to my view, trouble is, the only way I can really think to do this is to perpetuate events WAY up a chain that say "I've been updated!" and then request the new value... This seems like an aweful way to do this. Alternatively, I could register a static event and raise it, and have the appropriate "Unit view model" grab the event and request the update. This SEEMS better... but... static events? Is that a taboo idea? Also, having an expression like: TestDataModel.TestManager.Session.Test.Unit.Results[i] Seems REALLY gross to have on a View Model. I know this all reeks of a bad design issue, but I can't figure out what I did wrong? Should I be using more singleton/container controlled lifetimes type objects? Register object instances with static helper containers? Obviously these are hard questions to answer without being intimate with the existing structure, but if you've run into situations like this, what did you do to refactor? Should I just live with this, add mass events, and propogate them?

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  • Somewhat lost with jquery + php + json

    - by Luis Armando
    I am starting to use the jquery $.ajax() but I can't get back what I want to...I send this: $(function(){ $.ajax({ url: "graph_data.php", type: "POST", data: "casi=56&nada=48&nuevo=98&perfecto=100&vales=50&apenas=70&yeah=60", dataType: "json", error: function (xhr, desc, exceptionobj) { document.writeln("El error de XMLHTTPRequest dice: " + xhr.responseText); }, success: function (json) { if (json.error) { alert(json.error); return; } var output = ""; for (p in json) { output += p + " : " + json[p] + "\n"; } document.writeln("Results: \n\n" + output); } }); }); and my php is: <?php $data = $_POST['data']; function array2json($data){ $json = $data; return json_encode($json); } ?> and when I execute this I come out with: Results: just like that I used to have in the php a echo array2json statement but it just gave back gibberish...I really don't know what am I doing wrong and I've googled for about 3 hours just getting basically the same stuff. Also I don't know how to pass parameters to the "data:" in the $.ajax function in another way like getting info from the web page, can anyone please help me? Edit I did what you suggested and it prints the data now thank you very much =) however, I was wondering, how can I send the data to the "data:" part in jQuery so it takes it from let's say user input, also I was checking the php documentation and it says I'm allowed to write something like: json_encode($a,JSON_HEX_TAG|JSON_HEX_APOS|JSON_HEX_QUOT|JSON_HEX_AMP) however, if I do that I get an error saying that json_encode accepts 1 parameter and I'm giving 2...any idea why? I'm using php 5.2

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  • jQuery: Stopping a periodic ajax call?

    - by Legend
    I am writing a small jQuery plugin to update a set of Divs with content obtained using Ajax calls. Initially, let's assume we have 4 divs. I am doing something like this: (function($) { .... .... //main function $.fn.jDIV = { init: function() { ... ... for(var i = 0; i < numDivs; i++) { this.query(i); } this.handlers(); }, query: function(divNum) { //Makes the relevant ajax call }, handlers: function() { for(var i = 0; i < numDivs; i++) { setInterval("$.fn.jDIV.query(" + i + ")", 5000); } } }; })(jQuery); I would like to be able to enable and disable a particular ajax query. I was thinking of adding a "start" and "stop" instead of the "handlers" function and subsequently storing the setInterval handler like this: start: function(divNum) { divs[divNum] = setInterval("$.fn.jDIV.query(" + i + ")", 5000); }, stop: function(divNum) { clearInterval(divs[divNum]); } I did not use jQuery to setup and destroy the event handlers. Is there a better approach (perhaps using more of jQuery) to achieve this?

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  • CreateThread() fails on 64 bit Windows, works on 32 bit Windows. Why?

    - by Stephen Kellett
    Operating System: Windows XP 64 bit, SP2. I have an unusual problem. I am porting some code from 32 bit to 64 bit. The 32 bit code works just fine. But when I call CreateThread() for the 64 bit version the call fails. I have three places where this fails. 2 call CreateThread(). 1 calls beginthreadex() which calls CreateThread(). All three calls fail with error code 0x3E6, "Invalid access to memory location". The problem is all the input parameters are correct. HANDLE h; DWORD threadID; h = CreateThread(0, // default security 0, // default stack size myThreadFunc, // valid function to call myParam, // my param 0, // no flags, start thread immediately &threadID); All three calls to CreateThread() are made from a DLL I've injected into the target program at the start of the program execution (this is before the program has got to the start of main()/WinMain()). If I call CreateThread() from the target program (same params) via say a menu, it works. Same parameters etc. Bizarre. If I pass NULL instead of &threadID, it still fails. If I pass NULL as myParam, it still fails. I'm not calling CreateThread from inside DllMain(), so that isn't the problem. I'm confused and searching on Google etc hasn't shown any relevant answers. If anyone has seen this before or has any ideas, please let me know. Thanks for reading.

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  • JQuery: how to store records id for data from ajax query in dynamicly created html elements

    - by grapkulec
    Probably question title is rather cryptic but I will try to explain myself here so please bare with me :) Let's assume this configuration: server-side is PHP application responding for requests with data (list of items, single item details, etc.) in json format client-side is JQuery application sending ajax request to that PHP app and creating html content corresponding with received data So, for example: client requests "list of all animals with names staring with 'A'", gets the json response from server, and for every "animal" creates some html gizmo like div with animal description or something like that. It doesn't really matter what html element it will be but it has to point exactly to specific record by "containing" id of that record. And here is my dilemma: is it good solution to use "id" property for that? So it would be like: <div id="10" class="animal"> <p> This is animal of very mysterious kind... </p> </div> <div id="11" class="animal"> <p> And this one is very common to our country... </p> </div> where id="10" is of course indication that this is representation of record with id = 10. Or maybe I should store this record id in some custom made tag like <record_id>10</record_id> and leave an "id" strictly for what it was meant to be (css selector)? I need that record id for further stuff like updating database with some user input or deleting some of "animals" or creating new ones or anything that will be needed. All manipulations will be done with JQuery and ajax requests and responses will be visualized also with dynamic creation of html interface. I'm sure that somebody had to deal with that kind of stuff before so I would be grateful for some tips on that topic.

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  • How to set margin for inner controls of WrapPanel

    - by Andrey Tagaew
    Hi Guys! I'm new in WPF and have a question. Here is an example that I'm using: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication2.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="525"> <StackPanel> <WrapPanel Orientation="Horizontal" > <Button Content="test1" Margin="10,0" Padding="10,10" /> <Button Content="test2" Margin="10,0" Padding="10,10" /> <Button Content="test3" Margin="10,0" Padding="10,10" /> <Button Content="test4" Margin="10,0" Padding="10,10" /> <Button Content="test5" Margin="10,0" Padding="10,10" /> </WrapPanel> </StackPanel> As you can see, my wrap panel has several buttons. Each button has the same margin and padding. The question is, is there a way of setting margin and padding for wrap panel, so each element inside the wrap panel may use it values? This make the code shorter and let me specify Margin and Padding only one time instead of setting it for each control in the panel. Thank you!

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  • android: consume key press, bypassing framework processing

    - by user360024
    What I want android to do: when user presses a single key, have the view respond, but do so without opening a text area and displaying the character associated with the key that was pressed, and without requiring that the Enter key be pressed, and without requiring that the user press Esc to make the text area go away. For example, when user presses "u" (and doesn't press Enter), that means "undo the last action", so the controller and model immediately undo the last action, then the view does an invalidate() and user sees that their last action has been undone. In other words the "u" key press should be silently processed, such that the only visual result is that user's last action has been undone. I've implemented OnKeyListener and provided an onKey() method: the class: public class MyGameView extends View implements OnKeyListener{ in the constructor: //2010jun06, phj: With onKey(), helps let this View consume key presses // before the framework gets a chance to consume the key press. setOnKeyListener((View.OnKeyListener)this); the onKey() method: public boolean onKey(View v, int keyCode, KeyEvent event) { if (keyCode == KeyEvent.KEYCODE_R) { Log.d("BWA", "In onKey received keycode associated with R."); } return true; // meaning the event (key press) has been consumed, so // the framework should not handle this event. } but when user presses "u" key on the emulator keypad, a textarea is opened at the bottom of the screen, the "u" charater is displayed there, and the onKey() method doesn't execute until user presses the Enter key. Is there a way to make android do what I want? Thanks,

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