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  • entity framework insert bug

    - by tmfkmoney
    I found a previous question which seemed related but there's no resolution and it's 5 months old so I've opened my own version. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1545583/entity-framework-inserting-new-entity-via-objectcontext-does-not-use-existing-e When I insert records into my database with the following it works fine for a while and then eventually it starts inserting null values in the referenced field. This typically happens after I do an update on my model from the database although not always after I do an update. I'm using a MySQL database for this. I have debugged the code and the values are being set properly before the save event. They're just not getting inserted properly. I can always fix this issue by re-creating the model without touching any of my code. I have to recreate the entire model, though. I can't just dump the relevant tables and re-add them. This makes me think it doesn't have anything to do with my code but something with the entity framework. Does anyone else have this problem and/or solved it? using (var db = new MyModel()) { var stocks = from record in query let ticker = record.Ticker select new { company = db.Companies.FirstOrDefault(c => c.ticker == ticker), price = Convert.ToDecimal(record.Price), date_stamp = Convert.ToDateTime(record.DateTime) }; foreach (var stock in stocks) { if (stock.company != null) { var price = new StockPrice { Company = stock.company, price = stock.price, date_stamp = stock.date_stamp }; db.AddToStockPrices(price); } } db.SaveChanges(); }

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  • Avoiding mass propagation of properties and events for exposure to ViewModels.

    - by firoso
    I have an MVVM application I am developing that is to the point where I'm ready to start putting together a user interface (my client code is largely functional) I'm now running into the issue that I'm trying to get my application data to where I need it so that it can be consumed by the view model and then bound to the view. Unfortunately, it seems that I've either got a few structural oversights, or I'm just going to have to face the reality that I need to be propogating events and raising excessive amounts of errors to notify view models that thier properties have changed. Let me go into some examples of my issue: I have a class "Unit" contained in a class "Test", contained in a class "Session" contained in a class "TestManager" which is contained in "TestDataModel" which is utilized by "TestViewModel" which is databound to by my "TestView" .... WHOA. Now, consider that Unit (the bottom of the heiarchy) has a property called "Results" that is updated periodically, I want to expose that to my viewmodel and then databind it to my view, trouble is, the only way I can really think to do this is to perpetuate events WAY up a chain that say "I've been updated!" and then request the new value... This seems like an aweful way to do this. Alternatively, I could register a static event and raise it, and have the appropriate "Unit view model" grab the event and request the update. This SEEMS better... but... static events? Is that a taboo idea? Also, having an expression like: TestDataModel.TestManager.Session.Test.Unit.Results[i] Seems REALLY gross to have on a View Model. I know this all reeks of a bad design issue, but I can't figure out what I did wrong? Should I be using more singleton/container controlled lifetimes type objects? Register object instances with static helper containers? Obviously these are hard questions to answer without being intimate with the existing structure, but if you've run into situations like this, what did you do to refactor? Should I just live with this, add mass events, and propogate them?

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  • How the reading from and writing to sockets are synchronized?

    - by Roman
    We create a socket. On one side of the socket we have a "server" and on another side there is a "client". Both, the server and client, can write to and read from the socket. It is what i understand. I do not understand the following things: If a server reads from the socket, does it see in the socket only those stuff which was written to the socket by the client? I mean if server writes something to the socket and than reads from the socket, will it (server) see in the socket the stuff it (server) wrote there? I hope not. Let's consider the following situation. A client write something to the socket and then it writes something new to the socket and then server reads from the socket. What will the server see there? Only the "new" stuff written by the client or both "new" and "old" one? If a client (or server) writes to the socket, can it see if the written information was received by other side? For example out.println("Hello, Server!") will return true it server received this message.

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  • Exit and rollback everything in script on error

    - by Jan W.
    Hey guys ! I'm in a bit of a pickle here. I have a TSQL script that does a lot of database structure adjustments but it's not really safe to just let it go through when something fails. to make things clear: using MS SQL 2005 it's NOT a stored procedure, just a script file (.sql) what I have is something in the following order BEGIN TRANSACTION ALTER Stuff GO CREATE New Stuff GO DROP Old Stuff GO IF @@ERROR != 0 BEGIN PRINT 'Errors Found ... Rolling back' ROLLBACK TRANSACTION RETURN END ELSE PRINT 'No Errors ... Committing changes' COMMIT TRANSACTION just to illustrate what I'm working with ... can't go into specifics now, the problem ... When I introduce an error (to test if things get rolled back), I get a statement that the ROLLBACK TRANSACTION could not find a corresponding BEGIN TRANSACTION. This leads me to believe that something when REALLY wrong and the transaction was already killed. what I also noticed is that the script didn't fully quit on error and thus DID try to execute every statement after the error occured. (I noticed this when new tables showed up when I wasn't expecting them because it should have rollbacked) any help in this department is welcome if more speficics are needed, ask! greetz

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  • Why won't WPF databindings show text when ToString() has a collaborating object?

    - by Jay
    In a simple form, I bind to a number of different objects -- some go in listboxes; some in textblocks. A couple of these objects have collaborating objects upon which the ToString() method calls when doing its work -- typically a formatter of some kind. When I step through the code I see that when the databinding is being set up, ToString() is called the collaborating object is not null and returns the expected result when inspected in the debugger, the objects return the expected result from ToString() BUT the text does not show up in the form. The only common thread I see is that these use a collaborating object, whereas the other bindings that show up as expected simply work from properties and methods of the containing object. If this is confusing, here is the gist in code: public class ThisThingWorks { private SomeObject some_object; public ThisThingWorks(SomeObject s) { some_object = s; } public override string ToString() { return some_object.name; } } public class ThisDoesntWork { private Formatter formatter; private SomeObject some_object; public ThisDoesntWork(SomeObject o, Formatter f) { formatter = f; some_object = o; } public override string ToString() { return formatter.Format(some_object.name); } } Again, let me reiterate -- the ToString() method works in every other context -- but when I bind to the object in WPF and expect it to display the result of ToString(), I get nothing. Update: The issue seems to be what I see as a buggy behaviour in the TextBlock binding. If I bind the Text property to a property of the DataContext that is declared as an interface type, ToString() is never called. If I change the property declaration to an implementation of the interface, it works as expected. Other controls, like Label work fine when binding the Content property to a DataContext property declared as either the implementation or the interface. Because this is so far removed from the title and content of this question, I've created a new question here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2917878/why-doesnt-textblock-databinding-call-tostring-on-a-property-whose-compile-tim

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  • Web development tool that can comprehend the concept of more than one language in a file at once

    - by thecoshman
    I currently use notepad++ on windows or gedit on ubuntu. Both of them work great with code highlighting and hinting etc. But both of them suffer from a huge flaw. I am yet to find a code editor that can handle this concept: <?php // ooh, look I am doing some php ?><a onclick="alert('hay, some javascript in here now!')"> This link is HTML?!</a> <?PHP echo("NOW we have some php as well!"); ?> At the moment, I just have to settle for the one language. I want something that can think of a that text as a default as HTML, but notice when sections are PHP. I want those sections of PHP to have there own code hinting and highlighting. Even more, lets say in an 'if else' I exit PHP, write some HTML then back into PHP, I want it to work out how the braces ( '{' and '}' ) should match up and let me know if I have missed one. I want the sections of in-line JavaScript to be picked up as such. I want all of these languages to get checked for syntax! Damn it, I want to tool that understands more than one language at once!

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  • What's the best technique to protect my framework from visitors who are not logged in?

    - by Hermet
    First of all, I would like to say that I have used the search box looking for a similar question and was unsuccessful, maybe because of my poor english skills. I have a a 'homemade' framework. I have certain PHP files that must only be visible for the admin. The way I currently do this is check within every single page to see if a session has been opened. If not, the user gets redirected to a 404 page, to seem like the file which has been requested doesn't exist. I really don't know if this is guaranteed to work or if there's a better and more safe way because I'm currently working with kind of confidential data that should never become public. Could you give me some tips? Or leave a link where I could find some? Thank you very much, and again excuse me for kicking the dictionary. EDIT What I usually write in the top of each file is something like this <?php include("sesion.php"); $rs=comprueba(); //'check' if ($rs==1) { ?> And then, at the end <?php } ?> Is it such a butched job, isn't it? EDIT Let's say I have a customers list in a file named customers.php That file may be currently on http://www.mydomain.com/admin/customers.php and it must only be visible for the admin user. Once the admin user has been logged in, I create a session variable. That variable is what I check on the top of each page, and if it exists, the customers list is shown. If not, the user gets redirected to the 404 page. Thank you for your patience. I really appreciate.

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  • webpage scrollbar scrolls to top when typing in input box, how to fix?

    - by derei
    I have a HTML table that is scrollable and I'm forcing the scroll bar at the bottom. But every time I type something in a input box situated inside <thead> it scrolls back to top. I have no idea how to stop it to do that... I'm sorry for not explaining it better, if anybody wants to help, I could provide a link. I cannot place it public because is a private project. Thanks, let me know. EDIT -added jsfiddle example (below is the link) click here for jsfiddle example EDIT2 the issue seem to be present only in Chrome, but that it's more than enough (the app is intended to be used in chrome) EDIT3 I found a similar issue here: on webkit browsers typing into edit box causes scrolling , so the problem seem explained: the parent element gets focus on the side where the input-box is. I verified this on a mockup-template and it acts accordingly. *The question is:*how to prevent this to happen? I am forced by situation to have the input-box as child for the scrollable div, but I don't want that scroll to move (somehow to not give focus to the parent element, when I type in the input-box). Any idea?

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  • How to check if a node's value in one XML is present in another XML with a specific attribute?

    - by Manish
    The question seems to be little confusing. So let me describe my situation through an example: Suppose I have an XML: A.xml <Cakes> <Cake>Egg</Cake> <Cake>Banana</Cake> </Cakes> Another XML: B.xml <Cakes> <Cake show="true">Egg</Cake> <Cake show="true">Strawberry</Cake> <Cake show="false">Banana</Cake> </Cakes> Now I want to show some text say "TRUE" if all the Cake in A.xml have show="true" in B.xml else "FALSE". In the above case, it will print FALSE. I need to develop an XSL for that. I can loop through all the Cake in A.xml and check if that cake has show="true" in B.xml but I don't know how to break in between (and set a variable) if a show="false" is found. Is it possible? Any help/comments appreciated.

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  • Need an advice for unit testing using mock object

    - by Andree
    Hi there, I just recently read about "Mocking objects" for unit testing and currently I'm having a difficulties implementing this approach in my application. Please let me explain my problem. I have a User model class, which is dependent on 2 data sources (database and facebook web service). The controller class simply use this User model as an interface to access data and it doesn't care about where the data came from. Currently I never done any unit test to this User model because it is dependent on an external web service. But just a while ago, I read about object mocking and now I know that it is a common approach to unit test a class that depends on external resources (like in my case). Now I want to create a unit test for the User model, but then I encountered a design issue: In order for the User model to use a mocked Facebook SDK, I have to inject this mocked Facebook SDK to the User object (probably using a setter). Therefore I can't construct the Facebook SDK inside the User object. I have to construct it outside the User object, and inject the SDK into the User object. The real client of my User model is the application's controller. Therefore I have to construct the Facebook SDK inside the controller and inject it to the user object. Well, this is a problem because I want my controller to be as clean as possible. I want my controller to be ignorant about the application's data source. I'm not good at explaining something systematically, so you'll probably sleeping before reading this last paragraph. But anyway, I want to ask if anyone here ever encountered the same problem as mine? How do you solve this problem? Regards, Andree

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  • Get Nhibernate entity and complete it from a web service.

    - by Nour Sabouny
    Hi every one. let's say that i have an order system. each "Order" references a "Customer" Object. when i fill the orders list in Data Access Layer, the customer object should be brought from a Customer Web Service "WCF". so i didn't map the Customer property in the Order mapping class, Id(o => o.OrderID).GeneratedBy.Identity(); //References(o => o.Customer).Not.Nullable().Column("CustomerID"); HasMany(o => o.Details).KeyColumn("OrderID").Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan(); Map(c => c.CustomerID).Not.Nullable(); and asked the nhibernate session to get me the orders list. and tried to loop on every order in the list to fill it's customer property, doe's any body have a good idea for this ???? IList<Order> lst = Session.CreateCriteria<Order>().List<Order>(); foreach (Order order in lst) order.Customer = serviceProxy.GetCustomerByID(order.CustomerID);

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  • Codeigniter - change url at method call

    - by NemoPS
    I was wondering if the following can be done in codeigniter. Let's assume I have a file, called Post.php, used to manage posts in an admin interface. It has several methods, such as index (lists all posts), add, update, delete... Now, I access the add method, so that the url becomes /posts/add And I add some data. I click "save" to add the new post. It calls the same method with an if statement like "if "this-input-post('addnew')"" is passed, call the model, add it to the database Here follows the problem: If everything worked fine, it goes to the index with the list of all posts, and displays a confirmation BUT No the url would still be posts/add, since I called the function like $this-index() after verifying data was added. I cannot redirect it to "posts/" since in that case no confirmation message would be shown! So my question is: can i call a method from anther one in the same class, and have the url set to that method (/posts/index instead of /posts/add)? It's kinda confusing, but i hope i gave you enough info to spot the problem Cheers!

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  • Do I need to write a trigger for such a simple constraint?

    - by Paul Hanbury
    I really had a hard time knowing what words to put into the title of my question, as I am not especially sure if there is a database pattern related to my problem. I will try to simplify matters as much as possible to get directly to the heart of the issue. Suppose I have some tables. The first one is a list of widget types: create table widget_types ( widget_type_id number(7,0) primary key, description varchar2(50) ); The next one contains icons: create table icons ( icon_id number(7,0) primary key, picture blob ); Even though the users get to select their preferred widget, there is a predefined subset of widgets that they can choose from for each widget type. create table icon_associations ( widget_type_id number(7,0) references widget_types, icon_id number(7,0) references icons, primary key (widget_type_id, icon_id) ); create table icon_prefs ( user_id number(7,0) references users, widget_type_id number(7,0), icon_id number(7,0), primary key (user_id, widget_type_id), foreign key (widget_type_id, icon_id) references icon_associations ); Pretty simple so far. Let us now assume that if we are displaying an icon to a user who has not set up his preferences, we choose one of the appropriate images associated with the current widget. I'd like to specify the preferred icon to display in such a case, and here's where I run into my problem: alter table icon_associations add ( is_preferred char(1) check( is_preferred in ('y','n') ) ) ; I do not see how I can enforce that for each widget_type there is one, and only one, row having is_preferred set to 'y'. I know that in MySQL, I am able to write a subquery in my check constraint to quickly resolve this issue. This is not possible with Oracle. Is my mistake that this column has no business being in the icon_associations table? If not where should it go? Is this a case where, in Oracle, the constraint can only be handled with a trigger? I ask only because I'd like to go the constraint route if at all possible. Thanks so much for your help, Paul

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  • Django filters - Using an AllValuesFilter (with a LinkWidget) on a ManyToManyField

    - by magnetix
    This is my first Stack Overflow question, so please let me know if I do anything wrong. I wish to create an AllValues filter on a ManyToMany field using the wonderful django-filters application. Basically, I want to create a filter that looks like it does in the Admin, so I also want to use the LinkWidget too. Unfortunately, I get an error (Invalid field name: 'operator') if I try this the standard way: # Models class Organisation(models.Model): name = models.CharField() ... class Sign(models.Model): name = models.CharField() operator = models.ManyToManyField('Organisation', blank=True) ... # Filter class SignFilter(LinkOrderFilterSet): operator = django_filters.AllValuesFilter(widget=django_filters.widgets.LinkWidget) class Meta: model = Sign fields = ['operator'] I got around this by creating my own filter with the many to many relationship hard coded: # Models class Organisation(models.Model): name = models.CharField() ... class Sign(models.Model): name = models.CharField() operator = models.ManyToManyField('Organisation', blank=True) ... # Filter class MyFilter(django_filters.ChoiceFilter): @property def field(self): cd = {} for row in self.model.objects.all(): orgs = row.operator.select_related().values() for org in orgs: cd[org['id']] = org['name'] choices = zip(cd.keys(), cd.values()) list.sort(choices, key=lambda x:(x[1], x[0])) self.extra['choices'] = choices return super(AllValuesFilter, self).field class SignFilter(LinkOrderFilterSet): operator = MyFilter(widget=django_filters.widgets.LinkWidget) I am new to Python and Django. Can someone think of a more generic/elegant way of doing this?

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  • In threads, WaitForMultipleObjects never returns if set to INFINITE

    - by AKN
    Let say I have three thread handles HandleList[0] = hThread1; HandleList[1] = hThread2; HandleList[2] = hThread3; /*All the above are of type HANDLE*/ Before closing the application, I want the thread to get its task done. So I want to make app wait till thread completes. So I do, WaitForMultipleObjects(3, HandleList, TRUE, INFINITE ); By this I'm able to make the thread, complete its task. But control never move to next line after the call to WaitForMultileObjects irrespective of all thread completing its task. If I use, some seconds instead of INFINITE, it comes to next line after that many secs, irrspective of whether thread completes its task or not. WaitForMultipleObjects(3, HandleList, TRUE, 10000 ); My problem here is, I'm can't go for seconds, as I may not be sure whether the threads will complete its task with the given time. To list my problem in simple words, I want all my thread to finish the task, before I close my app. How can I achieve it using WaitForMultipleObjects API?

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  • Show random string.

    - by zaid
    i am trying to display a random string each time a button is pressed from a set of strings defined in strings.xml . this is an example of the strings ID's <string name="q0"> <string name="q1"> <string name="q2"> <string name="q3"> <string name="q4"> java code for getting a random string. private static final Random rgenerator = null; int RandomQ = R.string.q0 (rgenerator.nextInt(5) + 1); String q = getString(RandomQ); if i try to use this java code i get an error at "q0" in R.string.q0 which is The method q0(int) is undefined for the type R.string if i try to use the quick fix and create a method, it works. but it wont let me save or run the app because it replaces my create method and shows this message R.java was modified manually! Reverting to generated version! thanks for reading.

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  • Get settings through a button action

    - by Russ Knudsen
    I am looking for a way to access user settings (I assume, NSUserDefaults?) through a button action. Let me back up and explain. What I have right now are 2 TextFields a label and a button. The user will type in measurements in the 2 TextFields. When they hit the button the label displays the volume of the measured object in Gallons. That part of it works great. Then I wanted to give the user options to output the volume in Liters instead of gallons. I would also like to give the user options to type in the measurements in Centimeters. So I setup a 'Settings.Bundle' and configured it with 2 'Multi Value' cells (Measurement units and Volumetric Units). Each Multi Value cell has its own list of different units the user can pick from. My main issue is I don't know how to access these settings through the button action. I may be thinking of this wrong, but what I'm looking for is something like; Button Action If settings key = 0 Then do the math in Inches, Display in Gallons If settings key = 1 Then do the math in Centimeters, Display in Gallons If settings key = 2 Then do the math in Inches, Display in Liters If settings key = 3 Then do the math in Centimeters, Display in Liters Etc... Is this possible? Am I thinking of this in the wrong way? What's the best way to do this?

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  • Problem with passing vector of pointers to objects to member function of another object

    - by Jamesz
    Hi, I have a vector of pointers to Mouse objects called 'mice'. I'm passing the mice to the cat by reference. vector <Mouse*> mice; Cat * c; c->lookForMouse(&mice); And here's my lookForMouse() member function void Cat::lookForMouse(vector <Mouse*> *mice) { ... } And now to the problem! Within the function above, I can't seem to access my mice. This below will not work mice[i]->isActive(); The error message I receive suggests to use mice[i].isActive(), but this throws an error saying isActive() is not a member of std::vector<_Ty ... This works though... vector <Mouse*> miceCopy = *mice; miceCopy[i]->isActive(); I understand that I shouldn't be creating another vector of mice here, it defeats the whole point of passing it by reference (let me know if I'm wrong)... Why can't I do mice[i]-isActive() What should I be doing? Thanks for your time and help :D James.

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  • C# "Rename" Property in Derived Class

    - by Eric
    When you read this you'll be awfully tempted to give advice like "this is a bad idea for the following reason..." Bear with me. I know there are other ways to approach this. This question should be considered trivia. Lets say you have a class "Transaction" that has properties common to all transactions such as Invoice, Purchase Order, and Sales Receipt. Let's take the simple example of Transaction "Amount", which is the most important monetary amount for a given transaction. public class Transaction { public double Amount { get; set; } public TxnTypeEnum TransactionType { get; set; } } This Amount may have a more specific name in a derived type... at least in the real world. For example, the following values are all actually the same thing: Transaction - Amount Invoice - Subtotal PurchaseOrder - Total Sales Receipt - Amount So now I want a derived class "Invoice" that has a Subtotal rather than the generically-named Amount. Ideally both of the following would be true: In an instance of Transaction, the Amount property would be visible. In an instance of Invoice, the Amount property would be hidden, but the Subtotal property would refer to it internally. Invoice looks like this: public class Invoice : Transaction { new private double? Amount { get { return base.Amount; } set { base.Amount = value; } } // This property should hide the generic property "Amount" on Transaction public double? SubTotal { get { return Amount; } set { Amount = value; } } public double RemainingBalance { get; set; } } But of course Transaction.Amount is still visible on any instance of Invoice. Thanks for taking a look!

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  • Reference to the Main Form whilst trying to Serialize objects in C#

    - by Paul Matthews
    I have a button on my main form which calls a method to serialize some objects to disk. I am trying to add these objects to an ArrayList and then serialize them using a BinaryFormatter and a FileStream. public void SerializeGAToDisk(string GenAlgName) { // Let's make a list that includes all the objects we // need to store a GA instance ArrayList GAContents = new ArrayList(); GAContents.Add(GenAlgInstances[GenAlgName]); // Structure and info for a GA GAContents.Add(RunningGAs[GenAlgName]); // There may be several running GA's using (FileStream fStream = new FileStream(GenAlgName + ".ga", FileMode.Create, FileAccess.Write, FileShare.None)) { BinaryFormatter binFormat = new BinaryFormatter(); binFormat.Serialize(fStream, GAContents); } } When running the above code I get the following exception: System.Runtime.Serialization.SerializationException was unhandled Message=Type 'WindowsFormsApplication1.Form1' in Assembly 'GeneticAlgApp, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' is not marked as serializable. So that means that somewhere in the objects I'm trying to save there must be a reference to the main form. The only possible references I can see are 3 delegates which all point to methods in the main form code. Do delegates get serialized as well? I can't seem to apply the [NonSerialized] attribute to them. Is there anything else I might be missing? Even better, is there a quick method to find the reference(s) that are causing the problem?

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  • LLVM: Passing a pointer to a struct, which holds a pointer to a function, to a JIT function

    - by Rusky
    I have an LLVM (version 2.7) module with a function that takes a pointer to a struct. That struct contains a function pointer to a C++ function. The module function is going to be JIT-compiled, and I need to build that struct in C++ using the LLVM API. I can't seem get the pointer to the function as an LLVM value, let alone pass a pointer to the ConstantStruct that I can't build. I'm not sure if I'm even on the track, but this is what I have so far: void print(char*); vector<Constant*> functions; functions.push_back(ConstantExpr::getIntToPtr( ConstantInt::get(Type::getInt32Ty(context), (int)print), /* function pointer type here, FunctionType::get(...) doesn't seem to work */ )); ConstantStruct* struct = cast<ConstantStruct>(ConstantStruct::get( cast<StructType>(m->getTypeByName("printer")), functions )); Function* main = m->getFunction("main"); vector<GenericValue> args; args[0].PointerVal = /* not sure what goes here */ ee->runFunction(main, args);

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  • Efficient way to maintain a sorted list of access counts in Python

    - by David
    Let's say I have a list of objects. (All together now: "I have a list of objects.") In the web application I'm writing, each time a request comes in, I pick out up to one of these objects according to unspecified criteria and use it to handle the request. Basically like this: def handle_request(req): for h in handlers: if h.handles(req): return h return None Assuming the order of the objects in the list is unimportant, I can cut down on unnecessary iterations by keeping the list sorted such that the most frequently used (or perhaps most recently used) objects are at the front. I know this isn't something to be concerned about - it'll make only a miniscule, undetectable difference in the app's execution time - but debugging the rest of the code is driving me crazy and I need a distraction :) so I'm asking out of curiosity: what is the most efficient way to maintain the list in sorted order, descending, by the number of times each handler is chosen? The obvious solution is to make handlers a list of (count, handler) pairs, and each time a handler is chosen, increment the count and resort the list. def handle_request(req): for h in handlers[:]: if h[1].handles(req): h[0] += 1 handlers.sort(reverse=True) return h[1] return None But since there's only ever going to be at most one element out of order, and I know which one it is, it seems like some sort of optimization should be possible. Is there something in the standard library, perhaps, that is especially well-suited to this task? Or some other data structure? (Even if it's not implemented in Python) Or should/could I be doing something completely different?

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  • MVVM and avoiding Monolithic God object

    - by bufferz
    I am in the completion stage of a large project that has several large components: image acquisition, image processing, data storage, factory I/O (automation project) and several others. Each of these components is reasonably independent, but for the project to run as a whole I need at least one instance of each component. Each component also has a ViewModel and View (WPF) for monitoring status and changing things. My question is the safest, most efficient, and most maintainable method of instantiating all of these objects, subscribing one class to an Event in another, and having a common ViewModel and View for all of this. Would it best if I have a class called God that has a private instance of all of these objects? I've done this in the past and regretted it. Or would it be better if God relied on Singleton instances of these objects to get the ball rolling. Alternatively, should Program.cs (or wherever Main(...) is) instantiate all of these components, and pass them to God as parameters and then let Him (snicker) and His ViewModel deal with the particulars of running this projects. Any other suggestions I would love to hear. Thank you!

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  • How can I create global context variables in JBOSS?

    - by NobodyMan
    This is a follow-up to a question I posted a while back: "Can I use a single WAR in multiple environments?". I was able to create a single-war solution in Tomcat, but now we are migrating our app to JBoss 4.2 and I can't figure out how to set up global environment variables. In Tomcat 6 this was pretty straightforward: I simply put the following snippet in tomcat/conf/Catalina/myappname.xml: <Context ...> <Environment name="TARGET_ENV" value="DEV" type="java.lang.String" override="false"/> </Context> Then in my app I was able to resolve the environment name with the following: Context context = (Context) InitialContext().lookup("java:comp/env"); String targetEnvironment = (String) context.lookup("TARGET_ENV"); The problem is that I can't find out where/how to place global variables in JBoss. I've tried putting the <Environment> tag in the following files to no avail: server/all/deploy/jboss-web.deployer/context.xml server/default/deploy/jboss-web.deployer/context.xml I know that I can put environment variables in my app's web.xml but that defeats the purpose of having a unified war - I'd still need custom .war's for dev, qa and prod. I'm a JBoss newbie so if there's any additional information that would help just let me know and I'll append to this question. Many thanks! --N

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  • In Android GUI flickers when reading the properties file

    - by ManojValiveti
    Hi, I am getting the GUI flicker when reading a file properties and accordingly enabling/disabling checkbox and List value in listbox. when i remove this file reading code the GUI doesnt have flicker. I am reading the properties before creating the Preferences in OnCreate(). Attached the file write code below for reference.Please let us know is there any other way to read and update the preference staus. private void SetExtendConf(String key, String strValue) { mProperties = new Properties(); try { File file = new File(FILE_EXT); if(!file.exists()) file.createNewFile(); file.setWritable(true,false); FileInputStream fis = new FileInputStream(file); mProperties.load(fis); fis.close(); FileOutputStream stream = new FileOutputStream(file); Log.d(TAG, "Setting Values " + key + ":"+ strValue); mProperties.setProperty(key, strValue); mProperties.store(stream,"ext.conf"); stream.close(); } catch (IOException e) { Log.d(TAG, "Could not open properties file: " + GPS_FILE_EXT); } } -Manoj

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