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• Create Session Variable from different datasources?

  - by Szafranamn

  Currently I am developing a dynamic website using Dreamweaver cs5 with ColdFusion 9 and using Access to create my databases along with QuickBooks and QODBC to create database. I have established a login session variable stemming from the login page. This session variable is being drawn from one Datasource "Access" Table "Logininfo" Field "FullName" but I wanted to create another session variable either at this point or further into the member's page to use in a query sequence. This session variable would stem from another Datasoucre "QBs" Table "Invoice" Field "CustomerRefFullName" which is generated through Quickbooks and QODBC. I am not sure if this is possible but if it is how do I do it. I want to do this so I can query the Invoice database to upload the customer's Invoices unique to them onto their page. So it would have to be related to their login credentials. If there is another better route to take I would greatly appreciate the advice. Below is the login code if there is additional information needed let me know. This is my current thinking/plan to do what I wish to intend hence the need to create the session variable: I have another Datasource "QBs" with a Table "Invoice" when I create another webpage for the customer to see their invoice I need to create a recordset that accesses that Table. In order to do so I think the best way would some home convert the session.FullName (which came from Access Datasource, Logininfor Table) into a session.CustomerRefFullName (which would have to come from (Datasource: QBs Table: Invoice Field: CustomerRefFullName) that way I could set the query WHERE CustomerRefFullName and have each logged in user see their specific Invoices. So is there a way to turn the session variable off one datasource/table into a different sessionvariable off a new datasource/table even if it is unique just to that page??? <cfif IsDefined("FORM.username")> SELECT FullName, Username,Password,AccessLevels FROM Logininfo WHERE Username= AND Password=

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• creating a thread in jsp and using join has problem

  - by Suresh S

  guys the following code does not wiat for the thread t to complete and join with the main thread, also the "created object" trace is called one more time after join is called please let me know the solution <% AProc empList = new AProc(); System.out.println("** Created Object ****"); System.out.println("Condition"+(!(p.length==0) && !(status) && !(threadLive))); if (!(p.length==0) && !(status) && !(threadLive)){ java.util.Date currDate = new java.util.Date(); try { Thread t = new Thread(empList); System.out.println("Check thread life 1 "+t.isAlive()); empList.setServletRequest(request , schemaName); System.out.println("Thread Started "+t); t.start(); System.out.println("Check thread life 2 "+t.isAlive()); if(t.isAlive()) { threadLive = true; } t.join(); while (t.isAlive()) { t.join(); } System.out.println("Check thread life 3 "+t.isAlive()); System.out.println("Thread End "+t); //} } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println("Exception in thread while running Procedure "+e); status=false; threadLive=false; } status = e.getStatusProc(); }%>

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• In Android GUI flickers when reading the properties file

  - by ManojValiveti

  Hi, I am getting the GUI flicker when reading a file properties and accordingly enabling/disabling checkbox and List value in listbox. when i remove this file reading code the GUI doesnt have flicker. I am reading the properties before creating the Preferences in OnCreate(). Attached the file write code below for reference.Please let us know is there any other way to read and update the preference staus. private void SetExtendConf(String key, String strValue) { mProperties = new Properties(); try { File file = new File(FILE_EXT); if(!file.exists()) file.createNewFile(); file.setWritable(true,false); FileInputStream fis = new FileInputStream(file); mProperties.load(fis); fis.close(); FileOutputStream stream = new FileOutputStream(file); Log.d(TAG, "Setting Values " + key + ":"+ strValue); mProperties.setProperty(key, strValue); mProperties.store(stream,"ext.conf"); stream.close(); } catch (IOException e) { Log.d(TAG, "Could not open properties file: " + GPS_FILE_EXT); } } -Manoj

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• WPF - Transparency - Stream Desktop Content

  - by Niels Willems

  Greetings I'm in the process of making a Scoreboard for a game (Starcraft II). This scoreboard is being made as a WPF Application with a C# code-behind. I already have a version which works for 90% in WinForms but I lacked the support to easily make it look a lot nicer which are available in WPF. The point of this application will be to form a kind of overlay on top of a running game. This game is in Fulscreen(Windowed Mode) so when in WinForms I coded it so that it should always be on top. It would do so and that was no problem. Since the main look of the app in WPF is based on an image with a transparent background I have set most Background values to Transparent. However when I do this the entire application does not get registered by streaming software. For example it just shows my Desktop or the game I'm playing but not my application even though it IS there. I can see it with my own eyes but the audience on the stream cannot. Does anyone have any experience with this matter because it's really doing my head in. My entire application will be useless if it is not visible on streams. If I have to put the background on a color rather than transparent the UI will be completely demolished as well in terms of looks. I'm basically trying to make a game-overlay in C# & WPF. I have read you can do this on different ways as well but I have little to no knowledge of C++ nor do I know anything about DirectX Thank you for your time reading and your possible insights. Edit: The best solution would be an overlay similar to that one of Steam/Xfire/Dolby Axon. Edit 2: I've had no luck with all the suggestions so I basically made the transparent bits of my image non transparent and let the user decide which one to use depending on what streaming software they would be using.

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• Are .NET's regular expressions Turing complete?

  - by Robert

  Regular expressions are often pointed to as the classical example of a language that is not Turning complete. For example "regular expressions" is given in as the answer to this SO question looking for languages that are not Turing complete. In my, perhaps somewhat basic, understanding of the notion of Turning completeness, this means that regular expressions cannot be used check for patterns that are "balanced". Balanced meaning have an equal number of opening characters as closing characters. This is because to do this would require you to have some kind of state, to allow you to match the opening and closing characters. However the .NET implementation of regular expressions introduces the notion of a balanced group. This construct is designed to let you backtrack and see if a previous group was matched. This means that a .NET regular expressions: ^(?<p>a)*(?<-p>b)*(?(p)(?!))$ Could match a pattern that: ab aabb aaabbb aaaabbbb ... etc. ... Does this means .NET's regular expressions are Turing complete? Or are there other things that are missing that would be required for the language to be Turing complete?

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• Exit and rollback everything in script on error

  - by Jan W.

  Hey guys ! I'm in a bit of a pickle here. I have a TSQL script that does a lot of database structure adjustments but it's not really safe to just let it go through when something fails. to make things clear: using MS SQL 2005 it's NOT a stored procedure, just a script file (.sql) what I have is something in the following order BEGIN TRANSACTION ALTER Stuff GO CREATE New Stuff GO DROP Old Stuff GO IF @@ERROR != 0 BEGIN PRINT 'Errors Found ... Rolling back' ROLLBACK TRANSACTION RETURN END ELSE PRINT 'No Errors ... Committing changes' COMMIT TRANSACTION just to illustrate what I'm working with ... can't go into specifics now, the problem ... When I introduce an error (to test if things get rolled back), I get a statement that the ROLLBACK TRANSACTION could not find a corresponding BEGIN TRANSACTION. This leads me to believe that something when REALLY wrong and the transaction was already killed. what I also noticed is that the script didn't fully quit on error and thus DID try to execute every statement after the error occured. (I noticed this when new tables showed up when I wasn't expecting them because it should have rollbacked) any help in this department is welcome if more speficics are needed, ask! greetz

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• Avoiding mass propagation of properties and events for exposure to ViewModels.

  - by firoso

  I have an MVVM application I am developing that is to the point where I'm ready to start putting together a user interface (my client code is largely functional) I'm now running into the issue that I'm trying to get my application data to where I need it so that it can be consumed by the view model and then bound to the view. Unfortunately, it seems that I've either got a few structural oversights, or I'm just going to have to face the reality that I need to be propogating events and raising excessive amounts of errors to notify view models that thier properties have changed. Let me go into some examples of my issue: I have a class "Unit" contained in a class "Test", contained in a class "Session" contained in a class "TestManager" which is contained in "TestDataModel" which is utilized by "TestViewModel" which is databound to by my "TestView" .... WHOA. Now, consider that Unit (the bottom of the heiarchy) has a property called "Results" that is updated periodically, I want to expose that to my viewmodel and then databind it to my view, trouble is, the only way I can really think to do this is to perpetuate events WAY up a chain that say "I've been updated!" and then request the new value... This seems like an aweful way to do this. Alternatively, I could register a static event and raise it, and have the appropriate "Unit view model" grab the event and request the update. This SEEMS better... but... static events? Is that a taboo idea? Also, having an expression like: TestDataModel.TestManager.Session.Test.Unit.Results[i] Seems REALLY gross to have on a View Model. I know this all reeks of a bad design issue, but I can't figure out what I did wrong? Should I be using more singleton/container controlled lifetimes type objects? Register object instances with static helper containers? Obviously these are hard questions to answer without being intimate with the existing structure, but if you've run into situations like this, what did you do to refactor? Should I just live with this, add mass events, and propogate them?

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• ScaleTransform transforms non-linearly

  - by Chris

  I am using scale transform to allow a user to resize a control. What happens though is that when you start to move the mouse the control jumps to a new size, and then scales oddly. The further you move your mouse from the starting location the larger the increase in size becomes. I expect its the way I calculate the scale to be applied. Here is the code: private void ResizeGrip_MouseDown(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { ResizeHandle.CaptureMouse(); //Get the initial coordinate cursor location on the window initBtmX = e.GetPosition(this).X; bottomResize = true; } private void ResizeGrip_MouseUp(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { bottomResize = false; ResizeHandle.ReleaseMouseCapture(); } private void ResizeGrip_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if( bottomResize == true) { //Get the new Y coordinate cursor location double newBtmX = e.GetPosition(this).X; //Get the smallest change between the initial and new cursor location double diffX = initBtmX - newBtmX; // Let our rectangle capture the mouse ResizeHandle.CaptureMouse(); double newWidth = e.GetPosition(this).X - diffX; double scaler = newWidth / ResizeContainer.ActualWidth; Console.WriteLine("newWidth: {0}, scalar: {1}", newWidth, scaler); if (scaler < 0.75 || scaler > 3) return; ScaleTransform scale = new ScaleTransform(scaler, scaler); ResizeContainer.LayoutTransform = scale; } }

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• JPA - Real primary key generated ID for references

  - by Val

  I have ~10 classes, each of them, have composite key, consist of 2-4 values. 1 of the classes is a main one (let's call it "Center") and related to other as one-to-one or one-to-many. Thinking about correct way of describing this in JPA I think I need to describe all the primary keys using @Embedded / @PrimaryKey annotations. Question #1: My concern is - does it mean that on the database level I will have # of additional columns in each table referring to the "Center" equal to number of column in "Center" PK? If yes, is it possible to avoid it by using some artificial unique key for references? Could you please give an idea how real PK and the artificial one needs to be described in this case? Note: The reason why I would like to keep the real PK and not just use the unique id as PK is - my application have some data loading functionality from external data sources and sometimes they may return records which I already have in local database. If unique ID will be used as PK - for new records I won't be able to do data update, since the unique ID will not be available for just downloaded ones. At the same time it is normal case scenario for application and it just need to update of insert new records depends on if the real composite primary key matches. Question #2: All of the 10 classes have common field "date" which I described in an abstract class which each of them extends. The "date" itself is never a key, but it always a part of composite key for each class. Composite key is different for each class. To be able to use this field as a part of PK should I describe it in each class or is there any way to use it as is? I experimented with @Embedded and @PrimaryKey annotations and always got an error that eclipselink can't find field described in an abstract class. Thank you in advance! PS. I'm using latest version of eclipselink & H2 database.

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• How to detect column conflicts with Hibernate?

  - by Slim

  So let's say I have an ArrayList full of Products that need to be committed to the database via Hibernate. There are already a large number of Products in the database. Each product has an ID. Note this is NOT the PK that is autogenerated by Hibernate. My questions is: what is the best way to detect conflicts with this ID? I am looking for a relatively efficient method of obtaining, from the the database, a List of Products that share an ID with any of the Products in my ArrayList. This is all in a single table called Products and the ID attribute is in column ProductID. The way I've done it is grabbing a list of all Products in the database, and compared each one with each entry in my ArrayList - but that is seriously inefficient and I don't think it would work well with a larger database. How should it be done? Thanks. I say "relatively" efficient because efficiency is not the primary concern, but it shouldn't take noticeably long to test against a table of ~1000-5000 rows. Help? EDIT* I'm very new to hibernate and below is the best I've come up with. How does this look? for(long id : idList){ //idList just holds the IDs of each Product in my ArrayList Query query = session.createQuery("select product from Product product where product.id = :id"); query.setLong("id", id); for(int i = 0; i < query.list().size(); i++){ listOfConflictingProducts.add((Product) query.list().get(i)); } }

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• How can I create global context variables in JBOSS?

  - by NobodyMan

  This is a follow-up to a question I posted a while back: "Can I use a single WAR in multiple environments?". I was able to create a single-war solution in Tomcat, but now we are migrating our app to JBoss 4.2 and I can't figure out how to set up global environment variables. In Tomcat 6 this was pretty straightforward: I simply put the following snippet in tomcat/conf/Catalina/myappname.xml: <Context ...> <Environment name="TARGET_ENV" value="DEV" type="java.lang.String" override="false"/> </Context> Then in my app I was able to resolve the environment name with the following: Context context = (Context) InitialContext().lookup("java:comp/env"); String targetEnvironment = (String) context.lookup("TARGET_ENV"); The problem is that I can't find out where/how to place global variables in JBoss. I've tried putting the <Environment> tag in the following files to no avail: server/all/deploy/jboss-web.deployer/context.xml server/default/deploy/jboss-web.deployer/context.xml I know that I can put environment variables in my app's web.xml but that defeats the purpose of having a unified war - I'd still need custom .war's for dev, qa and prod. I'm a JBoss newbie so if there's any additional information that would help just let me know and I'll append to this question. Many thanks! --N

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• Web development tool that can comprehend the concept of more than one language in a file at once

  - by thecoshman

  I currently use notepad++ on windows or gedit on ubuntu. Both of them work great with code highlighting and hinting etc. But both of them suffer from a huge flaw. I am yet to find a code editor that can handle this concept: <?php // ooh, look I am doing some php ?><a onclick="alert('hay, some javascript in here now!')"> This link is HTML?!</a> <?PHP echo("NOW we have some php as well!"); ?> At the moment, I just have to settle for the one language. I want something that can think of a that text as a default as HTML, but notice when sections are PHP. I want those sections of PHP to have there own code hinting and highlighting. Even more, lets say in an 'if else' I exit PHP, write some HTML then back into PHP, I want it to work out how the braces ( '{' and '}' ) should match up and let me know if I have missed one. I want the sections of in-line JavaScript to be picked up as such. I want all of these languages to get checked for syntax! Damn it, I want to tool that understands more than one language at once!

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• How the reading from and writing to sockets are synchronized?

  - by Roman

  We create a socket. On one side of the socket we have a "server" and on another side there is a "client". Both, the server and client, can write to and read from the socket. It is what i understand. I do not understand the following things: If a server reads from the socket, does it see in the socket only those stuff which was written to the socket by the client? I mean if server writes something to the socket and than reads from the socket, will it (server) see in the socket the stuff it (server) wrote there? I hope not. Let's consider the following situation. A client write something to the socket and then it writes something new to the socket and then server reads from the socket. What will the server see there? Only the "new" stuff written by the client or both "new" and "old" one? If a client (or server) writes to the socket, can it see if the written information was received by other side? For example out.println("Hello, Server!") will return true it server received this message.

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• Browser download file prompt using javascript

  - by aix

  hi, I was wondering if there was any method to implement browser's download file prompt using javascript. My reason - well users will be uploading files to a local fileserver which cannot be accessed from the webserver. In other words, both will be on different domains! e.g. let’s say websites hosted on www.xyz.com, but files would reside on local file server with address like \10.10.10.01\Files\file.txt. How am I uploading/transferring file to local fileserver... using ACTIVEX(yikes) & VBscript!!!! (don’t ask :-) so i am storing local file path in my database and binding that data to a grid. So when the user clicks on that link, the file opens in a window (using javascript). Problem is certain file types like text, jpg, pdf, etc open inside browser window. How would i be able to implement content-type or content-disposition using client side scripting? Is that even possible? hoping my description was clear. Any ideas? EDIT: the local file server has a window's shared folder on which the files are saved.

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• MapView EXC_BAD_ACCESS (SIGSEGV) and KERN_INVALID_ADDRESS

  - by user768113

  I'm having some 'issues' with my application... well, it crashes in an UIViewController that is presented modally, there the user enters information through UITextFields and his location is tracked by a MapView. Lets call this view controller "MapViewController" When the user submits the form, I call a different ViewController - modally again - that processes this info and a third one answers accordingly, then go back to a MenuVC using unwinding segues, which then calls MapViewController and so on. This sequence is repeated many times, but it always crashes in MapViewController. Looking at the crash log, I think that the MapView can be the problem of this or some element in the UI (because of the UIKit framework). I tried to use NSZombie in order to track a memory issue but it doesn't give me a clue about whats happening. Here is the crash log Hardware Model: iPad3,4 Process: MyApp [2253] OS Version: iOS 6.1.3 (10B329) Report Version: 104 Exception Type: EXC_BAD_ACCESS (SIGSEGV) Exception Codes: KERN_INVALID_ADDRESS at 0x00000044 Crashed Thread: 0 Thread 0 name: Dispatch queue: com.apple.main-thread Thread 0 Crashed: 0 IMGSGX554GLDriver 0x328b9be0 0x328ac000 + 56288 1 IMGSGX554GLDriver 0x328b9b8e 0x328ac000 + 56206deallocated instance 2 IMGSGX554GLDriver 0x328bc2f2 0x328ac000 + 66290 3 IMGSGX554GLDriver 0x328baf44 0x328ac000 + 61252 4 libGPUSupportMercury.dylib 0x370f86be 0x370f6000 + 9918 5 GLEngine 0x34ce8bd2 0x34c4f000 + 629714 6 GLEngine 0x34cea30e 0x34c4f000 + 635662 7 GLEngine 0x34c8498e 0x34c4f000 + 219534 8 GLEngine 0x34c81394 0x34c4f000 + 205716 9 VectorKit 0x3957f4de 0x394c7000 + 754910 10 VectorKit 0x3955552e 0x394c7000 + 582958 11 VectorKit 0x394d056e 0x394c7000 + 38254 12 VectorKit 0x394d0416 0x394c7000 + 37910 13 VectorKit 0x394cb7ca 0x394c7000 + 18378 14 VectorKit 0x394c9804 0x394c7000 + 10244 15 VectorKit 0x394c86a2 0x394c7000 + 5794 16 QuartzCore 0x354a07a4 0x35466000 + 239524 17 QuartzCore 0x354a06fc 0x35466000 + 239356 18 IOMobileFramebuffer 0x376f8fd4 0x376f4000 + 20436 19 IOKit 0x344935aa 0x34490000 + 13738 20 CoreFoundation 0x33875888 0x337e9000 + 575624 21 CoreFoundation 0x338803e4 0x337e9000 + 619492 22 CoreFoundation 0x33880386 0x337e9000 + 619398 23 CoreFoundation 0x3387f20a 0x337e9000 + 614922 24 CoreFoundation 0x337f2238 0x337e9000 + 37432 25 CoreFoundation 0x337f20c4 0x337e9000 + 37060 26 GraphicsServices 0x373ad336 0x373a8000 + 21302 27 UIKit 0x3570e2b4 0x356b7000 + 357044 28 MyApp 0x000ea12e 0xe9000 + 4398 29 MyApp 0x000ea0e4 0xe9000 + 4324 I think thats all, additionally, I would like to ask you: if you are using unwind segues then you are releasing view controllers from the memory heap, right? Meanwhile, performing segues let you instantiate those controllers. Technically, MenuVC should be the only VC alive in the heap during the app life cycle if you understand me.

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• SSL + Jquery + Ajax

  - by chobo2

  Hi I starting too look at a bit of security into my site. My site I would consider a very low security risk as it has really no personal information from the user other than email. However the security risk will go up a bit as I am partnering with a company and the initial password for this companies users will be the same password they use essentially to get onto the network and every piece of software. So I have up my security( what is fine by me...I wanted to get around to this anyways). So one of my security concerns is this. A user logs in. form submit(non ajax is done). Password is hashed & Salted and compared to one in the database. Reject or let them proceed. So this uses no jquery or ajax but is just asp.net mvc and C#. Still if my understanding is right the password is sent in clear text. So if a use SSL and I would not need to worry about that is this correct? If that is true is that all I need? Second the user can change their password at anytime. This is done through ajax. So when the password is sent it is sent in clear text( and I can verify this by looking at firebug). So if I have SSL enabled on this page is that all I need or do I need to do more? So I am just kinda confused of what I need to make the password being sent to the server(both ajax and full post ways secure). I am not sure if I need to do more then SSL or if that is enough and if it is not enough what is the next layer of security?

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• How to check if a node's value in one XML is present in another XML with a specific attribute?

  - by Manish

  The question seems to be little confusing. So let me describe my situation through an example: Suppose I have an XML: A.xml <Cakes> <Cake>Egg</Cake> <Cake>Banana</Cake> </Cakes> Another XML: B.xml <Cakes> <Cake show="true">Egg</Cake> <Cake show="true">Strawberry</Cake> <Cake show="false">Banana</Cake> </Cakes> Now I want to show some text say "TRUE" if all the Cake in A.xml have show="true" in B.xml else "FALSE". In the above case, it will print FALSE. I need to develop an XSL for that. I can loop through all the Cake in A.xml and check if that cake has show="true" in B.xml but I don't know how to break in between (and set a variable) if a show="false" is found. Is it possible? Any help/comments appreciated.

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• How to handle array element between int and Integer

  - by masato-san

  First, it is long post so if you need clarification please let me know. I'm new to Java and having difficulty deciding whether I should use int[] or Integer[]. I wrote a function that find odd_number from int[] array. public int[] find_odd(int[] arr) { int[] result = new int[arr.length]; for(int i=0; i<arr.length; i++) { if(arr[i] % 2 != 0) { //System.out.println(arr[i]); result[i] = arr[i]; } } return result; } Then, when I pass the int[] array consisting of some integer like below: int[] myArray = {-1, 0, 1, 2, 3}; int[] result = find_odd(myArray); The array "result" contains: 0, -1, 0, 1, 0, 3 Because in Java you have to define the size of array first, and empty int[] array element is 0 not null. So when I want to test the find_odd() function and expect the array to have odd numbers (which it does) only, it throws the error because the array also includes 0s representing "empty cell" as shown above. My test code: public void testFindOddPassValidIntArray() { int[] arr = {-2, -1, 0, 1, 3}; int[] result = findOddObj.find_odd(arr); //check if return array only contain odd number for(int i=0; i<result.length; i++) { if(result[i] != null) { assert is_odd(result[i]) : result[i]; } } } So, my question is should I use int[] array and add check for 0 element in my test like: if(result[i] != 0) { assert is_odd(result[i] : result[i] } But in this case, if find_odd() function is broken and returning 0 by miscalculation, I can't catch it because my test code would only assume that 0 is empty cell. OR should I use Integer[] array whose default is null? How do people deal with this kind of situation?

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• getSharedPreferences not working for me with concerns to ListPreferences and Integers

  - by ideagent

  I'm stuck at a point where I'm trying to get my project to read a preference value (from a ListPreference listing) and then use that value in a basic mathematical subtraction instance. The problem is that the "seek" preference is not being seen by my Java code, and yet the default value is (I've tried the default value with 3000 and now 0). Am i missing something, is there a bug here, known or unknown? Java code chunk where the issues manifests itself: public static final String PREF_FILE_NAME = "preferences"; seekback.setOnClickListener(new Button.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View view) { try { SharedPreferences preferences = getSharedPreferences(PREF_FILE_NAME, MODE_PRIVATE); Integer storedPreference = preferences.getInt("seek", 0); (mediaPlayer.getCurrentPosition()-storedPreference); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } }); Here are some other code bits for my project: From preferences file: <ListPreference android:entries="@array/seconds" android:entryValues="@array/seconds_values" android:summary="sets the seek interval for the seekback and seekforward buttons" android:title="Seek Interval" android:defaultValue="5000" android:key="@string/seek" From strings file: seek From an array file: Five seconds Fifteen seconds Thirty seconds Sixty seconds 5000 15000 30000 60000 let me know if you need to see more code to figure this one out Thanks in advance for any help that can be offered. I've worked over this issue now for a few hours and I'm burnt, a second pair of eyes on it would be very much appreciated. Arg, not sure how to get the code and plain text to format nicely here, even tried the options, like Code Sample, no luck AndroidCoder

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• jQuery or CSS - How do you make a link in a table row appear underlined even when the cursor is in a

  - by adam

  I have a table of 3-4 columns, the central one being task names that are also links(yet another todo app..groan). Im trying to make it so that whenever the mouse hovers over any part of the table row - not just the link itself - the link will appear underlined. Its a small detail but its been annoying me like hell and i refuse to let it get the better of me now. At first i tried jQuery with a (forgive the obvious syntax errors but this is the jist) $('#row_in_question').hover( function(){ $(this).find(...the link..).toggleClass("highlighted") }, function(){ $(this).find(...the link..).toggleClass("highlighted") } ); with this as a styling for the a element in general .highlighted { text-decoration: underlined; } and it did indeed toggle the highlighted class on that link - however css inheritance got in the way and no visual changes made. Since i previously styled that link to have no underline when not hovered it wouldnt change the style. So how do i go about this? I dont want the whole row to become clickable, I just want the text to become underlined.

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• Do I need to write a trigger for such a simple constraint?

  - by Paul Hanbury

  I really had a hard time knowing what words to put into the title of my question, as I am not especially sure if there is a database pattern related to my problem. I will try to simplify matters as much as possible to get directly to the heart of the issue. Suppose I have some tables. The first one is a list of widget types: create table widget_types ( widget_type_id number(7,0) primary key, description varchar2(50) ); The next one contains icons: create table icons ( icon_id number(7,0) primary key, picture blob ); Even though the users get to select their preferred widget, there is a predefined subset of widgets that they can choose from for each widget type. create table icon_associations ( widget_type_id number(7,0) references widget_types, icon_id number(7,0) references icons, primary key (widget_type_id, icon_id) ); create table icon_prefs ( user_id number(7,0) references users, widget_type_id number(7,0), icon_id number(7,0), primary key (user_id, widget_type_id), foreign key (widget_type_id, icon_id) references icon_associations ); Pretty simple so far. Let us now assume that if we are displaying an icon to a user who has not set up his preferences, we choose one of the appropriate images associated with the current widget. I'd like to specify the preferred icon to display in such a case, and here's where I run into my problem: alter table icon_associations add ( is_preferred char(1) check( is_preferred in ('y','n') ) ) ; I do not see how I can enforce that for each widget_type there is one, and only one, row having is_preferred set to 'y'. I know that in MySQL, I am able to write a subquery in my check constraint to quickly resolve this issue. This is not possible with Oracle. Is my mistake that this column has no business being in the icon_associations table? If not where should it go? Is this a case where, in Oracle, the constraint can only be handled with a trigger? I ask only because I'd like to go the constraint route if at all possible. Thanks so much for your help, Paul

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• Oracle Forms on-button-pressed trigger to solve three scenarios

  - by DBase486

  Hello, I'm writing a when-button-pressed trigger on a save button for an Oracle Forms 6i form, and it has to fulfill a couple of scenarios. Here's some background information: the fields we're primarily concerned with are: n_number, alert_id, end_date For all three scenarios we are comparing candidate records against the following records in the database (for the sake of argument, let's assume they're the only records in the database so far): alert_id|| n_number|| end_date ------------------------------------- 1|| 5|| _______ 2|| 6|| 10/25/2009 Scenario 1: The user enters a new record: alert_id 1 n_number 5 end_date NULL Objective: prevent the user from committing duplicate rows Scenario 2: The user enters a new record: alert_id 1 n_number 10 end_date NULL Objective: Notify the user that this alert_id already exists, but allow the user the ability to commit the row, if desired. Scenario 3: The user enters a new record: alert_id 2 n_number 6 end_date NULL Objective: Notify the user that this alert_id has occurred in the past (i.e. it has a not-null end_date), but allow the user to commit the row, if desired. I've written the code, which seems to comply with the first two scenarios, but prevents me from fulfilling the third. Issues: When I enter the third scenario case, I am prompted to commit the record, but when I attempt this, the "duplicate_stop" alert pops up, preventing me. Issues: I'm getting the following error: ORA-01843: not a valid month. While testing the code for the third scenario in Toad (hard-coding the values, etc) things seemed to be fine. Why would I encounter these problems at run-time? Help is very much appreciated. Thank you

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• How to link different Servlet together?

  - by Harry Pham

  First of all, I did not use Spring MVC. :) :) Just want to get it out first. Now what I have is different JSP pages that making calls to different Servlets. All the pieces work great individually but I kind of need to link them together. If all of jsp pages make GET request then it would be easy, since I would just pass a type via the web address, and on my servlet side, I would just enumerated through all the parameter, determine which type is it, and delegate to the right servlet. But not all jsp pages make GET request, some make POST request via form. Let see example A.jsp $.getJSON('GenericServlet?type=A', ... GenericServlet.java String type = request.getParameter("type"); if(type.equals("A")){ //Somehow delegate to Servlet A (Not sure how to do that yet :)) } but in B.jsp I would have something like this B.jsp <form action="GenericServlet" method="post"> <table border=0 cellspacing=10 cellpadding=0> <tr> <td>User Name:</td> <td><input type="text" name="username" size=22/></td> </tr> <tr> <td>Password:</td> <td><input type="password" name="password" size=22/></td> </tr> </table> <input type="submit" value="Create User" /> </form> It kind of hard for me to determine in GenericServlet.java that this need to go to servletB

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• Running unittest with typical test directory structure.

  - by Major Major

  The very common directory structure for even a simple Python module seems to be to separate the unit tests into their own test directory: new_project/ antigravity/ antigravity.py test/ test_antigravity.py setup.py etc. for example see this Python project howto. My question is simply What's the usual way of actually running the tests? I suspect this is obvious to everyone except me, but you can't just run python test_antigravity.py from the test directory as its import antigravity will fail as the module is not on the path. I know I could modify PYTHONPATH and other search path related tricks, but I can't believe that's the simplest way - it's fine if you're the developer but not realistic to expect your users to use if they just want to check the tests are passing. The other alternative is just to copy the test file into the other directory, but it seems a bit dumb and misses the point of having them in a separate directory to start with. So, if you had just downloaded the source to my new project how would you run the unit tests? I'd prefer an answer that would let me say to my users: "To run the unit tests do X."

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• redirecting the root domain - SEO and other issues, need some guidance!

  - by Jim Sp

  I'm not familiar with some of these forwarding methods and I need help. My issue is this: I have a site hosted on discountasp.net. My domain was registered through 1&1 and I redirected the DNS to what discountasp.net wanted. So when a user types www.mydomain.com, he/she sees the ASP.NET site hosted on discountasp.net, which is all fine My main page is Index.aspx, I really suck at html page design and I don't have time or the talent to fiddle with it (or money to get it done by a pro). The rest of the pages are fine. I want to use a good theme from tumblr or bloggr - one of the blog sites and create a page that I want to use as the first page - directly on blogger or tumblr - say yyy.blogspot.com (I have many reasons, so for now please don't bash my decision - let's just say that's what I want). That means when a user types www.mydomain.com, it should redirect it to the blogger or tumblr page. Everything else stays the sme - the links on the blogger page will say www.mydomain.com/xxxx and show up what's on the hosted website. I have setup the IIS rewrite rules etc. etc. so that all works just fine The bottom line is I want to show an external site's web page as my root page. I suppose I'm struggling to even explain what I want! I can of course do a response.redirect on the Index.aspx page - which is the simplest way to manage this, but the big question is will this hurt SEO in some way? If not, that would be what I do and leave the rest of the infrastructure intact (I have already done this to test and it works fine) Thank you very much j

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