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• How can I troubleshoot an APPCRASH in Internet Explorer?

  - by Schnapple

  I'm writing an ActiveX control using the firebreath framework (hi taxilian!) and while it technically works, I'm running into a weird issue that appears to be unique to me. I've followed the instructions to create a simple plugin and then I ran it in Internet Explorer 8 on Windows 7 x64 (firebreath sets up a test page for the control). But as soon as I try to test it (clicking on a link that fires off JavaScript to interact with the control), IE crashes. Hard. "Internet Explorer has stopped working" style. If I try the control in Firefox (the resulting registered DLL can also be called as a Firefox plugin using a MIME type), it works fine. If I try it on my XP box, it works fine. I emailed the DLL and the testing page to a coworker in the next cube who is like me also running Windows 7 x64 and it works for him just fine as well, so it's not something unique to Windows 7 or x64. When it crashes I get this message: Problem signature: Problem Event Name: APPCRASH Application Name: iexplore.exe Application Version: 8.0.7600.16385 Application Timestamp: 4a5bc69e Fault Module Name: RPCRT4.dll Fault Module Version: 6.1.7600.16385 Fault Module Timestamp: 4a5bdb3b Exception Code: c0000005 Exception Offset: 000220b1 OS Version: 6.1.7600.2.0.0.256.1 Locale ID: 1033 Additional Information 1: 0a9e Additional Information 2: 0a9e372d3b4ad19135b953a78882e789 Additional Information 3: 0a9e Additional Information 4: 0a9e372d3b4ad19135b953a78882e789 Which tells me nothing extremely useful. I can have it attach to a debugger but it just tells me a long list of DLL's, none of which are the ActiveX control in question. It's almost like it's not even getting there. I did a sfc /scannow yesterday to see if anything on my system is corrupt and nothing came up as wrong. I tried various different security levels in IE, but nothing seems to have any effect. As this is a development machine there has been all matter of crap installed on it, so I figure it's bound to be something I've installed since October (when Win7 was released) but I cannot figure out what it is. I presume the information it's giving me when I attach to Visual Studio is useful somehow but I don't know how to interpret it. Admittedly I'm mainly a C#/.NET developer who's a bit out of his element with C/C++ and troubleshooting native code, but does anyone have any advice on how to proceed on figuring out why this very simple ActiveX control crashes IE on my machine and nowhere else?

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• Custom NSView in NSMenuItem not receiving mouse events

  - by Dennis

  I have an NSMenu popping out of an NSStatusItem using popUpStatusItemMenu. These NSMenuItems show a bunch of different links, and each one is connected with setAction: to the openLink: method of a target. This arrangement has been working fine for a long time. The user chooses a link from the menu and the openLink: method then deals with it. Unfortunately, I recently decided to experiment with using NSMenuItem's setView: method to provide a nicer/slicker interface. Basically, I just stopped setting the title, created the NSMenuItem, and then used setView: to display a custom view. This works perfectly, the menu items look great and my custom view is displayed. However, when the user chooses a menu item and releases the mouse, the action no longer works (i.e., openLink: isn't called). If I just simply comment out the setView: call, then the actions work again (of course, the menu items are blank, but the action is executed properly). My first question, then, is why setting a view breaks the NSMenuItem's action. No problem, I thought, I'll fix it by detecting the mouseUp event in my custom view and calling my action method from there. I added this method to my custom view: - (void)mouseUp:(NSEvent *)theEvent { NSLog(@"in mouseUp"); } No dice! This method is never called. I can set tracking rects and receive mouseEntered: events, though. I put a few tests in my mouseEntered routine, as follows: if ([[self window] ignoresMouseEvents]) { NSLog(@"ignoring mouse events"); } else { NSLog(@"not ignoring mouse events"); } if ([[self window] canBecomeKeyWindow]) { dNSLog((@"canBecomeKeyWindow")); } else { NSLog(@"not canBecomeKeyWindow"); } if ([[self window] isKeyWindow]) { dNSLog((@"isKeyWindow")); } else { NSLog(@"not isKeyWindow"); } And got the following responses: not ignoring mouse events canBecomeKeyWindow not isKeyWindow Is this the problem? "not isKeyWindow"? Presumably this isn't good because Apple's docs say "If the user clicks a view that isn’t in the key window, by default the window is brought forward and made key, but the mouse event is not dispatched." But there must be a way do detect these events. HOW? Adding: [[self window] makeKeyWindow]; has no effect, despite the fact that canBecomeKeyWindow is YES.

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• Is this (Lock-Free) Queue Implementation Thread-Safe?

  - by Hosam Aly

  I am trying to create a lock-free queue implementation in Java, mainly for personal learning. The queue should be a general one, allowing any number of readers and/or writers concurrently. Would you please review it, and suggest any improvements/issues you find? Thank you. import java.util.concurrent.atomic.AtomicReference; public class LockFreeQueue<T> { private static class Node<E> { E value; volatile Node<E> next; Node(E value) { this.value = value; } } private AtomicReference<Node<T>> head, tail; public LockFreeQueue() { // have both head and tail point to a dummy node Node<T> dummyNode = new Node<T>(null); head = new AtomicReference<Node<T>>(dummyNode); tail = new AtomicReference<Node<T>>(dummyNode); } /** * Puts an object at the end of the queue. */ public void putObject(T value) { Node<T> newNode = new Node<T>(value); Node<T> prevTailNode = tail.getAndSet(newNode); prevTailNode.next = newNode; } /** * Gets an object from the beginning of the queue. The object is removed * from the queue. If there are no objects in the queue, returns null. */ public T getObject() { Node<T> headNode, valueNode; // move head node to the next node using atomic semantics // as long as next node is not null do { headNode = head.get(); valueNode = headNode.next; // try until the whole loop executes pseudo-atomically // (i.e. unaffected by modifications done by other threads) } while (valueNode != null && !head.compareAndSet(headNode, valueNode)); T value = (valueNode != null ? valueNode.value : null); // release the value pointed to by head, keeping the head node dummy if (valueNode != null) valueNode.value = null; return value; }

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• Data access pattern

  - by andlju

  I need some advice on what kind of pattern(s) I should use for pushing/pulling data into my application. I'm writing a rule-engine that needs to hold quite a large amount of data in-memory in order to be efficient enough. I have some rather conflicting requirements; It is not acceptable for the engine to always have to wait for a full pre-load of all data before it is functional. Only fetching and caching data on-demand will lead to the engine taking too long before it is running quickly enough. An external event can trigger the need for specific parts of the data to be reloaded. Basically, I think I need a combination of pushing and pulling data into the application. A simplified version of my current "pattern" looks like this (in psuedo-C# written in notepad): // This interface is implemented by all classes that needs the data interface IDataSubscriber { void RegisterData(Entity data); } // This interface is implemented by the data access class interface IDataProvider { void EnsureLoaded(Key dataKey); void RegisterSubscriber(IDataSubscriber subscriber); } class MyClassThatNeedsData : IDataSubscriber { IDataProvider _provider; MyClassThatNeedsData(IDataProvider provider) { _provider = provider; _provider.RegisterSubscriber(this); } public void RegisterData(Entity data) { // Save data for later StoreDataInCache(data); } void UseData(Key key) { // Make sure that the data has been stored in cache _provider.EnsureLoaded(key); Entity data = GetDataFromCache(key); } } class MyDataProvider : IDataProvider { List<IDataSubscriber> _subscribers; // Make sure that the data for key has been loaded to all subscribers public void EnsureLoaded(Key key) { if (HasKeyBeenMarkedAsLoaded(key)) return; PublishDataToSubscribers(key); MarkKeyAsLoaded(key); } // Force all subscribers to get a new version of the data for key public void ForceReload(Key key) { PublishDataToSubscribers(key); MarkKeyAsLoaded(key); } void PublishDataToSubscribers(Key key) { Entity data = FetchDataFromStore(key); foreach(var subscriber in _subscribers) { subscriber.RegisterData(data); } } } // This class will be spun off on startup and should make sure that all data is // preloaded as quickly as possible class MyPreloadingThread { IDataProvider _provider; MyPreloadingThread(IDataProvider provider) { _provider = provider; } void RunInBackground() { IEnumerable<Key> allKeys = GetAllKeys(); foreach(var key in allKeys) { _provider.EnsureLoaded(key); } } } I have a feeling though that this is not necessarily the best way of doing this.. Just the fact that explaining it seems to take two pages feels like an indication.. Any ideas? Any patterns out there I should have a look at?

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• Lightbox image / link URL

  - by GSTAR

  Basically I have a slightly non-standard implementation of FancyBox. By default you have to include a link to the large version of the image so that the Lightbox can display it. However, in my implementation, the image link URLs point to a script rather than directly to the image file. So for example, instead of: <a href="mysite/images/myimage.jpg" rel="gallery"> I have: <a href="mysite/photos/view/abc123" rel="gallery"> The above URL points to a function: public function actionPhotos($view) { $photo=Photo::model()->find('name=:name', array(':name'=>$view)); if(!empty($photo)) { $this->renderPartial('_photo', array('photo'=>$photo, true)); } } The "$this-renderPartial()" bit simply calls a layout file which includes a standard HTML tag to output. Now when the user clicks on a thumbnail, the above function is called and the large image is displayed in the Lightbox. Now if the user right clicks on the thumbnail and selects "open in new tab/window" then the image is displayed in the browser as per normal, i.e. just the image. I want to change this so that it displays the image within a layout. In the above code I can include the following and put it in an IF statement: $this->render('photos', array('photo'=>$photo)); This will call the layout file "photos" which contains the layout to display the image in. I have a specific limitation for this - the image URL must remain the same, i.e. no additional GET variables in the URL. However if we can pass in a GET variable in the background then that is OK. I will most likely need to change my function above so that it calls a different file for this functionality. EDIT: To demonstrate exactly what I am trying to do, check out the following: http://www.starnow.co.uk/KimberleyMarren Go to the photos tab and hover over a thumbnail - note the URL. Click the thumbnail and it will open up in the Lightbox. Next right click on that same thumbnail and select "open in new tab/new window". You will notice that the image is now displayed in a layout. So that same URL is used for displaying the image in the Lightbox and on its own page. The way StarNow have done this is using some crazy long JavaScript functionality, which I'm not too keen on replicating.

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• How can I use Web Services Core to send a complex type as a parameter to a SOAP API method

  - by Matthew Brindley

  I don't do much Cocoa programming, so I'm probably missing something obvious, so please excuse the basic question. I have a SOAP method that expects a complex type as a paramater. Here's some WSDL: <s:element name="SaveTestResult"> <s:complexType> <s:sequence> <s:element minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="1" name="result" type="tns:TestItemResponse" /> </s:sequence> </s:complexType> </s:element> Here's the definition of the complex type "TestItemResponse": <s:complexType name="TestItemResponse"> <s:sequence> <s:element minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="1" name="TestItemRequestId" type="s:int" /> <s:element minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="1" name="ExternalId" type="s:int" /> <s:element minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="1" name="ApiId" type="s:string" /> <s:element minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="1" name="InboxGuid" type="s:string" /> <s:element minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="1" name="SpamResult" type="tns:SpamResult" /> <s:element minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="1" name="ResultImageSet" type="tns:ResultImageSet" /> <s:element minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="1" name="ExclusiveUseMailAccountId" type="s:int" /> <s:element minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="1" name="State" type="tns:TestItemResponseState" /> <s:element minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="1" name="ErrorShortDescription" type="s:string" /> <s:element minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="1" name="ErrorFullDescription" type="s:string" /> </s:sequence> </s:complexType> I've been using Web Services Core to call a SOAP API method that requires a simple string param, that works great. That same method returns a complex type which WSC converted into nested NSDictionaries, so no problems there. So I assumed I'd be able to convert my local TestItemResponse class into an NSDictionary and then use that as the complex type param. It almost worked, but unfortunately WSC set the object's type as "Dictionary", instead of "TestItemResponse", and the server complained. <TestItemResponse xsi:type=\"SOAP-ENC:Dictionary\"> <ErrorFullDescription xsi:type=\"xsd:string\">foo</ErrorFullDescription> ... I can't seem to find anything that allows you to override the type WSC assigns to the element in the SOAP XML. I've been using code adapted from here, I'm happy to list it, it's just quite long and this is already the longest SO question I've ever posted.

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• Dumb IE6 resize behaviour - hope it rings some bells with someone

  - by Ollie2893

  Hi, I'm having no end of fun (sic) with jQuery.tabs. The widget is quite crafty in that it turns basic HTML like so <div> <ul> <li>Tab #1</li> ... </ul> <div for panel #1> </div> <div for panel #2> </div> ... </div> into a cute tabbed dialogue. (It does so by restyling the UL and then toggling the "display" attribute for the panel DIVs to show/not show whatever panel is selected.) Now I found that I can spare myself a lot of trouble in my JS project if I insert a scrollable IFRAME into each panel. One usability problem I'm trying to ameliorate is that when the tabbed panel becomes larger than the browser's window, then the user ends up with too many scrollbars. I am trying to avoid this situation by linking the size of the tabbed panel to that of $(window). That is, I trap and process the resize event on $(window). To make my life bearable, all components are relatively sized. This is also true, in particular, of the IFRAMEs (100% width, 100% height). The only exception are the panel DIVs, which are of fixed height (in px). And this is the only dimension css attribute that I manipulate during my resize action. All of this works a treat in FF and Chrome, but IE6 is doing something rather cute: So long as I do not affect the width of the browser window (but only change its height), only the panel DIV changes in height; the IFRAME contained will not change. As a result of this behaviour, it is not possible to shorten the tabbed panel below the height of the IFRAME. I can lengthen the DIV, yes. But the IFRAME will not fill the panel in that case. All becomes good the moment I make the slightest change to the width of the browser window. In that moment, the IFRAME expands to catch up with the extended DIV or DIV and IFRAME contract in tandem. Bizarre. I inserted useless CSS instructions like "position: relative" and "zoom: 1". Also nudged the display with "display: block". No joy so far. Any ideas? Thanks.

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• Java Nimbus LAF with transparent text fields

  - by Software Monkey

  I have an application that uses disabled JTextFields in several places which are intended to be transparent - allowing the background to show through instead of the text field's normal background. When running the new Nimbus LAF these fields are opaque (despite setting setOpaque(false)), and my UI is broken. It's as if the LAF is ignoring the opaque property. Setting a background color explicitly is both difficult in several places, and less than optimal due to background images actually doesn't work - it still paints it's LAF default background over the top, leaving a border-like appearance (the splash screen below has the background explicitly set to match the image). Any ideas on how I can get Nimbus to not paint the background for a JTextField? Note: I need a JTextField, rather than a JLabel, because I need the thread-safe setText(), and wrapping capability. Note: My fallback position is to continue using the system LAF, but Nimbus does look substantially better. See example images below. Conclusions The surprise at this behavior is due to a misinterpretation of what setOpaque() is meant to do - from the Nimbus bug report: This is a problem the the orginal design of Swing and how it has been confusing for years. The issue is setOpaque(false) has had a side effect in exiting LAFs which is that of hiding the background which is not really what it is ment for. It is ment to say that the component my have transparent parts and swing should paint the parent component behind it. It's unfortunate that the Nimbus components also appear not to honor setBackground(null) which would otherwise be the recommended way to stop the background painting. Setting a fully transparent background seems unintuitive to me. In my opinion, setOpaque()/isOpaque() is a faulty public API choice which should have been only: public boolean isFullyOpaque(); I say this, because isOpaque()==true is a contract with Swing that the component subclass will take responsibility for painting it's entire background - which means the parent can skip painting that region if it wants (which is an important performance enhancement). Something external cannot directly change this contract (legitimately), whose fulfillment may be coded into the component. So the opacity of the component should not have been settable using setOpaque(). Instead something like setBackground(null) should cause many components to "no long have a background" and therefore become not fully opaque. By way of example, in an ideal world most components should have an isOpaque() that looks like this: public boolean isOpaque() { return (background!=null); }

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• vb.net .aspxauth

  - by Morgan

  I am working with a large site trying to implement web parts for particular users in a particular subdirectory but I can't get the .ASPXAUTH cookie to be recognized. I've read dozens of tutorials and MS class library pages that tell me how it should work to no avail. I am brand new to Web parts, so I'm sorry if I'm unclear. The idea is that logged in users can travel the site, but then when they go to their dashboard, they are programmatically authenticated using Membership and FormsAuthentication to pull up their Personalization. When I step through the code, I can see the cookie being set, and that it exists on the following page, but Membership.GetUser() and User.Identity are both empty. I know the user exists because I created it programmatically using Membership.CreateUser() and I can see it when I do Membership.GetAllUsers() and it's online when i use Membership.GetUser(username) but the Personalization doesn't work. Right now, I'm just trying to get the proof of concept going. I've tried creating the ticket and cookie myself, and also using SetAuthCookie() (code follows). I really just need a clue as to what to look for. Here's the "login" page... If Membership.ValidateUser(testusername, testpassword) Then -- Works FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(testusername, true) Response.Redirect("webpartsdemo1.aspx", False) End If And the next page (webpartsdemo1.aspx) Dim cookey As String = ".ASPXAUTH" lblContent.Text &= "<br><br>" & Request.Cookies(cookey).Name & " Details" lblContent.Text &= "<br>path = " & Request.Cookies(cookey).Path lblContent.Text &= "<br>domain = " & Request.Cookies(cookey).Domain lblContent.Text &= "<br>expires = " & Request.Cookies(cookey).Expires lblContent.Text &= "<br>Secure only? " & Request.Cookies(cookey).Secure lblContent.Text &= "<br>HTTP only? = " & Request.Cookies(cookey).HttpOnly lblContent.Text &= "<br>Has subkeys? " & Request.Cookies(cookey).HasKeys lblContent.Text &= "<br/><br/>request authenticated? " & Request.IsAuthenticated.ToString lblContent.Text &= " Getting user<br/>Current User: " Dim muGidget As MembershipUser If Request.IsAuthenticated Then muGidget = Membership.GetUser lblContent.Text &= Membership.GetUser().UserName Else lblContent.Text &= "none found" End If Output: .ASPXAUTH Details path = / domain = expires = 12:00:00 AM Secure only? False HTTP only? = False Has subkeys? False request authenticated? False Getting user Current User: none found Sorry to go on so long. Thanks for any help you can provide.

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• How to include a PHP generated XML file into flash vars, while ALSO passing through the current php functions into it?

  - by Sam

  Hello Given situation: In webpage.php the flashscript is calling a flash script with a flashvar: the playlist file which is a PHP generated XML file: playlist.php, it does that well so long as there are no extra functions in there. Now, in that XML-format playlistfile there needs to be a special function, besides the usual echo("");, namely the very special echo __(""); function that is already declared in webpage.php which needs to do something with the paragraphs residing within that xml file. However, currently the retrieved file misses the function echo __();and says "no such function declared in that xml-format [playlist.php] file". The php functions that are currently included at the very top of webpage.php somehow do not pass-through-the necessary functions into the playlist file for it to recognise how to handle it, in order for that playlist to get those necessary functions working. Apparently these are not passed through automatically/properly when residing in the flashvars?? Cause the echo __(""); works fine when called within webpage.php or via a normal php include(""); if those functions are in a different php file. But not working from the playlist.php file. Any ideas why/what is going on here? I appreciate your clues for this prob +1. Thanks very much. WEBPAGE.PHP the webpage, has at the top an include with functions: <?php include (functions.php); ?> // function that know what to do with echo __("paragraph") <script language="JavaScript" type="text/javascript"> run( 'play', 'true', 'loop', 'true', 'flashvars', 'xmlFile=/incl/playlist.php', // <<<< !! 'wmode', 'transparent', 'allowScriptAccess','sameDomain', ); </script> <noscript> <object classid="blabla"> <param name="allowScriptAccess" value="sameDomain" /> <param name="movie" value="/movies/movie.swf" /> <param name="flashvars" value="xmlFile=/incl/playlist.php" /> // <<< !! <embed src="/movies/movies.swf" type="application/x-shockwave-flash"/> </object> </noscript> PLAYLIST.PHP The PHP generated XML file which is retrieved into the webpage as flash variable (see above) <?php echo ('<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?>'); echo ('<songs>'); echo ('<song version="1. "') . __("boom blue blow bell bowl") . ('/>'); echo ('<song version="2. "') . __("ball bail beam bike base") . ('/>'); echo ('</songs>'); ?>

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• Faster Matrix Multiplication in C#

  - by Kyle Lahnakoski

  I have as small c# project that involves matrices. I am processing large amounts of data by splitting it into n-length chunks, treating the chucks as vectors, and multiplying by a Vandermonde** matrix. The problem is, depending on the conditions, the size of the chucks and corresponding Vandermonde** matrix can vary. I have a general solution which is easy to read, but way too slow: public byte[] addBlockRedundancy(byte[] data) { if (data.Length!=numGood) D.error("Expecting data to be just "+numGood+" bytes long"); aMatrix d=aMatrix.newColumnMatrix(this.mod, data); var r=vandermonde.multiplyBy(d); return r.ToByteArray(); }//method This can process about 1/4 megabytes per second on my i5 U470 @ 1.33GHz. I can make this faster by manually inlining the matrix multiplication: int o=0; int d=0; for (d=0; d<data.Length-numGood; d+=numGood) { for (int r=0; r<numGood+numRedundant; r++) { Byte value=0; for (int c=0; c<numGood; c++) { value=mod.Add(value, mod.Multiply(vandermonde.get(r, c), data[d+c])); }//for output[r][o]=value; }//for o++; }//for This can process about 1 meg a second. (Please note the "mod" is performing operations over GF(2^8) modulo my favorite irreducible polynomial.) I know this can get a lot faster: After all, the Vandermonde** matrix is mostly zeros. I should be able to make a routine, or find a routine, that can take my matrix and return a optimized method which will effectively multiply vectors by the given matrix, but faster. Then, when I give this routine a 5x5 Vandermonde matrix (the identity matrix), there is simply no arithmetic to perform, and the original data is just copied. ** Please note: What I use the term "Vandermonde", I actually mean an Identity matrix with some number of rows from the Vandermonde matrix appended (see comments). This matrix is wonderful because of all the zeros, and because if you remove enough rows (of your choosing) to make it square, it is an invertible matrix. And, of course, I would like to use this same routine to convert any one of those inverted matrices into an optimized series of instructions. How can I make this matrix multiplication faster? Thanks! (edited to correct my mistake with Vandermonde matrix)

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• Spring transaction demarcation causes new Hibernate session despite use of OSIV

  - by Kelly Ellis

  I'm using Hibernate with OpenSessionInViewInterceptor so that a single Hibernate session will be used for the entire HTTP request (or so I wish). The problem is that Spring-configured transaction boundaries are causing a new session to be created, so I'm running into the following problem (pseudocode): Start in method marked @Transactional(propagation = Propagation.SUPPORTS, readOnly = false) Hibernate session #1 starts Call DAO method to update object foo; foo gets loaded into session cache for session #1 Call another method to update foo.bar, this one is marked @Transactional(propagation = Propagation.REQUIRED, readOnly = false) Transaction demarcation causes suspension of current transaction synchronization, which temporarily unbinds the current Hibernate session Hibernate session #2 starts since there's no currently-existing session Update field bar on foo (loading foo into session cache #2); persist to DB Transaction completes and method returns, session #1 resumes Call yet another method to update another field on foo Load foo from session cache #1, with old, incorrect value of bar Update field foo.baz, persist foo to DB foo.bar's old value overwrites the change we made in the previous step Configuration looks like: <bean name="openSessionInViewInterceptor" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.support.OpenSessionInViewInterceptor" autowire="byName"> <property name="flushModeName"> <value>FLUSH_AUTO</value> </property> </bean> <bean id="txManager" class="org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DataSourceTransactionManager"> <property name="dataSource" ref="myDataSource" /> </bean> <bean id="sessionFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.LocalSessionFactoryBean"> <property name="useTransactionAwareDataSource" value="true" /> <property name="mappingLocations"> <list> <value>/WEB-INF/xml/hibernate/content.hbm.xml</value> </list> </property> <property name="lobHandler"> <ref local="oracleLobHandler" /> </property> <!--property name="entityInterceptor" ref="auditLogInterceptor" /--> <property name="hibernateProperties" ref="HibernateProperties" /> <property name="dataSource" ref="myDataSource" /> </bean> I've done some debugging and figured out exactly where this is happening, here is the stack trace: Daemon Thread [http-8080-1] (Suspended (entry into method doUnbindResource in TransactionSynchronizationManager)) TransactionSynchronizationManager.doUnbindResource(Object) line: 222 TransactionSynchronizationManager.unbindResource(Object) line: 200 SpringSessionSynchronization.suspend() line: 115 DataSourceTransactionManager(AbstractPlatformTransactionManager).doSuspendSynchronization() line: 620 DataSourceTransactionManager(AbstractPlatformTransactionManager).suspend(Object) line: 549 DataSourceTransactionManager(AbstractPlatformTransactionManager).getTransaction(TransactionDefinition) line: 372 TransactionInterceptor(TransactionAspectSupport).createTransactionIfNecessary(TransactionAttribute, String) line: 263 TransactionInterceptor.invoke(MethodInvocation) line: 101 ReflectiveMethodInvocation.proceed() line: 171 JdkDynamicAopProxy.invoke(Object, Method, Object[]) line: 204 $Proxy14.changeVisibility(Long, ContentStatusVO, ContentAuditData) line: not available I can't figure out why transaction boundaries (even "nested" ones - though here we're just moving from SUPPORTS to REQUIRED) would cause the Hibernate session to be suspended, even though OpenSessionInViewInterceptor is in use. When the session is unbound, I see the following in my logs: [2010-02-16 18:20:59,150] DEBUG org.springframework.transaction.support.TransactionSynchronizationManager Removed value [org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.SessionHolder@7def534e] for key [org.hibernate.impl.SessionFactoryImpl@693f23a2] from thread [http-8080-1]

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• Creating thousands of records in Rails

  - by willCosgrove

  Let me set the stage: My application deals with gift cards. When we create cards they have to have a unique string that the user can use to redeem it with. So when someone orders our gift cards, like a retailer, we need to make a lot of new card objects and store them in the DB. With that in mind, I'm trying to see how quickly I can have my application generate 100,000 Cards. Database expert, I am not, so I need someone to explain this little phenomena: When I create 1000 Cards, it takes 5 seconds. When I create 100,000 cards it should take 500 seconds right? Now I know what you're wanting to see, the card creation method I'm using, because the first assumption would be that it's getting slower because it's checking the uniqueness of a bunch of cards, more as it goes along. But I can show you my rake task desc "Creates cards for a retailer" task :order_cards, [:number_of_cards, :value, :retailer_name] => :environment do |t, args| t = Time.now puts "Searching for retailer" @retailer = Retailer.find_by_name(args[:retailer_name]) puts "Retailer found" puts "Generating codes" value = args[:value].to_i number_of_cards = args[:number_of_cards].to_i codes = [] top_off_codes(codes, number_of_cards) while codes != codes.uniq codes.uniq! top_off_codes(codes, number_of_cards) end stored_codes = Card.all.collect do |c| c.code end while codes != (codes - stored_codes) codes -= stored_codes top_off_codes(codes, number_of_cards) end puts "Codes are unique and generated" puts "Creating bundle" @bundle = @retailer.bundles.create!(:value => value) puts "Bundle created" puts "Creating cards" @bundle.transaction do codes.each do |code| @bundle.cards.create!(:code => code) end end puts "Cards generated in #{Time.now - t}s" end def top_off_codes(codes, intended_number) (intended_number - codes.size).times do codes << ReadableRandom.get(CODE_LENGTH) end end I'm using a gem called readable_random for the unique code. So if you read through all of that code, you'll see that it does all of it's uniqueness testing before it ever starts creating cards. It also writes status updates to the screen while it's running, and it always sits for a while at creating. Meanwhile it flies through the uniqueness tests. So my question to the stackoverflow community is: Why is my database slowing down as I add more cards? Why is this not a linear function in regards to time per card? I'm sure the answer is simple and I'm just a moron who knows nothing about data storage. And if anyone has any suggestions, how would you optimize this method, and how fast do you think you could get it to create 100,000 cards? (When I plotted out my times on a graph and did a quick curve fit to get my line formula, I calculated how long it would take to create 100,000 cards with my current code and it says 5.5 hours. That maybe completely wrong, I'm not sure. But if it stays on the line I curve fitted, it would be right around there.)

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• Really "wow" them in the interview

  - by Juliet

  Let me put it to you this way: I'm a top-notch programmer, but a notoriously bad interviewee. I've flunked 3 interviews consecutively because I get so nervous that my voice tightens at least 2 octaves higher and I start visibly shaking -- mind you, I can handle whatever technical questions the interviewer throws at me in that state, but I think it looks bad to come off as a quivering, squeaky-voiced young woman during a job interview. I've just got the personality type of a shy computer programmer. No matter how technical I am, I'm going to get passed up in favor of a smooth talker. I have another interview coming up shortly, and I want to really impress the company. Here are my trouble spots: What can I do to be less nervous during my interview? I always get really excited when I hear I have a face-to-face interview, but get more and more anxious as D-Day the interview approaches. My employers wants me to explain what I used to do at my prior employment. I'm a very chatty person and tend to talk/squeak for 10 minutes at a time. How long or short should I time my answers? On that note, when I'm explaining what I did at prior jobs, what exactly is my interviewer looking for? At some point, my interviewer will ask "do you have any questions for me while you're here?" I should, but what kinds of questions should I ask to show that I'm interested in being employed? My interviewer always asks why I'm looking for a new job. The real reason is that my present salary is $27K/yr [Edit to add: and I've yet to get a raise since I started], and I want to make more money -- otherwise the work environment is fine. How do I sugarcoat "I want to make more money" into something that sounds nicer? I have only one prior programmer job, and I've worked there for 18 months, but I have the skill of someone with 4 to 6 years of experience. What can I say to compete against applicants with more work experience? I took a low-paying $27K/yr programming job just to get my foot in IT, and I've been trying to leverage that job as a stepping stone to better opportunities. I get interviews because I consistently out-score senior-level developers in aptitude tests, and my desired salary range is right in the ballpark of what most companies want to offer. Unfortunately, while I've been a programming as a hobby for 10 years and I'm geared to graduate with my BA in Comp Sci in May '09, employers see me as a junior-level programmer with no degree. I want to prove them wrong and get a job that matches my skill level. I'd appreciate any advice anyone has to offer, especially if they can help me get a better job in the process.

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• Parse and transform XML with missing elements into table structure

  - by dnlbrky

  I'm trying to parse an XML file. A simplified version of it looks like this: x <- '<grandparent><parent><child1>ABC123</child1><child2>1381956044</child2></parent><parent><child2>1397527137</child2></parent><parent><child3>4675</child3></parent><parent><child1>DEF456</child1><child3>3735</child3></parent><parent><child1/><child3>3735</child3></parent></grandparent>' library(XML) xmlRoot(xmlTreeParse(x)) ## <grandparent> ## <parent> ## <child1>ABC123</child1> ## <child2>1381956044</child2> ## </parent> ## <parent> ## <child2>1397527137</child2> ## </parent> ## <parent> ## <child3>4675</child3> ## </parent> ## <parent> ## <child1>DEF456</child1> ## <child3>3735</child3> ## </parent> ## <parent> ## <child1/> ## <child3>3735</child3> ## </parent> ## </grandparent> I'd like to transform the XML into a data.frame / data.table that looks like this: parent <- data.frame(child1=c("ABC123",NA,NA,"DEF456",NA), child2=c(1381956044, 1397527137, rep(NA, 3)), child3=c(rep(NA, 2), 4675, 3735, 3735)) parent ## child1 child2 child3 ## 1 ABC123 1381956044 NA ## 2 <NA> 1397527137 NA ## 3 <NA> NA 4675 ## 4 DEF456 NA 3735 ## 5 <NA> NA 3735 If each parent node always contained all of the possible elements ("child1", "child2", "child3", etc.), I could use xmlToList and unlist to flatten it, and then dcast to put it into a table. But the XML often has missing child elements. Here is an attempt with incorrect output: library(data.table) ## Flatten: dt <- as.data.table(unlist(xmlToList(x)), keep.rownames=T) setnames(dt, c("column", "value")) ## Add row numbers, but they're incorrect due to missing XML elements: dt[, row:=.SD[,.I], by=column][] column value row 1: parent.child1 ABC123 1 2: parent.child2 1381956044 1 3: parent.child2 1397527137 2 4: parent.child3 4675 1 5: parent.child1 DEF456 2 6: parent.child3 3735 2 7: parent.child3 3735 3 ## Reshape from long to wide, but some value are in the wrong row: dcast.data.table(dt, row~column, value.var="value", fill=NA) ## row parent.child1 parent.child2 parent.child3 ## 1: 1 ABC123 1381956044 4675 ## 2: 2 DEF456 1397527137 3735 ## 3: 3 NA NA 3735 I won't know ahead of time the names of the child elements, or the count of unique element names for children of the grandparent, so the answer should be flexible.

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• Creating meaningful routes in wizard style ASP.NET MVC form

  - by R0MANARMY

  I apologize in advance for a long question, figured better have a bit more information than not enough. I'm working on an application with a fairly complex form (~100 fields on it). In order to make the UI a little more presentable the fields are organized into regions and split across multiple (~10) tabs (not unlike this, but each tab does a submit/redirect to next tab). This large input form can also be in one of 3 views (read only, editable, print friendly). The form represents a large domain object (let's call it Foo). I have a controller for said domain object (FooController). It makes sense to me to have the controller be responsible for all the CRUD related operations. Here are the problems I'm having trouble figuring out. Goals: I'd like to keep to conventions so that Foo/Create creates a new record Foo/Delete deletes a record Foo/Edit/{foo_id} takes you to the first tab of the form ...etc I'd like to be able to not repeat the data access code such that I can have Foo/Edit/{foo_id}/tab1 Foo/View/{foo_id}/tab1 Foo/Print/{foo_id}tab1 ...etc use the same data access code to get the data and just specify which view to use to render it. My current implementation has a massive FooController with Create, Delete, Tab1, Tab2, etc actions. Tab actions are split out into separate files for organization (using partial classes, which may or may not be abuse of partial classes). Problem I'm running into is how to organize my controller(s) and routes to make that happen. I have the default route {controller}/{action}/{id} Which handles goal 1 properly but doesn't quite play nice with goal 2. I tried to address goal 2 by defining extra routes like so: routes.MapRoute( "FooEdit", "Foo/Edit/{id}/{action}", new { controller = "Foo", action = "Tab1", mode = "Edit", id = (string)null } ); routes.MapRoute( "FooView", "Foo/View/{id}/{action}", new { controller = "Foo", action = "Tab1", mode = "View", id = (string)null } ); routes.MapRoute( "FooPrint", "Foo/Print/{id}/{action}", new { controller = "Foo", action = "Tab1", mode = "Print", id = (string)null } ); However defining these extra routes causes the Url.Action to generate routs like Foo/Edit/Create instead of Foo/Create. That leads me to believe I designed something very very wrong, but this is my first attempt an asp.net mvc project and I don't know any better. Any advice with this particular situation would be awesome, but feedback on design in similar projects is welcome.

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• Securing a license key with RSA key.

  - by Jesse Knott

  Hello, it's late, I'm tired, and probably being quite dense.... I have written an application that I need to secure so it will only run on machines that I generate a key for. What I am doing for now is getting the BIOS serial number and generating a hash from that, I then am encrypting it using a XML RSA private key. I then sign the XML to ensure that it is not tampered with. I am trying to package the public key to decrypt and verify the signature with, but every time I try to execute the code as a different user than the one that generated the signature I get a failure on the signature. Most of my code is modified from sample code I have found since I am not as familiar with RSA encryption as I would like to be. Below is the code I was using and the code I thought I needed to use to get this working right... Any feedback would be greatly appreciated as I am quite lost at this point the original code I was working with was this, this code works fine as long as the user launching the program is the same one that signed the document originally... CspParameters cspParams = new CspParameters(); cspParams.KeyContainerName = "XML_DSIG_RSA_KEY"; cspParams.Flags = CspProviderFlags.UseMachineKeyStore; // Create a new RSA signing key and save it in the container. RSACryptoServiceProvider rsaKey = new RSACryptoServiceProvider(cspParams) { PersistKeyInCsp = true, }; This code is what I believe I should be doing but it's failing to verify the signature no matter what I do, regardless if it's the same user or a different one... RSACryptoServiceProvider rsaKey = new RSACryptoServiceProvider(); //Load the private key from xml file XmlDocument xmlPrivateKey = new XmlDocument(); xmlPrivateKey.Load("KeyPriv.xml"); rsaKey.FromXmlString(xmlPrivateKey.InnerXml); I believe this to have something to do with the key container name (Being a real dumbass here please excuse me) I am quite certain that this is the line that is both causing it to work in the first case and preventing it from working in the second case.... cspParams.KeyContainerName = "XML_DSIG_RSA_KEY"; Is there a way for me to sign/encrypt the XML with a private key when the application license is generated and then drop the public key in the app directory and use that to verify/decrypt the code? I can drop the encryption part if I can get the signature part working right. I was using it as a backup to obfuscate the origin of the license code I am keying from. Does any of this make sense? Am I a total dunce? Thanks for any help anyone can give me in this..

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• Which third party website thumbnailing services do you use?

  - by Ben Delarre

  I've got a requirement for showing thumbnails of arbitrary websites. I need to be able to show small thumbnails (120px by 90px), and larger thumbnails of around 480px wide. I'll need to specify the queue and invalid placeholder images and preferably have a pingback when the queued images are processed so I can respond appropriately. I'd also need a simple API I can use either directly embedded in my HTML, or from a simple web request to queue the images. I've been looking at various services ranging from low-fi services, to large scale ones - here's some examples: www.bitpixels.com Uses Google AppEngine, seems like a prototype or a toy. Free! www.websnapr.com Tried using this, made a free account and requested a thumbnail. Waited a few minutes and refreshed a couple of times, and ended up having the account banned. Free is tricky yes, but if I can't try it out successfully I'm disinclined to pay. www.shrinktheweb.com Free account seems to be very quick. Lots of documentation on the site, and even covers local caching of the images to your own server (documentation mostly in PHP). Quality of thumbnails look good, and there appear to be sufficient options for setting thumbnail placeholder images and parameters for altering how the thumbnailing is done. Also supports large 'screenshots' of URLs - very useful for me. Discovered the PRO pricing is an à la carte menu, allowing me to select just the features I want and keep the monthly cost low. Excellent stuff, have decided to use this service. www.thumbalizr.com Good coverage of thumbnail sizes and control options - even allowing specification for browser width when thumbnailing. No ping-back, but I can live without that. Supports local caching of images with PHP API, would prefer .NET, but can port it if necessary. Looks like a fairly professional service but seems fairly expensive for the number of thumbnails you get to generate. apologies for lack of proper linking - spam protection! I'm not entirely convinced by any of them, and since this will be a long term service I'd like some stability and support. I'm willing to pay for the service, but I'd want something that fulfills most if not all of my requirements for that. I should also mention that we're hosted on Windows under IIS, so local solutions involving Xvfb and the like sadly can't be used for this project. So my question is: what services do you use? How have they panned out, are you happy with them?

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• Splitting a test to a set of smaller tests

  - by mkorpela

  I want to be able to split a big test to smaller tests so that when the smaller tests pass they imply that the big test would also pass (so there is no reason to run the original big test). I want to do this because smaller tests usually take less time, less effort and are less fragile. I would like to know if there are test design patterns or verification tools that can help me to achieve this test splitting in a robust way. I fear that the connection between the smaller tests and the original test is lost when someone changes something in the set of smaller tests. Another fear is that the set of smaller tests doesn't really cover the big test. An example of what I am aiming at: //Class under test class A { public void setB(B b){ this.b = b; } public Output process(Input i){ return b.process(doMyProcessing(i)); } private InputFromA doMyProcessing(Input i){ .. } .. } //Another class under test class B { public Output process(InputFromA i){ .. } .. } //The Big Test @Test public void theBigTest(){ A systemUnderTest = createSystemUnderTest(); // <-- expect that this is expensive Input i = createInput(); Output o = systemUnderTest.process(i); // <-- .. or expect that this is expensive assertEquals(o, expectedOutput()); } //The splitted tests @PartlyDefines("theBigTest") // <-- so something like this should come from the tool.. @Test public void smallerTest1(){ // this method is a bit too long but its just an example.. Input i = createInput(); InputFromA x = expectedInputFromA(); // this should be the same in both tests and it should be ensured somehow Output expected = expectedOutput(); // this should be the same in both tests and it should be ensured somehow B b = mock(B.class); when(b.process(x)).thenReturn(expected); A classUnderTest = createInstanceOfClassA(); classUnderTest.setB(b); Output o = classUnderTest.process(i); assertEquals(o, expected); verify(b).process(x); verifyNoMoreInteractions(b); } @PartlyDefines("theBigTest") // <-- so something like this should come from the tool.. @Test public void smallerTest2(){ InputFromA x = expectedInputFromA(); // this should be the same in both tests and it should be ensured somehow Output expected = expectedOutput(); // this should be the same in both tests and it should be ensured somehow B classUnderTest = createInstanceOfClassB(); Output o = classUnderTest.process(x); assertEquals(o, expected); }

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• problem with filtering the dropdownlist in scroll window

  - by Rahul

  Hi all, Problem with filtering Dropdown list. The scenario is : in scroll window there are two fields Document types and type id: Document type is Dropdown list: As per document type selection type id look should display the values. For ex. If I select quote type from document type and if I open type id look up it should display only quotation in the look window. It should work for all the values of document type drop down list values. Its working fine. The item in the document types are: Quote, Order, Invoice, Return, BackOrder. The problem is after saving the data when I am displaying the same record in scroll window, suppose after displaying document type is QUOTE and document id is QTOARD, and in this position I am changing the document type from dropdown QUOTE to ORDER at this time warning message should c ome this range entered is in valid. Because in database table there is no document QTOARD for ORDER type. The same should work for all the condition. The table name is SOP_ID_Setp and key is SOP Type and DocumentID. For that I have written the Stored procedure : create procedure DocTypeFilter @DocumentType as int, @DocumentID as varchar(30) as --declare --@documentype int, --@documentID varchar(30), select * from sop40200 where soptype=@DocumentType and docid=@DocumentID and I have called this SP in Dropdownlist change event. local long retcode; range clear table SOP_ID_SETP; clear field 'SOP Type' of table SOP_ID_SETP; clear field 'Document ID' of table SOP_ID_SETP; range start table SOP_ID_SETP; fill field 'SOP Type' of table SOP_ID_SETP; fill field 'Document ID' of table SOP_ID_SETP; range end table SOP_ID_SETP; if err()=OKAY then call DocTypeFilter,retcode,'Document Type' of window 'Is_Document Type Site_Scroll','Document ID' of window 'Is_Document Type Site_Scroll'; else warning "The range entered is invalid"; clear window 'Is_Document Type Site_Scroll'; fill window 'Is_Document Type Site_Scroll' table is_sop_site_line_temp; end if; Above code not giving the expected output any help pls.

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• Android: database reading problem throws exception

  - by Vamsi

  Hi, i am having this problem with the android database. I adopted the DBAdapter file the NotepadAdv3 example from the google android page. DBAdapter.java public class DBAdapter { private static final String TAG = "DBAdapter"; private static final String DATABASE_NAME = "PasswordDb"; private static final String DATABASE_TABLE = "myuserdata"; private static final String DATABASE_USERKEY = "myuserkey"; private static final int DATABASE_VERSION = 2; public static final String KEY_USERKEY = "userkey"; public static final String KEY_TITLE = "title"; public static final String KEY_DATA = "data"; public static final String KEY_ROWID = "_id"; private final Context mContext; private DatabaseHelper mDbHelper; private SQLiteDatabase mDb; private static final String DB_CREATE_KEY = "create table " + DATABASE_USERKEY + " (" + "userkey text not null" +");"; private static final String DB_CREATE_DATA = "create table " + DATABASE_TABLE + " (" + "_id integer primary key autoincrement, " + "title text not null" + "data text" +");"; private static class DatabaseHelper extends SQLiteOpenHelper { DatabaseHelper(Context context) { super(context, DATABASE_NAME, null, DATABASE_VERSION); } @Override public void onCreate(SQLiteDatabase db) { db.execSQL(DB_CREATE_KEY); db.execSQL(DB_CREATE_DATA); } @Override public void onUpgrade(SQLiteDatabase db, int oldVersion, int newVersion) { Log.w(TAG, "Upgrading database from version " + oldVersion + " to " + newVersion + ", which will destroy all old data"); db.execSQL("DROP TABLE IF EXISTS myuserkey"); db.execSQL("DROP TABLE IF EXISTS myuserdata"); onCreate(db); } } public DBAdapter(Context ctx) { this.mContext = ctx; } public DBAdapter Open() throws SQLException{ try { mDbHelper = new DatabaseHelper(mContext); } catch(Exception e){ Log.e(TAG, e.toString()); } mDb = mDbHelper.getWritableDatabase(); return this; } public void close(){ mDbHelper.close(); } public Long storeKey(String userKey){ ContentValues initialValues = new ContentValues(); initialValues.put(KEY_USERKEY, userKey); try { mDb.delete(DATABASE_USERKEY, "1=1", null); } catch(Exception e) { Log.e(TAG, e.toString()); } return mDb.insert(DATABASE_USERKEY, null, initialValues); } public String retrieveKey() { final Cursor c; try { c = mDb.query(DATABASE_USERKEY, new String[] { KEY_USERKEY}, null, null, null, null, null); }catch(Exception e){ Log.e(TAG, e.toString()); return ""; } if(c.moveToFirst()){ return c.getString(0); } else{ Log.d(TAG, "UserKey Empty"); } return ""; } //not including any function related to "myuserdata" table } Class1.java { mUserKey = mDbHelper.retrieveKey(); mDbHelper.storeKey(Key); } the error that i am receiving is from Log.e(TAG, e.toString()) in the methods retrieveKey() and storeKey() "no such table: myuserkey: , while compiling: SELECT userkey FROM myuserkey"

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• stdio's remove() not always deleting on time.

  - by Kyte

  For a particular piece of homework, I'm implementing a basic data storage system using sequential files under standard C, which cannot load more than 1 record at a time. So, the basic part is creating a new file where the results of whatever we do with the original records are stored. The previous file's renamed, and a new one under the working name is created. The code's compiled with MinGW 5.1.6 on Windows 7. Problem is, this particular version of the code (I've got nearly-identical versions of this floating around my functions) doesn't always remove the old file, so the rename fails and hence the stored data gets wiped by the fopen(). FILE *archivo, *antiguo; remove("IndiceNecesidades.old"); // This randomly fails to work in time. rename("IndiceNecesidades.dat", "IndiceNecesidades.old"); // So rename() fails. antiguo = fopen("IndiceNecesidades.old", "rb"); // But apparently it still gets deleted, since this turns out null (and I never find the .old in my working folder after the program's done). archivo = fopen("IndiceNecesidades.dat", "wb"); // And here the data gets wiped. Basically, anytime the .old previously exists, there's a chance it's not removed in time for the rename() to take effect successfully. No possible name conflicts both internally and externally. The weird thing's that it's only with this particular file. Identical snippets except with the name changed to Necesidades.dat (which happen in 3 different functions) work perfectly fine. // I'm yet to see this snippet fail. FILE *antiguo, *archivo; remove("Necesidades.old"); rename("Necesidades.dat", "Necesidades.old"); antiguo = fopen("Necesidades.old", "rb"); archivo = fopen("Necesidades.dat", "wb"); Any ideas on why would this happen, and/or how can I ensure the remove() command has taken effect by the time rename() is executed? (I thought of just using a while loop to force call remove() again so long as fopen() returns a non-null pointer, but that sounds like begging for a crash due to overflowing the OS with delete requests or something.)

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• PHP mysqli wrapper: passing by reference with __call() and call_user_func_array()

  - by Dave

  Hi everyone. I'm a long running fan of stackoverflow, first time poster. I'd love to see if someone can help me with this. Let me dig in with a little code, then I'll explain my problem. I have the following wrapper classes: class mysqli_wrapper { private static $mysqli_obj; function __construct() // Recycles the mysqli object { if (!isset(self::$mysqli_obj)) { self::$mysqli_obj = new mysqli(MYSQL_SERVER, MYSQL_USER, MYSQL_PASS, MYSQL_DBNAME); } } function __call($method, $args) { return call_user_func_array(array(self::$mysqli_obj, $method), $args); } function __get($para) { return self::$mysqli_obj->$para; } function prepare($query) // Overloaded, returns statement wrapper { return new mysqli_stmt_wrapper(self::$mysqli_obj, $query); } } class mysqli_stmt_wrapper { private $stmt_obj; function __construct($link, $query) { $this->stmt_obj = mysqli_prepare($link, $query); } function __call($method, $args) { return call_user_func_array(array($this->stmt_obj, $method), $args); } function __get($para) { return $this->stmt_obj->$para; } // Other methods will be added here } My problem is that when I call bind_result() on the mysqli_stmt_wrapper class, my variables don't seem to be passed by reference and nothing gets returned. To illustrate, if I run this section of code, I only get NULL's: $mysqli = new mysqli_wrapper; $stmt = $mysqli->prepare("SELECT cfg_key, cfg_value FROM config"); $stmt->execute(); $stmt->bind_result($cfg_key, $cfg_value); while ($stmt->fetch()) { var_dump($cfg_key); var_dump($cfg_value); } $stmt->close(); I also get a nice error from PHP which tells me: PHP Warning: Parameter 1 to mysqli_stmt::bind_result() expected to be a reference, value given in test.php on line 48 I've tried to overload the bind_param() function, but I can't figure out how to get a variable number of arguments by reference. func_get_args() doesn't seem to be able to help either. If I pass the variables by reference as in $stmt->bind_result(&$cfg_key, &$cfg_value) it should work, but this is deprecated behaviour and throws more errors. Does anyone have some ideas around this? Thanks so much for your time.

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• php if clause inside foreach not retrieving data correctly

  - by Mike

  Here's my issue: In my controller, I want to grab user input from a form. I then parse the input, and compare it to database values to ensure I'm grabbing the correct input. I simply want to match the user's answers to the question, grab the user ID, the question ID, and then determine if the answer applies to a multiple choice or checkbox question, or something else. I take those values and insert them into the answer table. Ignore the waiver stuff. I'll test that once I get the answers input correctly. // add answers and waiver consent records try { $answerArray = array(); $waiverArray = array(); // retrieve answers, waiver consents, and the question ID's from form object foreach ($formData as $key => $value) { $parts = explode("_", $key); if ($parts[0] == 'question') { array_push($answerArray, $value); } if ($parts[0] == 'waiverTitle') { array_push($waiverArray, $value); } } $questions = new Model_DbTable_Questions(); $questionResults = $questions->getQuestionResults($session->idEvent); foreach ( $questionResults as $qr ) { if ($qr ['questionType'] == 'multipleChoice' || $qr ['questionType'] == 'checkBox') { foreach ( $answerArray as $aa ) { $answerData = $answers->addAnswer ( $lastUserID, $qr ['idQuestion'], null, $aa ); echo count ( $answerData ) . ', ' . $qr ['questionType'] . ', ' . $aa . '<br />'; } } else { foreach ( $answerArray as $aa ) { $answerData = $answers->addAnswer ( $lastUserID, $qr ['idQuestion'], $aa, null ); echo count ( $answerData ) . ', ' . $qr ['questionType'] . ', ' . $aa . '<br />'; } } } } catch (Zend_Db_Statement_Exception $e) { $e->getMessage(); throw $e; } From my test data, I expect to get 2 records that match the multiple choice and checkbox criteria, and 1 record for text in the ELSE clause like this: 3, checkbox, 1 3, multipleChoice, 1 3, text, question_2 What I get is a 3x3 Cartesian product, 3 question elements each with the 3 possible answers like this output from the echo statements: 4, checkBox, 1 4, checkBox, 1 4, checkBox, question_2 4, multipleChoice, 1 4, multipleChoice, 1 4, multipleChoice, question_2 4, text, 1 4, text, 1 4, text, question_2 I've tried placing the IF clause inside the inner foreach, but I get the same results. I've been staring at this problem for way too long and cannot see what I'm doing wrong. Your kind assistance would be greatly appreciated. Please let me know if my request requires more clarification.

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• Binding Silverlight UserControl custom properties to its' elements

  - by ghostskunks

  Hi. I'm trying to make a simple crossword puzzle game in Silverlight 2.0. I'm working on a UserControl-ish component that represents a square in the puzzle. I'm having trouble with binding up my UserControl's properties with its' elements. I've finally (sort of) got it working (may be helpful to some - it took me a few long hours), but wanted to make it more 'elegant'. I've imagined it should have a compartment for the content and a label (in the upper right corner) that optionally contains its' number. The content control probably be a TextBox, while label control could be a TextBlock. So I created a UserControl with this basic structure (the values are hardcoded at this stage): <UserControl x:Class="XWord.Square" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" FontSize="30" Width="100" Height="100"> <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot" Background="White"> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="*"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto"/> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="Auto"/> <RowDefinition Height="*"/> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <TextBlock x:Name="Label" Grid.Row="0" Grid.Column="1" Text="7"/> <TextBox x:Name="Content" Grid.Row="1" Grid.Column="0" Text="A" BorderThickness="0" /> </Grid> </UserControl> I've also created DependencyProperties in the Square class like this: public static readonly DependencyProperty LabelTextProperty; public static readonly DependencyProperty ContentCharacterProperty; // ...(static constructor with property registration, .NET properties // omitted for brevity)... Now I'd like to figure out how to bind the Label and Content element to the two properties. I do it like this (in the code-behind file): Label.SetBinding( TextBlock.TextProperty, new Binding { Source = this, Path = new PropertyPath( "LabelText" ), Mode = BindingMode.OneWay } ); Content.SetBinding( TextBox.TextProperty, new Binding { Source = this, Path = new PropertyPath( "ContentCharacter" ), Mode = BindingMode.TwoWay } ); That would be more elegant done in XAML. Does anyone know how that's done?

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