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  • To use AES with 256 bits in inbuild java 1.4 api.

    - by sahil garg
    I am able to encrypt with AES 128 but with more key length it fails. code using AES 128 is as below. import java.security.*; import javax.crypto.*; import javax.crypto.spec.*; import java.io.*; /** * This program generates a AES key, retrieves its raw bytes, and * then reinstantiates a AES key from the key bytes. * The reinstantiated key is used to initialize a AES cipher for * encryption and decryption. */ public class AES { /** * Turns array of bytes into string * * @param buf Array of bytes to convert to hex string * @return Generated hex string */ public static String asHex (byte buf[]) { StringBuffer strbuf = new StringBuffer(buf.length * 2); int i; for (i = 0; i < buf.length; i++) { if (((int) buf[i] & 0xff) < 0x10) strbuf.append("0"); strbuf.append(Long.toString((int) buf[i] & 0xff, 16)); } return strbuf.toString(); } public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { String message="This is just an example"; // Get the KeyGenerator KeyGenerator kgen = KeyGenerator.getInstance("AES"); kgen.init(128); // 192 and 256 bits may not be available // Generate the secret key specs. SecretKey skey = kgen.generateKey(); byte[] raw = skey.getEncoded(); SecretKeySpec skeySpec = new SecretKeySpec(raw, "AES"); // Instantiate the cipher Cipher cipher = Cipher.getInstance("AES"); cipher.init(Cipher.ENCRYPT_MODE, skeySpec); byte[] encrypted =cipher.doFinal("welcome".getBytes()); System.out.println("encrypted string: " + asHex(encrypted)); cipher.init(Cipher.DECRYPT_MODE, skeySpec); byte[] original = cipher.doFinal(encrypted); String originalString = new String(original); System.out.println("Original string: " + originalString + " " + asHex(original)); } }

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  • C++ vs Matlab vs Python as a main language for Computer Vision Research

    - by Hough
    Hi all, Firstly, sorry for a somewhat long question but I think that many people are in the same situation as me and hopefully they can also gain some benefit from this. I'll be starting my PhD very soon which involves the fields of computer vision, pattern recognition and machine learning. Currently, I'm using opencv (2.1) C++ interface and I especially like its powerful Mat class and the overloaded operations available for matrix and image operations and seamless transformations. I've also tried (and implemented many small vision projects) using opencv python interface (new bindings; opencv 2.1) and I really enjoy python's ability to integrate opencv, numpy, scipy and matplotlib. But recently, I went back to opencv C++ interface because I felt that the official python new bindings were not stable enough and no overloaded operations are available for matrices and images, not to mention the lack of machine learning modules and slow speeds in certain operations. I've also used Matlab extensively in the past and although I've used mex files and other means to speed up the program, I just felt that Matlab's performance was inadequate for real-time vision tasks, be it for fast prototyping or not. When the project becomes larger and larger, many tasks have to be re-written in C and compiled into Mex files increasingly and Matlab becomes nothing more than a glue language. Here comes the sub-questions: For carrying out research in these fields (machine learning, vision, pattern recognition), what is your main or ideal programming language for rapid prototyping of ideas and testing algorithms contained in papers? For computer vision research work, can you list down the pros and cons of using the following languages? C++ (with opencv + gsl + svmlib + other libraries) vs Matlab (with all its toolboxes) vs python (with the imcomplete opencv bindings + numpy + scipy + matplotlib). Are there computer vision PhD/postgrad students here who are using only C++ (with all its availabe libraries including opencv) without even needing to resort to Matlab or python? In other words, given the current existing computer vision or machine learning libraries, is C++ alone sufficient for fast prototyping of ideas? If you're currently using Java or C# for your research, can you list down the reasons why they should be used and how they compare to other languages in terms of available libraries? What is the de facto vision/machine learning programming language and its associated libraries used in your research group? Thanks in advance. Edit: As suggested, I've opened the question to both academic and non-academic computer vision/machine learning/pattern recognition researchers and groups.

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  • JavaCC: Please help me understand token ambiguity.

    - by java.is.for.desktop
    Hello, everyone! I had already many problems with understanding, how ambiguous tokens can be handled elegantly (or somehow at all) in JavaCC. Let's take this example: I want to parse XML processing instruction. The format is: "<?" <target> <data> "?>": target is an XML name, data can be anything except ?>, because it's the closing tag. So, lets define this in JavaCC: (I use lexical states, in this case DEFAULT and PROC_INST) TOKEN : <#NAME : (very-long-definition-from-xml-1.1-goes-here) > TOKEN : <WSS : (" " | "\t")+ > // WSS = whitespaces <DEFAULT> TOKEN : {<PI_START : "<?" > : PROC_INST} <PROC_INST> TOKEN : {<PI_TARGET : <NAME> >} <PROC_INST> TOKEN : {<PI_DATA : ~[] >} // accept everything <PROC_INST> TOKEN : {<PI_END : "?>" > : DEFAULT} Now the part which recognizes processing instructions: void PROC_INSTR() : {} { ( <PI_START> (t=<PI_TARGET>){System.out.println("target: " + t.image);} <WSS> (t=<PI_DATA>){System.out.println("data: " + t.image);} <PI_END> ) {} } The problem is (i guess): hence <PI_DATA> recognizes "everything", my definition is wrong. Let's test it with <?mytarget here-goes-some-data?>: The target is recognized: "target: mytarget". But now I get my favorite JavaCC parsing error: !! procinstparser.ParseException: Encountered "" at line 1, column 15. !! Was expecting one of: !! Encountered nothing? Was expecting nothing? Or what? Thank you, JavaCC! I know, that I could use the MORE keyword of JavaCC, but this would give me the whole processing instruction as one token, so I'd had to parse/tokenize it further by myself. Why should I do that? Am I writing a parser that does not parse? What I would need is telling JavaCC to recognize "everything until ?>" as processing instruction data. How can it be done? Thank you.

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  • Personal Project - Next practical language/tech to learn

    - by Paul Nathan
    I'm working on a personal project doing some finance analysis. It's a totally new field for me, and I'm really having fun with it so far, plus working in the high-level language arena is a great break from my embedded systems daytime work. I have a MySQL backend on a non-local server with a pile of stock data. My task now is to do some analysis of the stocks and produce something approximating a useful result. There are a couple technical difficulties. (1) I have a lot of records. To be precise, I believe I'm near 100K records right now, and this number grows by 6.1K each weekday. I need to create a way to rummage through these fields and do data analysis - based on a given computation, go look at this other set. Fine and dandy, nothing too outre. But this means I could really use a straightforward API for talking to MySQL. (2) Ideally, it runs on OS X 10.4.11. No Windows/Linux machine at home. (3) I can use PHP, C++, Perl, etc. I even have an R installation. I'm pretty flexible with stuff, so long as it runs on OS X. (Lots of options here, pick water, H20, or dihydrogen monoxide ;-) ) (4)Lack of hassle. While I like clever and fun ways of doing things, I'm trying to get some analysis done, not spend ten hours doing installation work and scratching my head figuring out a theoretical syntax question needed to spout out "hello world". What's the question? I'd like to dig into something different than my usual PHP/C++/C toolset. I'm looking for recommendations for languages/technologies that will assist me and meet the above requirements. In particular, I've heard a lot of buzz about F# and Python on SO. I've used CLISP for small problems before, and kinda liked it. I'm seeking opinions about those in particular. edit:since I rent the DB server and have a limited amount of CPU time online, I'm trying to do the analysis on a local machine.

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  • Synchronized IEnumerator<T>

    - by Dan Bryant
    I'm putting together a custom SynchronizedCollection<T> class so that I can have a synchronized Observable collection for my WPF application. The synchronization is provided via a ReaderWriterLockSlim, which, for the most part, has been easy to apply. The case I'm having trouble with is how to provide thread-safe enumeration of the collection. I've created a custom IEnumerator<T> nested class that looks like this: private class SynchronizedEnumerator : IEnumerator<T> { private SynchronizedCollection<T> _collection; private int _currentIndex; internal SynchronizedEnumerator(SynchronizedCollection<T> collection) { _collection = collection; _collection._lock.EnterReadLock(); _currentIndex = -1; } #region IEnumerator<T> Members public T Current { get; private set;} #endregion #region IDisposable Members public void Dispose() { var collection = _collection; if (collection != null) collection._lock.ExitReadLock(); _collection = null; } #endregion #region IEnumerator Members object System.Collections.IEnumerator.Current { get { return Current; } } public bool MoveNext() { var collection = _collection; if (collection == null) throw new ObjectDisposedException("SynchronizedEnumerator"); _currentIndex++; if (_currentIndex >= collection.Count) { Current = default(T); return false; } Current = collection[_currentIndex]; return true; } public void Reset() { if (_collection == null) throw new ObjectDisposedException("SynchronizedEnumerator"); _currentIndex = -1; Current = default(T); } #endregion } My concern, however, is that if the Enumerator is not Disposed, the lock will never be released. In most use cases, this is not a problem, as foreach should properly call Dispose. It could be a problem, however, if a consumer retrieves an explicit Enumerator instance. Is my only option to document the class with a caveat implementer reminding the consumer to call Dispose if using the Enumerator explicitly or is there a way to safely release the lock during finalization? I'm thinking not, since the finalizer doesn't even run on the same thread, but I was curious if there other ways to improve this. EDIT After thinking about this a bit and reading the responses (particular thanks to Hans), I've decided this is definitely a bad idea. The biggest issue actually isn't forgetting to Dispose, but rather a leisurely consumer creating deadlock while enumerating. I now only read-lock long enough to get a copy and return the enumerator for the copy.

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  • Need to set cursor position to the end of a contentEditable div, issue with selection and range obje

    - by DavidR
    I'm forgetting about cross-browser compatibility for the moment, I just want this to work. What I'm doing is trying to modify a script (and you probably don't need to know this) located at typegreek.com The basic script is found here. Basically what it does is when you type in characters, it converts the character your are typing into greek characters and prints it onto the screen. What I'm trying to do is to get it to work on contentEditable div's (It only works for Textareas) My issue is with this one function: The user types a key, it get's converted to a greek key, and goes to a function, it gets sorted through some if's, and where it ends up is where I can add div support. Here is what I have so far, myField is the div, myValue is the greek character. //Get selection object... var userSelection if (window.getSelection) {userSelection = window.getSelection();} else if (document.selection) {userSelection = document.selection.createRange();} //Now get the cursor position information... var startPos = userSelection.anchorOffset; var endPos = userSelection.focusOffset; var cursorPos = endPos; //Needed later when reinserting the cursor... var rangeObj = userSelection.getRangeAt(0) var container = rangeObj.startContainer //Now take the content from pos 0 -> cursor, add in myValue, then insert everything after myValue to the end of the line. myField.textContent = myField.textContent.substring(0, startPos) + myValue + myField.textContent.substring(endPos, myField.textContent.length); //Now the issue is, this updates the string, and returns the cursor to the beginning of the div. //so that at the next keypress, the character is inserted into the beginning of the div. //So we need to reinsert the cursor where it was. //Re-evaluate the cursor position, taking into account the added character. var cursorPos = endPos + myValue.length; //Set the caracter position. rangeObj.setStart(container,cursorPos) Now, this works only as long as I don't type more than the size of the original text. Say I had 30 characters in the div before hand. If I type more than that 30, it adds character 31, but places the cursor back at 30. I can type character 32 at pos.31, then character 33 at pos.32, but if I try to put character 34 in, it adds the character, and sets the cursor back at 32. The issue is that the function for adding the new character screws up if cursorPos is greater than what is defined in the range. Any ideas?

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  • iPhone UIImage upload to web service

    - by user347635
    Hi all, I worked on this for several hours today and I'm pretty close to a solution but clearly need some help from someone who's pulled this off. I'm trying to post an image to a web service from the iPhone. I'll post the code first then explain everything I've tried: NSData *imageData = UIImageJPEGRepresentation(barCodePic, .9); NSString *soapMsg = [NSString stringWithFormat: @"<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding=\"utf-8\"?><soap:Envelope xmlns:xsi=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance\" xmlns:xsd=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema\" xmlns:soap=\"http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/\"><soap:Body><WriteImage xmlns=\"http://myserver/imagewebservice/\"><ImgIn>%@</ImgIn></WriteImage></soap:Body></soap:Envelope>", [NSData dataWithData:imageData] ]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://myserver/imagewebservice/service1.asmx"]; NSMutableURLRequest *req = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; NSString *msgLength = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", [soapMsg length]]; [req addValue:@"text/xml; charset=utf-8" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Type"]; [req addValue:@"http://myserver/imagewebservice/WriteImage" forHTTPHeaderField:@"SOAPAction"]; [req addValue:msgLength forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Length"]; [req setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [req setHTTPBody: [soapMsg dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; conn = [[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:req delegate:self]; if (conn) { webData = [[NSMutableData data] retain]; } First thing, this code works fine for anything but an image. The web service is running on my local network and I can change the source code at will and if I change the "ImgIn" parameter to a string and pass a string in, everything works fine, I get a return value no problem. So there are no connectivity issues at all, I'm able to call and get data from this web service on this server no problems. But I need to upload an image to this web service via the ImgIn parameter, so the above code is my best shot so far. I also have didReceiveResponse, didReceiveData, didFailWithError, etc all being handled. The above code fires off didRecieveResponse every time. However didReceiveData is never fired and it's like the web service itself never even runs. When I debug the web service itself, it runs and debugs fine when I use a string parameter, but with the image parameter, it never even debugs when I call it. It's almost like the ImgIn parameter is too long (it's huge when I output it to the screen) and the web service just chokes on it. I've read about having to encode to Base64 when using this method, but I can't find any good links on how that's done. If that's what I'm doing wrong, can you PLEASE provide code as to how to do this, not just "you need to use Base64", I'd really appreciate it as I can find almost nothing on how to implement this with an example. Other than that, I'm kind of lost, it seems like I'm doing everything else right. Please help! Thanks

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  • How can I troubleshoot an APPCRASH in Internet Explorer?

    - by Schnapple
    I'm writing an ActiveX control using the firebreath framework (hi taxilian!) and while it technically works, I'm running into a weird issue that appears to be unique to me. I've followed the instructions to create a simple plugin and then I ran it in Internet Explorer 8 on Windows 7 x64 (firebreath sets up a test page for the control). But as soon as I try to test it (clicking on a link that fires off JavaScript to interact with the control), IE crashes. Hard. "Internet Explorer has stopped working" style. If I try the control in Firefox (the resulting registered DLL can also be called as a Firefox plugin using a MIME type), it works fine. If I try it on my XP box, it works fine. I emailed the DLL and the testing page to a coworker in the next cube who is like me also running Windows 7 x64 and it works for him just fine as well, so it's not something unique to Windows 7 or x64. When it crashes I get this message: Problem signature: Problem Event Name: APPCRASH Application Name: iexplore.exe Application Version: 8.0.7600.16385 Application Timestamp: 4a5bc69e Fault Module Name: RPCRT4.dll Fault Module Version: 6.1.7600.16385 Fault Module Timestamp: 4a5bdb3b Exception Code: c0000005 Exception Offset: 000220b1 OS Version: 6.1.7600.2.0.0.256.1 Locale ID: 1033 Additional Information 1: 0a9e Additional Information 2: 0a9e372d3b4ad19135b953a78882e789 Additional Information 3: 0a9e Additional Information 4: 0a9e372d3b4ad19135b953a78882e789 Which tells me nothing extremely useful. I can have it attach to a debugger but it just tells me a long list of DLL's, none of which are the ActiveX control in question. It's almost like it's not even getting there. I did a sfc /scannow yesterday to see if anything on my system is corrupt and nothing came up as wrong. I tried various different security levels in IE, but nothing seems to have any effect. As this is a development machine there has been all matter of crap installed on it, so I figure it's bound to be something I've installed since October (when Win7 was released) but I cannot figure out what it is. I presume the information it's giving me when I attach to Visual Studio is useful somehow but I don't know how to interpret it. Admittedly I'm mainly a C#/.NET developer who's a bit out of his element with C/C++ and troubleshooting native code, but does anyone have any advice on how to proceed on figuring out why this very simple ActiveX control crashes IE on my machine and nowhere else?

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  • Is this (Lock-Free) Queue Implementation Thread-Safe?

    - by Hosam Aly
    I am trying to create a lock-free queue implementation in Java, mainly for personal learning. The queue should be a general one, allowing any number of readers and/or writers concurrently. Would you please review it, and suggest any improvements/issues you find? Thank you. import java.util.concurrent.atomic.AtomicReference; public class LockFreeQueue<T> { private static class Node<E> { E value; volatile Node<E> next; Node(E value) { this.value = value; } } private AtomicReference<Node<T>> head, tail; public LockFreeQueue() { // have both head and tail point to a dummy node Node<T> dummyNode = new Node<T>(null); head = new AtomicReference<Node<T>>(dummyNode); tail = new AtomicReference<Node<T>>(dummyNode); } /** * Puts an object at the end of the queue. */ public void putObject(T value) { Node<T> newNode = new Node<T>(value); Node<T> prevTailNode = tail.getAndSet(newNode); prevTailNode.next = newNode; } /** * Gets an object from the beginning of the queue. The object is removed * from the queue. If there are no objects in the queue, returns null. */ public T getObject() { Node<T> headNode, valueNode; // move head node to the next node using atomic semantics // as long as next node is not null do { headNode = head.get(); valueNode = headNode.next; // try until the whole loop executes pseudo-atomically // (i.e. unaffected by modifications done by other threads) } while (valueNode != null && !head.compareAndSet(headNode, valueNode)); T value = (valueNode != null ? valueNode.value : null); // release the value pointed to by head, keeping the head node dummy if (valueNode != null) valueNode.value = null; return value; }

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  • How can I use Web Services Core to send a complex type as a parameter to a SOAP API method

    - by Matthew Brindley
    I don't do much Cocoa programming, so I'm probably missing something obvious, so please excuse the basic question. I have a SOAP method that expects a complex type as a paramater. Here's some WSDL: <s:element name="SaveTestResult"> <s:complexType> <s:sequence> <s:element minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="1" name="result" type="tns:TestItemResponse" /> </s:sequence> </s:complexType> </s:element> Here's the definition of the complex type "TestItemResponse": <s:complexType name="TestItemResponse"> <s:sequence> <s:element minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="1" name="TestItemRequestId" type="s:int" /> <s:element minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="1" name="ExternalId" type="s:int" /> <s:element minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="1" name="ApiId" type="s:string" /> <s:element minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="1" name="InboxGuid" type="s:string" /> <s:element minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="1" name="SpamResult" type="tns:SpamResult" /> <s:element minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="1" name="ResultImageSet" type="tns:ResultImageSet" /> <s:element minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="1" name="ExclusiveUseMailAccountId" type="s:int" /> <s:element minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="1" name="State" type="tns:TestItemResponseState" /> <s:element minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="1" name="ErrorShortDescription" type="s:string" /> <s:element minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="1" name="ErrorFullDescription" type="s:string" /> </s:sequence> </s:complexType> I've been using Web Services Core to call a SOAP API method that requires a simple string param, that works great. That same method returns a complex type which WSC converted into nested NSDictionaries, so no problems there. So I assumed I'd be able to convert my local TestItemResponse class into an NSDictionary and then use that as the complex type param. It almost worked, but unfortunately WSC set the object's type as "Dictionary", instead of "TestItemResponse", and the server complained. <TestItemResponse xsi:type=\"SOAP-ENC:Dictionary\"> <ErrorFullDescription xsi:type=\"xsd:string\">foo</ErrorFullDescription> ... I can't seem to find anything that allows you to override the type WSC assigns to the element in the SOAP XML. I've been using code adapted from here, I'm happy to list it, it's just quite long and this is already the longest SO question I've ever posted.

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  • Dumb IE6 resize behaviour - hope it rings some bells with someone

    - by Ollie2893
    Hi, I'm having no end of fun (sic) with jQuery.tabs. The widget is quite crafty in that it turns basic HTML like so <div> <ul> <li>Tab #1</li> ... </ul> <div for panel #1> </div> <div for panel #2> </div> ... </div> into a cute tabbed dialogue. (It does so by restyling the UL and then toggling the "display" attribute for the panel DIVs to show/not show whatever panel is selected.) Now I found that I can spare myself a lot of trouble in my JS project if I insert a scrollable IFRAME into each panel. One usability problem I'm trying to ameliorate is that when the tabbed panel becomes larger than the browser's window, then the user ends up with too many scrollbars. I am trying to avoid this situation by linking the size of the tabbed panel to that of $(window). That is, I trap and process the resize event on $(window). To make my life bearable, all components are relatively sized. This is also true, in particular, of the IFRAMEs (100% width, 100% height). The only exception are the panel DIVs, which are of fixed height (in px). And this is the only dimension css attribute that I manipulate during my resize action. All of this works a treat in FF and Chrome, but IE6 is doing something rather cute: So long as I do not affect the width of the browser window (but only change its height), only the panel DIV changes in height; the IFRAME contained will not change. As a result of this behaviour, it is not possible to shorten the tabbed panel below the height of the IFRAME. I can lengthen the DIV, yes. But the IFRAME will not fill the panel in that case. All becomes good the moment I make the slightest change to the width of the browser window. In that moment, the IFRAME expands to catch up with the extended DIV or DIV and IFRAME contract in tandem. Bizarre. I inserted useless CSS instructions like "position: relative" and "zoom: 1". Also nudged the display with "display: block". No joy so far. Any ideas? Thanks.

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  • Java Nimbus LAF with transparent text fields

    - by Software Monkey
    I have an application that uses disabled JTextFields in several places which are intended to be transparent - allowing the background to show through instead of the text field's normal background. When running the new Nimbus LAF these fields are opaque (despite setting setOpaque(false)), and my UI is broken. It's as if the LAF is ignoring the opaque property. Setting a background color explicitly is both difficult in several places, and less than optimal due to background images actually doesn't work - it still paints it's LAF default background over the top, leaving a border-like appearance (the splash screen below has the background explicitly set to match the image). Any ideas on how I can get Nimbus to not paint the background for a JTextField? Note: I need a JTextField, rather than a JLabel, because I need the thread-safe setText(), and wrapping capability. Note: My fallback position is to continue using the system LAF, but Nimbus does look substantially better. See example images below. Conclusions The surprise at this behavior is due to a misinterpretation of what setOpaque() is meant to do - from the Nimbus bug report: This is a problem the the orginal design of Swing and how it has been confusing for years. The issue is setOpaque(false) has had a side effect in exiting LAFs which is that of hiding the background which is not really what it is ment for. It is ment to say that the component my have transparent parts and swing should paint the parent component behind it. It's unfortunate that the Nimbus components also appear not to honor setBackground(null) which would otherwise be the recommended way to stop the background painting. Setting a fully transparent background seems unintuitive to me. In my opinion, setOpaque()/isOpaque() is a faulty public API choice which should have been only: public boolean isFullyOpaque(); I say this, because isOpaque()==true is a contract with Swing that the component subclass will take responsibility for painting it's entire background - which means the parent can skip painting that region if it wants (which is an important performance enhancement). Something external cannot directly change this contract (legitimately), whose fulfillment may be coded into the component. So the opacity of the component should not have been settable using setOpaque(). Instead something like setBackground(null) should cause many components to "no long have a background" and therefore become not fully opaque. By way of example, in an ideal world most components should have an isOpaque() that looks like this: public boolean isOpaque() { return (background!=null); }

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  • Lightbox image / link URL

    - by GSTAR
    Basically I have a slightly non-standard implementation of FancyBox. By default you have to include a link to the large version of the image so that the Lightbox can display it. However, in my implementation, the image link URLs point to a script rather than directly to the image file. So for example, instead of: <a href="mysite/images/myimage.jpg" rel="gallery"> I have: <a href="mysite/photos/view/abc123" rel="gallery"> The above URL points to a function: public function actionPhotos($view) { $photo=Photo::model()->find('name=:name', array(':name'=>$view)); if(!empty($photo)) { $this->renderPartial('_photo', array('photo'=>$photo, true)); } } The "$this-renderPartial()" bit simply calls a layout file which includes a standard HTML tag to output. Now when the user clicks on a thumbnail, the above function is called and the large image is displayed in the Lightbox. Now if the user right clicks on the thumbnail and selects "open in new tab/window" then the image is displayed in the browser as per normal, i.e. just the image. I want to change this so that it displays the image within a layout. In the above code I can include the following and put it in an IF statement: $this->render('photos', array('photo'=>$photo)); This will call the layout file "photos" which contains the layout to display the image in. I have a specific limitation for this - the image URL must remain the same, i.e. no additional GET variables in the URL. However if we can pass in a GET variable in the background then that is OK. I will most likely need to change my function above so that it calls a different file for this functionality. EDIT: To demonstrate exactly what I am trying to do, check out the following: http://www.starnow.co.uk/KimberleyMarren Go to the photos tab and hover over a thumbnail - note the URL. Click the thumbnail and it will open up in the Lightbox. Next right click on that same thumbnail and select "open in new tab/new window". You will notice that the image is now displayed in a layout. So that same URL is used for displaying the image in the Lightbox and on its own page. The way StarNow have done this is using some crazy long JavaScript functionality, which I'm not too keen on replicating.

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  • Data access pattern

    - by andlju
    I need some advice on what kind of pattern(s) I should use for pushing/pulling data into my application. I'm writing a rule-engine that needs to hold quite a large amount of data in-memory in order to be efficient enough. I have some rather conflicting requirements; It is not acceptable for the engine to always have to wait for a full pre-load of all data before it is functional. Only fetching and caching data on-demand will lead to the engine taking too long before it is running quickly enough. An external event can trigger the need for specific parts of the data to be reloaded. Basically, I think I need a combination of pushing and pulling data into the application. A simplified version of my current "pattern" looks like this (in psuedo-C# written in notepad): // This interface is implemented by all classes that needs the data interface IDataSubscriber { void RegisterData(Entity data); } // This interface is implemented by the data access class interface IDataProvider { void EnsureLoaded(Key dataKey); void RegisterSubscriber(IDataSubscriber subscriber); } class MyClassThatNeedsData : IDataSubscriber { IDataProvider _provider; MyClassThatNeedsData(IDataProvider provider) { _provider = provider; _provider.RegisterSubscriber(this); } public void RegisterData(Entity data) { // Save data for later StoreDataInCache(data); } void UseData(Key key) { // Make sure that the data has been stored in cache _provider.EnsureLoaded(key); Entity data = GetDataFromCache(key); } } class MyDataProvider : IDataProvider { List<IDataSubscriber> _subscribers; // Make sure that the data for key has been loaded to all subscribers public void EnsureLoaded(Key key) { if (HasKeyBeenMarkedAsLoaded(key)) return; PublishDataToSubscribers(key); MarkKeyAsLoaded(key); } // Force all subscribers to get a new version of the data for key public void ForceReload(Key key) { PublishDataToSubscribers(key); MarkKeyAsLoaded(key); } void PublishDataToSubscribers(Key key) { Entity data = FetchDataFromStore(key); foreach(var subscriber in _subscribers) { subscriber.RegisterData(data); } } } // This class will be spun off on startup and should make sure that all data is // preloaded as quickly as possible class MyPreloadingThread { IDataProvider _provider; MyPreloadingThread(IDataProvider provider) { _provider = provider; } void RunInBackground() { IEnumerable<Key> allKeys = GetAllKeys(); foreach(var key in allKeys) { _provider.EnsureLoaded(key); } } } I have a feeling though that this is not necessarily the best way of doing this.. Just the fact that explaining it seems to take two pages feels like an indication.. Any ideas? Any patterns out there I should have a look at?

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  • How to include a PHP generated XML file into flash vars, while ALSO passing through the current php functions into it?

    - by Sam
    Hello Given situation: In webpage.php the flashscript is calling a flash script with a flashvar: the playlist file which is a PHP generated XML file: playlist.php, it does that well so long as there are no extra functions in there. Now, in that XML-format playlistfile there needs to be a special function, besides the usual echo("");, namely the very special echo __(""); function that is already declared in webpage.php which needs to do something with the paragraphs residing within that xml file. However, currently the retrieved file misses the function echo __();and says "no such function declared in that xml-format [playlist.php] file". The php functions that are currently included at the very top of webpage.php somehow do not pass-through-the necessary functions into the playlist file for it to recognise how to handle it, in order for that playlist to get those necessary functions working. Apparently these are not passed through automatically/properly when residing in the flashvars?? Cause the echo __(""); works fine when called within webpage.php or via a normal php include(""); if those functions are in a different php file. But not working from the playlist.php file. Any ideas why/what is going on here? I appreciate your clues for this prob +1. Thanks very much. WEBPAGE.PHP the webpage, has at the top an include with functions: <?php include (functions.php); ?> // function that know what to do with echo __("paragraph") <script language="JavaScript" type="text/javascript"> run( 'play', 'true', 'loop', 'true', 'flashvars', 'xmlFile=/incl/playlist.php', // <<<< !! 'wmode', 'transparent', 'allowScriptAccess','sameDomain', ); </script> <noscript> <object classid="blabla"> <param name="allowScriptAccess" value="sameDomain" /> <param name="movie" value="/movies/movie.swf" /> <param name="flashvars" value="xmlFile=/incl/playlist.php" /> // <<< !! <embed src="/movies/movies.swf" type="application/x-shockwave-flash"/> </object> </noscript> PLAYLIST.PHP The PHP generated XML file which is retrieved into the webpage as flash variable (see above) <?php echo ('<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?>'); echo ('<songs>'); echo ('<song version="1. "') . __("boom blue blow bell bowl") . ('/>'); echo ('<song version="2. "') . __("ball bail beam bike base") . ('/>'); echo ('</songs>'); ?>

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  • Creating thousands of records in Rails

    - by willCosgrove
    Let me set the stage: My application deals with gift cards. When we create cards they have to have a unique string that the user can use to redeem it with. So when someone orders our gift cards, like a retailer, we need to make a lot of new card objects and store them in the DB. With that in mind, I'm trying to see how quickly I can have my application generate 100,000 Cards. Database expert, I am not, so I need someone to explain this little phenomena: When I create 1000 Cards, it takes 5 seconds. When I create 100,000 cards it should take 500 seconds right? Now I know what you're wanting to see, the card creation method I'm using, because the first assumption would be that it's getting slower because it's checking the uniqueness of a bunch of cards, more as it goes along. But I can show you my rake task desc "Creates cards for a retailer" task :order_cards, [:number_of_cards, :value, :retailer_name] => :environment do |t, args| t = Time.now puts "Searching for retailer" @retailer = Retailer.find_by_name(args[:retailer_name]) puts "Retailer found" puts "Generating codes" value = args[:value].to_i number_of_cards = args[:number_of_cards].to_i codes = [] top_off_codes(codes, number_of_cards) while codes != codes.uniq codes.uniq! top_off_codes(codes, number_of_cards) end stored_codes = Card.all.collect do |c| c.code end while codes != (codes - stored_codes) codes -= stored_codes top_off_codes(codes, number_of_cards) end puts "Codes are unique and generated" puts "Creating bundle" @bundle = @retailer.bundles.create!(:value => value) puts "Bundle created" puts "Creating cards" @bundle.transaction do codes.each do |code| @bundle.cards.create!(:code => code) end end puts "Cards generated in #{Time.now - t}s" end def top_off_codes(codes, intended_number) (intended_number - codes.size).times do codes << ReadableRandom.get(CODE_LENGTH) end end I'm using a gem called readable_random for the unique code. So if you read through all of that code, you'll see that it does all of it's uniqueness testing before it ever starts creating cards. It also writes status updates to the screen while it's running, and it always sits for a while at creating. Meanwhile it flies through the uniqueness tests. So my question to the stackoverflow community is: Why is my database slowing down as I add more cards? Why is this not a linear function in regards to time per card? I'm sure the answer is simple and I'm just a moron who knows nothing about data storage. And if anyone has any suggestions, how would you optimize this method, and how fast do you think you could get it to create 100,000 cards? (When I plotted out my times on a graph and did a quick curve fit to get my line formula, I calculated how long it would take to create 100,000 cards with my current code and it says 5.5 hours. That maybe completely wrong, I'm not sure. But if it stays on the line I curve fitted, it would be right around there.)

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  • Faster Matrix Multiplication in C#

    - by Kyle Lahnakoski
    I have as small c# project that involves matrices. I am processing large amounts of data by splitting it into n-length chunks, treating the chucks as vectors, and multiplying by a Vandermonde** matrix. The problem is, depending on the conditions, the size of the chucks and corresponding Vandermonde** matrix can vary. I have a general solution which is easy to read, but way too slow: public byte[] addBlockRedundancy(byte[] data) { if (data.Length!=numGood) D.error("Expecting data to be just "+numGood+" bytes long"); aMatrix d=aMatrix.newColumnMatrix(this.mod, data); var r=vandermonde.multiplyBy(d); return r.ToByteArray(); }//method This can process about 1/4 megabytes per second on my i5 U470 @ 1.33GHz. I can make this faster by manually inlining the matrix multiplication: int o=0; int d=0; for (d=0; d<data.Length-numGood; d+=numGood) { for (int r=0; r<numGood+numRedundant; r++) { Byte value=0; for (int c=0; c<numGood; c++) { value=mod.Add(value, mod.Multiply(vandermonde.get(r, c), data[d+c])); }//for output[r][o]=value; }//for o++; }//for This can process about 1 meg a second. (Please note the "mod" is performing operations over GF(2^8) modulo my favorite irreducible polynomial.) I know this can get a lot faster: After all, the Vandermonde** matrix is mostly zeros. I should be able to make a routine, or find a routine, that can take my matrix and return a optimized method which will effectively multiply vectors by the given matrix, but faster. Then, when I give this routine a 5x5 Vandermonde matrix (the identity matrix), there is simply no arithmetic to perform, and the original data is just copied. ** Please note: What I use the term "Vandermonde", I actually mean an Identity matrix with some number of rows from the Vandermonde matrix appended (see comments). This matrix is wonderful because of all the zeros, and because if you remove enough rows (of your choosing) to make it square, it is an invertible matrix. And, of course, I would like to use this same routine to convert any one of those inverted matrices into an optimized series of instructions. How can I make this matrix multiplication faster? Thanks! (edited to correct my mistake with Vandermonde matrix)

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  • Parse and transform XML with missing elements into table structure

    - by dnlbrky
    I'm trying to parse an XML file. A simplified version of it looks like this: x <- '<grandparent><parent><child1>ABC123</child1><child2>1381956044</child2></parent><parent><child2>1397527137</child2></parent><parent><child3>4675</child3></parent><parent><child1>DEF456</child1><child3>3735</child3></parent><parent><child1/><child3>3735</child3></parent></grandparent>' library(XML) xmlRoot(xmlTreeParse(x)) ## <grandparent> ## <parent> ## <child1>ABC123</child1> ## <child2>1381956044</child2> ## </parent> ## <parent> ## <child2>1397527137</child2> ## </parent> ## <parent> ## <child3>4675</child3> ## </parent> ## <parent> ## <child1>DEF456</child1> ## <child3>3735</child3> ## </parent> ## <parent> ## <child1/> ## <child3>3735</child3> ## </parent> ## </grandparent> I'd like to transform the XML into a data.frame / data.table that looks like this: parent <- data.frame(child1=c("ABC123",NA,NA,"DEF456",NA), child2=c(1381956044, 1397527137, rep(NA, 3)), child3=c(rep(NA, 2), 4675, 3735, 3735)) parent ## child1 child2 child3 ## 1 ABC123 1381956044 NA ## 2 <NA> 1397527137 NA ## 3 <NA> NA 4675 ## 4 DEF456 NA 3735 ## 5 <NA> NA 3735 If each parent node always contained all of the possible elements ("child1", "child2", "child3", etc.), I could use xmlToList and unlist to flatten it, and then dcast to put it into a table. But the XML often has missing child elements. Here is an attempt with incorrect output: library(data.table) ## Flatten: dt <- as.data.table(unlist(xmlToList(x)), keep.rownames=T) setnames(dt, c("column", "value")) ## Add row numbers, but they're incorrect due to missing XML elements: dt[, row:=.SD[,.I], by=column][] column value row 1: parent.child1 ABC123 1 2: parent.child2 1381956044 1 3: parent.child2 1397527137 2 4: parent.child3 4675 1 5: parent.child1 DEF456 2 6: parent.child3 3735 2 7: parent.child3 3735 3 ## Reshape from long to wide, but some value are in the wrong row: dcast.data.table(dt, row~column, value.var="value", fill=NA) ## row parent.child1 parent.child2 parent.child3 ## 1: 1 ABC123 1381956044 4675 ## 2: 2 DEF456 1397527137 3735 ## 3: 3 NA NA 3735 I won't know ahead of time the names of the child elements, or the count of unique element names for children of the grandparent, so the answer should be flexible.

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  • Creating meaningful routes in wizard style ASP.NET MVC form

    - by R0MANARMY
    I apologize in advance for a long question, figured better have a bit more information than not enough. I'm working on an application with a fairly complex form (~100 fields on it). In order to make the UI a little more presentable the fields are organized into regions and split across multiple (~10) tabs (not unlike this, but each tab does a submit/redirect to next tab). This large input form can also be in one of 3 views (read only, editable, print friendly). The form represents a large domain object (let's call it Foo). I have a controller for said domain object (FooController). It makes sense to me to have the controller be responsible for all the CRUD related operations. Here are the problems I'm having trouble figuring out. Goals: I'd like to keep to conventions so that Foo/Create creates a new record Foo/Delete deletes a record Foo/Edit/{foo_id} takes you to the first tab of the form ...etc I'd like to be able to not repeat the data access code such that I can have Foo/Edit/{foo_id}/tab1 Foo/View/{foo_id}/tab1 Foo/Print/{foo_id}tab1 ...etc use the same data access code to get the data and just specify which view to use to render it. My current implementation has a massive FooController with Create, Delete, Tab1, Tab2, etc actions. Tab actions are split out into separate files for organization (using partial classes, which may or may not be abuse of partial classes). Problem I'm running into is how to organize my controller(s) and routes to make that happen. I have the default route {controller}/{action}/{id} Which handles goal 1 properly but doesn't quite play nice with goal 2. I tried to address goal 2 by defining extra routes like so: routes.MapRoute( "FooEdit", "Foo/Edit/{id}/{action}", new { controller = "Foo", action = "Tab1", mode = "Edit", id = (string)null } ); routes.MapRoute( "FooView", "Foo/View/{id}/{action}", new { controller = "Foo", action = "Tab1", mode = "View", id = (string)null } ); routes.MapRoute( "FooPrint", "Foo/Print/{id}/{action}", new { controller = "Foo", action = "Tab1", mode = "Print", id = (string)null } ); However defining these extra routes causes the Url.Action to generate routs like Foo/Edit/Create instead of Foo/Create. That leads me to believe I designed something very very wrong, but this is my first attempt an asp.net mvc project and I don't know any better. Any advice with this particular situation would be awesome, but feedback on design in similar projects is welcome.

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  • vb.net .aspxauth

    - by Morgan
    I am working with a large site trying to implement web parts for particular users in a particular subdirectory but I can't get the .ASPXAUTH cookie to be recognized. I've read dozens of tutorials and MS class library pages that tell me how it should work to no avail. I am brand new to Web parts, so I'm sorry if I'm unclear. The idea is that logged in users can travel the site, but then when they go to their dashboard, they are programmatically authenticated using Membership and FormsAuthentication to pull up their Personalization. When I step through the code, I can see the cookie being set, and that it exists on the following page, but Membership.GetUser() and User.Identity are both empty. I know the user exists because I created it programmatically using Membership.CreateUser() and I can see it when I do Membership.GetAllUsers() and it's online when i use Membership.GetUser(username) but the Personalization doesn't work. Right now, I'm just trying to get the proof of concept going. I've tried creating the ticket and cookie myself, and also using SetAuthCookie() (code follows). I really just need a clue as to what to look for. Here's the "login" page... If Membership.ValidateUser(testusername, testpassword) Then -- Works FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(testusername, true) Response.Redirect("webpartsdemo1.aspx", False) End If And the next page (webpartsdemo1.aspx) Dim cookey As String = ".ASPXAUTH" lblContent.Text &= "<br><br>" & Request.Cookies(cookey).Name & " Details" lblContent.Text &= "<br>path = " & Request.Cookies(cookey).Path lblContent.Text &= "<br>domain = " & Request.Cookies(cookey).Domain lblContent.Text &= "<br>expires = " & Request.Cookies(cookey).Expires lblContent.Text &= "<br>Secure only? " & Request.Cookies(cookey).Secure lblContent.Text &= "<br>HTTP only? = " & Request.Cookies(cookey).HttpOnly lblContent.Text &= "<br>Has subkeys? " & Request.Cookies(cookey).HasKeys lblContent.Text &= "<br/><br/>request authenticated? " & Request.IsAuthenticated.ToString lblContent.Text &= " Getting user<br/>Current User: " Dim muGidget As MembershipUser If Request.IsAuthenticated Then muGidget = Membership.GetUser lblContent.Text &= Membership.GetUser().UserName Else lblContent.Text &= "none found" End If Output: .ASPXAUTH Details path = / domain = expires = 12:00:00 AM Secure only? False HTTP only? = False Has subkeys? False request authenticated? False Getting user Current User: none found Sorry to go on so long. Thanks for any help you can provide.

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  • Spring transaction demarcation causes new Hibernate session despite use of OSIV

    - by Kelly Ellis
    I'm using Hibernate with OpenSessionInViewInterceptor so that a single Hibernate session will be used for the entire HTTP request (or so I wish). The problem is that Spring-configured transaction boundaries are causing a new session to be created, so I'm running into the following problem (pseudocode): Start in method marked @Transactional(propagation = Propagation.SUPPORTS, readOnly = false) Hibernate session #1 starts Call DAO method to update object foo; foo gets loaded into session cache for session #1 Call another method to update foo.bar, this one is marked @Transactional(propagation = Propagation.REQUIRED, readOnly = false) Transaction demarcation causes suspension of current transaction synchronization, which temporarily unbinds the current Hibernate session Hibernate session #2 starts since there's no currently-existing session Update field bar on foo (loading foo into session cache #2); persist to DB Transaction completes and method returns, session #1 resumes Call yet another method to update another field on foo Load foo from session cache #1, with old, incorrect value of bar Update field foo.baz, persist foo to DB foo.bar's old value overwrites the change we made in the previous step Configuration looks like: <bean name="openSessionInViewInterceptor" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.support.OpenSessionInViewInterceptor" autowire="byName"> <property name="flushModeName"> <value>FLUSH_AUTO</value> </property> </bean> <bean id="txManager" class="org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DataSourceTransactionManager"> <property name="dataSource" ref="myDataSource" /> </bean> <bean id="sessionFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.LocalSessionFactoryBean"> <property name="useTransactionAwareDataSource" value="true" /> <property name="mappingLocations"> <list> <value>/WEB-INF/xml/hibernate/content.hbm.xml</value> </list> </property> <property name="lobHandler"> <ref local="oracleLobHandler" /> </property> <!--property name="entityInterceptor" ref="auditLogInterceptor" /--> <property name="hibernateProperties" ref="HibernateProperties" /> <property name="dataSource" ref="myDataSource" /> </bean> I've done some debugging and figured out exactly where this is happening, here is the stack trace: Daemon Thread [http-8080-1] (Suspended (entry into method doUnbindResource in TransactionSynchronizationManager)) TransactionSynchronizationManager.doUnbindResource(Object) line: 222 TransactionSynchronizationManager.unbindResource(Object) line: 200 SpringSessionSynchronization.suspend() line: 115 DataSourceTransactionManager(AbstractPlatformTransactionManager).doSuspendSynchronization() line: 620 DataSourceTransactionManager(AbstractPlatformTransactionManager).suspend(Object) line: 549 DataSourceTransactionManager(AbstractPlatformTransactionManager).getTransaction(TransactionDefinition) line: 372 TransactionInterceptor(TransactionAspectSupport).createTransactionIfNecessary(TransactionAttribute, String) line: 263 TransactionInterceptor.invoke(MethodInvocation) line: 101 ReflectiveMethodInvocation.proceed() line: 171 JdkDynamicAopProxy.invoke(Object, Method, Object[]) line: 204 $Proxy14.changeVisibility(Long, ContentStatusVO, ContentAuditData) line: not available I can't figure out why transaction boundaries (even "nested" ones - though here we're just moving from SUPPORTS to REQUIRED) would cause the Hibernate session to be suspended, even though OpenSessionInViewInterceptor is in use. When the session is unbound, I see the following in my logs: [2010-02-16 18:20:59,150] DEBUG org.springframework.transaction.support.TransactionSynchronizationManager Removed value [org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.SessionHolder@7def534e] for key [org.hibernate.impl.SessionFactoryImpl@693f23a2] from thread [http-8080-1]

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  • Really "wow" them in the interview

    - by Juliet
    Let me put it to you this way: I'm a top-notch programmer, but a notoriously bad interviewee. I've flunked 3 interviews consecutively because I get so nervous that my voice tightens at least 2 octaves higher and I start visibly shaking -- mind you, I can handle whatever technical questions the interviewer throws at me in that state, but I think it looks bad to come off as a quivering, squeaky-voiced young woman during a job interview. I've just got the personality type of a shy computer programmer. No matter how technical I am, I'm going to get passed up in favor of a smooth talker. I have another interview coming up shortly, and I want to really impress the company. Here are my trouble spots: What can I do to be less nervous during my interview? I always get really excited when I hear I have a face-to-face interview, but get more and more anxious as D-Day the interview approaches. My employers wants me to explain what I used to do at my prior employment. I'm a very chatty person and tend to talk/squeak for 10 minutes at a time. How long or short should I time my answers? On that note, when I'm explaining what I did at prior jobs, what exactly is my interviewer looking for? At some point, my interviewer will ask "do you have any questions for me while you're here?" I should, but what kinds of questions should I ask to show that I'm interested in being employed? My interviewer always asks why I'm looking for a new job. The real reason is that my present salary is $27K/yr [Edit to add: and I've yet to get a raise since I started], and I want to make more money -- otherwise the work environment is fine. How do I sugarcoat "I want to make more money" into something that sounds nicer? I have only one prior programmer job, and I've worked there for 18 months, but I have the skill of someone with 4 to 6 years of experience. What can I say to compete against applicants with more work experience? I took a low-paying $27K/yr programming job just to get my foot in IT, and I've been trying to leverage that job as a stepping stone to better opportunities. I get interviews because I consistently out-score senior-level developers in aptitude tests, and my desired salary range is right in the ballpark of what most companies want to offer. Unfortunately, while I've been a programming as a hobby for 10 years and I'm geared to graduate with my BA in Comp Sci in May '09, employers see me as a junior-level programmer with no degree. I want to prove them wrong and get a job that matches my skill level. I'd appreciate any advice anyone has to offer, especially if they can help me get a better job in the process.

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  • Android: database reading problem throws exception

    - by Vamsi
    Hi, i am having this problem with the android database. I adopted the DBAdapter file the NotepadAdv3 example from the google android page. DBAdapter.java public class DBAdapter { private static final String TAG = "DBAdapter"; private static final String DATABASE_NAME = "PasswordDb"; private static final String DATABASE_TABLE = "myuserdata"; private static final String DATABASE_USERKEY = "myuserkey"; private static final int DATABASE_VERSION = 2; public static final String KEY_USERKEY = "userkey"; public static final String KEY_TITLE = "title"; public static final String KEY_DATA = "data"; public static final String KEY_ROWID = "_id"; private final Context mContext; private DatabaseHelper mDbHelper; private SQLiteDatabase mDb; private static final String DB_CREATE_KEY = "create table " + DATABASE_USERKEY + " (" + "userkey text not null" +");"; private static final String DB_CREATE_DATA = "create table " + DATABASE_TABLE + " (" + "_id integer primary key autoincrement, " + "title text not null" + "data text" +");"; private static class DatabaseHelper extends SQLiteOpenHelper { DatabaseHelper(Context context) { super(context, DATABASE_NAME, null, DATABASE_VERSION); } @Override public void onCreate(SQLiteDatabase db) { db.execSQL(DB_CREATE_KEY); db.execSQL(DB_CREATE_DATA); } @Override public void onUpgrade(SQLiteDatabase db, int oldVersion, int newVersion) { Log.w(TAG, "Upgrading database from version " + oldVersion + " to " + newVersion + ", which will destroy all old data"); db.execSQL("DROP TABLE IF EXISTS myuserkey"); db.execSQL("DROP TABLE IF EXISTS myuserdata"); onCreate(db); } } public DBAdapter(Context ctx) { this.mContext = ctx; } public DBAdapter Open() throws SQLException{ try { mDbHelper = new DatabaseHelper(mContext); } catch(Exception e){ Log.e(TAG, e.toString()); } mDb = mDbHelper.getWritableDatabase(); return this; } public void close(){ mDbHelper.close(); } public Long storeKey(String userKey){ ContentValues initialValues = new ContentValues(); initialValues.put(KEY_USERKEY, userKey); try { mDb.delete(DATABASE_USERKEY, "1=1", null); } catch(Exception e) { Log.e(TAG, e.toString()); } return mDb.insert(DATABASE_USERKEY, null, initialValues); } public String retrieveKey() { final Cursor c; try { c = mDb.query(DATABASE_USERKEY, new String[] { KEY_USERKEY}, null, null, null, null, null); }catch(Exception e){ Log.e(TAG, e.toString()); return ""; } if(c.moveToFirst()){ return c.getString(0); } else{ Log.d(TAG, "UserKey Empty"); } return ""; } //not including any function related to "myuserdata" table } Class1.java { mUserKey = mDbHelper.retrieveKey(); mDbHelper.storeKey(Key); } the error that i am receiving is from Log.e(TAG, e.toString()) in the methods retrieveKey() and storeKey() "no such table: myuserkey: , while compiling: SELECT userkey FROM myuserkey"

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  • stdio's remove() not always deleting on time.

    - by Kyte
    For a particular piece of homework, I'm implementing a basic data storage system using sequential files under standard C, which cannot load more than 1 record at a time. So, the basic part is creating a new file where the results of whatever we do with the original records are stored. The previous file's renamed, and a new one under the working name is created. The code's compiled with MinGW 5.1.6 on Windows 7. Problem is, this particular version of the code (I've got nearly-identical versions of this floating around my functions) doesn't always remove the old file, so the rename fails and hence the stored data gets wiped by the fopen(). FILE *archivo, *antiguo; remove("IndiceNecesidades.old"); // This randomly fails to work in time. rename("IndiceNecesidades.dat", "IndiceNecesidades.old"); // So rename() fails. antiguo = fopen("IndiceNecesidades.old", "rb"); // But apparently it still gets deleted, since this turns out null (and I never find the .old in my working folder after the program's done). archivo = fopen("IndiceNecesidades.dat", "wb"); // And here the data gets wiped. Basically, anytime the .old previously exists, there's a chance it's not removed in time for the rename() to take effect successfully. No possible name conflicts both internally and externally. The weird thing's that it's only with this particular file. Identical snippets except with the name changed to Necesidades.dat (which happen in 3 different functions) work perfectly fine. // I'm yet to see this snippet fail. FILE *antiguo, *archivo; remove("Necesidades.old"); rename("Necesidades.dat", "Necesidades.old"); antiguo = fopen("Necesidades.old", "rb"); archivo = fopen("Necesidades.dat", "wb"); Any ideas on why would this happen, and/or how can I ensure the remove() command has taken effect by the time rename() is executed? (I thought of just using a while loop to force call remove() again so long as fopen() returns a non-null pointer, but that sounds like begging for a crash due to overflowing the OS with delete requests or something.)

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  • problem with filtering the dropdownlist in scroll window

    - by Rahul
    Hi all, Problem with filtering Dropdown list. The scenario is : in scroll window there are two fields Document types and type id: Document type is Dropdown list: As per document type selection type id look should display the values. For ex. If I select quote type from document type and if I open type id look up it should display only quotation in the look window. It should work for all the values of document type drop down list values. Its working fine. The item in the document types are: Quote, Order, Invoice, Return, BackOrder. The problem is after saving the data when I am displaying the same record in scroll window, suppose after displaying document type is QUOTE and document id is QTOARD, and in this position I am changing the document type from dropdown QUOTE to ORDER at this time warning message should c ome this range entered is in valid. Because in database table there is no document QTOARD for ORDER type. The same should work for all the condition. The table name is SOP_ID_Setp and key is SOP Type and DocumentID. For that I have written the Stored procedure : create procedure DocTypeFilter @DocumentType as int, @DocumentID as varchar(30) as --declare --@documentype int, --@documentID varchar(30), select * from sop40200 where soptype=@DocumentType and docid=@DocumentID and I have called this SP in Dropdownlist change event. local long retcode; range clear table SOP_ID_SETP; clear field 'SOP Type' of table SOP_ID_SETP; clear field 'Document ID' of table SOP_ID_SETP; range start table SOP_ID_SETP; fill field 'SOP Type' of table SOP_ID_SETP; fill field 'Document ID' of table SOP_ID_SETP; range end table SOP_ID_SETP; if err()=OKAY then call DocTypeFilter,retcode,'Document Type' of window 'Is_Document Type Site_Scroll','Document ID' of window 'Is_Document Type Site_Scroll'; else warning "The range entered is invalid"; clear window 'Is_Document Type Site_Scroll'; fill window 'Is_Document Type Site_Scroll' table is_sop_site_line_temp; end if; Above code not giving the expected output any help pls.

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