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  • how to use appcfg.py for google-app-engine projects created using google's eclipse plugin?

    - by Aadith
    I have created a google-app-engine java project in Eclipse using Google's Eclipse plugin. My previous attempt to deploy failed. Now, when I retry, I get the following message: Unable to update app: Error posting to URL : http://appengine.google.com/api/appversion/create?app_id=mybdaywisherversion=1 409 conflict Another transaction for this user is already in progress for this app and major version. That user can undo the transaction with appcfg.py's "rollback" command. Now, I have always used the google-app-engine features from inside Eclipse only and have not a clue how to run the appcfg.py command. Could not get much help from documentation available over the internet. The only thing I could make out was for mac (I'm on mac), the command to be used is appcfg.sh. Inside Eclipse, I looked where App-Engine SDK is located on my machine and went to that location. Even found appcfg.sh there. But when I try to run it, it only reports the error "command not found". Tried various alternatives to run it (like tried running it with sudo, tried running it as ./appcfg.sh by going to whether its located) but no success Can someone please tell me the step I will have to follow to run the apcfg command?

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  • no statement parsed and wrong number or types of arguments - cfstoredproc

    - by Travis
    I have an Oracle procedure - editBacklog which I'm calling from a CFM page via cfstoredproc. After several changes to the procedure I started getting ORA-06550: line 1, column 7: PLS-00306: wrong number or types of arguments in call to 'EDITBACKLOG'. I've gotten this before and found that if I changed the name of the procedure it starts working again. I changed the name to editBacklog2 and it worked as I expected it to. I changed the name back to editBacklog and got the same error. I changed the name back to editBacklog2 again and started getting ORA-01003: no statement parsed. NOTHING has changed at this point except for the names. I changed the name yet again to editBacklog3 and it works as expected. As of right now editBacklog = ORA-06550 editBacklog2 = ORA-01003 editBacklog3 = works (kinda) This whole thing started when I was trying to fix an ORA-01821: date format not recognized error. I fear when I start changing things I'll start getting the same lame behavior described above. Either Oracle or CF is messing with me and I'll end up liking one of them less because of it. I assume it's probably cfstoredproc caching metadata or something but neither google, livedocs, or OTN have much to say about my situation. I'm not the SA or DBA. Anyone have any ideas?

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  • Strange xml/html accent issue

    - by Ayrad
    I have an XML file that contains a message with html tags in it. The XML file is read by a java class that mails it to people. When the mail is received, the accents do not show. For example é doesn't show. I have tried &eacute; in the xml but it gives an error in eclipse saying that the entity has not been declared. I also tried simply inserting &#233; but that shows nothing in the final output. The 3rd thing I tried was using <![CDATA[é]]> but that broke the parser since it didn't output anything after it. However I noticed something weird. When i put something like this in the xml and added UTF-16 encoding <message>text bla bla blaa é&lt; it did ouput the é at the end like this bla bla blaa blaa é. EDIT <message>text bla bla blaa éé&lt; outputs ?é or just one é The file looks something like this: <?xml version="1.0"? encoding="UTF-16"> <message> &lt;b&gt;hello é &lt;/b&gt; </message> </xml> What gives?

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  • php: how to return an HTTP 500 code on any error, no matter what

    - by Jake
    Hi guys. I'm writing an authentication script in PHP, to be called as an API, that needs to return 200 only in the case that it approves the request, and 403 (Forbidden) or 500 otherwise. The problem I'm running into is that php returns 200 in the case of error conditions, outputting the error as html instead. How can I make absolutely sure that php will return an HTTP 500 code unless I explicitly return the HTTP 200 or HTTP 403 myself? In other words, I want to turn any and all warning or error conditions into 500s, no exceptions, so that the default case is rejecting the authentication request, and the exception is approving it with a 200 code. I've fiddled with set_error_handler() and error_reporting(), but so far no luck. For example, if the code outputs something before I send the HTTP response code, PHP naturally reports that you can't modify header information after outputting anything. However, this is reported by PHP as a 200 response code with html explaining the problem. I need even this kind of thing to be turned into a 500 code. Is this possible in PHP? Or do I need to do this at a higher level like using mod_rewrite somehow? If that's the case, any idea how I'd set that up? Thanks for any help. Jake

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  • C# program that generates html pages - limit image dimensions on page

    - by Professor Mustard
    I have a C# program that generates a large number of html pages, based on various bits of data and images that I have stored on the file system. The html itself works just fine, but the images can vary greatly in their dimensions. I need a way to ensure that a given image won't exceed a certain size on the page. The simplest way to accomplish this would be through the html itself... if there was some kind of "maxwidth" or "maxheight" property I could set in the html, or maybe a way to force the image to fit inside a table cell (if I used something like this, I'd have to be sure that the non-offending dimension would automatically scale with the one that's being reduced). The problem is, I don't know much about this "fine tuning" kind of stuff in html, and it seems to be a tough thing to Google around for (most of the solutions involve some sort of html specialization; I'm just using plain html). Alternatively, I could determine the width and height of each image at runtime by examining the image in C#, and then setting width/height values in the html if the image's dimensions exceed a certain value. The problem here is that is seems incredibly inefficient to load an entire image into memory, just to get its dimensions. I would need a way to "peek" at an image and just get its size (it could be bmp, jpg, gif or png). Any recommendations for either approach would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Ascii Bytes Array To Int32 or Double

    - by Michael Covelli
    I'm re-writing alibrary with a mandate to make it totally allocation free. The goal is to have 0 collections after the app's startup phase is done. Previously, there were a lot of calls like this: Int32 foo = Int32.Parse(ASCIIEncoding.ASCII.GetString(bytes, start, length)); Which I believe is allocating a string. I couldn't find a C# library function that would do the same thing automatically. I looked at the BitConverter class, but it looks like that is only if your Int32 is encoded with the actual bytes that represent it. Here, I have an array of bytes representing Ascii characters that represent an Int32. Here's what I did public static Int32 AsciiBytesToInt32(byte[] bytes, int start, int length) { Int32 Temp = 0; Int32 Result = 0; Int32 j = 1; for (int i = start + length - 1; i >= start; i--) { Temp = ((Int32)bytes[i]) - 48; if (Temp < 0 || Temp > 9) { throw new Exception("Bytes In AsciiBytesToInt32 Are Not An Int32"); } Result += Temp * j; j *= 10; } return Result; } Does anyone know of a C# library function that already does this in a more optimal way? Or an improvement to make the above run faster (its going to be called millions of times during the day probably). Thanks!

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  • ASP.NET page content doesn't change

    - by WtFudgE
    Hi, I created an application which has a menu where it's items are created dynamicly. The menu acts as a language menu. <body runat="server"> <form id="Form1" runat="server"> <table class="TableLayout"> <tr> <td class="TopNav" align="right"> <asp:Menu runat="server" ID="LanguageMenu" Orientation="Horizontal" OnMenuItemClick="LanguageMenu_MenuItemClick"> <LevelMenuItemStyles> <asp:MenuItemStyle CssClass="TopNavItem" /> </LevelMenuItemStyles> <StaticHoverStyle CssClass="TopNavItemHover" /> </asp:Menu> </td> </tr> ... I use session variables to set my current language. however if I click on the menu to change the session variable: public void LanguageMenu_MenuItemClick(Object sender, MenuEventArgs e) { Session["language"] = e.Item.Text; } The page reloads with the following code: sportsPath = String.Format(@"{0}{1}\Sports\", xmlPath, Session["language"]); //create LeftNavigation string[] sports = Directory.GetFiles(sportsPath); LeftNavigation.Items.Clear(); foreach (string sport in sports) { string text = sport.Replace(sportsPath, "").Replace(".xml", ""); MenuItem item = new MenuItem(); item.Text = text; LeftNavigation.Items.Add(item); } The thing is the content doesn't change, only after I click on something else. If I skip through my code after clicking on the menuItem I can see that it passes the code and it should change, however for some reason the page needs another extra trigger to modify it's content. I also see the page reloading so I don't understand why it's not changing immediatly. I guess I'm not understanding the asp.net logic just quite yet. What am I doing wrong?

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  • Is background tasks the solution for this problem?

    - by Trinca
    Hi. I need to develop an enterprise app that monitors the network traffic. Basically it detects if the user is in wi-fi or cellular data and save the amount of bytes was sent and received in a period of time. I saw an App at the AppStore that do exactly this job. Detecting wi-fi or cellular data is quite simple using the Reachability Sample provided by Apple. My problem is to keep monitoring the bytes sent and received while the app is in background. As it is an enterprise App, I used UIBackgroundModes "voip" to avoid the app to be terminated. I also installed the setKeepAliveTimeout method and I'm able to see the logs each 10 minutes, BUT only for 10 seconds after the method runs. I mean, setKeepAliveTimeout brings my App to run a Timer for 10 seconds each 1o minutes. I'm thinking wether or not a task in background is the best solution for my problem. I'll appreciate any comments. EDIT: Ok guys. Thats the perfect way to do it. First of all you must read this: http://www.christian-fries.de/blog/files/tag-ios.html I tried this and it works really fine. All we need to do is to create a second thread detached from the main one. This way we have a continuos threading running forever. You must see the GCD docs at Apple's website also. Second thing you should consider for an enterprise App is to set it up as a voip App, this way iOS will put your App running even after a reboot. It's a special behavior iOS has to keep voip Apps running. Thats it guys. I hope it can help you.

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  • C# XMLRPC Multi Threaded newPost something is not right

    - by user1047463
    I recently decided to get my feet wet with c# multi threading and my progress was good until now. My program uses XML-RPC to create new posts on wordpress. When I run my app on the localhost everything works fine and i successfully able to create new posts on wordpress using a multi threaded approach. However when I try to do the same with a wordpress installed on a remote server , new posts won't appear, so when i go to see all posts, the total number of posts remains unchanged. Another thing to note is the function that creates a new post does return the ID of a supposedly created posts. But as I mentioned previously the new posts are not visible when I try to access them in admin menu. Since I'm new to the multithreading I was hoping some of you guys can help me and check if I'm doing anything wrong. Heres the code that creates threads and calls create post function. foreach (DataRow row in dt.Rows) { Thread t = null; t = new Thread(createPost); lock (t) { t.Start(); } } public void createPost() { string postid; try { icp = (IcreatePost)XmlRpcProxyGen.Create(typeof(IcreatePost)); clientProtocol = (XmlRpcClientProtocol)icp; clientProtocol.Url = xmlRpcUrl; postid = icp.NewPost(1, blogLogin, blogPass, newBlogPost, 1); currentThread--; threadCountLabel.Invoke(new MethodInvoker(delegate { threadCountLabel.Text = currentThread.ToString(); })); } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show( createPost ERROR ->" + ex.Message); } }

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  • How do I use a .NET class in VBA? Syntax help!

    - by Jordan S
    ok I have couple of .NET classes that I want to use in VBA. So I must register them through COM and all that. I think I have the COM registration figured out (finally) but now I need help with the syntax of how to create the objects. Here is some pseudo code showing what I am trying to do. EDIT: Changed Attached Objects to return an ArrayList instead of a List The .NET classes look like this... public class ResourceManagment { public ResourceManagment() { // Default Constructor } public static List<RandomObject> AttachedObjects() { ArrayList list = new ArrayList(); return list; } } public class RandomObject { // public RandomObject(int someParam) { } } OK, so this is what I would like to do in VBA (demonstrated in C#) but I don't know how... public class VBAClass { public void main() { ArrayList myList = ResourceManagment.AttachedObjects(); foreach(RandomObject x in myList) { // Do something with RandomObject x like list them in a Combobox } } } One thing to note is that RandomObject does not have a public default constructor. So I can not create an instance of it like Dim x As New RandomObject. MSDN says that you can not instantiate an object that doesn't have a default constructor through COM but you can still use the object type if it is returned by another method... Types must have a public default constructor to be instantiated through COM. Managed, public types are visible to COM. However, without a public default constructor (a constructor without arguments), COM clients cannot create an instance of the type. COM clients can still use the type if the type is instantiated in another way and the instance is returned to the COM client. You may include overloaded constructors that accept varying arguments for these types. However, constructors that accept arguments may only be called from managed (.NET) code. Added: Here is my attempt in VB: Dim count As Integer count = 0 Dim myObj As New ResourceManagment For Each RandomObject In myObj.AttachedObjects count = count + 1 Next RandomObject

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  • Office Word 2007 Interop - Header FieldCodes not showing up in my code, but are when viewed with Wor

    - by Ryan
    Hello, I'm writing an application in Delphi (have two over revisions of it written in both C# and Visual Basic, also). In my C# and Visual Basic version, I did something like the following to loop through the header/footer FieldCodes: // Supress filename, date and username field codes in headers fieldCount = WordApp.ActiveDocument.Sections[1].Headers[Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.WdHeaderFooterIndex.wdHeaderFooterPrimary].Range.Fields.Count; for (Int32 x = 1; x <= fieldCount; x++) { if ((WordApp.ActiveDocument.Sections[1].Headers[Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.WdHeaderFooterIndex.wdHeaderFooterPrimary].Range.Fields[x].Type == Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.WdFieldType.wdFieldDate) || (WordApp.ActiveDocument.Sections[1].Headers[Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.WdHeaderFooterIndex.wdHeaderFooterPrimary].Range.Fields[x].Type == Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.WdFieldType.wdFieldFileName) || (WordApp.ActiveDocument.Sections[1].Headers[Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.WdHeaderFooterIndex.wdHeaderFooterPrimary].Range.Fields[x].Type == Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.WdFieldType.wdFieldUserName)) { WordApp.ActiveDocument.Sections[1].Headers[Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.WdHeaderFooterIndex.wdHeaderFooterPrimary].Range.Fields[x].Select(); WordApp.Selection.TypeText("{ " + WordApp.ActiveDocument.Sections[1].Headers[Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.WdHeaderFooterIndex.wdHeaderFooterPrimary].Range.Fields[x].Code.Text + " }"); } } In my Delphi one I'm doing the same kind of routine. But, I've got a Word file that I'm trying to process and it has a Date FieldCode in the Header. My code is not finding the field code for some odd reason. It says there's no Fields in the Header. Does anyone know if there's such thing as like hidden FieldCodes, or something that would cause these to not show up in my code? Thanks, Ryan

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  • Design by contract: predict methods needed, discipline yourself and deal with code that comes to min

    - by fireeyedboy
    I like the idea of designing by contract a lot (at least, as far as I understand the principal). I believe it means you define intefaces first before you start implementing actual code, right? However, from my limited experience (3 OOP years now) I usually can't resist the urge to start coding pretty early, for several reasons: because my limited experience has shown me I am unable to predict what methods I will be needing in the interface, so I might as well start coding right away. or because I am simply too impatient to write out the whole interfaces first. or when I do try it, I still wind up implementing bits of code already, because I fear I might forget this or that imporant bit of code, that springs to mind when I am designing the interfaces. As you see, especially with the last two points, this leads to a very disorderly way of doing thing. Tasks get mixed up. I should draw a clear line between designing interfaces and actual coding. If you, unlike me, are a good/disciplined planner, as intended above, how do you: ...know the majority of methods you will be needing up front so well? Especially if it's components that implement stuff you are not familiar with yet. ...keep yourself from resisting the urge to start coding right away? ...deal with code that comes to mind when you are designing the intefaces?

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  • What is the best way to route a static controller in Rails?

    - by yuval
    I have a static_controller that is in charge of all the static pages in the site and works as follows in routes.rb: map.connect ':id', :controller => 'static', :action => 'show' I have a static page called about that among other information, has a contact form. I currently have a contacts_controller that is in charge of inserting the contact information to the database. Inside my routes.rb file, I have: map.resources :contacts My contact form (simplified) looks like this: <% form_for @contact do |f| %> <p class="errors"><%= f.error_messages %></p> <p> <%= f.label :first_name %> <%= f.text_field :first_name %> </p> <p class="buttons"><%= f.submit %></p> <% end %> Which in turn submits to the create action of my contacts_controller. My create action looks like this: def create @contact = Contact.new(params[:contact]) if @contact.save flash[:notice] = "Email delivered successfully." end redirect_to "about" end The problem is, is the that when I redirect back to my about page the error_messages for the form get lost (since the error_messages for the form only exist for one request, and that request ends upon redirect). How would I go about preserving the error_messages and still linking the users back to the about static url? Would a session/flash be sufficient (if so, what code would I use to pass error messages) or am I going about this whole thing wrong? Thanks!

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  • Rails: Should partials be aware of instance variables?

    - by Alexandre
    Ryan Bates' nifty_scaffolding, for example, does this edit.html.erb <%= render :partial => 'form' %> new.html.erb <%= render :partial => 'form' %> _form.html.erb <%= form_for @some_object_defined_in_action %> That hidden state makes me feel uncomfortable, so I usually like to do this edit.html.erb <%= render :partial => 'form', :locals => { :object => @my_object } %> _form.html.erb <%= form_for object %> So which is better: a) having partials access instance variables or b) passing a partial all the variables it needs? I've been opting for b) as of late, but I did run into a little pickle: some_action.html.erb <% @dad.sons.each do |a_son| %> <%= render :partial => 'partial', :locals => { :son => a_son } %> <% end %> _partial.html.erb The son's name is <%= son.name %> The dad's name is <%= son.dad.name %> son.dad makes a database call to fetch the dad! So I would either have to access @dad, which would be going back to a) having partials access instance variables or I would have to pass @dad in locals, changing render :partial to <%= render :partial = 'partial', :locals = { :dad = @dad, :son = a_son } %, and for some reason passing a bunch of vars to my partial makes me feel uncomfortable. Maybe others feel this way as well. Hopefully that made some sense. Looking for some insight into this whole thing... Thanks!

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  • MAPI_E_NOT_FOUND on OpenMsgStore

    - by Jan Gressmann
    Hi, I'm trying to open the MessageStore of a user using MAPI. The weird thing is, when I run this a console application, while I'm logged with the user, everything works fine. But when I run this as a Windows Service I get MAPI_E_NOT_FOUND when trying to open the MessageStore. I already configured the service to run as the user. MapiLogonEx seems to work fine and GetMsgStoreTables also gives me the correct results (I verfied that the EntryID of the MessageStore is correct). Here's my code: LPMAPITABLE pStoresTbl = NULL; m_lpMAPISession->GetMsgStoresTable(0, &pStoresTbl); // Query Collumns LPSPropTagArray pTags = NULL; LPSRowSet pRows = NULL; pStoresTbl->SeekRow(BOOKMARK_BEGINNING,0,NULL); pStoresTbl->QueryRows( LONG_MAX, NULL, &pRows); LPSBinary lpEntryID = NULL; ULONG iprops; for (iprops = 0; iprops < pRows->aRow[0].cValues; iprops++) { SPropValue sProp = pRows->aRow[0].lpProps[iprops]; if (PROP_ID(sProp.ulPropTag) == PROP_ID(PR_ENTRYID)) { lpEntryID = &sProp.Value.bin; break; } } lpMDB = NULL; HRESULT hres = m_lpMAPISession->OpenMsgStore(NULL, lpEntryID->cb, (LPENTRYID) lpEntryID->lpb, NULL, MDB_NO_DIALOG | MDB_NO_MAIL | // spooler not notified of our presence MDB_TEMPORARY | // message store not added to MAPI profile MAPI_BEST_ACCESS, &lpMDB);

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  • NSFetchedResultsController not updating UITableView's section indexes

    - by Luther Baker
    I am populating a UITableViewController with an NSFetchedResultsController with results creating sections that populate section headers and a section index. I am using the following method to populate the section index: - (NSArray *)sectionIndexTitlesForTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { return [fetchedResultsController_ sectionIndexTitles]; } and now I've run into a problem. When I add a new element to the NSManagedObjectContext associated with the NSFetchedResultsController, the new element is saved and appropriately displayed as a cell in the UITableView ... except for one thing. If the new element creates a new SECTION, the new section index does not show up in the right hand margin unless I pop the UINavigationController's stack and reload the UITableViewController. I have conformed to the NSFetchedResultsControllerDelegate's interface and manually invoke [self.tableView reloadSectionIndexTitles]; at the end of both these delegate methods: controller:didChangeSection... controller:didChangeObject... and while I can debug and trace the execution into the methods and see the reload call invoked, the UITableView's section index never reflects the section changes. Again, the data shows up - new sections are physically visible (or removed) in the UITableView but the section indexes are not updated. Am I missing something?

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  • Assistance with building an inverted-index

    - by tipu
    It's part of an information retrieval thing I'm doing for school. The plan is to create a hashmap of words using the the first two letters of the word as a key and any words with the two letters saved as a string value. So, hashmap["ba"] = "bad barley base" Once I'm done tokenizing a line I take that hashmap, serialize it, and append it to the text file named after the key. The idea is that if I take my data and spread it over hundreds of files I'll lessen the time it takes to fulfill a search by lessening the density of each file. The problem I am running into is when I'm making 100+ files in each run it happens to choke on creating a few files for whatever reason and so those entries are empty. Is there any way to make this more efficient? Is it worth continuing this, or should I abandon it? I'd like to mention I'm using PHP. The two languages I know relatively intimately are PHP and Java. I chose PHP because the front end will be very simple to do and I will be able to add features like autocompletion/suggested search without a problem. I also see no benefit in using Java. Any help is appreciated, thanks.

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  • Implementation review for a MVC.NET app with custom membership

    - by mrjoltcola
    I'd like to hear if anyone sees any problems with how I implemented the security in this Oracle based MVC.NET app, either security issues, concurrency issues or scalability issues. First, I implemented a CustomOracleMembershipProvider to handle the database interface to the membership store. I implemented a custom Principal named User which implements IPrincipal, and it has a hashtable of Roles. I also created a separate class named AuthCache which has a simple cache for User objects. Its purpose is simple to avoid return trips to the database, while decoupling the caching from either the web layer or the data layer. (So I can share the cache between MVC.NET, WCF, etc.) The MVC.NET stock MembershipService uses the CustomOracleMembershipProvider (configured in web.config), and both MembershipService and FormsService share access to the singleton AuthCache. My AccountController.LogOn() method: 1) Validates the user via the MembershipService.Validate() method, also loads the roles into the User.Roles container and then caches the User in AuthCache. 2) Signs the user into the Web context via FormsService.SignIn() which accesses the AuthCache (not the database) to get the User, sets HttpContext.Current.User to the cached User Principal. In global.asax.cs, Application_AuthenticateRequest() is implemented. It decrypts the FormsAuthenticationTicket, accesses the AuthCache by the ticket.Name (Username) and sets the Principal by setting Context.User = user from the AuthCache. So in short, all these classes share the AuthCache, and I have, for thread synchronization, a lock() in the cache store method. No lock in the read method. The custom membership provider doesn't know about the cache, the MembershipService doesn't know about any HttpContext (so could be used outside of a web app), and the FormsService doesn't use any custom methods besides accessing the AuthCache to set the Context.User for the initial login, so it isn't dependent on a specific membership provider. The main thing I see now is that the AuthCache will be sharing a User object if a user logs in from multiple sessions. So I may have to change the key from just UserId to something else (maybe using something in the FormsAuthenticationTicket for the key?).

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  • AntFarm anti-pattern -- strategies to avoid, antidotes to help heal from

    - by alchemical
    I'm working on a 10 page web site with a database back-end. There are 500+ objects in use, trying to implement the MVP pattern in ASP.Net. I'm tracing the code-execution from a single-page, my finger has been on F-11 in Visual Studio for about 40 minutes, there seems to be no end, possibly 1000+ method calls for one web page! If it was just 50 objects that would be one thing, however, code execution snakes through all these objects just like millions of ants frantically woring in their giant dirt mound house, riddled with object tunnels. Hence, a new anti-pattern is born : AntFarm. AntFarm is also known as "OO-Madnes", "OO-Fever", OO-ADD, or simply design-pattern junkie. This is not the first time I've seen this, nor my associates at other companies. It seems that this style is being actively propogated, or in any case is a misunderstanding of the numerous OO/DP gospels going around... I'd like to introduce an anti-pattern to the anti-pattern: GST or "Get Stuff Done" AKA "Get Sh** done" AKA GRD (GetRDone). This pattern focused on just what it says, getting stuff done, in a simple way. I may try to outline it more in a later post, or please share your ideas on this antidote pattern. Anyway, I'm in the midst of a great example of AntFarm anti-pattern as I write (as a bonus, there is no documentation or comments). Please share you thoughts on how this anti-pattern has become so prevelant, how we can avoid it, and how can one undo or deal with this pattern in a live system one must work with!

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  • latex list environment inside the tabular environment: extra line at top preventing alignment

    - by Usagi
    Hello good people of stackoverflow. I have a LaTeX question that is bugging me. I have been trying to get a list environment to appear correctly inside the tabular environment. So far I have gotten everything to my liking except one thing: the top of the list does not align with other entries in the table, in fact it looks like it adds one line above the list... I would like to have these lists at the top. This is what I have, a custom list environment: \newenvironment{flushemize}{ \begin{list}{$\bullet$} {\setlength{\itemsep}{1pt} \setlength{\parskip}{0pt} \setlength{\parsep}{0pt} \setlength{\partopsep}{0pt} \setlength{\topsep}{0pt} \setlength{\leftmargin}{12pt}}}{\end{list}} Renamed ragged right: \newcommand{\rr}{\raggedright} and here is my table: \begin{table}[H]\caption{Tank comparisons}\label{tab:tanks} \centering \rowcolors{2}{white}{tableShade} \begin{tabular}{p{1in}p{1.5in}p{1.5in}rr} \toprule {\bf Material} & {\bf Pros} & {\bf Cons} & {\bf Size} & {\bf Cost} \\ \midrule \rr Reinforced concrete &\rr \begin{flushemize}\item Strong \item Secure \end{flushemize}&\rr \begin{flushemize}\item Prone to leaks \item Relatively expensive to install \item Heavy \end{flushemize} & 100,000 gal & \$299,400 \\ \rr Steel & \begin{flushemize}\item Strong \item Secure \end{flushemize} & \begin{flushemize}\item Relatively expensive to install \item Heavy \item Require painting to prevent rusting \end{flushemize} & 100,000 gal & \$130,100 \\ \rr Polypropylene & \begin{flushemize}\item Easy to install \item Mobile \item Inexpensive \item Prefabricated \end{flushemize} & \begin{flushemize}\item Relatively insecure \item Max size available 10,000 gal \end{flushemize} & 10,000 gal & \$5,000 \\ \rr Wood & \begin{flushemize}\item Easy to install \item Mobile \item Cheap to install \end{flushemize} & \begin{flushemize}\item Prone to rot \item Must remain full once constructed \end{flushemize} & 100,000 gal & \$86,300\\ \bottomrule \end{tabular} \end{table} Thank you for any advice :)

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  • How To Publish Business Objects Query Service

    - by ssorrrell
    We are trying to copy a BO Query Service from one Universe to another. If you use the BO Query As A Service(QAAS) tool you can do this, but end up basically recreating the query service. It seems like the BusinessObjects.DSWS.* libraries allow you to read and write query services, but those don't appear in the QAAS tool. I think that those queries go into a different Universe than the QAAS tool pings. Perhaps there is a Universe for data and another for Web Service Queries. Monitoring the QAAS tool for HTTP traffic revealed that the BO Web Service used to run queries for the data they contain is also used to manage the Web Service queries. I was able to copy one Query Service into a new one in a new Universe using a Replace() on the XML string in QuerySpec to change the UniverseID. We can basically copy one Query Service to another Universe without manually rebuilding it except for one little thing. The QAAS tool includes a Publish button. This does something unknown, but important. Perhaps it makes some SOAP, WSDL or config files so that the copied Query Service is public. There doesn't seem to be any HTTP traffic to snoop on when it's doing this. The BusinessObjects.DSWS.* libraries include a Publish feature, but it's not for Query Services. It's for general files like Excel and PDF. Right now, we are relegated to using two tools. Does anyone know about how to Publish a BO Query Service programmatically just like the QAAS Tool?

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  • ClickOnce Deployment Error - Access to the Path is Denied

    - by michael.lukatchik
    I have a WPF app that I'm deploying to a network path using ClickOnce deployment. After the app is deployed to a network location, I use the ClickOnce html page to launch the installation process. I am successfully able to download and install the app. However, my users are not able to download and install the app. When a user navigates to the ClickOnce html page and clicks to begin the installation process, the following error message is received: ERROR SUMMARY Below is a summary of the errors, details of these errors are listed later in the log. * Activation of http://software.mycompany.com/myapp/myapp.application resulted in exception. Following failure messages were detected: + Downloading file://dev/webs/software/myapp/myapp.application did not succeed. * [4/5/2010 1:56:59 PM] System.Deployment.Application.DeploymentDownloadException (Unknown subtype) - Downloading file://dev/Webs/software/myapp/myapp.application did not succeed. All signs point to this being a security issue. So, I've done the following: Ensured that "Everyone" had read access to the files that were being deployed as part of my project Ensured that "Everyone" had read access to the network location where the app was deployed (//dev/webs/software/myapp) Ensured that "Everyone" had read access to the IIS path where the ClickOnce html page is located In each of these cases, I've made no progress in getting the app to successfully deploy via ClickOnce. Again, the odd thing is that I am able to successfully walk through the process of downloading and installing the app. It's my users, though, that need the ability to download and install the app. I've looked extensively on the web for answers, but there hasn't been much. I'd like to resolve the issue without "re-installing" or "rigging" anything. I need a solid answer. Thank you all for your input!! Mike

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  • Pass table as parameter to SQLCLR TV-UDF

    - by Skeolan
    We have a third-party DLL that can operate on a DataTable of source information and generate some useful values, and we're trying to hook it up through SQLCLR to be callable as a table-valued UDF in SQL Server 2008. Taking the concept here one step further, I would like to program a CLR Table-Valued Function that operates on a table of source data from the DB. I'm pretty sure I understand what needs to happen on the T-SQL side of things; but, what should the method signature look like in the .NET (C#) code? What would be the parameter datatype for "table data from SQL Server?" e.g. /* Setup */ CREATE TYPE InTableType AS TABLE (LocationName VARCHAR(50), Lat FLOAT, Lon FLOAT) GO CREATE TYPE OutTableType AS TABLE (LocationName VARCHAR(50), NeighborName VARCHAR(50), Distance FLOAT) GO CREATE ASSEMBLY myCLRAssembly FROM 'D:\assemblies\myCLR_UDFs.dll' WITH PERMISSION_SET = EXTERNAL_ACCESS GO CREATE FUNCTION GetDistances(@locations InTableType) RETURNS OutTableType AS EXTERNAL NAME myCLRAssembly.GeoDistance.SQLCLRInitMethod GO /* Execution */ DECLARE @myTable InTableType INSERT INTO @myTable(LocationName, Lat, Lon) VALUES('aaa', -50.0, -20.0) INSERT INTO @myTable(LocationName, Lat, Lon) VALUES('bbb', -20.0, -50.0) SELECT * FROM @myTable DECLARE @myResult OutTableType INSERT INTO @myResult MyCLRTVFunction @myTable --returns a table result calculated using the input The lat/lon - distance thing is a silly example that should of course be better handled entirely in SQL; but I hope it illustrates the general intent of table-in - table-out through a table-valued UDF tied to a SQLCLR assembly. I am not certain this is possible; what would the SQLCLRInitMethod method signature look like in the C#? public class GeoDistance { [SqlFunction(FillRowMethodName = "FillRow")] public static IEnumerable SQLCLRInitMethod(<appropriateType> myInputData) { //... } public static void FillRow(...) { //... } } If it's not possible, I know I can use a "context connection=true" SQL connection within the C# code to have the CLR component query for the necessary data given the relevant keys; but that's sensitive to changes in the DB schema. So I hope to just have SQL bundle up all the source data and pass it to the function. Bonus question - assuming this works at all, would it also work with more than one input table?

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  • iPhone:How to set background image for tablerow cell?

    - by user187532
    Hello all, I want to put some background image for TableView row cell. I am using the following code: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { ..................... ................... UIImage * backgroundImage = [UIImage imageNamed:@"cell.png"]; UIColor *backgroundColor = [[UIColor alloc] initWithPatternImage:backgroundImage]; cell.opaque = NO; cell.contentView.opaque = NO; cell.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; cell.backgroundColor = backgroundColor; //cell.contentView.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; //cell.contentView.backgroundColor = backgroundColor; } But it is not giving the background image properly. Could someone guide me what is the proper ways of setting background image for a tableview row? Note: I'm also setting background image for my TableView as well using the below code: UIImage * backgroundImage = [UIImage imageNamed:@"Tablebackground.png"]; UIColor *backgroundColor = [[UIColor alloc] initWithPatternImage:backgroundImage]; self.myTableView.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; self.myTableView.alpha = 0.9; self.myTableView.backgroundColor = backgroundColor; I don't observe any problem for tableview background. Only thing here is, tableview background image is not being static, when scrolling happening, image is also scrolling. But i want to know first how to set background image for Tableview row cell? Thank you.

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  • How to check for server side update in iPhone application Web service request

    - by Nirmal
    Hello All.... I have kind of Listing application for iPhone application, which always calling a web service to my php server and fetching the data and displaying it onto iPhone screen. Now, the thing to consider in this scenario is, my iPhone application everytime requesting on the server and fetching the data. But now my requirement is like I want to replace following set of actions with above one : - Everytime when my application is launched in iPhone, it should check for the new data at the server`. - And if server replies "true" then only my iPhone application will made a request to fetch the data. - In case of "false", my iPhone application will display the data which is already cached in local phone memory. Now to implement this scenario at server side (which has php, mysql), I am planning with the following solution : Table : tblNewerData id newDataFlag == ============ 1 true Trigger : tgrUpdateNewData Above trigger will update the tblNewerData - newDataFlag field on Insert case of my main table. And every time my iPhone app will request for tblNewerData-newDataFlag field, and if it found true then only it will create new request, and if it founds false then the cached version of data will be displayed. So, I want to know that, is it the correct way to do so ? or else any other smart option available ? Thanks in advance.

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