Search Results

Search found 18096 results on 724 pages for 'let'.

Page 614/724 | < Previous Page | 610 611 612 613 614 615 616 617 618 619 620 621  | Next Page >

  • Jquery dynamic dropdown event not firing

    - by kevin
    Hi i am trying to create dropdownlists dynamically and populating the contents via an ajax call, this sort of works in the sense that the drop down is created and populated as required but its 'change' event does not fire. I am posting the code below, if anyone can spot something obvious, can you please let me know regards $(document).ready(function () { $("#positions select").change(function (e) { alert("in"); var id = $("#category_id").val(); $.getJSON("/Category/GetSubCategories/" + id, function (data) { if (data.length > 0) { alert(data.length); var position = document.getElementById('positions'); var tr = position.insertRow(7); var td1 = tr.insertCell(-1); var td = tr.insertCell(-1); var sel = document.createElement("select"); sel.name = 'sel'; sel.id = 'sel'; sel.setAttribute('class', 'category'); td.appendChild(sel); $.each(data, function (GetSubCatergories, category) { $('#sel').append($("<option></option>"). attr("value", category.category_id). text(category.name)); }); } }); }); });

    Read the article

  • Creating dynamic icons based on data entered into database from django forms

    - by John Hoke
    So I'm using Django to create a projects page with multiple forms for each project. Let's call them form 1, 2, 3, and 4. Once you create a project you can fill out any of these forms. I want to create "buttons" or links for each one of the forms that would show up on the main page. Now this is the part I need help with: Step 1. I want it so that if you click on a button for a form (say form 1) and none exists for that project yet a pop up would come up saying "This form does not exist yet, are you sure you want to create one?". And if you'd answer yes you would be directed to the form page. Step 2. But if that form does exist, I don't want any pop up to open and I want the link to take the user directly to that page. Step 3. My next problem is this. These forms are in order, so if you didn't create form 1 but created form 2, I don't want to give the user access to form 1. So in this scenario, if you click on form 1 I want a pop up to open and say "This form can no longer be created", and the link wouldn't function anymore. Basically the button will have 3 function. First it should look at the database and if data for that specific form exists it should do "Step 2", if data for that form and the proceeding forms don't exist it should do "Step 1", and if data for that form doesn't exist but data for proceeding form's does exist is should do "Step 3". Is this possible? Please help as I need to find a solution to this soon. Any help would be highly appreciated. Thank you

    Read the article

  • What job title should be most suitable for my object in resume and what salary range should I expect

    - by user354177
    I was a classic asp developer in 2000. After a year of full-time employment, I left the field. I found a part-time position as an asp developer again in 2005 and taught myself vb.net. In 2007, I got the current full-time job as an Asp.net web developer. I taught myself C#, LING t0 SQL, Web Services, AJAX, and creating all kinds of reports with reporting services. One and half years ago, I sent myself to part-time graduate program in Database and Web Systems. I'll have two semesters to go and so far my GPA is 4.0/4.0. My job responsibility is to collect business requirements from other departments, design the database, write stored procedures, create aspx pages, and create reports. I love what I do and want to advance my career to the next level. What I enjoy most is to design the relational database. I would want to become an .Net Architect eventually. I got an interview. They were looking for asp.net web developer. But I was surprised and disappointed that position would only create aspx pages. I would not even have opportunity to write stored procedures, let alone design the database (those would be provided by another group). Furthermore, they asked me some detailed questions about web forms, some of which I did not know the answers. they might be disappointed as well. I am eager to learn and can apply what I learn to real projects right away. I believe no matter what specific skills I am lacking for a new position, I can catch up quickly. I am looking for $70k range job. The object in my resume is Experience C# Web Application Developer. Due to the experience from last interview, I wonder if the object is really what I want. Could somebody answer my questions? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • HTML templating in C++ and translations

    - by Karim
    I'm using HTML_Template for templating in my C++-based web app (don't ask). I chose that because it was very simple and it turns out to be a good solution. The only problem right now is that I would like to be able to include translatable strings in the HTML templates (HTML_Template does not really support that). Ultimately, what I would like is to have a single file that contains all the strings to be translated. It can then be given to a translator and plugged back in to the app and used depending on which language the user chose in settings. I've been going back and forth on some options and was wondering what others felt was the best choice (or if there's a better choice that isn't listed) Extend HTML_Template to include a tag for holding the literal string to translate. So, for example, in the HTML I would put something like <TMPL_TRANS "this is the text to translate"/> Use a completely separate scheme for translation and preprocess the HTML files to generate the final template files (without the special translation lingo). For example, in the pre-processed file, translatable text would look like this: {{this is the text to translate}} and the final would look like: this is the text to translate Don't do anything and let the translators find the string to translate in the html and js files themselves.

    Read the article

  • Extend footer wrap to width of page.

    - by hawkeye126
    I've made a footer wrap outside the content wrap (which everything else is in). I would like to make the footer wrap extend to fill the width of the page and I would like it to be fixed on the bottom. Here's the code: footerWrap { background-color:#000; width: auto; } footer { margin: auto; text-align:center; width:965px; height:150px; background-color:#000; border:#000 inset medium; } The website is item9andthemadhatters.com please let me know if you need any other code or info. Thanks!! update: html { padding:0; height:100%; width: 100%; } body{ margin: -1px 0 0 0; background-color:#FFF; font-family: calibri; background-image:url(images/item9HeaderSideFiller.gif); background-repeat: repeat-x; padding:0; height:100%; width: 100%; } wrap { width: 965px; margin:auto auto; min-height:462px; max-height:4000 px; footerWrap { background-color:#000; position:absolute; bottom:0; width:100% } footer { margin: auto; text-align:center; width:965px; height:150px; background-color:#000; } }

    Read the article

  • JQuery event that triggers after CSS is loaded?

    - by Dave
    (I posted this on the jquery forums but it's still awaiting moderation, so I thought I'd try my luck here since stackoverflow is so awesome. If I get an answer I'll post it here.) Maybe someone can help me with this, I have a couple of links on my page (inside a <div id="theme-selector">) which allow you to change the CSS stylesheets: $('#theme-selector a').click(function(){ var path = $(this).attr('href'); $('head link').remove(); $('head').append('<link type="text/css" href="'+path+'" rel="stylesheet" />'); return false; }); Now, after I've changed the style on the page, I want to get the new background color, using the following code (which I put after the $('head').append call): var bgcolor = $('body').css('background-color'); alert(bgcolor); The problem is, I think, that it takes some time for the browser to download the new stylesheet and I sometimes get the old background color in my alert message. Is there some event I can bind that will only alert me after all the stylesheets are loaded on the page? At the moment, all I can think of is using a setTimeout(function(){}, 5000); which isn't great, because what if it takes longer/shorter to load all the CSS on the page. Let me know if I need to clarify anything and I can provide more code. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • How do I get the earlist DateTime of a set, where there is a few conditions

    - by radbyx
    Create script for Product SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO SET ANSI_PADDING ON GO CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Product]( [ProductID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [ProductName] [varchar](50) NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Products] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [ProductID] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] GO SET ANSI_PADDING OFF GO Create script for StateLog SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO CREATE TABLE [dbo].[StateLog]( [StateLogID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [ProductID] [int] NOT NULL, [Status] [bit] NOT NULL, [TimeStamp] [datetime] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Uptime] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [StateLogID] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[StateLog] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_Uptime_Products] FOREIGN KEY([ProductID]) REFERENCES [dbo].[Product] ([ProductID]) GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[StateLog] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_Uptime_Products] GO I have this and it's not enough: select top 5 [ProductName], [TimeStamp] from [Product] inner join StateLog on [Product].ProductID = [StateLog].ProductID where [Status] = 0 order by TimeStamp desc; (My query givess the 5 lastest TimeStamp's where Status is 0(false).) But I need a thing more: Where there is a set of lastest TimeStamps for a product where Status is 0, i only want the earlist of them (not the lastet). Example: Let's say for Product X i have: TimeStamp1(status = 0) TimeStamp2(status = 1) TimeStamp3(status = 0) TimeStamp4(status = 0) TimeStamp5(status = 1) TimeStamp6(status = 0) TimeStamp7(status = 0) TimeStamp8(status = 0) Correct answer would then be:: TimeStamp6, because it's the first of the lastest timestamps.

    Read the article

  • Is it okay to violate the principle that collection properties should be readonly for performance?

    - by uriDium
    I used FxCop to analyze some code I had written. I had exposed a collection via a setter. I understand why this is not good. Changing the backing store when I don't expect it is a very bad idea. Here is my problem though. I retrieve a list of business objects from a Data Access Object. I then need to add that collection to another business class and I was doing it with the setter method. The reason I did this was that it is going to be faster to make an assignment than to insert hundreds of thousands of objects one at a time to the collection again via another addElement method. Is it okay to have a getter for a collection in some scenarios? I though of rather having a constructor which takes a collection? I thought maybe I could pass the object in to the Dao and let the Dao populate it directly? Are there any other better ideas?

    Read the article

  • Best Approach for Checking and Inserting Records

    - by nevets1219
    In one of our existing C programs which purpose is: Open connection to DB for record in all_record: if record contain certain data: if record is NOT in table A: // see #1 insert record information into table A and B // see #2 Close connection to DB select field from table where field=XXX 2 inserts This is typically done every X months to sync everything up or so I'm told. I've also been told that this process takes roughly a couple of days. There is (currently) at most 2.5million records (though not necessarily all 2.5m will be inserted). One of the table contains 10 fields and the other 5 fields. There isn't much to be done about iterating through the records since that part can't be changed at the moment. What I would like to do is speed up the part where I query MySQL. I'm not sure if I have left out any important details -- please let me know! I'm also no SQL expert so feel free to point out the obvious. I thought about: Putting all the inserts into a transaction (at the moment I'm not sure how important it is for the transaction to be all-or-none or if this affects performance) Using Insert X Where Not Exists Y LOAD DATA INFILE (but that would require I create a (possibly) large temp file) I read that (hopefully someone can confirm) I should drop indexes so they aren't re-calculated. mysql Ver 14.7 Distrib 4.1.22, for sun-solaris2.10 (sparc) using readline 4.3

    Read the article

  • How can I use SQL Server's full text search across multiple rows at once?

    - by Morbo
    I'm trying to improve the search functionality on my web forums. I've got a table of posts, and each post has (among other less interesting things): PostID, a unique ID for the individual post. ThreadID, an ID of the thread the post belongs to. There can be any number of posts per thread. Text, because a forum would be really boring without it. I want to write an efficient query that will search the threads in the forum for a series of words, and it should return a hit for any ThreadID for which there are posts that include all of the search words. For example, let's say that thread 9 has post 1001 with the word "cat" in it, and also post 1027 with the word "hat" in it. I want a search for cat hat to return a hit for thread 9. This seems like a straightforward requirement, but I don't know of an efficient way to do it. Using the regular FREETEXT and CONTAINS capabilities for N'cat AND hat' won't return any hits in the above example because the words exist in different posts, even though those posts are in the same thread. (As far as I can tell, when using CREATE FULLTEXT INDEX I have to give it my index on the primary key PostID, and can't tell it to index all posts with the same ThreadID together.) The solution that I currently have in place works, but sucks: maintain a separate table that contains the entire concatenated post text of every thread, and make a full text index on THAT. I'm looking for a solution that doesn't require me to keep a duplicate copy of the entire text of every thread in my forums. Any ideas? Am I missing something obvious?

    Read the article

  • Is Maven really flexible?

    - by Dima
    I understand how Maven works with .java files in src/java/main. But may it be used for a more general case? Let us put it more abstract: Suppose I already have some a.exe that read some (not necessarily only .java) sources from directories A1, A2, A3 and puts some files (maybe some are generated .java) to directories B1, B2. I also have some b.exe that currently reads files from B1, B2, B3 and generates something else. Some more similar steps. (A real life problem stands behind). I would like to right POM.xml file so that maven will do this work. Is that possible? I assume that a.exe and b.exe should be warped as maven plugings. Next, in Maven docs I see : <build> <sourceDirectory>${basedir}/src/main/java</sourceDirectory> <scriptSourceDirectory>${basedir}/src/main/scripts</scriptSourceDirectory> <testSourceDirectory>${basedir}/src/test/java</testSourceDirectory> <outputDirectory>${basedir}/target/classes</outputDirectory> <testOutputDirectory>${basedir}/target/test-classes</testOutputDirectory> ... </build> What bothers me is that "sourceDirectory" looks by itself as a hard coded name. Will Maven accept A1 and A2 tags instead?

    Read the article

  • Custom collision

    - by bali182
    I was recently assigned to create a siple game using the Corona SDK. The main pillar of the game would be a simple event: the user should put a ball in a basket, and I should be able to handle this event. Here is a picture for better understanding: I successfully managed to create the collision shape for the basket, but i have trouble with the collision of the inside of this basket. My first thought was the following: create a new shape size and position it to fit the "belly" of this basket add it to the physics-world, and listen to the collision. With hybrid drawing it looks like this: But there is a problem: if i add this shape to the physics, it wouldn't let the ball fall into the, basket, it will handle this shape as a solid object as well. So my question is: How could I get this custom object to collide, without blocking the ball to fall through it? I have read a lots of forum post with similar questions but none of them got a proper answer. There must be a way to do this in an elegant way. And one note: Please don't suggest checking the collision manually, with rectangle intersection, because in this simple case it would work, but later I may need to change the shape of the basket, and then it will be useless!

    Read the article

  • Dependency Injection: How to pass DB around?

    - by Stephane
    Edit: This is a conceptual question first and foremost. I can make applications work without knowing this, but I'm trying to learn the concept. I've seen lots of videos with related classes and that makes sense, but when it comes to classes wrapping around other classes, I can't seem to grasp where things should be instantiated/passed around. =-=-=-=-=-=-= Question: Let's say I have a simple page that loads data from a table, manipulates the result and displays it. Simple. I'm going to use '=' for instantiating a class and '-' for passing a class in using constructor injection. It seems to me that the database has to be passed from one end of the application to the other which doesn't seem right. Here's how I would do it if I wanted to separate concerns: index =>Controller =>Model Layer =>Database =>DAO->Database I have this rule in my head that says I'm not supposed to create objects inside other objects. So what do I do with the Database? Or even the Model for that matter? I'm obviously missing something so basic about this. I would love a simplified example so that I can move forward in my code. I feel really hamstrung by this.

    Read the article

  • pathogen#infect not updating the runtimepath

    - by Taylor Price
    I have started working with pathogen.vim with gvim on Windows, following Tim Pope's setup guide at his github repository here. However, I'm running into the problem that pathogen#infect() does not seem to be modifying the runtimepath (as seen by running :echo &runtimepath in gvim). The simple test case _vimrc that I came up with is as follows. Please note that pathogen gets loaded just fine. "Set a base directory. let $BASE_DIR='H:\development\github\vimrc' "Source pathogen since it's not in the normal autoload directory. source $BASE_DIR\autoload\pathogen.vim "Start up pathogen call pathogen#infect() "call pathogen#infect('$BASE_DIR\functions') Neither running pathogen#infect() without an argument (which should add the bundles directory under the vimfiles directory) nor specifying a directory to contain files works. Substituting the pathogen#infect() call with pathogen#runtime_prepend_subdirectories('$BASE_DIR\functions'), which is what pathogen#infect() does fails to change the runtimepath as well. Any ideas that I've missed? Any more information that would be helpful? My repository with the non-trivial example is here.

    Read the article

  • How is machine code understood by the machine

    - by Kraken
    I have a very naive question here, and I would like you to correct me on whatever wrong concepts I put out here. The question is as follows: I have ubuntu installed on my machine, now I write a helloWorld.c program in C language. Now, on the operating system I have a compiler installed, when I execute my helloWorld.c program, the OS schedules the compiler and that basically compiles my code into machine code, which eventually, I execute. Now my kernel code is written in C, then how does my machine interprets that code? Say my kernel code is helloWorld.c, now would not I require any compiler, to compile this code. Also, if I hardcode a compiler in maybe ROM or something, then what language is it written in? Assembly language? Let me know if I have made myself clear with the problem. Thanks. EDIT: By kernel code I mean, the code for operating system. Operating System code. I guess it is written in C right?

    Read the article

  • VS2010 + IE8 Debugging woes - Element not found

    - by Chin
    I am having great difficulty trying to debug with vs2010 and IE8, though I think the problem is more IE8 specific. When starting a debug session 9 times out of 10 I will have the following problem. IE tab says connecting.. - then after a 5 second wait I will get an error in VS saying element not found. Even when I click ok to dismiss the error, the IE window still shows connecting... I will then have to kill the IE process to be able to close IE to try again. Sometimes however I am lucky and it starts. But the whole thing is so random I have no clue where to start. One thing I have noticed is that I always have 2 IE processes started even though there is only one window open. One has a small footprint of 100k, I presume it is some kind of helper. I am using a static port with the built in WebDev server. If anyone has had similar problems please let me know how you resolved it. Its driving me nuts! thanks

    Read the article

  • What choices do I have for a future in software development?

    - by user354892
    After graduating from college with a degree in mathematics and a minor in computer science, I took over a year to find my first programming job. I very much enjoy my work environment, but sometimes I feel like I'm not developing professionally as quickly as I am capable of. My company does mostly web programming. The project that I work on is basically a front-end for a SQL database. The entire project is (AFAIK) coded is VB.NET. I've been working on the back-end logic of the program. After some time on the job, we decided that designing web pages is not my cup of tea. It seems like the thing that I spend more time on than anything else is searching the web and SO for information about poorly documented .net and web APIs. This does not make me happy; is this normal for a programming job; I don't think it is. It really hit me the other day when i saw a question about math asked here and I didn't know the answer; I feel like my knowledge is going stale! I was previously almost hired by another company where they design graphic-intensive battle simulations for the military. I sometimes wonder what my life might be like if I had that job. I feel like my math and problem solving skills might have been a better fit at this other company. Within the wide field of software development, there are a number of directions in which to go as evidenced by the huge variety of topics discussed here on StackOverflow. I would like to feel like I'm going in the direction where I will make the most of my skills and have a satisfying career. Let me word this question as clearly as possible: given the wide breadth of the field of software development, how does it break down into sub-fields and what are the considerations for developing a software development career. I do not want to manage my career by default.

    Read the article

  • Hibernate OneToMany and ManyToOne confusion! Null List!

    - by squizz
    I have two tables... For example - Company and Employee (let's keep this real simple) Company( id, name ); Employee( id, company_id ); Employee.company_id is a foreign key. My entity model looks like this... Employee @ManyToOne(cascade = CascadeType.PERSIST) @JoinColumn(name = "company_id") Company company; Company @OneToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, fetch = FetchType.EAGER) @JoinColumn(name = "company_id") List<Employee> employeeList = new ArrayList<Employee>(); So, yeah I want a list of employees for a company. When I do the following... Employee e = new Employee(); e.setCompany(c); //c is an Company that is already in the database. DAO.insertEmployee(e); //this works fine! If I then get my Company object it's list is empty! Ive tried endless different ways from the Hibernate documentation! Obviously not tried the correct one yet! I just want the list to be populated for me or find out a sensible alternative. Help would be greatly appreciated, thanks!

    Read the article

  • What does Postgres do when BEGIN is run on a connection in autocommit mode?

    - by DNS
    I'm trying to better understand the concept of 'autocommit' when working with a Postgres (psycopg) connection. Let's say I have a fresh connection, set its isolation level to ISOLATION_LEVEL_AUTOCOMMIT, then run this SQL directly, without using the cursor begin/rollback methods (as an exercise; not saying I actually want to do this): INSERT A INSERT B BEGIN INSERT C INSERT D ROLLBACK What happens to INSERTs C & D? Is autocommit is purely an internal setting in psycopg that affects how it issues BEGINs? In that case, the above SQL is unafected; INSERTs A & B are committed as soon as they're done, while C & D are run in a transaction and rolled back. What isolation level is that transaction run under? Or is autocommit a real setting on the connection itself? In that case, how does it affect the handling of BEGIN? Is it ignored, or does it override the autocommit setting to actually start a transaction? What isolation level is that transaction run under? Or am I completely off-target?

    Read the article

  • Form doesn't resize smoothly with a timer event

    - by BDotA
    I have a grid control at the bottom of my form and it can be shown or hidden if user wants to show/hide it. So one way was to well use AutoSize of the form and change the Visuble property of that grid to true or false,... But I thought let's make it a little cooler! so I wanted the form to resize a little more slowly, like a garage door! So I dropped a Timer on the form and started increasing the height of the form little by little while the timer ticks... so something like this when user says show/hide the grid: timer1.Enabled = true; timer1.Start(); and something like this on the timer_click event: this.Height = this.Height + 5; if(this.Height -10 > ErrorsGrid.Bottom ) timer1.Stop(); It kind of works but still not perfect. For example it lags at the very beginning, stop a like a second and then start moving it...So now with this idea in mind what alterations do you suggest I should do to make this thing look and work better?

    Read the article

  • two view controllers and reusability with delegate

    - by netcharmer
    Newbie question about design patterns in objC. I'm writing a functionality for my iphone app which I plan to use in other apps too. The functionality is written over two classes - Viewcontroller1 and Viewcontroller2. Viewcontroller1 is the root view of a navigation controller and it can push Viewcontroller2. Rest of the app will use only ViewController1 and will never access Viewcontroller2 directly. However, triggered by user events, Viewcontroller2 has to send a message to the rest of the app. My question is what is the best way of achieving it? Currently, I use two level of delegation to send the message out from Viewcontroller2. First send it to Viewcontroller1 and then let Viewcontroller1 send it to rest of the app or the application delegate. So my code looks like - //Viewcontroller1.h @protocol bellDelegate -(int)bellRang:(int)size; @end @interface Viewcontroller1 : UITableViewController <dummydelegate> { id <bellDelegate> delegate; @end //Viewcontroller1.m @implementation Viewcontroller1 -(void)viewDidLoad { //some stuff here Viewcontroller2 *vc2 = [[Viewcontroller2 alloc] init]; vc2.delegate = self; [self.navigationController pushViewController:vc2 animated:YES]; } -(int)dummyBell:(int)size { return([self.delegate bellRang:size]); } //Viewcontroller2.h @protocol dummyDelegate -(int)dummyBell:(int)size; @end @interface Viewcontroller2 : UITableViewController { id <dummyDelegate> delegate; @end //Viewcontroller2.m @implementation Viewcontroller2 -(int)eventFoo:(int)size { rval = [self.delegate dummyBell:size]; } @end

    Read the article

  • byte and short data types in Java can accept the value outside the range by explicit cast. The higher data types however can not. Why?

    - by Lion
    Let's consider the following expressions in Java. byte a = 32; byte b = (byte) 250; int i = a + b; This is valid in Java even though the expression byte b = (byte) 250; is forced to assign the value 250 to b which is outside the range of the type byte. Therefore, b is assigned -6 and consequently i is assigned the value 26 through the statement int i = a + b;. The same thing is possible with short as follows. short s1=(short) 567889999; Although the specified value is outside the range of short, this statement is legal. The same thing is however wrong with higher data types such int, double, folat etc and hence, the following case is invalid and causes a compile-time error. int z=2147483648; This is illegal, since the range of int in Java is from -2,147,483,648 to 2147483647 which the above statement exceeds and issues a compile-time error. Why is such not wrong with byte and short data types in Java?

    Read the article

  • How to display controllers with proper aligning in iPhone screen ?

    - by chatcja
    I have a issue of displaying information in iPhone screen. Case is as follows. I crated a view-based application in Xcode name as myView. Then open myViewViewController.xib interface builder, change back groung color and added label at top-let (0, 0) of the view. Then I add new file named as myView2ViewController, which is subclass of UIViewController and corresponding XIB also generated. Open myView2ViewController in IB and added a label at top-left as previous. Also changed the background color. In the "applicationDidFinishLaunching" of AppDeligate do following myView2ViewController *mView = [[myView2ViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"myView2ViewController" bundle:nil]; [window addSubview:mView.view]; When I run the application, it is shown as upper part of the Label is sheared. It seems as whole UI has been moved 20 px upper (Because, there is a horizontal space in the bottom). I guess this is due to some positioning. But still I could not found any way to fix it. Hope somebody will help me to identify this issue !!

    Read the article

  • Mapping a URL to a service inside a class library

    - by johnk82swe
    I'm developing a small content management solution than can be used in any ASP.NET 3.5 website. The website references some dll's and then lets the aspx's inherit my page baseclass. Some configuration in web.config is also needed, but thats it. Now I'm building a standalone Silverlight editor for the CMS. My idea is that it should communicate with the server using web services. But the question is how to make this service available to the editor? I don't want the website developers having to bother with it. If I used a REST API rather than SOAP I could just create an HttpHandler in my class library and let the website developers add a handler to it in web.config with the path "editor" and then the editor could communicate with that handler on mywebsite.com/editor. Is there any way to achieve the same with a asmx or wcf service? The important thing is that the website developers never have to set up any asmx files or anything. They should only have to specify a url and map that url to a service inside my class library. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Safe way for getting/finding a vertex in a graph with custom properties -> good programming practice

    - by Shadow
    Hi, I am writing a Graph-class using boost-graph-library. I use custom vertex and edge properties and a map to store/find the vertices/edges for a given property. I'm satisfied with how it works, so far. However, I have a small problem, where I'm not sure how to solve it "nicely". The class provides a method Vertex getVertex(Vertexproperties v_prop) and a method bool hasVertex(Vertexproperties v_prop) The question now is, would you judge this as good programming practice in C++? My opinion is, that I have first to check if something is available before I can get it. So, before getting a vertex with a desired property, one has to check if hasVertex() would return true for those properties. However, I would like to make getVertex() a bit more robust. ATM it will segfault when one would directly call getVertex() without prior checking if the graph has a corresponding vertex. A first idea was to return a NULL-pointer or a pointer that points past the last stored vertex. For the latter, I haven't found out how to do this. But even with this "robust" version, one would have to check for correctness after getting a vertex or one would also run into a SegFault when dereferencing that vertex-pointer for example. Therefore I am wondering if it is "ok" to let getVertex() SegFault if one does not check for availability beforehand?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 610 611 612 613 614 615 616 617 618 619 620 621  | Next Page >