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  • How to emulate a BEFORE DELETE trigger in SQL Server 2005

    - by Mark
    Let's say I have three tables, [ONE], [ONE_TWO], and [TWO]. [ONE_TWO] is a many-to-many join table with only [ONE_ID and [TWO_ID] columns. There are foreign keys set up to link [ONE] to [ONE_TWO] and [TWO] to [ONE_TWO]. The FKs use the ON DELETE CASCADE option so that if either a [ONE] or [TWO] record is deleted, the associated [ONE_TWO] records will be automatically deleted as well. I want to have a trigger on the [TWO] table such that when a [TWO] record is deleted, it executes a stored procedure that takes a [ONE_ID] as a parameter, passing the [ONE_ID] values that were linked to the [TWO_ID] before the delete occurred: DECLARE @Statement NVARCHAR(max) SET @Statement = '' SELECT @Statement = @Statement + N'EXEC [MyProc] ''' + CAST([one_two].[one_id] AS VARCHAR(36)) + '''; ' FROM deleted JOIN [one_two] ON deleted.[two_id] = [one_two].[two_id] EXEC (@Statement) Clearly, I need a BEFORE DELETE trigger, but there is no such thing in SQL Server 2005. I can't use an INSTEAD OF trigger because of the cascading FK. I get the impression that if I use a FOR DELETE trigger, when I join [deleted] to [ONE_TWO] to find the list of [ONE_ID] values, the FK cascade will have already deleted the associated [ONE_TWO] records so I will never find any [ONE_ID] values. Is this true? If so, how can I achieve my objective? I'm thinking that I'd need to change the FK joining [TWO] to [ONE_TWO] to not use cascades and to do the delete from [ONE_TWO] manually in the trigger just before I manually delete the [TWO] records. But I'd rather not go through all that if there is a simpler way.

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  • Migrate from Oracle to MySQL

    - by Cassy
    Hi together. We ran into serious performance problems with our Oracle database and we would like to try to migrate to a MySQL-based database (either MySQL directly or, more preferrable, Infobright). The thing is, we need to let the old and the new system overlap for at least some weeks if not months, before we actually know, if all features of the new database match our needs. So, here is our situation: The Oracle database consists of multiple tables with each millions of rows. During the day, there are literally thousands of statements, which we cannot stop for migration. Every morning, new data is imported into the Oracle database, replacing some thousands of rows. Copying this process is not a problem, so we could, in theory, import in both databases in parallel. But, and here lies the challenge, for this to work, we need to have an export from the Oracle database with a consistent state from one day. (We cannot export some tables on Monday and some others on Tuesday, etc.) This means, that at least the export should be finished in less than one day. Our first thought was to dump the schema, but I wasn't able to find a tool to import an Oracle dump file into mysql. Exporting tables in CSV files might work, but I'm afraid it could take too long. So my question now is: What should I do? Is there any tool to import Oracle dump files into MySQL? Does anybody have any experience with such a large-scale migration? Thanks in advance, Cassy PS: Please, don't suggest performance optimization techniques for Oracle, we already tried a lot :-)

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  • Simple OpenCL Kernel

    - by Yuuta
    I'm trying to write a kernel which is a little long but the output is not correct. I took out a lot almost everything and finally narrowed down the an initialization problem and I found that the following works: __kernel void k_sIntegral(__global const float* eData,__global const unsigned long* elements,__global float* area){ const int i = get_global_id(0); if(i < elements[0]){ area[i] = i; } } But the following does not work: __kernel void k_sIntegral(__global const float* eData,__global const unsigned long* elements,__global float* area){ const int i = get_global_id(0); if(i < elements[0]){ __local float a,b,c,j,k,h,s; area[i] = i; } } Using the first kernel, I get: area[1] = 1 Using the second kernel, I get: area[1] = 0 (from calloc) Update: It seems like the code does work, but I need to change the function name otherwise it somehow calls the previous function even though it was not compiled (?). Any leads to why that happens? If anyone can let me know what might be the problem I'll be really grateful, thanks in advance!

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  • Strategies for testing reactive, asynchronous code

    - by Arne
    I am developing a data-flow oriented domain-specific language. To simplify, let's just look at Operations. Operations have a number of named parameters and can be asked to compute their result using their current state. To decide when an Operation should produce a result, it gets a Decision that is sensitive to which parameter got a value from who. When this Decision decides that it is fulfilled, it emits a Signal using an Observer. An Accessor listens for this Signal and in turn calls the Result method of the Operation in order to multiplex it to the parameters of other Operations. So far, so good, nicely decoupled design, composable and reusable and, depending on the specific Observer used, as asynchronous as you want it to be. Now here's my problem: I would love to start coding actual Tests against this design. But with an asynchronous Observer... how should I know that the whole signal-and-parameters-plumbing worked? Do I need to use time outs while waiting for a Signal in order to say that it was emitted successfully or not? How can I be, formally, sure that the Signal will not be emitted if I just wait a little longer (halting problem? ;-)) And, how can I be sure that the Signal was emitted because it was me who set a parameter, and not another Operation? It might well be that my test comes to early and sees a Signal that was emitted way before my setting a parameter caused a Decision to emit it. Currently, I guess the trivial cases are easy to test, but as soon as I want to test complex many-to-many - situations between operations I must resort to hoping that the design Just Works (tm)...

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  • Memory Barrier by lock statement

    - by jalalaldeen
    I read recently about memory barrier and the reordaring issue and now I have some confusion about it. Let us have a following senario: private object _object1 = null; private object _object2 = null; private bool _usingObject1 = false; private object MyObject { get { if (_usingObject1) { return _object1; } else { return _object2; } } set { if (_usingObject1) { _object1 = value; } else { _object2 = value; } } } private void Update() { _usingMethod1 = true; SomeProperty = FooMethod(); //.. _usingMethod1 = false; } 1- At Update method; is it always _usingMethod1 = true statement excecuted before getting or setting the property? or due reordaring issue we can not garantee that? 2- Should we use volitle like. private volitle bool _usingMethod1 = false; 3- If we use lock; can we garantee then every statement within the lock will be excecuted in order like: private void FooMethod() { object locker = new object(); lock (locker) { x = 1; y = a; i++; } } Thanks in advanced..

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  • Moq basic questions

    - by devoured elysium
    I made the following test for my class: var mock = new Mock<IRandomNumberGenerator>(); mock.Setup(framework => framework.Generate(0, 50)) .Returns(7.0); var rnac = new RandomNumberAverageCounter(mock.Object, 1, 100); rnac.Run(); double result = rnac.GetAverage(); Assert.AreEqual(result, 7.0, 0.1); The problem here was that I changed my mind about what range of values Generate(int min, int max) would use. So in Mock.Setup() I defined the range as from 0 to 50 while later I actually called the Generate() method with a range from 1 to 100. I ran the test and it failed. I know that that is what it's supposed to happen but I was left wondering if isn't there a way to launch an exception or throw in a message when trying to run the method with wrong params. Also, if I want to run this Generate() method 10 times with different values (let's say, from 1 to 10), will I have to make 10 mock setups or something, or is there a special method for it? The best I could think of is this (which isn't bad, I'm just asking if there is other better way): for (int i = 1; i < 10; ++i) { mock.Setup(framework => framework.Generate(1, 100)) .Returns((double)i); }

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  • C# Script to get modified date from URL directory

    - by Jynx
    Hello, I am fairly new to C# and was hoping for some assistance. I currently use Visual Studio 2008. What I am wanting to do is the following: I have a server (\backupserv) that runs a RoboCopy script nightly to backup directories from 18 other servers. These directories are then copied down to \backup in directories of their own: Example: It copies down "Dir1", "Dir2", and "Dir3" from Server1 into \backupserv\backups\Server1 into their own directories (\backupserv\backups\Server1\Dir1, \backupserv\backups\Server1\Dir2, and \backupserv\backups\Server1\Dir3). It does this for all 18 servers nightly between 12am and 6am. The RoboCopy runs via schedule task. A log file is created in \backupserv\backups\log and is named server1-dir1.log, server1-dir2.log, etc. What I am wanting to accomplish in C# is the ability to have a 'report' showing the modified date of each text log file. To do this I need to browse the \backupserv\backups\log directory, determine the modified date, and have a report displayed (prefer HTML if possible). Along with the modified date I will be showing more information, but that is later. Again, I am fairly new to C#, so, please be gentle. I was referred here by another programmer, and was told I would get some assistance. Thanks in advance. If I have missed any detail please let me know and I will do my best to answer.

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  • What db fits me?

    - by afvasd
    Dear Everyone I am currently using mysql. I am finding that my schema is getting incredibly complicated. I seek to find a new db that will suit my needs: Let's assume I am building a news aggregrator (which collects news from multiple website). I then run algorithms to determine if two news from different sites are actually referring to the same topic. I run this algorithm to cluster news together. The relationship is depicted below: cluster \--news1 \--word1 \--word2 \--news2 \--word3 \--news3 \--word1 \--word3 And then I will apply some magic and determine the importance of each word. Summing all the importance of each word gives me the importance of a news article. Summing the importance of each news article gives me the importance of a cluster. Note that above cluster there are also subgroups( like split by region etc), and categories (like sports, etc) which I have to determine the importance of that in a particular day per se. I have used views in the past to do so, but I realized that views are very slow. So i will normally do an insert into an actual table and index them for better performance. As you can see this leads to multiple tables derived like (cluster, importance), (news, importance), (words, importance) etc which can get pretty messy. Also the "importance" metric will change. It has become increasingly difficult to alter tables, update data (which I am using TRUNCATE TABLE) and then inserting from null. I am currently looking into something schemaless like Mongodb. I do not need distributedness. I would very much want something that is reasonably fast (which can be indexed) and something that is a lot more flexible that traditional RDMBS. Also, I need something that has some kind of ORM because I personally like ORM a lot. I am currently using sqlalchemy Please help!

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  • NSView only redraws on breakpoint

    - by Jacopo
    I have a custom view inside a NSPopover. It should change according to user input and it does the first time the user interact with it but it fails to redraw the following times. I have tried to put an NSLog inside the -drawRect: method and it doesn't get called during normal execution. When I try to debug and put a breakpoint inside the method it gets called normally and the app works as it should. I explicitly call the view -setNeedsDisplay: method every time I need it to redraw. I don't understand why it should make a difference. Here is the code that update the status of the view. These methods are part of the NSTextField delegate method -textDidChange: and I checked that these get called every time the user type something in the textfield associated with popover. [tokenCloud tokensToHighlight:[NSArray arrayWithObject:completeSuggestionString]]; tokenCloud.tokens = filteredTokens; [tokenCloud setNeedsDisplay:YES]; The views is a series of recessed button. The first line update the status of all the buttons in the popover and the second add or delete buttons. They both work properly because the first time they are called the view is update properly. I have also checked that both the status of the buttons in tokenCloud and its property tokens are updated correctly. The problem is that the NSView subclass, tokenCloud, doesn't redraw so the changes are not reflected in the UI the second time. Here is the draw method of the view: - (void)drawRect:(NSRect)rect { [self recalculateButtonLocations]; NSLog(@"Redrawn"); } Again this method gets called normally every time I update the view if I place a breakpoint in [self recalculateButtonLocations];. If instead I let the app run normally nothing gets logged in the console the second time I update the view. Same thing if I include the NSLog in the recalculateButtonLocations method, nothing gets logged the second time meaning that the method is not called.

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  • Bind WPF control with property of custom type

    - by TheBlueSky
    Hello everyone, I'm trying to bind a Label's 'Content' property to a property from some custom type I have; unfortunately, I didn't figure out how to do it, and that's why I'm here :) Let's assume that I have the following type (can be in the same namespace as my WPF Window that contains the Label or different namespace): namespace MyNS { pubic class Person { private int age = 0; public int Age { get { return age; } } public void GetOlder { age++; } } } 1) How to I bind my Label to 'Age' property? 2) At runtime I will create an instance of 'Person'; I want to make sure that my Label is bound to the right instance; i.e. if I called: Person SomePerson = new Person(); SomePerson.GetOlder(); I want my Lable to have the new value of 'Age' property for 'SomePerson'. 3) If #2 was possible (I hope so), what if I called 'GetOlder' in different thread? Will I still get the latest value of 'Age'? Or do I have to take care of some other things as well to make this scenario possible? Thanks in advance, TheBlueSky

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  • Hibernate OneToMany and ManyToOne confusion! Null List!

    - by squizz
    I have two tables... For example - Company and Employee (let's keep this real simple) Company( id, name ); Employee( id, company_id ); Employee.company_id is a foreign key. My entity model looks like this... Employee @ManyToOne(cascade = CascadeType.PERSIST) @JoinColumn(name = "company_id") Company company; Company @OneToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, fetch = FetchType.EAGER) @JoinColumn(name = "company_id") List<Employee> employeeList = new ArrayList<Employee>(); So, yeah I want a list of employees for a company. When I do the following... Employee e = new Employee(); e.setCompany(c); //c is an Company that is already in the database. DAO.insertEmployee(e); //this works fine! If I then get my Company object it's list is empty! Ive tried endless different ways from the Hibernate documentation! Obviously not tried the correct one yet! I just want the list to be populated for me or find out a sensible alternative. Help would be greatly appreciated, thanks!

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  • Converting a view to Bitmap without displaying it in Android?

    - by sunil
    Hi, I will try to explain what exactly I need to do. I have 3 separate screens say A,B,C. There is another screen called say HomeScreen where all the 3 screens bitmap should be displayed in Gallery view and the user can select in which view does he wants to go. I have been able to get the Bitmaps of all the 3 screens and display it in Gallery view by placing all the code in HomeScreen Activity only. Now, this has complicated the code a lot and I will like to simplify it. So, can I call another Activity from HomeScreen and do not display it and just get the Bitmap of that screen. For example, say I just call HomeScreen and it calls Activity A,B,C and none of the Activities from A,B,C are displayed. It just gives the Bitmap of that screen by getDrawingCache(). And then we can display those bitmaps in Gallery view in HomeScreen. I hope I have explained the problem very clearly. Please let me know if this is actually possible. Regards Sunil

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  • how to set custom tab in jquery ui and use with rails

    - by Katyal
    I'm using jqueryUI for tabs on a page. I initialize it like below: $("#tabs").tabs(); <div id="tabs"> <ul> <li><a href="#tabs-4">Part A</a></li> <li><a href="#tabs-2">Part B</a></li> <li><a href="#tabs-5">Part C</a></li> </ul> <div id="tabs-4"> ..... </div> <div id="tabs-2"> .... </div> <div id="tabs-5"> .... </div> </div> I have 2 questions. How do I set the tab to be custom. say I want second tab to be shown first. $('#tabs').tabs(2) does not work. i got that from this link Let say I click on a button inside tab1. Clicking on the button takes control back to an action and then control comes back to this page. When the control comes back...then is it possible to set a custom tab?. For example. in tab 1 I click something...go back to the action...and then I want to come back to tab 2.

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  • NSPredicate (Core Data fetch) to filter on an attribute value being present in a supplied set (list)

    - by starbaseweb
    I'm trying to create a fetch predicate that is the analog to the SQL "IN" statement, and the syntax to do so with NSPredicate escapes me. Here's what I have so far (the relevant excerpt from my fetching routine): NSFetchRequest *request = [[[NSFetchRequest alloc] init] autorelease]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName: @"BodyPartCategory" inManagedObjectContext:_context]; [request setEntity:entity]; NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"(name IN %@)", [RPBodyPartCategory defaultBodyPartCategoryNames]]; [request setPredicate:predicate]; The entity "BodyPartCategory" has a string attribute "name". I have a list of names (just NSString objects) in an NSArray as returned by: [RPBodyPartCategory defaultBodyPartCategoryNames] So let's say that array has string such as {@"Liver", @"Kidney", @"Thyroid"} ... etc. I want to fetch all 'BodyPartCategory' instances whose name attribute matches one of the strings in the set provided (technically NSArray but I can make it an NSSet). In SQL, this would be something like: SELECT * FROM BodyPartCategories WHERE name IN ('Liver', 'Kidney', 'Thyroid') I've gone through various portions of the Predicate Programming Guide, but I don't see this simple use case covered. Pointers/help much appreciated!

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  • Addiing captions above images in wordpress

    - by jacob
    So I added some code in my css and there are boxes that appear over every image that is attached to a post. I've wanted to number the images and show the image number in the box(1...n). I have this in my functions.php function count_images(){ global $post; $thePostID = $post-ID; $parameters = array( 'post_type' = 'attachment', 'post_parent' = $thePostID, 'post_mime_type' = 'image'); $attachments = get_children($parameters); $content = count($attachments); return $content; } add_filter('the_content','count_images'); function caption_image_callback($matches) { $c = count_images(); for ($i=1; $i <= $c; $i++) { if (is_single()) { return ''.$i.' '; } else { return ''; } } } function caption_image($post_body_content) { $post_body_content = preg_replace_callback("||","caption_image_callback",$post_body_content); return $post_body_content; } if ( current_user_can('edit_plugins') ) { add_filter('the_content', 'caption_image'); } If I run only count_images it will show the correct number of attached images to a post(let's say 15). But for some reason the number that is shown in the boxes over the images is always 1. I've seen this done on several blogs with just php so there has to be a way(even if I have to change my whole code). PS: I had to leave spaces in some places

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  • Multiple collections tied to one base collection with filters and eventing

    - by damienc88
    I have a complex model served from my back end, which has a bunch of regular attributes, some nested models, and a couple of collections. My page has two tables, one for invalid items, and one for valid items. The items in question are from one of the nested collections. Let's call it baseModel.documentCollection, implementing DocumentsCollection. I don't want any filtration code in my Marionette.CompositeViews, so what I've done is the following (note, duplicated for the 'valid' case): var invalidDocsCollection = new DocumentsCollection( baseModel.documentCollection.filter(function(item) { return !item.isValidItem(); }) ); var invalidTableView = new BookIn.PendingBookInRequestItemsCollectionView({ collection: app.collections.invalidDocsCollection }); layout.invalidDocsRegion.show(invalidTableView); This is fine for actually populating two tables independently, from one base collection. But I'm not getting the whole event pipeline down to the base collection, obviously. This means when a document's validity is changed, there's no neat way of it shifting to the other collection, therefore the other view. What I'm after is a nice way of having a base collection that I can have filter collections sit on top of. Any suggestions?

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  • Passing huge amounts of data as an hexadecimal (0x123AB...) parameter of a clr stored procedure in s

    - by user193655
    I post this question has followup of This question, since the thread is not recieving more answers. I'm trying to understand if it is possible to pass as a parameter of a CLR stored procedure a large amount of data as "0x5352532F...". This is to avoid to send the data directly to the CLR stored procedure, instead of sending ti to a temporary DB field and from there passing it as varbinary(max) parmeter to the CLR stored procedure. I have a triple question: 1) is it possible, if yes how? Let's say i want to pass a pdf file to the CLR stored procedure (not the path, the full bits that make up the file). Something like: exec MyCLRStoredProcs.dbo.insertfile @file_remote_path ='c:\temp\test_file.txt' , @file_contents=0x4D5A90000300000004000.... --(this long list is the file content) where insertfile is a stored proc that writes to the server path (at file_remote_path) the binary data I pass as (file_contents). 2) is it there corruption risk of adopting this approach (or it is the same approach that sql server uses behind the scenes)? 3) how to convert the content of a file into the "0x23423..." hexadecimal representation

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  • Cryptography for P2P card game

    - by zephyr
    I'm considering writing a computer adaptation of a semi-popular card game. I'd like to make it function without a central server, and I'm trying to come up with a scheme that will make cheating impossible without having to trust the client. The basic problem as I see it is that each player has a several piles of cards (draw deck, current hand and discard deck). It must be impossible for either player to alter the composition of these piles except when allowed by the game rules (ie drawing or discarding cards), nor should players be able to know what is in their or their oppponent's piles. I feel like there should be some way to use something like public-key cryptography to accomplish this, but I keep finding holes in my schemes. Can anyone suggest a protocol or point me to some resources on this topic? [Edit] Ok, so I've been thinking about this a bit more, and here's an idea I've come up with. If you can poke any holes in it please let me know. At shuffle time, a player has a stack of cards whose value is known to them. They take these values, concatenate a random salt to each, then hash them. They record the salts, and pass the hashes to their opponent. The opponent concatenates a salt of their own, hashes again, then shuffles the hashes and passes the deck back to the original player. I believe at this point, the deck has been randomized and neither player can have any knowledge of the values. However, when a card is drawn, the opponent can reveal their salt, allowing the first player to determine what the original value is, and when the card is played the player reveals their own salt, allowing the opponent to verify the card value.

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  • What does Postgres do when BEGIN is run on a connection in autocommit mode?

    - by DNS
    I'm trying to better understand the concept of 'autocommit' when working with a Postgres (psycopg) connection. Let's say I have a fresh connection, set its isolation level to ISOLATION_LEVEL_AUTOCOMMIT, then run this SQL directly, without using the cursor begin/rollback methods (as an exercise; not saying I actually want to do this): INSERT A INSERT B BEGIN INSERT C INSERT D ROLLBACK What happens to INSERTs C & D? Is autocommit is purely an internal setting in psycopg that affects how it issues BEGINs? In that case, the above SQL is unafected; INSERTs A & B are committed as soon as they're done, while C & D are run in a transaction and rolled back. What isolation level is that transaction run under? Or is autocommit a real setting on the connection itself? In that case, how does it affect the handling of BEGIN? Is it ignored, or does it override the autocommit setting to actually start a transaction? What isolation level is that transaction run under? Or am I completely off-target?

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  • jQuery/Javascript Cookies and variable returning with value [object Object]

    - by user1706661
    I am attempting to set a cookie to a site using jQuery, ONLY if the user came from a specific site. In this case, lets use -http://referrersite.com- as the site they must come from for the cookie to be created as an example. The cookie value is being stored in a variable and everything up to this point is working fine. There is a conditional statement checking whether the user came from the referred site, if the cookie exists already and if the cookie doesn't exist and the user did not come from the referred site. If the user came from the referred site the cookie is created and stored in a variable. If the cookie already exists, it is then stored in a variable. If the cookie does not exist and the user did not come from the referred site I am assigning the variable a static string of characters - this is where the issue lies. When the variable is alerted from the non referred site and no existing cookie, it returns: [object Object], not the static string of characters. The code I am using is below: $(document).ready(function() { var referrer = document.referrer; if(referrer == "http://referrersite.com") { $.cookie("code","123456", { expires: 90, path: '/' }); cookieContainer = $.cookie("code"); alert(cookieContainer); } else if($.cookie("code")) { cookieContainer = $.cookie("code"); alert(cookieContainer); } else if($.cookie("code") == null && referrer != "http://referrersite.com") { cookieContainer = "67890"; alert(cookieContainer); } }); Please let me know if there is something I am missing as the code to me looks like it should work. Thanks!

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  • What is the last entry in an unfilled array (C++)?

    - by jwaffe
    I put C++ because I'm just starting in C# and I'm not sure if there's a difference. if you declare an array char arr[10] and fill in values for arr[0] through arr[8], what value will be put in arr[9]? a space ' '? An endline '\n'? '\0'? Or is it nothing at all? I'm asking this because I've always used tactics like this char word[20]; for(count = 0 ; count < 20 ; count++) { cout << word[count]; } to print the entire contents of an array, and I was wondering if I could simplify it (e.g., if the last entry was '\0') by using something like this char word[20]; while(word[count] != '\0') { cout << word[count]; } that way, I wouldn't have to remember how many pieces of data were entered into an array if all the spaces weren't filled up. If you know an even faster way, let me know. I tend to make a bunch of mistakes on arrays.

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  • How can i add to dataGridView1 a data to the last row/column?

    - by user3681442
    In top of form1 i did: private System.Timers.Timer _refreshTimer; private int _thisProcess; Then in the Form1 Load event: _thisProcess = Process.GetCurrentProcess().Id; InitializeRefreshTimer(); PopulateApplications(); Then the timer init method: void InitializeRefreshTimer() { _refreshTimer = new System.Timers.Timer(5000); _refreshTimer.SynchronizingObject = this; _refreshTimer.Elapsed += new System.Timers.ElapsedEventHandler(TimerToUpdate_Elapsed); _refreshTimer.Start(); } Then the timer elapsed event: void TimerToUpdate_Elapsed(object sender, System.Timers.ElapsedEventArgs e) { PopulateApplications(); } In the end the Populate method: void PopulateApplications() { dataGridView1.Rows.Clear(); foreach (Process p in Process.GetProcesses(".")) { if (p.Id != _thisProcess) { try { if (p.MainWindowTitle.Length > 0) { String status = p.Responding ? "Running" : "Not Responding"; dataGridView1.Rows.Add( p.MainWindowTitle, status); } } catch { } } } } The variable status show in the column2 but let's say i want that status will be display for each process/app in column5 ? How can i move it ? EDIT** Tried this: void PopulateApplications() { dataGridView1.Rows.Clear(); foreach (Process p in Process.GetProcesses(".")) { if (p.Id != _thisProcess) { try { if (p.MainWindowTitle.Length > 0) { var icon = Icon.ExtractAssociatedIcon(p.MainModule.FileName); Image ima = icon.ToBitmap(); img.Image = ima; img.HeaderText = "Image"; img.Name = "img"; String status = p.Responding ? "Running" : "Not Responding"; dataGridView1.Rows.Add(img, p.MainWindowTitle, status); } } catch { } } } } I moved the variable img to the top of the form. The problem is i see in each row this: DataGridViewImageColumn { Name=img, Index=-1 } And i don't see the icon it self. Why ?

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  • How is machine code understood by the machine

    - by Kraken
    I have a very naive question here, and I would like you to correct me on whatever wrong concepts I put out here. The question is as follows: I have ubuntu installed on my machine, now I write a helloWorld.c program in C language. Now, on the operating system I have a compiler installed, when I execute my helloWorld.c program, the OS schedules the compiler and that basically compiles my code into machine code, which eventually, I execute. Now my kernel code is written in C, then how does my machine interprets that code? Say my kernel code is helloWorld.c, now would not I require any compiler, to compile this code. Also, if I hardcode a compiler in maybe ROM or something, then what language is it written in? Assembly language? Let me know if I have made myself clear with the problem. Thanks. EDIT: By kernel code I mean, the code for operating system. Operating System code. I guess it is written in C right?

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  • PHP SDK Requires two logins...doesn't recognize first

    - by Jay Konieczny
    I am using the following code to authenticate whether users are logged in or not. While users can log in, they have to click the login button twice. Additionally, sometimes even after they click the log-in button twice, my "user info" part of the page (earlier in the page than the content) shows them as logged out while the actual page shows them as logged in. Here is the code. Could someone suggest a better way of handling log-ins? function isLoggedIn($facebook) { if (isset($facebook) and $facebook->getUser() != 0) { // UserID exists, but user may still not be logged in. Let's check: try { $facebook->api('/me', 'GET'); // If this succeeds, then they are logged in. return true; } catch(FacebookApiException $e) { // Some kind of error, so not logged in. if(session_id() === '') session_destroy(); return false; } } else { if(session_id() === '') session_destroy(); return false; } } Thanks!

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  • Static variable definition order in c++

    - by rafeeq
    Hi i have a class tools which has static variable std::vector m_tools. Can i insert the values into the static variable from Global scope of other classes defined in other files. Example: tools.h File class Tools { public: static std::vector<std::vector> m_tools; void print() { for(int i=0 i< m_tools.size() ; i++) std::cout<<"Tools initialized :"<< m_tools[i]; } } tools.cpp File std::vector<std::vector> Tools::m_tools; //Definition Using register class constructor for inserting the new string into static variable. class Register { public: Register(std::string str) { Tools::m_tools.pushback(str); } }; Different class which inserts the string to static variable in static variable first_tool.cpp //Global scope declare global register variable Register a("first_tool"); //////// second_tool.cpp //Global scope declare global register variable Register a("second_tool"); Main.cpp void main() { Tools abc; abc.print(); } Will this work? In the above example on only one string is getting inserted in to the static list. Problem look like "in Global scope it tries to insert the element before the definition is done" Please let me know is there any way to set the static definiton priority? Or is there any alternative way of doing the same.

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