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  • What type of objects can be sent back to an action Method using HTML.HIDDEN()

    - by Richard77
    Hello, 1)Let's say I've this form: <%Using(Html.BeginForm()){%> <% = Html.Hidden("myObject", (cast to the appropriate type)ViewData["KeyForMyObject"]%> <input type = "submit" "Submit Object"> <%}%> 2) Here's the Action which's supposed to intercept the value of the object public ActionResult MyAction(Type myObject) { //Do Something with the object } Here's my question: What type of objects the Hidden field can support? In fact, when ViewData["KeyForMyObject"] contains a string, int, or bool, myAction is able to retrieve the value. But, when it comes to objects, such as List, and dictionary, nothing happens. When I debug to check the local values, I see null for Type myObject in the MyMethod. So what are the rules in MVC when it comes to a List or Dictionary? ================================= EDIT To make things simpler, can I write something like this <% = Html.Hidden("contactDic", (Dictionary<string, string>) ViewData["contacts"])%> and expect to retrieve the dictionary in the action Method like this public ActionResult myMethod(Dictionary<string, string> contactDic) { //Do something with the dictionary } Thanks for Helping

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  • Can one thread open a socket and other thread close it?

    - by Pkp
    I have some kernel threads in Linux kernel, inside my KLM. I have a server thread, that listens to the channel, Once it sees there is an incoming connection, it creates an accept socket, accepts the connection and spawns a child thread. It also passes the accepted socket to the child kernel thread as the (void *) argument. The code is working fine. I had a design question. Suppose now the threads have to be terminated, main and the child threads, what would be the best way to close the accept socket. I can see two ways, 1] The main thread waits for all the child threads to exit, each of the child threads close the accept sockets while exiting, the last child thread passes a signal to the main thread for it to exit . Here even though the main thread was the one that created the accept socket, the child threads close that socket, and they do this before the main thread exits. So is this acceptable? Any problems you guys forsee here? 2] Second is the main thread closes all the accept sockets it created before it exits. But there may be a possibility(corner case) that the main thread gets an exception and will have to close, so if it closes the accept sockets before exiting, the child threads using that socket will be in danger. Hence i am using the first case i mentioned.Let me know what you guys think?

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  • Practice of checking 'trueness' or 'equality' of conditional statements - does it really make sense?

    - by senthilkumar1033
    I remember many years back, when I was in school, one of my computer science teachers taught us that it was better to check for 'trueness' or 'equality' of a condition and not the negative stuff like 'inequality'. Let me elaborate - If a piece of conditional code can be written by checking whether an expression is true or false, we should check the 'trueness'. Example: Finding out whether a number is odd - it can be done in two ways: if ( num % 2 != 0 ) { // Number is odd } or if ( num % 2 == 1 ) { // Number is odd } When I was beginning to code, I knew that num % 2 == 0 implies the number is even, so I just put a ! there to check if it is odd. But he was like 'Don't check NOT conditions. Have the practice of checking the 'trueness' or 'equality' of conditions whenever possible.' And he recommended that I use the second piece of code. I am not for or against either but I just wanted to know - what difference does it make? Please don't reply 'Technically the output will be the same' - we ALL know that. Is it a general programming practice or is it his own programming practice that he is preaching to others?

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  • SQL Server Connection Timeout C#

    - by Termin8tor
    First off I'd like to let everyone know I have searched my particular problem and can't seem to find what's causing my problem. I have an SQL Server 2008 instance running on a network machine and a client I have written connecting to it. To connect I have a small segment of code that establishes a connection to an sql server 2008 instance and returns a DataTable populated with the results of whatever query I run against the server, all pretty standard stuff really. Anyway the issue is, whenever I open my program and call this method, upon the first call to my method, regardless as to what I've set my Connection Timeout value as in the connection string, it takes about 15 seconds and then times out. Bizarrely though the second or third call I make to the method will work without a problem. I have opened up the ports for SQL Server on the server machine as outlined in this article: How to Open firewall ports for SQL Server and verified that it is correctly configured. Can anyone see a particular problem in my code? string _connectionString = "Server=" + @Properties.Settings.Default.sqlServer + "; Initial Catalog=" + @Properties.Settings.Default.sqlInitialCatalog + ";User Id=" + @Properties.Settings.Default.sqlUsername + ";Password=" + @Properties.Settings.Default.sqlPassword + "; Connection Timeout=1"; private DataTable ExecuteSqlStatement(string command) { using (SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(_connectionString)) { try { conn.Open(); using (SqlDataAdapter adaptor = new SqlDataAdapter(command, conn)) { DataTable table = new DataTable(); adaptor.Fill(table); return table; } } catch (SqlException e) { throw e; } } } The SqlException that is caught at my catch is : "Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding." This occurs at the conn.Open(); line in the code snippet I have included. If anyone has any ideas that'd be great!

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  • TFS merging for users that are used to VSS

    - by JacksonD
    I just migrated a team of 7 developers from VSS to TFS. I migrated all of their code into a DEV folder which I then branched into a QA folder (which I branched into a PROD folder). The developers usually don't work on the same files, but there are some shared utility classes. All of the code is for a large ASP.NET web site. When the developers are ready to merge from DEV to QA, they only want to merge their changes. For example, let's say that Developer1 has been working on a project for the last 3 months and he's ready to merge all of his code into QA. However, Developer2 has been working on a different project for the last 2 months which is not ready to be merged. Developer1 and Developer2's changes are not in any way dependent on each other, but they are not separated into different folder structures and they each regularly do a get latest. There doesn't seem to be a way for developer1 to only merge his changes without also merging all of developer2's changes. Currently, developer1 is going through the Pending Changes window and 'Undoing Pending Changes' for all of Developer2's changes, but this is time consuming. They could merge each file individually, but this is also time consuming. Is there an easier way? I am going to have a coronary if I hear one more person explain how much easier it was to work in VSS.

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  • Please help me with a Power shell Script which rearranges Paths.

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    Hi, I have both Sybase and MSFT SQL Servers installed. There is a time when Sybase interferes with MS SQL because they have they have some overlapping commands. So, I need two scripts: A) When runs, script A backs up the current path, grabs all paths that contain sybase or SYBASE or SyBASE (you get the point) in them and move them all at the very end of the path, while preserving the order. B) When it runs, script B restores the path from back-up. Both script a and script b should affect the path immediately. So, if a.bat that calls patha.ps1, pathb.ps1 looks like so: @REM Old path here call patha.ps1 @REM At this point the effective path should be different. call pathb.ps1 @REM Effective old path again Please let me know if this does not make sense. I am not sure if call command is the best one to use. I have never used P.S. before. I can try to formulate the same thing in Python (I know S.O. users tend to ask for "What have you tried so far"). Well, at this point I am VERY slow at writing anything in Power Shell language. Please help.

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  • How to initialize list with parent child relation

    - by user2917702
    Let's say I have the following classes. public class Parent { public string name; IList<Children> children; } public class Child { public string parentName; public int age; } As it is understandable, each parent can have multiple children, and we can have multiple parents. What is the best way to initialize these classes? Is it better to get all of the parents, and all of the children from database then use LINQ? IList<Parent> parents = GetParents()//assume this gets parents from db IList<Child> children = GetChildren() //assume this gets children from db foreach(Parent parent in parents) { parent.children = children.Where(x=>x.parentName==parent.name).ToList(); } or get all of the parents and iterate through each parent to query database by parentName to get children information? Due to requirement that I have, I cannot use datatable or dataset; I can only use datareader. IList<Parent> parents = GetParents()//assume this gets parents from db foreach(Parent parent in parents) { parent.children = GetChildrenByParentName();//assume this gets parents from db by parentName } Thank you

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  • c++ float subtraction rounding error

    - by Volkan Ozyilmaz
    I have a float value between 0 and 1. I need to convert it with -120 to 80. To do this, first I multiply with 200 after 120 subtract. When subtract is made I had rounding error. Let's look my example. float val = 0.6050f; val *= 200.f; Now val is 121.0 as I expected. val -= 120.0f; Now val is 0.99999992 I thought maybe I can avoid this problem with multiplication and division. float val = 0.6050f; val *= 200.f; val *= 100.f; val -= 12000.0f; val /= 100.f; But it didn't help. I have still 0.99 on my hand. Is there a solution for it? Edit: After with detailed logging, I understand there is no problem with this part of code. Before my log shows me "0.605", after I had detailed log and I saw "0.60499995946884155273437500000000000000000000000000" the problem is in different place.

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  • detection of 'flush tables with read lock' in php

    - by theduke0
    I would like to know from my application if a myisam table can accept writes (i.e. not locked). If an exception is thrown, everything is fine as I can catch this and log the failed statement to a file. However, if a 'flush tables with read lock' command has been issued (possibly for backup), the query I send will pretty much hang out forever. If one table is locked at a time, insert delayed works well. But when this global lock is applied, my query just waits. The query I run is an insert statement. If this statement fails or hangs, user experience is degraded. I need a way to send the query to the server and forget about it (pretty much). Does anyone have any suggestions on how to deal with this? -set a query timeout? -run asyncronous request and allow for the lock to expire while application continues? -fork my php process? Please let me know if I can provide and clarification or details.

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  • Binding Javascript Event Handlers to a an Ajax HTML Response?

    - by John
    Let's say I have the following HTML code <div id="outer"> <div id="inner">Hello World</div> </div> At the end of my HTML page, I use javascript to attach event handlers like so, document.getElementById('inner').onclick = function() {alert(this.innerHTML);} document.getElementById('outer').onclick = function() { /* An Ajax Call where the response, which will be a string of HTML content, then goes into document.getElementById('outer').innerHTML */ document.getElementById('inner').onclick = function() {alert(this.innerHTML);} } In the above code, I am expecting <div id="inner">Hello World 2</div> to come back which requires me to re-attach the onclick event handler. This makes sense because the new response coming back is just a string, and I have to tell the browser that after converting to DOM, i also need some event handlers So my question is, is there a better way to manage event handlers on AJAX response that contains HTML content? I could use inline javascript within the html response, but then it prevents me from achieving non-intrusive javascript. So is there a way to achieve non-intrusive javascript and an efficient way to "maintain" event handlers of ajax html responses?

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  • How to override jquery's show() and hide() functions

    - by Max Williams
    hi all Short version of question: see title Long version of question: I've used jquery's show() and hide() functions extensively in my code and just encountered a bit of a problem: they work by changing the display attribute of the element to 'block' or 'none' respectively, so that if you have somethin that has display: inline and then hide and show it, you've changed its display to block, which screws up the layout in a couple of cases. In my code, whenever i want something to be hidden initially i give it a class 'hidden'. This class is simply {display: none}. I'd like the change show and hide to remove or add this class, instead of directly changing the display attribute, so that if you add the hidden class and then remove it again (ie hide and show something) then it's back to exactly how it was to start off with (since adding a class overrides the attributes rather than directly changing them). Something like this (this is a little pseucodey as i don't know how to set the function up properly - let's assume that 'this' is the object that show/hide was called on) function show(){ this.removeClass("hidden"); } function hide(){ this.addClass("hidden"); } how and where would i go about overriding the jquery methods? (I'm not a javascript expert) thanks - max

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  • Generate Spring bean definition from a Java object

    - by joeslice
    Let's suggest that I have a bean defined in Spring: <bean id="neatBean" class="com..." abstract="true">...</bean> Then we have many clients, each of which have slightly different configuration for their 'neatBean'. The old way we would do it was to have a new file for each client (e.g., clientX_NeatFeature.xml) that contained a bunch of beans for this client (these are hand-edited and part of the code base): <bean id="clientXNeatBean" parent="neatBean"> <property id="whatever" value="something"/> </bean> Now, I want to have a UI where we can edit and redefine a client's neatBean on the fly. My question is: given a neatBean, and a UI that can 'override' properties of this bean, what would be a straightforward way to serialize this to an XML file as we do [manually] today? For example, if the user set property whatever to be "17" for client Y, I'd want to generate: <bean id="clientYNeatBean" parent="neatBean"> <property id="whatever" value="17"/> </bean> Note that moving this configuration to a different format (e.g., database, other-schema'd-xml) is an option, but not really an answer to the question at hand.

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  • Plugin-like architecture in .NET

    - by devoured elysium
    I'm trying to implement a plug-in like application. I know there are already several solution out there but this is just going to be proof of the concept, nothing more. The idea would be to make the application main application almost featureless by default and then let the plugins know about each other, having them have implement all the needed features. A couple of issues arise: I want the plugins at runtime to know about each other through my application. That wouldn't mean that at code-time they couldn't reference other plugin's assemblies so they could use its interfaces, only that plugin-feature initialization should be always through my main app. For example: if I have both plugins X and Y loaded and Y wants to use X's features, it should "register" its interest though my application to use its features. I'd have to have a kind of "dictionary" in my application where I store all the loaded plugins. After registering for interest in my application, plugin Y would get a reference to X so it could use it. Is this a good approach? When coding plugin Y that uses X, I'd need to reference X's assembly, so I can program against its interface. That has the issue of versioning. What if I code my plugin Y against an outdated version of plugin X? Should I always use a "central" place where all assemblies are, having there always the up to date versions of the assemblies? Are there by chance any books out there that specifically deal with these kinds of designs for .NET? Thanks

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  • HTML templating in C++ and translations

    - by Karim
    I'm using HTML_Template for templating in my C++-based web app (don't ask). I chose that because it was very simple and it turns out to be a good solution. The only problem right now is that I would like to be able to include translatable strings in the HTML templates (HTML_Template does not really support that). Ultimately, what I would like is to have a single file that contains all the strings to be translated. It can then be given to a translator and plugged back in to the app and used depending on which language the user chose in settings. I've been going back and forth on some options and was wondering what others felt was the best choice (or if there's a better choice that isn't listed) Extend HTML_Template to include a tag for holding the literal string to translate. So, for example, in the HTML I would put something like <TMPL_TRANS "this is the text to translate"/> Use a completely separate scheme for translation and preprocess the HTML files to generate the final template files (without the special translation lingo). For example, in the pre-processed file, translatable text would look like this: {{this is the text to translate}} and the final would look like: this is the text to translate Don't do anything and let the translators find the string to translate in the html and js files themselves.

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  • When calling a static method on parent class, can the parent class deduce the type on the child (C#)

    - by Matt
    Suppose we have 2 classes, Child, and the class from which it inherits, Parent. class Parent { public static void MyFunction(){} } class Child : Parent { } Is it possible to determine in the parent class how the method was called? Because we can call it two ways: Parent.MyFunction(); Child.MyFunction(); My current approach was trying to use: MethodInfo.GetCurrentMethod().ReflectedType; // and MethodInfo.GetCurrentMethod().DeclaringType; But both appear to return the Parent type. If you are wondering what, exactly I am trying to accomplish (and why I am violating the basic OOP rule that the parent shouldn't have to know anything about the child), the short of it is this (let me know if you want the long version): I have a Model structure representing some of our data that persists to the database. All of these models inherit from an abstract Parent. This parent implements a couple of events, such as SaveEvent, DeleteEvent, etc. We want to be able to subscribe to events specific to the type. So, even though the event is in the parent, I want to be able to do: Child.SaveEvent += new EventHandler((sender, args) => {}); I have everything in place, where the event is actually backed by a dictionary of event handlers, hashed by type. The last thing I need to get working is correctly detecting the Child type, when doing Child.SaveEvent. I know I can implement the event in each child class (even forcing it through use of abstract), but it would be nice to keep it all in the parent, which is the class actually firing the events (since it implements the common save/delete/change functionality).

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  • SQL: Limit rows linked to each joined row

    - by SolidSnakeGTI
    Hello, I've certain situation that requires certain result set from MySQL query, let's see the current query first & then ask my question: SELECT thread.dateline AS tdateline, post.dateline AS pdateline, MIN(post.dateline) FROM thread AS thread LEFT JOIN post AS post ON(thread.threadid = post.threadid) LEFT JOIN forum AS forum ON(thread.forumid = forum.forumid) WHERE post.postid != thread.firstpostid AND thread.open = 1 AND thread.visible = 1 AND thread.replycount >= 1 AND post.visible = 1 AND (forum.options & 1) AND (forum.options & 2) AND (forum.options & 4) AND forum.forumid IN(1,2,3) GROUP BY post.threadid ORDER BY tdateline DESC, pdateline ASC As you can see, mainly I need to select dateline of threads from 'thread' table, in addition to dateline of the second post of each thread, that's all under the conditions you see in the WHERE CLAUSE. Since each thread has many posts, and I need only one result per thread, I've used GROUP BY CLAUSE for that purpose. This query will return only one post's dateline with it's related unique thread. My questions are: How to limit returned threads per each forum!? Suppose I need only 5 threads -as a maximum- to be returned for each forum declared in the WHERE CLAUSE 'forum.forumid IN(1,2,3)', how can this be achieved. Is there any recommendations for optimizing this query (of course after solving the first point)? Notes: I prefer not to use sub-queries, but if it's the only solution available I'll accept it. Double queries not recommended. I'm sure there's a smart solution for this situation. I'm using MySQL 4.1+, but if you know the answer for another engine, just share. Appreciated advice in advance :)

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  • problem with jQuery array being a newBie.

    - by user236106
    <html> <head> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.3/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/jscript"> $('document').ready(function (){ var clickNo=0; $('div#pics>img').hide() $('div#pics>input').click(function(event){ $('div#pics>img')[0].show('slow'); }) }); </script> </head> <body> <div id="pics"> <input type="button" value="next" /> <--a bunch of img tags .I had to resort to this comment because the system won't let me include the img tag in the code--> </div> </body> </html> I can't understand why the line $('div#picsimg')[0].show('slow'); is not working ?

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  • Is there a selector or a work around to select any element with no children.

    - by rnaud
    Looking at the CSS3 specs, I can't find any way to select any element that has no children. Let me explain. <body> <h1>Main Page</h1> <div id="main"> <div class="post"> <h2>Article 1</h1> <p>some text</p> </div> <div class="post"> <h2>Article 2</h1> <p>some text</p> </div> </div> </body> I'm looking for a CSS syntax to select the h1, the two h2 and the two p. A way to select in any page, all elements with no children. Any suggestion ? Sorry, I forgot to add the "empty" part, I am actually already using the *:empty selector, but it's not working for any tag that has a nodeText as a child. So it's working for any input, image, object, but not for h2, h1, or any p.

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  • How can I pass an array resulting from a Perl method by reference?

    - by arareko
    Some XML::LibXML methods return arrays instead of references to arrays. Instead of doing this: $self->process_items($xml->findnodes('items/item')); I want to do something like: $self->process_items(\$xml->findnodes('items/item')); So that in process_items() I can dereference the original array instead of creating a copy: sub process_items { my ($self, $items) = @_; foreach my $item (@$items) { # do something... } } I can always store the results of findnodes() into an array and then pass the array reference to my own method, but let's say I want to try a reduced version of my code. Is that the correct syntax for passing the method results or should I use something different? Thanks! EDIT: Now suppose I want to change process_items() to process_item() so I can do stuff on a single element of the referenced array inside a loop. Something like: $self->process_item($_) for ([ $xml->findnodes('items/item') ]); This doesn't work as process_item() is executed only once because a single value is passed to the for loop (the reference to the array from findnodes()). What's the proper way of using $_ in this case?

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  • Disable Products in different Magento Store Views

    - by Robert
    I have a Magento Multi-Store installation (not multi-site) and some products are available in more than one store. However, these products that are available in, let's say storeA and storeB, have related products, BUT, the related products are not available in both stores. The problem is this, Product1, which has Product2, Product3, and Product4 as related products, appears in storeA. No Problem. Product1 is also available in storeB, but NOT Product2-3-4. However, those products, though not shown in the general catalog of storeB, are visible as related products to Product1 in storeB. If I use the drop down to manage products in storeB, and I remove the related products in Product1, it removes the related products from Product1 in storeA, where they should be available. I cannot change the status attribute to storeview in Manage Attributes, because the only choices are Global or Website, not Store View. I can change the skin to show UPSELL products instead, and set up different UPSELL products, but that limits my stores to only two. Any ideas?

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  • Git + SoA, one repo or many?

    - by parsenome
    Normally, when I start up a new application, I'd create a new git repository for it. That's well accepted and plays nice with Github when I want to share my code. At work, I'm working in a service oriented architecture. One very common pattern is to add some code to two different applications at the same time - perhaps adding a model with a RESTful interface to one and a web frontend for managing it on another. Using separate git repositories has some warts in this case. Here are what I see as the downsides of doing separate repositories: I have to commit twice I can't correllate related commits very well No single place to go back and trace history - I'd love to be able to bring up all my commits for the day in a single place Forgetting to pull one repo or another is a gotcha On the other hand, I've used perforce a lot and its one giant repository model has lots of warts too. Perforce has features designed to let help you with those, git doesn't. Has anyone else run into this situation? How did you handle it? What worked well, and what didn't?

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  • JQuery event that triggers after CSS is loaded?

    - by Dave
    (I posted this on the jquery forums but it's still awaiting moderation, so I thought I'd try my luck here since stackoverflow is so awesome. If I get an answer I'll post it here.) Maybe someone can help me with this, I have a couple of links on my page (inside a <div id="theme-selector">) which allow you to change the CSS stylesheets: $('#theme-selector a').click(function(){ var path = $(this).attr('href'); $('head link').remove(); $('head').append('<link type="text/css" href="'+path+'" rel="stylesheet" />'); return false; }); Now, after I've changed the style on the page, I want to get the new background color, using the following code (which I put after the $('head').append call): var bgcolor = $('body').css('background-color'); alert(bgcolor); The problem is, I think, that it takes some time for the browser to download the new stylesheet and I sometimes get the old background color in my alert message. Is there some event I can bind that will only alert me after all the stylesheets are loaded on the page? At the moment, all I can think of is using a setTimeout(function(){}, 5000); which isn't great, because what if it takes longer/shorter to load all the CSS on the page. Let me know if I need to clarify anything and I can provide more code. Thanks in advance.

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  • Jquery dynamic dropdown event not firing

    - by kevin
    Hi i am trying to create dropdownlists dynamically and populating the contents via an ajax call, this sort of works in the sense that the drop down is created and populated as required but its 'change' event does not fire. I am posting the code below, if anyone can spot something obvious, can you please let me know regards $(document).ready(function () { $("#positions select").change(function (e) { alert("in"); var id = $("#category_id").val(); $.getJSON("/Category/GetSubCategories/" + id, function (data) { if (data.length > 0) { alert(data.length); var position = document.getElementById('positions'); var tr = position.insertRow(7); var td1 = tr.insertCell(-1); var td = tr.insertCell(-1); var sel = document.createElement("select"); sel.name = 'sel'; sel.id = 'sel'; sel.setAttribute('class', 'category'); td.appendChild(sel); $.each(data, function (GetSubCatergories, category) { $('#sel').append($("<option></option>"). attr("value", category.category_id). text(category.name)); }); } }); }); });

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  • What is the most obfuscated and clever code you've seen? [closed]

    - by ThibThib
    I am aware about the The International Obfuscated C Code Contest, but I am looking for obfuscated AND clever codes (specially short ones) Here is two examples (the first one is a classical one, I think) #define _ F-->00 || F-OO--; long F=00,OO=00; main(){F_OO();printf("%1.3f\n", 4.*-F/OO/OO);}F_OO() { _-_-_-_ _-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_ _-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_ _-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_ _-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_ _-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_ _-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_ _-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_ _-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_ _-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_ _-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_ _-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_ _-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_ _-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_ _-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_ _-_-_-_ } and #include <unistd.h> float o=0.075,h=1.5,T,r,O,l,I;int _,L=80,s=3200;main(){for(;s%L|| (h-=o,T= -2),s;4 -(r=O*O)<(l=I*I)|++ _==L&&write(1,(--s%L?_<L?--_ %6:6:7)+"World! \n",1)&&(O=I=l=_=r=0,T+=o /2))O=I*2*O+h,I=l+T-r;} I let you compile and run them so as to understand what they are producing. Of course, I am not looking for only obfuscated code, because I guess that every code could be transformed in a way that it is not readable at all I am more looking for small codes that you can eventually understand, with some clever tricks. I will show them to my students as example of clever things that they should not do (it's always better to show clever examples rather than stupid ones...) Thanks

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  • VS2010 + IE8 Debugging woes - Element not found

    - by Chin
    I am having great difficulty trying to debug with vs2010 and IE8, though I think the problem is more IE8 specific. When starting a debug session 9 times out of 10 I will have the following problem. IE tab says connecting.. - then after a 5 second wait I will get an error in VS saying element not found. Even when I click ok to dismiss the error, the IE window still shows connecting... I will then have to kill the IE process to be able to close IE to try again. Sometimes however I am lucky and it starts. But the whole thing is so random I have no clue where to start. One thing I have noticed is that I always have 2 IE processes started even though there is only one window open. One has a small footprint of 100k, I presume it is some kind of helper. I am using a static port with the built in WebDev server. If anyone has had similar problems please let me know how you resolved it. Its driving me nuts! thanks

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