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• Disable home button in android toddler app?

  - by cmerrell

  I've developed and app that is a slide show of pictures which each play a sound when you tap them. It's like a picture book for ages 2-4. The problem is, since android won't let you capture a home button press and essentially disable it, when parents give the phone to their child to play with unattended (brave parent), the child can inadvertenly exit the app and then make calls or otherwise tweak the phone. There are two other apps that currently have a psuedo fix for this issue. The apps are Toddler Lock and ToddlePhone. I've tried contacting the developers of these apps for some guidance but they haven't been willing to disclose anything, which if fine, but does anyone here have any suggestions? It looks like both of those other apps are acting like a home screen replacement app. When you enable the "childproof mode" on those apps the user is prompted to chose and app for the action and the choices are "Launcher, LauncherPro, etc." plus the toddler app. You then have to make the toddler app the default and voila, the phone is "locked" and can only be "unlocked" using a key combination or touching the four corners of the screen, etc. when you "unlock" the phone. your normal home screen app default restored. You don't even have to make the toddler app the default the next time you enable the "childproof mode". I have read that these two apps have problems with Samsung phones and they can cause an an infinite crash-and-restart-loop that requires a factory reset to fix. Obviously this is not the ideal solution to the problem but it looks like the only one availiable at this point. Does anyone have any ideas on how to implement a "childproof mode"?

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• Not crawling the same content twice

  - by sirrocco

  I'm building a small application that will crawl sites where the content is growing (like on stackoverflow) the difference is that the content once created is rarely modified. Now , in the first pass I crawl all the pages in the site. But next, the paged content of that site - I don't want to re-crawl all of it , just the latest additions. So if the site has 500 pages, on the second pass if the site has 501 pages then I would only crawl the first and second pages. Would this be a good way to handle the situation ? In the end, the crawled content will end up in lucene - creating a custom search engine. So, I would like to avoid crawling multiple times the same content. Any better ideas ? EDIT : Let's say the site has a page : Results that will be accessed like so : Results?page=1 , Results?page=2 ...etc I guess that keeping a track of how many pages there were at the last crawl and just crawl the difference would be enough. ( maybe using a hash of each result on the page - if I start running into the same hashes - I should stop)

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• Dealing with large number of text strings

  - by Fadrian

  My project when it is running, will collect a large number of string text block (about 20K and largest I have seen is about 200K of them) in short span of time and store them in a relational database. Each of the string text is relatively small and the average would be about 15 short lines (about 300 characters). The current implementation is in C# (VS2008), .NET 3.5 and backend DBMS is Ms. SQL Server 2005 Performance and storage are both important concern of the project, but the priority will be performance first, then storage. I am looking for answers to these: Should I compress the text before storing them in DB? or let SQL Server worry about compacting the storage? Do you know what will be the best compression algorithm/library to use for this context that gives me the best performance? Currently I just use the standard GZip in .NET framework Do you know any best practices to deal with this? I welcome outside the box suggestions as long as it is implementable in .NET framework? (it is a big project and this requirements is only a small part of it) EDITED: I will keep adding to this to clarify points raised I don't need text indexing or searching on these text. I just need to be able to retrieve them in later stage for display as a text block using its primary key. I have a working solution implemented as above and SQL Server has no issue at all handling it. This program will run quite often and need to work with large data context so you can imagine the size will grow very rapidly hence every optimization I can do will help.

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• Does Entity Framework saves related classes automatically?

  - by herbatnic

  Let's assume that we have such classes public class A{ string someField { get; set; } public virtual B B {get; set; } } public class B { int someIntField {get; set; } [ForeignKey("Id")] [Required] public virtual A A { get; set; } } In code I create new instances for both of them and making relation like: A a = new A () { someField = "abcd"}; B b = new B () { someIntField = 42 }; A.B = b; B.A = a; Should I using DBContext to save both classes like that: using (var db = new myDbContext()) { myDbContext.As.Add(A); myDbContext.Bs.Add(B); myDBContext.SaveChanges(); } Or saving it like that: using (var db = new myDbContext()) { myDbContext.As.Add(A); myDbContext.SaveChanges(); } is enough to store related objects into database?

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• Rails HTML Table update fields in mongo with AJAX

  - by qwexar

  I'm building a Rails app backed by mongodb using mongoid. It's a one page app, with a HTML table, every field for every row of which, needs to be editable without refreshing the page. This is your usual Rails view ( like many in rails casts ) showing a table with rows and columns containing data. For example. I'm showing cars, and showing their make, model and notes They way I'm doing this is by appending _id of a mongo document to every column and marking it's field name in html id too. Then I pick up the value for $("#id") and send it to rails controller via AJAX and run @car.update_attributes method accordingly. Currently, one of my rows looks like this. <tr> <td id=<%= car.id %>_make> <%= car.make %> </td> <td id=<%= car.id %>_model> <%= car.model %> </td> <td id=<%= car.id %>_notes> <%= car.notes %> </td> </tr> // my function which is called onChange for every column function update_attributes(id){ var id = id.split[0]; var attribute = id.split[1]; $.ajax("sending id and attribute to rails controller"); } Is there any built it Rails magic which would let me update only a field in a model without refreshing the page? or. Is there a Rails plugin for this?

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• Query with UDF works in Access but gives Undefined function in expression (Err 3085) in Excel

  - by ronwest

  I have an Access table with a date/time field. I wanted to make a composite Key field out of the date/time field and 3 other text fields in the same format as the matching Key field in another database. So I concatenated the 3 text fields and wrote a User-Defined-Function in a Module to output the date field as a string in the format "YYYYMMDD". Public Function YYYYMMDD(dteDate As Date) As String YYYYMMDD = Format(dteDate, "YYYYMMDD") End Function I can then successfully run my queries in Access and it all works fine. But when I set up some DAO code in Excel and try to run the query that works fine within Access... db.Execute "qryMake_tblValsDailyAccount" ...Excel gives me the "Undefined function in expression. (Error 3085)" error. To me this is a bug in Excel and/or Access, because the (Excel) client shouldn't need to know anything about the internal calculations that normally take place perfectly in the (Access) server when in isolation. Excel should send the querydef (name with no parameters) to the server, let the server do its work then receive the answers. Why does it need to get involved with a function internal to the server? Does anyone know a way around this?

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• Practice of checking 'trueness' or 'equality' of conditional statements - does it really make sense?

  - by senthilkumar1033

  I remember many years back, when I was in school, one of my computer science teachers taught us that it was better to check for 'trueness' or 'equality' of a condition and not the negative stuff like 'inequality'. Let me elaborate - If a piece of conditional code can be written by checking whether an expression is true or false, we should check the 'trueness'. Example: Finding out whether a number is odd - it can be done in two ways: if ( num % 2 != 0 ) { // Number is odd } or if ( num % 2 == 1 ) { // Number is odd } When I was beginning to code, I knew that num % 2 == 0 implies the number is even, so I just put a ! there to check if it is odd. But he was like 'Don't check NOT conditions. Have the practice of checking the 'trueness' or 'equality' of conditions whenever possible.' And he recommended that I use the second piece of code. I am not for or against either but I just wanted to know - what difference does it make? Please don't reply 'Technically the output will be the same' - we ALL know that. Is it a general programming practice or is it his own programming practice that he is preaching to others?

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• PHP SDK Requires two logins...doesn't recognize first

  - by Jay Konieczny

  I am using the following code to authenticate whether users are logged in or not. While users can log in, they have to click the login button twice. Additionally, sometimes even after they click the log-in button twice, my "user info" part of the page (earlier in the page than the content) shows them as logged out while the actual page shows them as logged in. Here is the code. Could someone suggest a better way of handling log-ins? function isLoggedIn($facebook) { if (isset($facebook) and $facebook->getUser() != 0) { // UserID exists, but user may still not be logged in. Let's check: try { $facebook->api('/me', 'GET'); // If this succeeds, then they are logged in. return true; } catch(FacebookApiException $e) { // Some kind of error, so not logged in. if(session_id() === '') session_destroy(); return false; } } else { if(session_id() === '') session_destroy(); return false; } } Thanks!

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• How to avoid raising an event to a closed form?

  - by Steve Dignan

  I'm having trouble handling the scenario whereby an event is being raised to a closed form and was hoping to get some help. Scenario (see below code for reference): Form1 opens Form2 Form1 subscribes to an event on Form2 (let's call the event FormAction) Form1 is closed and Form2 remains open Form2 raises the FormAction event In Form1.form2_FormAction, why does this return a reference to Form1 but button1.Parent returns null? Shouldn't they both return the same reference? If we were to omit step 3, both this and button1.Parent return the same reference. Here's the code I'm using... Form1: public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1 () { InitializeComponent(); } private void button1_Click ( object sender , EventArgs e ) { // Create instance of Form2 and subscribe to the FormAction event var form2 = new Form2(); form2.FormAction += form2_FormAction; form2.Show(); } private void form2_FormAction ( object o ) { // Always returns reference to Form1 var form = this; // If Form1 is open, button1.Parent is equal to form/this // If Form1 is closed, button1.Parent is null var parent = button1.Parent; } } Form2: public partial class Form2 : Form { public Form2 () { InitializeComponent(); } public delegate void FormActionHandler ( object o ); public event FormActionHandler FormAction = delegate { }; private void button1_Click ( object sender , EventArgs e ) { FormAction( "Button clicked." ); } } Ideally, I would like to avoid raising events to closed/disposed forms (which I'm not sure is possible) or find a clean way of handling this in the caller (in this case, Form1). Any help is appreciated.

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• How to emulate a BEFORE DELETE trigger in SQL Server 2005

  - by Mark

  Let's say I have three tables, [ONE], [ONE_TWO], and [TWO]. [ONE_TWO] is a many-to-many join table with only [ONE_ID and [TWO_ID] columns. There are foreign keys set up to link [ONE] to [ONE_TWO] and [TWO] to [ONE_TWO]. The FKs use the ON DELETE CASCADE option so that if either a [ONE] or [TWO] record is deleted, the associated [ONE_TWO] records will be automatically deleted as well. I want to have a trigger on the [TWO] table such that when a [TWO] record is deleted, it executes a stored procedure that takes a [ONE_ID] as a parameter, passing the [ONE_ID] values that were linked to the [TWO_ID] before the delete occurred: DECLARE @Statement NVARCHAR(max) SET @Statement = '' SELECT @Statement = @Statement + N'EXEC [MyProc] ''' + CAST([one_two].[one_id] AS VARCHAR(36)) + '''; ' FROM deleted JOIN [one_two] ON deleted.[two_id] = [one_two].[two_id] EXEC (@Statement) Clearly, I need a BEFORE DELETE trigger, but there is no such thing in SQL Server 2005. I can't use an INSTEAD OF trigger because of the cascading FK. I get the impression that if I use a FOR DELETE trigger, when I join [deleted] to [ONE_TWO] to find the list of [ONE_ID] values, the FK cascade will have already deleted the associated [ONE_TWO] records so I will never find any [ONE_ID] values. Is this true? If so, how can I achieve my objective? I'm thinking that I'd need to change the FK joining [TWO] to [ONE_TWO] to not use cascades and to do the delete from [ONE_TWO] manually in the trigger just before I manually delete the [TWO] records. But I'd rather not go through all that if there is a simpler way.

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• In Castle Windsor, can I register a Interface component and get a proxy of the implementation?

  - by Thiado de Arruda

  Lets consider some cases: _windsor.Register(Component.For<IProductServices>().ImplementedBy<ProductServices>().Interceptors(typeof(SomeInterceptorType)); In this case, when I ask for a IProductServices windsor will proxy the interface to intercept the interface method calls. If instead I do this : _windsor.Register(Component.For<ProductServices>().Interceptors(typeof(SomeInterceptorType)); then I cant ask for windsor to resolve IProductServices, instead I ask for ProductServices and it will return a dynamic subclass that will intercept virtual method calls. Of course the dynamic subclass still implements 'IProductServices' My question is : Can I register the Interface component like the first case, and get the subclass proxy like in the second case?. There are two reasons for me wanting this: 1 - Because the code that is going to resolve cannot know about the ProductServices class, only about the IProductServices interface. 2 - Because some event invocations that pass the sender as a parameter, will pass the ProductServices object, and in the first case this object is a field on the dynamic proxy, not the real object returned by windsor. Let me give an example of how this can complicate things : Lets say I have a custom collection that does something when their items notify a property change: private void ItemChanged(object sender, PropertyChangedEventArgs e) { int senderIndex = IndexOf(sender); SomeActionOnItemIndex(senderIndex); } This code will fail if I added an interface proxy, because the sender will be the field in the interface proxy and the IndexOf(sender) will return -1.

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• Manage more Images to move in View

  - by David Pollak

  hi everyone, I'm creating an app which has more UIImageView on a View, they should move normally from a side to the other. I have an issue: after entering the second image, the two UIImageView start to behave crazy (!) because they don' move freely, but they are like restricted in two different areas not touching each other even if I said different things the first thing that I want to do, is to let them move normally; this is the code I am using: `- (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; pos = CGPointMake(14.0, 7.0); [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:0.05 target:self selector:@selector(onTimer) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; }` - (void) onTimer { pallone.center = CGPointMake(pallone.center.x+pos.x, pallone.center.y+pos.y); if(pallone.center.x > 320 || pallone.center.x < 0) pos.x = -pos.x; if(pallone.center.y > 480 || pallone.center.y < 0) pos.y = -pos.y; } and for the other image that has to enter after: - (IBAction)spara{ cos = CGPointMake(8.0, 4.0); [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:0.05 target:self selector:@selector(inTimer) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; } - (void)inTimer{ bomba.center = CGPointMake(bomba.center.x+pos.x, bomba.center.y+pos.y); if(bomba.center.x > 50 || bomba.center.x < 0) pos.x = -pos.x; if(bomba.center.y > 480 || bomba.center.y < 0) pos.y = -pos.y; } what should I change ? and if I'd like the images to move only in one way (y) ? how do I do this ? I know, I'm a newbie thanks in advance

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• Multiple collections tied to one base collection with filters and eventing

  - by damienc88

  I have a complex model served from my back end, which has a bunch of regular attributes, some nested models, and a couple of collections. My page has two tables, one for invalid items, and one for valid items. The items in question are from one of the nested collections. Let's call it baseModel.documentCollection, implementing DocumentsCollection. I don't want any filtration code in my Marionette.CompositeViews, so what I've done is the following (note, duplicated for the 'valid' case): var invalidDocsCollection = new DocumentsCollection( baseModel.documentCollection.filter(function(item) { return !item.isValidItem(); }) ); var invalidTableView = new BookIn.PendingBookInRequestItemsCollectionView({ collection: app.collections.invalidDocsCollection }); layout.invalidDocsRegion.show(invalidTableView); This is fine for actually populating two tables independently, from one base collection. But I'm not getting the whole event pipeline down to the base collection, obviously. This means when a document's validity is changed, there's no neat way of it shifting to the other collection, therefore the other view. What I'm after is a nice way of having a base collection that I can have filter collections sit on top of. Any suggestions?

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• Regular expression, how to find all tags A which do not contain tag IMG inside it?

  - by Kirzilla

  Hello, Let's suppose that we have such HTML code. We need to get all <a href=""></a> tags which DO NOT contain img tag inside it. <a href="http://domain1.com"><span>Here is link</span></a> <a href="http://domain2.com" title="">Hello</a> <a href="http://domain3.com" title=""><img src="" /></a> <a href="http://domain4" title=""> I'm the image <img src="" /> yeah</a> I'm using this regular expression to find out all links preg_match_all("!<a[^>]+href=\"?'?([^ \"'>]+)\"?'?[^>]*>(.*?)</a>!is", $content, $out); I can modify it preg_match_all("!<a[^>]+href=\"?'?([^ \"'>]+)\"?'?[^>]*>([^<>]+?)</a>!is", $content, $out); But how can I tell to exclude results containing <img substring inside of <a href=""></a>? Thank you

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• .NET Best Way to move many files to and from various directories??

  - by Dan

  I've created a program that moves files to and from various directories. An issue I've come across is when you're trying to move a file and some other program is still using it. And you get an error. Leaving it there isn't an option, so I can only think of having to keep trying to move it over and over again. This though slows the entire program down, so I create a new thread and let it deal with the problem file and move on to the next. The bigger problem is when you have too many of these problem files and the program now has so many threads trying to move these files, that it just crashes with some kernel.dll error. Here's a sample of the code I use to move the files: Public Sub MoveIt() Try File.Move(_FileName, _CopyToFileName) Catch ex As Exception Threading.Thread.Sleep(5000) MoveIt() End Try End Sub As you can see.. I try to move the file, and if it errors, I wait and move it again.. over and over again.. I've tried using FileInfo as well, but that crashes WAY sooner than just using the File object. So has anyone found a fool proof way of moving files without it ever erroring? Note: it takes a lot of files to make it crash. It'll be fine on the weekend, but by the end of the day on monday, it's done.

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• Detailstext in TableView from Coredata Iphone

  - by user554867

  Hey, that is my first question here at stackoverflow. Let me try to be specific as I can. The project is as follows: I am trying to parse an xml file in an iphone app, which works already. I am saving the parsed data into the CoreData of the Iphone. So far so good: I have two elements of the xml file which I want to show in the tableview as the text and the detailtext. Now the strange behaviour occurs: If I take the data of the Core Data and trying to visualize them in the tableview, then both elements are displayed in seperate cells and not as detailtext of the element. If I am just taking a constant string for the detailtext, then it works, but if I am trying to take for every cell a specific element from the Core Data then it is shown seperately in the tableview. I googled a lot, reading here and there. I dont know which code I should show because I dont have a clue where exactly the mistake could be. Maybe someone can answer that immediately because it is a stupid mistake somewhere, which is common. Thanks for your help.

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• EventKitUI view and edit problem!

  - by Alish

  I try to to find a solution to do View and Edit of a the item from a tablview. My application base on UITabBarController. Each of the Bar items contain a class with a a couple of UIViews. This is the first items of UITabBarController. I done Add event from Apple sample code: SimpleEKDemo. Add Event working without any problem. I tried to add View and Edit part to the code. I would able to select an items from tableView to edit the selected item. But after I tried to add code from SimpleEKDemo to my code, I realized I have to add UINavigationController to the implement. So I did. After I add that it's came to the items of UITabBarController. Also I even the Add Event didn't worked very well (I couldn't insert event name and location. but edit was working. So I need to know: 1- Is it possible to implement Edit/View without using UINavigationController. If yes please let me know a sample code. 2- If I must use UINavigationController. Because I don't need UINavigationController to become it the first page and I don't need any bar added to my application. Is it possible it's appear in the application when I choose a item of tableView but appear alike that! Snapshots: https://public.me.com/alish (pict.zip)

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• possible to make codeigniter work with another framework?

  - by ajsie

  the situation is this. my client (who also is a programmer) asks me to develop an address book (with mysql database) with a lot of functions. then he can interact with some class methods i provide for him. kinda like an API. the situation is that the address book application is getting bigger and bigger, and i feel like its way better to use CodeIgniter to code it with MVC. i wonder if i can use codeigniter, then in some way give him the access to controller methods. eg. in a controller there are some functions u can call with the web browser. public function create_contact($information) {..} public function delete_contact($id) {..} public function get_contact($id) {..} however, these are just callable from web browser. how can i let my client have access to these functions like an API? then in his own application he can use: $result = $address_book-create_contact($information); if($result) { echo "Success"; } $contact = $address_book-get_contact($id); is this possible? cause i just know how to access the controller methods with the webbrowser. and i guess its not an option for him to use header(location) to access them. all suggestions to make this possible are welcomed! thanks

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• jQuery/Javascript Cookies and variable returning with value [object Object]

  - by user1706661

  I am attempting to set a cookie to a site using jQuery, ONLY if the user came from a specific site. In this case, lets use -http://referrersite.com- as the site they must come from for the cookie to be created as an example. The cookie value is being stored in a variable and everything up to this point is working fine. There is a conditional statement checking whether the user came from the referred site, if the cookie exists already and if the cookie doesn't exist and the user did not come from the referred site. If the user came from the referred site the cookie is created and stored in a variable. If the cookie already exists, it is then stored in a variable. If the cookie does not exist and the user did not come from the referred site I am assigning the variable a static string of characters - this is where the issue lies. When the variable is alerted from the non referred site and no existing cookie, it returns: [object Object], not the static string of characters. The code I am using is below: $(document).ready(function() { var referrer = document.referrer; if(referrer == "http://referrersite.com") { $.cookie("code","123456", { expires: 90, path: '/' }); cookieContainer = $.cookie("code"); alert(cookieContainer); } else if($.cookie("code")) { cookieContainer = $.cookie("code"); alert(cookieContainer); } else if($.cookie("code") == null && referrer != "http://referrersite.com") { cookieContainer = "67890"; alert(cookieContainer); } }); Please let me know if there is something I am missing as the code to me looks like it should work. Thanks!

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• How can I pass an array resulting from a Perl method by reference?

  - by arareko

  Some XML::LibXML methods return arrays instead of references to arrays. Instead of doing this: $self->process_items($xml->findnodes('items/item')); I want to do something like: $self->process_items(\$xml->findnodes('items/item')); So that in process_items() I can dereference the original array instead of creating a copy: sub process_items { my ($self, $items) = @_; foreach my $item (@$items) { # do something... } } I can always store the results of findnodes() into an array and then pass the array reference to my own method, but let's say I want to try a reduced version of my code. Is that the correct syntax for passing the method results or should I use something different? Thanks! EDIT: Now suppose I want to change process_items() to process_item() so I can do stuff on a single element of the referenced array inside a loop. Something like: $self->process_item($_) for ([ $xml->findnodes('items/item') ]); This doesn't work as process_item() is executed only once because a single value is passed to the for loop (the reference to the array from findnodes()). What's the proper way of using $_ in this case?

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• Is inheritance bad nowadays?

  - by mafutrct

  Personally, I think inheritance is a great tool, that, when applied reasonably, can greatly simplify code. However, I seems to me that many modern tools dislike inheritance. Let's take a simple example: Serialize a class to XML. As soon as inheritance is involved, this can easily turn into a mess. Especially if you're trying to serialize a derived class using the base class serializer. Sure, we can work around that. Something like a KnownType attribute and stuff. Besides being an itch in your code that you have to remember to update every time you add a derived class, that fails, too, if you receive a class from outside your scope that was not known at compile time. (Okay, in some cases you can still work around that, for instance using the NetDataContract serializer in .NET. Surely a certain advancement.) In any case, the basic principle still exists: Serialization and inheritance don't mix well. Considering the huge list of programming strategies that became possible and even common in the past decade, I feel tempted to say that inheritance should be avoided in areas that relate to serialization (in particular remoting and databases). Does that make sense? Or am messing things up? How do you handle inheritance and serialization?

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• Is there a selector or a work around to select any element with no children.

  - by rnaud

  Looking at the CSS3 specs, I can't find any way to select any element that has no children. Let me explain. <body> <h1>Main Page</h1> <div id="main"> <div class="post"> <h2>Article 1</h1> <p>some text</p> </div> <div class="post"> <h2>Article 2</h1> <p>some text</p> </div> </div> </body> I'm looking for a CSS syntax to select the h1, the two h2 and the two p. A way to select in any page, all elements with no children. Any suggestion ? Sorry, I forgot to add the "empty" part, I am actually already using the *:empty selector, but it's not working for any tag that has a nodeText as a child. So it's working for any input, image, object, but not for h2, h1, or any p.

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• Array Assignment

  - by Mahesh

  Let me explain with an example - #include <iostream> void foo( int a[2], int b[2] ) // I understand that, compiler doesn't bother about the // array index and converts them to int *a, int *b { a = b ; // At this point, how ever assignment operation is valid. } int main() { int a[] = { 1,2 }; int b[] = { 3,4 }; foo( a, b ); a = b; // Why is this invalid here. return 0; } Is it because, array decays to a pointer when passed to a function foo(..), assignment operation is possible. And in main, is it because they are of type int[] which invalidates the assignment operation. Doesn't a,b in both the cases mean the same ? Thanks. Edit 1: When I do it in a function foo, it's assigning the b's starting element location to a. So, thinking in terms of it, what made the language developers not do the same in main(). Want to know the reason.

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• Cannot Resize DIV to anything smaller than maximum width

  - by MxmastaMills

  Quick CSS Question. I cannot seem to figure out a very simple CSS/HTML problem. Here's a JSFiddle. http://jsfiddle.net/BmM6t/ Basically, these two divs are not resizing to anything less than 100% width: <div id="main_pic" class="main_div"> THIS IS WHERE THE MAIN PIC WILL GO. </div> <div id="signin" class="main_div"> SIGN IN TO THE SITE! <form> <label for="name">EMAIL/USERNAME:</label> <input type="text" name="name" id="name"> <label for="email">PASSWORD:</label> <input type="text" name="email" id="email"> <br /> <input type="submit" value="Let's Play!"> </form> </div> You'll see that the two divs with class main_div actually take up the entire width of the screen for some reason (you can see that if you inspect the element) even though their widths are clearly written. When you try to change the width of one of the main_div's it changes the width but if you inspect the element, it just changes the width of the object and adds padding around it to make sure it still takes up the entire width of the screen. I'm sure it's some little error I've made but I can't find it. Thanks for the help!

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• mailto: anchor links unloading html5 video in Chrome

  - by Robin Pyon

  I have a very simple page with a <video> tag and an email anchor link: http://jsfiddle.net/6GquX/3/ Clicking the email link in Chrome (OS X 10.8 + Win7, 23.0.1271.97) invokes the beforeunloadchange event and causes the video to unload, which isn't the desired outcome. Curiously enough, if I let the video buffer a bit and then click the email link, the video keeps playing and doesn't unload. To my knowledge this only occurs in Chrome and I'm truly at a loss. Visiting any HTML5 video player site (videojs, flowplayer etc), starting a HTML5 video and then immediately simulating an email click with document.location.href = "mailto:[email protected]" in the dev console yields the same error. However, I'm inclined to think it's the way in which the video has been encoded as I'm unable to recreate the above with a video downloaded from YouTube's HTML5 player: http://jsfiddle.net/6GquX/4/ (source) 1. Is it possible that YouTube are encoding their videos in a particular way to combat this? 2. Are there any strategies / hacks I can employ to get around this?

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