Search Results

Search found 18096 results on 724 pages for 'let'.

Page 611/724 | < Previous Page | 607 608 609 610 611 612 613 614 615 616 617 618  | Next Page >

  • How to initialize list with parent child relation

    - by user2917702
    Let's say I have the following classes. public class Parent { public string name; IList<Children> children; } public class Child { public string parentName; public int age; } As it is understandable, each parent can have multiple children, and we can have multiple parents. What is the best way to initialize these classes? Is it better to get all of the parents, and all of the children from database then use LINQ? IList<Parent> parents = GetParents()//assume this gets parents from db IList<Child> children = GetChildren() //assume this gets children from db foreach(Parent parent in parents) { parent.children = children.Where(x=>x.parentName==parent.name).ToList(); } or get all of the parents and iterate through each parent to query database by parentName to get children information? Due to requirement that I have, I cannot use datatable or dataset; I can only use datareader. IList<Parent> parents = GetParents()//assume this gets parents from db foreach(Parent parent in parents) { parent.children = GetChildrenByParentName();//assume this gets parents from db by parentName } Thank you

    Read the article

  • How to properly manage a complex DB structure?

    - by errr
    Let's say you have several systems using the same DB - each uses several schemes (sometimes same as the other). This structure of these schemes is somewhat very big and complicated. Now, how could you possibly manage such scheme structure? Obviously using some sort of "configuration" - the simplest would be SQL scripts, but a more reasonable solution would be XMLs which can be easily converted into SQL, or some other readable solution (for example, JPA's XMLs or Annotations). This solution though, causes a problem where you can't really tell if your configuration matches the structure of the DB schemes exactly. You can't say if those two are synchronized. Why wouldn't they? Well, in such big structure there are going to be many changes, and you won't always remember to save/commit your configuration after you've altered the schemes, or maybe you did save/commit it, but eventually didn't altered anything in the schemes and forgot to undo the changes to the configuration. More than that, another problem (not caused by the configuration, but isn't addressed by it either) is versioning. I don't see any good way of managing the DB schemes versions (say our last alteration makes 3 systems crash - not good, how to "rollback"?). And thoughts? thx.

    Read the article

  • how to compare two tables fields name with another value in mysql?

    - by I Like PHP
    I have two tables table_school school_open_time|school_close_time|school_day 8:00 AM | 9:00PM | Monday 10:00 AM | 7:00PM | Wednesday table_college college_open_time|college_close_time|college_day 10:00 AM | 8:00PM | Monday 10:00 AM | 9:00PM | Tuesday 10:00 AM | 5:00PM | Wednesday Now I want to select school_open_time school_close time, college_open_time and college_close_time according to today (means college_day=school_day=today), and also if there is no row for a specific day in any of one table then it display blank field ( LEFT JOIN , I think I can use). Please suggest me best and optimized query for this. UPDATE: if there is no open time and close time for school then college_open_time and college_close_time has to be returned( not to be filled in database,just return) as school_open_time and school_close_time. and there always must be college_open_time and college_close_time for a given day MORE UPDATE: i m using below query SELECT college_open_time,college_close_time ,school_open_time, school_close_time FROM tbl_college LEFT JOIN tbl_school ON school_owner_id=college_owner_id WHERE college_owner_id='".$_session['user_id']."' AND college_day='".date('l',time())."'"; it return single row (left hand having some value and right hand having blank value) when there is no row of a given day in table_school, BUT display seven rows with same value on left hand side(college_open_time, college_close_time) and 6 blank row on right hand side (school_open_time and school_close_time) i need only one row when both table have a row of a given day but using above query take only first row of corresponding table_school where school_owner_id is 50(let), it not see the condition that school_day name should be given day

    Read the article

  • Database PK-FK design for future-effective-date entries?

    - by Scott Balmos
    Ultimately I'm going to convert this into a Hibernate/JPA design. But I wanted to start out from purely a database perspective. We have various tables containing data that is future-effective-dated. Take an employee table with the following pseudo-definition: employee id INT AUTO_INCREMENT ... data fields ... effectiveFrom DATE effectiveTo DATE employee_reviews id INT AUTO_INCREMENT employee_id INT FK employee.id Very simplistic. But let's say Employee A has id = 1, effectiveFrom = 1/1/2011, effectiveTo = 1/1/2099. That employee is going to be changing jobs in the future, which would in theory create a new row, id = 2 with effectiveFrom = 7/1/2011, effectiveTo = 1/1/2099, and id = 1's effectiveTo updated to 6/30/2011. But now, my program would have to go through any table that has a FK relationship to employee every night, and update those FK to reference the newly-effective employee entry. I have seen various postings in both pure SQL and Hibernate forums that I should have a separate employee_versions table, which is where I would have all effective-dated data stored, resulting in the updated pseudo-definition below: employee id INT AUTO_INCREMENT employee_versions id INT AUTO_INCREMENT employee_id INT FK employee.id ... data fields ... effectiveFrom DATE effectiveTo DATE employee_reviews id INT AUTO_INCREMENT employee_id INT FK employee.id Then to get any actual data, one would have to actually select from employee_versions with the proper employee_id and date range. This feels rather unnatural to have this secondary "versions" table for each versioned entity. Anyone have any opinions, suggestions from your own prior work, etc? Like I said, I'm taking this purely from a general SQL design standpoint first before layering in Hibernate on top. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Generate Spring bean definition from a Java object

    - by joeslice
    Let's suggest that I have a bean defined in Spring: <bean id="neatBean" class="com..." abstract="true">...</bean> Then we have many clients, each of which have slightly different configuration for their 'neatBean'. The old way we would do it was to have a new file for each client (e.g., clientX_NeatFeature.xml) that contained a bunch of beans for this client (these are hand-edited and part of the code base): <bean id="clientXNeatBean" parent="neatBean"> <property id="whatever" value="something"/> </bean> Now, I want to have a UI where we can edit and redefine a client's neatBean on the fly. My question is: given a neatBean, and a UI that can 'override' properties of this bean, what would be a straightforward way to serialize this to an XML file as we do [manually] today? For example, if the user set property whatever to be "17" for client Y, I'd want to generate: <bean id="clientYNeatBean" parent="neatBean"> <property id="whatever" value="17"/> </bean> Note that moving this configuration to a different format (e.g., database, other-schema'd-xml) is an option, but not really an answer to the question at hand.

    Read the article

  • CPU overheating because of Delphi IDE

    - by Altar
    I am using Delphi 7 but I have trialed the Delphi 2005 - 2010 versions. In all these new versions my CPU utilization is 50% (one core is 100%, the other is "relaxed") when Delphi IDE is visible on screen. It doesn't happen when the IDE is minimized. My computer is overheating because of this. Any hints why this happens? It looks like if I want to upgrade to Delphi 2010, I need to upgrade my cooling system first. And I am a bit lazy about that, especially that I want to discahrge my computer and buy a new one (in the next 6 months) - probably I will have to buy a Win 7 license too. Edit: My CPU is AMD Dual Core 4600+. 4GB RAM Overheating means that temperature of the HDDs is raising because the CPU. Edit: Comming to a possible solution I just deleted all HKCU/CodeGear key and let started Delphi as "new". Guess what? The CPU utilization is 0%. I will investigate more.

    Read the article

  • Disable home button in android toddler app?

    - by cmerrell
    I've developed and app that is a slide show of pictures which each play a sound when you tap them. It's like a picture book for ages 2-4. The problem is, since android won't let you capture a home button press and essentially disable it, when parents give the phone to their child to play with unattended (brave parent), the child can inadvertenly exit the app and then make calls or otherwise tweak the phone. There are two other apps that currently have a psuedo fix for this issue. The apps are Toddler Lock and ToddlePhone. I've tried contacting the developers of these apps for some guidance but they haven't been willing to disclose anything, which if fine, but does anyone here have any suggestions? It looks like both of those other apps are acting like a home screen replacement app. When you enable the "childproof mode" on those apps the user is prompted to chose and app for the action and the choices are "Launcher, LauncherPro, etc." plus the toddler app. You then have to make the toddler app the default and voila, the phone is "locked" and can only be "unlocked" using a key combination or touching the four corners of the screen, etc. when you "unlock" the phone. your normal home screen app default restored. You don't even have to make the toddler app the default the next time you enable the "childproof mode". I have read that these two apps have problems with Samsung phones and they can cause an an infinite crash-and-restart-loop that requires a factory reset to fix. Obviously this is not the ideal solution to the problem but it looks like the only one availiable at this point. Does anyone have any ideas on how to implement a "childproof mode"?

    Read the article

  • Rails - Update a single attribute : link with custom action or form with hidden fields?

    - by MrRuru
    Let's say I have a User model, with a facebook_uid field corresponding to the user's facebook id. I want to allow the user to unlink his facebook account. Do do so, I need to set this attribute to nil. I currently see 2 ways of doing this First way : create a custom action and link to it # app/controllers/users_controller.rb def unlink_facebook_account @user = User.find params[:id] # Authorization checks go here @user.facebook_uid = nil @user.save # Redirection go here end # config/routes.rb ressources :users do get 'unlink_fb', :on => :member, :as => unlink_fb end # in a view = link_to "Unlink your facebook account", unlink_fb_path(@user) Second way : create a form to the existing update action # app/views/user/_unlink_fb_form.html.haml = form_for @user, :method => "post" do |f| = f.hidden_field :facebook_uid, :value => nil = f.submit "Unlink Facebook account" I'm not a big fan of either way. In the first one, I have to add a new action for something that the update controller already can do. In the second one, I cannot set the facebook_uid to nil without customizing the update action, and I cannot have a link instead of a button without adding some javascript. Still, what would you recommend as the best and most elegant solution for this context? Did I miss a third alternative?

    Read the article

  • Best way to import a pack or "system" of new classes??

    - by Joe Blow
    Here's an Advanced question for Advanced developers. So I've written a largish "subsystem". It is essentially a UIViewController called CleverViewController which is a UIViewController. Now, there are a large number of supporting classes (about ten) that do the hard work: perform math functions, image processing, purely logical functions, build images or what have you with thousands of lines of code. (To do this, I simply started a new XCode project / app "Scratchpad" which does little other than load and launch the CleverViewController. So currently it works as an app, which launches CleverViewController. The ten or so classes I mention that are part of the "subsystem" simply sit there in that project/app.) So now, we will use CleverViewController, the new technology generally, in various apps. (Or perhaps friends would want to use it, etc.) What's the best way to "do" this? Have I screwed everything up, and really it should just be ONE (pretty big) class rather than a dozen classes? (I could understand that then as I would simply add that new (big) class where needed, like adding any other class.) Do I have to make a "framework" like the Apple frameworks? (If so, what the hell are they, how do you do it, etc?!?) In fact, do you just have to lamely include all of the dozen classes and that's that (obviously perhaps putting them in a grouped subfolder). What about all the headers and so on? (Currently I just have the dozen includes in the pch file of the scratchpad project.) Shouldn't it be easy to "maintain" this "subsystem" separately and so on? I'm afraid I know nothing about this: if the answer is obvious, hit me over the head and let me know. Thank you for any info on this !

    Read the article

  • jQuery: Finding file size and adding it to the link

    - by Ricardo
    Let me start by saying that I'm not a jQuery guru by any means and I genuinely know this is over my head, that's why I've come to SO. Is there a way with jQuery to find the file size of a link on a page and then inject/add the text of the file size next to the link? Here's my problem On one of my pages, I have a link to my resume which is a PDF file and to improve usability it's proper to have the file type and file size next to the link so the users have the option to decide if they want to click on that link or not. So the link would read something like "Download my resume (PDF / 80KB)" The problem is that I'm constantly updating my resume and uploading a new PDF file which, of course, has a different file size so I'm always going back to the HTML and changing the text to reflect the new file size. Is there a way to automate this with jQuery... or plain JavaScript for that matter? I found this script and made a demo here in Codepen but it doesn't seem to work. Any help with this would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • In Castle Windsor, can I register a Interface component and get a proxy of the implementation?

    - by Thiado de Arruda
    Lets consider some cases: _windsor.Register(Component.For<IProductServices>().ImplementedBy<ProductServices>().Interceptors(typeof(SomeInterceptorType)); In this case, when I ask for a IProductServices windsor will proxy the interface to intercept the interface method calls. If instead I do this : _windsor.Register(Component.For<ProductServices>().Interceptors(typeof(SomeInterceptorType)); then I cant ask for windsor to resolve IProductServices, instead I ask for ProductServices and it will return a dynamic subclass that will intercept virtual method calls. Of course the dynamic subclass still implements 'IProductServices' My question is : Can I register the Interface component like the first case, and get the subclass proxy like in the second case?. There are two reasons for me wanting this: 1 - Because the code that is going to resolve cannot know about the ProductServices class, only about the IProductServices interface. 2 - Because some event invocations that pass the sender as a parameter, will pass the ProductServices object, and in the first case this object is a field on the dynamic proxy, not the real object returned by windsor. Let me give an example of how this can complicate things : Lets say I have a custom collection that does something when their items notify a property change: private void ItemChanged(object sender, PropertyChangedEventArgs e) { int senderIndex = IndexOf(sender); SomeActionOnItemIndex(senderIndex); } This code will fail if I added an interface proxy, because the sender will be the field in the interface proxy and the IndexOf(sender) will return -1.

    Read the article

  • How to avoid raising an event to a closed form?

    - by Steve Dignan
    I'm having trouble handling the scenario whereby an event is being raised to a closed form and was hoping to get some help. Scenario (see below code for reference): Form1 opens Form2 Form1 subscribes to an event on Form2 (let's call the event FormAction) Form1 is closed and Form2 remains open Form2 raises the FormAction event In Form1.form2_FormAction, why does this return a reference to Form1 but button1.Parent returns null? Shouldn't they both return the same reference? If we were to omit step 3, both this and button1.Parent return the same reference. Here's the code I'm using... Form1: public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1 () { InitializeComponent(); } private void button1_Click ( object sender , EventArgs e ) { // Create instance of Form2 and subscribe to the FormAction event var form2 = new Form2(); form2.FormAction += form2_FormAction; form2.Show(); } private void form2_FormAction ( object o ) { // Always returns reference to Form1 var form = this; // If Form1 is open, button1.Parent is equal to form/this // If Form1 is closed, button1.Parent is null var parent = button1.Parent; } } Form2: public partial class Form2 : Form { public Form2 () { InitializeComponent(); } public delegate void FormActionHandler ( object o ); public event FormActionHandler FormAction = delegate { }; private void button1_Click ( object sender , EventArgs e ) { FormAction( "Button clicked." ); } } Ideally, I would like to avoid raising events to closed/disposed forms (which I'm not sure is possible) or find a clean way of handling this in the caller (in this case, Form1). Any help is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Disable Products in different Magento Store Views

    - by Robert
    I have a Magento Multi-Store installation (not multi-site) and some products are available in more than one store. However, these products that are available in, let's say storeA and storeB, have related products, BUT, the related products are not available in both stores. The problem is this, Product1, which has Product2, Product3, and Product4 as related products, appears in storeA. No Problem. Product1 is also available in storeB, but NOT Product2-3-4. However, those products, though not shown in the general catalog of storeB, are visible as related products to Product1 in storeB. If I use the drop down to manage products in storeB, and I remove the related products in Product1, it removes the related products from Product1 in storeA, where they should be available. I cannot change the status attribute to storeview in Manage Attributes, because the only choices are Global or Website, not Store View. I can change the skin to show UPSELL products instead, and set up different UPSELL products, but that limits my stores to only two. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • possible to make codeigniter work with another framework?

    - by ajsie
    the situation is this. my client (who also is a programmer) asks me to develop an address book (with mysql database) with a lot of functions. then he can interact with some class methods i provide for him. kinda like an API. the situation is that the address book application is getting bigger and bigger, and i feel like its way better to use CodeIgniter to code it with MVC. i wonder if i can use codeigniter, then in some way give him the access to controller methods. eg. in a controller there are some functions u can call with the web browser. public function create_contact($information) {..} public function delete_contact($id) {..} public function get_contact($id) {..} however, these are just callable from web browser. how can i let my client have access to these functions like an API? then in his own application he can use: $result = $address_book-create_contact($information); if($result) { echo "Success"; } $contact = $address_book-get_contact($id); is this possible? cause i just know how to access the controller methods with the webbrowser. and i guess its not an option for him to use header(location) to access them. all suggestions to make this possible are welcomed! thanks

    Read the article

  • Trying to create a group of button sprites

    - by user1449653
    Good day, I have like 15 images I need to be buttons. I have buttons working with a Box() (Box - looks like this) class Box(pygame.sprite.Sprite): def __init__(self): pygame.sprite.Sprite.__init__(self) self.image = pygame.Surface((35, 30)) self.image = self.image.convert() self.image.fill((255, 0, 0)) self.rect = self.image.get_rect() self.rect.centerx = 25 self.rect.centery = 505 self.dx = 10 self.dy = 10 I am trying to make the buttons work with image sprites. So I attempted to copy the class style of the box and do the same for my Icons.. code looks like this... class Icons(pygame.sprite.Sprite): def __init__(self): pygame.sprite.Sprite.__init__(self) self.image = pygame.image.load("images/airbrushIC.gif").convert() self.rect = self.image.get_rect() self.rect.x = 25 self.rect.y = 550 the code in the main() rect = image.get_rect() rect.x = 25 rect.y = 550 ic1 = Icons((screen.get_rect().x, screen.get_rect().y)) screen.blit(ic1.image, ic1.rect) pygame.display.update() This code produces a positional (accepts 1 argument but 2 are there) error or an image is not referenced error (inside the Icon class). I'm unsure if this is the right way to go about this anyways.. I know for sure that I need to load all the images (as sprites)... store them in an array... and then have my mouse check if it is clicking one of the items in the array using a for loop. Thanks. EDIT QUESTION 2: class Icons(pygame.sprite.Sprite): def init(self, *args): pygame.sprite.Sprite.init(self, *args) self.image = pygame.image.load("images/airbrushIC.gif").convert() self.rect = self.image.get_rect() ic1 = self.image self.rect.x = 10 self.rect.y = 490 self.image = pygame.image.load("images/fillIC.gif").convert() self.rect = self.image.get_rect() ic2 = self.image self.rect.x = 10 self.rect.y = 540 Thanks to your help I got the Icons class loading ONE image. Its not loading both. Obviously because its being overwritten by the second one. It seems that "class" for this purpose isn't what I need. Which begs the question how I make sprites outside of a class.. If there is a way to make the class work please let me know.

    Read the article

  • PHP SDK Requires two logins...doesn't recognize first

    - by Jay Konieczny
    I am using the following code to authenticate whether users are logged in or not. While users can log in, they have to click the login button twice. Additionally, sometimes even after they click the log-in button twice, my "user info" part of the page (earlier in the page than the content) shows them as logged out while the actual page shows them as logged in. Here is the code. Could someone suggest a better way of handling log-ins? function isLoggedIn($facebook) { if (isset($facebook) and $facebook->getUser() != 0) { // UserID exists, but user may still not be logged in. Let's check: try { $facebook->api('/me', 'GET'); // If this succeeds, then they are logged in. return true; } catch(FacebookApiException $e) { // Some kind of error, so not logged in. if(session_id() === '') session_destroy(); return false; } } else { if(session_id() === '') session_destroy(); return false; } } Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Manage more Images to move in View

    - by David Pollak
    hi everyone, I'm creating an app which has more UIImageView on a View, they should move normally from a side to the other. I have an issue: after entering the second image, the two UIImageView start to behave crazy (!) because they don' move freely, but they are like restricted in two different areas not touching each other even if I said different things the first thing that I want to do, is to let them move normally; this is the code I am using: `- (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; pos = CGPointMake(14.0, 7.0); [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:0.05 target:self selector:@selector(onTimer) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; }` - (void) onTimer { pallone.center = CGPointMake(pallone.center.x+pos.x, pallone.center.y+pos.y); if(pallone.center.x > 320 || pallone.center.x < 0) pos.x = -pos.x; if(pallone.center.y > 480 || pallone.center.y < 0) pos.y = -pos.y; } and for the other image that has to enter after: - (IBAction)spara{ cos = CGPointMake(8.0, 4.0); [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:0.05 target:self selector:@selector(inTimer) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; } - (void)inTimer{ bomba.center = CGPointMake(bomba.center.x+pos.x, bomba.center.y+pos.y); if(bomba.center.x > 50 || bomba.center.x < 0) pos.x = -pos.x; if(bomba.center.y > 480 || bomba.center.y < 0) pos.y = -pos.y; } what should I change ? and if I'd like the images to move only in one way (y) ? how do I do this ? I know, I'm a newbie thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Detailstext in TableView from Coredata Iphone

    - by user554867
    Hey, that is my first question here at stackoverflow. Let me try to be specific as I can. The project is as follows: I am trying to parse an xml file in an iphone app, which works already. I am saving the parsed data into the CoreData of the Iphone. So far so good: I have two elements of the xml file which I want to show in the tableview as the text and the detailtext. Now the strange behaviour occurs: If I take the data of the Core Data and trying to visualize them in the tableview, then both elements are displayed in seperate cells and not as detailtext of the element. If I am just taking a constant string for the detailtext, then it works, but if I am trying to take for every cell a specific element from the Core Data then it is shown seperately in the tableview. I googled a lot, reading here and there. I dont know which code I should show because I dont have a clue where exactly the mistake could be. Maybe someone can answer that immediately because it is a stupid mistake somewhere, which is common. Thanks for your help.

    Read the article

  • detection of 'flush tables with read lock' in php

    - by theduke0
    I would like to know from my application if a myisam table can accept writes (i.e. not locked). If an exception is thrown, everything is fine as I can catch this and log the failed statement to a file. However, if a 'flush tables with read lock' command has been issued (possibly for backup), the query I send will pretty much hang out forever. If one table is locked at a time, insert delayed works well. But when this global lock is applied, my query just waits. The query I run is an insert statement. If this statement fails or hangs, user experience is degraded. I need a way to send the query to the server and forget about it (pretty much). Does anyone have any suggestions on how to deal with this? -set a query timeout? -run asyncronous request and allow for the lock to expire while application continues? -fork my php process? Please let me know if I can provide and clarification or details.

    Read the article

  • jquery slideToggle's position

    - by skargor
    I have a menu div to put the menu list inside <!--menu--> <a href="#"><div id="menu-tab">Menu</div></a> <div id="menu"> <ul> <li><a href="#">a</a></li> <li><a href="#">b</a></li> <li><a href="#">c</li> </ul> </div> for the css #menu { width: 220px; border: 2px solid #004990; float: right; margin-right: 15px; margin-top: -52px; } here is the javascript/jquery $('#menu-tab').click(function(){ $("#menu").slideToggle("normal"); }); becuase margin-top: -52px;(which I control the menu position in the page), therefore each time when I click the menu tab, the #menu will slide from -52px. how can I let it slide from 0px?

    Read the article

  • .NET Best Way to move many files to and from various directories??

    - by Dan
    I've created a program that moves files to and from various directories. An issue I've come across is when you're trying to move a file and some other program is still using it. And you get an error. Leaving it there isn't an option, so I can only think of having to keep trying to move it over and over again. This though slows the entire program down, so I create a new thread and let it deal with the problem file and move on to the next. The bigger problem is when you have too many of these problem files and the program now has so many threads trying to move these files, that it just crashes with some kernel.dll error. Here's a sample of the code I use to move the files: Public Sub MoveIt() Try File.Move(_FileName, _CopyToFileName) Catch ex As Exception Threading.Thread.Sleep(5000) MoveIt() End Try End Sub As you can see.. I try to move the file, and if it errors, I wait and move it again.. over and over again.. I've tried using FileInfo as well, but that crashes WAY sooner than just using the File object. So has anyone found a fool proof way of moving files without it ever erroring? Note: it takes a lot of files to make it crash. It'll be fine on the weekend, but by the end of the day on monday, it's done.

    Read the article

  • c++ float subtraction rounding error

    - by Volkan Ozyilmaz
    I have a float value between 0 and 1. I need to convert it with -120 to 80. To do this, first I multiply with 200 after 120 subtract. When subtract is made I had rounding error. Let's look my example. float val = 0.6050f; val *= 200.f; Now val is 121.0 as I expected. val -= 120.0f; Now val is 0.99999992 I thought maybe I can avoid this problem with multiplication and division. float val = 0.6050f; val *= 200.f; val *= 100.f; val -= 12000.0f; val /= 100.f; But it didn't help. I have still 0.99 on my hand. Is there a solution for it? Edit: After with detailed logging, I understand there is no problem with this part of code. Before my log shows me "0.605", after I had detailed log and I saw "0.60499995946884155273437500000000000000000000000000" the problem is in different place.

    Read the article

  • Binding Javascript Event Handlers to a an Ajax HTML Response?

    - by John
    Let's say I have the following HTML code <div id="outer"> <div id="inner">Hello World</div> </div> At the end of my HTML page, I use javascript to attach event handlers like so, document.getElementById('inner').onclick = function() {alert(this.innerHTML);} document.getElementById('outer').onclick = function() { /* An Ajax Call where the response, which will be a string of HTML content, then goes into document.getElementById('outer').innerHTML */ document.getElementById('inner').onclick = function() {alert(this.innerHTML);} } In the above code, I am expecting <div id="inner">Hello World 2</div> to come back which requires me to re-attach the onclick event handler. This makes sense because the new response coming back is just a string, and I have to tell the browser that after converting to DOM, i also need some event handlers So my question is, is there a better way to manage event handlers on AJAX response that contains HTML content? I could use inline javascript within the html response, but then it prevents me from achieving non-intrusive javascript. So is there a way to achieve non-intrusive javascript and an efficient way to "maintain" event handlers of ajax html responses?

    Read the article

  • Array Assignment

    - by Mahesh
    Let me explain with an example - #include <iostream> void foo( int a[2], int b[2] ) // I understand that, compiler doesn't bother about the // array index and converts them to int *a, int *b { a = b ; // At this point, how ever assignment operation is valid. } int main() { int a[] = { 1,2 }; int b[] = { 3,4 }; foo( a, b ); a = b; // Why is this invalid here. return 0; } Is it because, array decays to a pointer when passed to a function foo(..), assignment operation is possible. And in main, is it because they are of type int[] which invalidates the assignment operation. Doesn't a,b in both the cases mean the same ? Thanks. Edit 1: When I do it in a function foo, it's assigning the b's starting element location to a. So, thinking in terms of it, what made the language developers not do the same in main(). Want to know the reason.

    Read the article

  • How does git fetches commits associated to a file ?

    - by liadan
    I'm writing a simple parser of .git/* files. I covered almost everything, like objects, refs, pack files etc. But I have a problem. Let's say I have a big 300M repository (in a pack file) and I want to find out all the commits which changed /some/deep/inside/file file. What I'm doing now is: fetching last commit finding a file in it by: fetching parent tree finding out a tree inside recursively repeat until I get into the file additionally I'm checking hashes of each subfolders on my way to file. If one of them is the same as in commit before, I assume that file was not changed (because it's parent dir didn't change) then I store the hash of a file and fetch parent commit finding file again and check if hash change occurs if yes then original commit (i.e. one before parent) was changing a file And I repeat it over and over until I reach very first commit. This solution works, but it sucks. In worse case scenario, first search can take even 3 minutes (for 300M pack). Is there any way to speed it up ? I tried to avoid putting so large objects in memory, but right now I don't see any other way. And even that, initial memory load will take forever :( Greets and thanks for any help!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 607 608 609 610 611 612 613 614 615 616 617 618  | Next Page >