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Grouped UITableView Footer Sometimes Hidden On Quick Scroll

- by jdandrea

OK, this one is a puzzler. There is one similar post but it's not similar enough to count, so I'm posting this one. :) I've got a grouped UITableView with a header and footer. The footer includes two UIButton views, side-by-side. Nothing major. Now … there is a toggle button in a UIToolbar at the bottom for more/less info in this table view. So I build my index paths to delete/insert with fade row animation, all the usual ingredients, sandwiched between beginUpdates and endUpdates calls on the UITableView … and this works fine! In also happens that my footer can sometimes be pushed off past the bottom of the display. Here's where it gets weird. If I drag my finger up the display, scrolling the view upward, I should see that footer eventually, right? Well … most of the time I do. BUT, if I flick my finger up, for a faster scroll, the footer is missing. Even if you try to tap in that area - no response. However, if I scroll back down again, just to hide that footer (or rather hide the area where the footer would normally be), and then scroll back up, it's there once again! This only happens when inserting rows. If I delete rows, the footer stays put … unless of course it was already hidden and I didn't perform the aforementioned incantation to get it back. :) I am trying to trace through this, but to no avail. I suppose tracing through scroll operations is a bit of a crazy proposition! Perhaps some creative logging … suggestions, anyone? Or is this a known issue in 3.1 where row insert/deletes are concerned? (I don't recall seeing it until 3.1.)

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How to display rich text in tooltip ASP.Net ?

- by mokokamello

Experts ! i use the following code to display a tooltip <asp:GridView ID="GridView1" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="False" DataKeyNames="ID" DataSourceID="AccessDataSource1"> <Columns> <asp:CommandField ShowEditButton="True" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="ID" HeaderText="ID" InsertVisible="False" ReadOnly="True" SortExpression="ID" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="datefu" HeaderText="date" SortExpression="datefu" /> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="title" SortExpression="titlefu"> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("titlefu") %>'></asp:TextBox> </EditItemTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <a href="#" title="<asp:Literal ID="Label1" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("fu") %>'/>"/> <asp:Label ID="NamePatientLabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("titlefu") %>' /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView> display the following result however when i edit the text as follows (making it bold and red in another gridview containing rich text editor) i get the following (as a formatting result in the second grid view) however when i view in the first gridview to display the tooltip i get the following reult i really need your help to display the tooltip as rich text

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Jquery Ajax Call In For Loop Only Runs Once - Possible Issue with Timing & Exit Condition?

- by Grumps

Background I'm building a form that uses autocomplete against the EchoNest API. First the users picks an artist, using the Artist Suggest call. Next they select a song but the Song and/Or Artist song search doesn't provide a "wild card" search. It only returns exact matches. So based on the forums they suggest building an array of the songs and using auto complete on the array. I can only get a maximum of 100 responses at a time. I do know based on the initial response the number of songs. My Plan: Wrap the ajax call in a for loop ('runonceloop'). Amend the loop exit condition after the first response with the total number of songs. Challenge I'm having: The 'runonceloop' only completes a singe loop because or at least that's what I believe: The exit condition is satisfied before the first response [1] is received. I've tried to adjust the 'exit condition' and 'counter' such that they are set and and increased at the end of the success block. This seems to lock up my browser. Can someone provide some guidance on this situation?[2] I'd really appreciate it. I also don't think turning async off is a good idea because it locks the browser. Response[1]: { "response": { "status": { "code": "0", "message": "Success", "version": "4.2" }, "start": 0, "total": 121, //Used for "songs": [ { "id": "SOXZYYG127F3E1B7A2", "title": "Karma police" }, { "id": "SOXZABD127F3E1B7A2", "title" : "Creep" } ] } } } Code[2] var songsList = []; function getSongs() { var numsongs = 2; //at least 2 runs. var startindex = 0; runonceloop: //<~~~~Referenced in question for (var j = 0;j >= numsongs;) { console.log('numsongs' + numsongs); $.ajax({ url: "http://developer.echonest.com/api/v4/artist/songs", dataType: "jsonp", data: { results: 100, api_key: "XXXXXXXXXXX", format: "jsonp", name: $("#artist").val(), start: startindex }, success: function (data) { var songs = data.response.songs; numsongs = data.response.total; //modify exit condition for (var i = 0; i < songs.length; i++) { songsList.push(songs[i].title); } j +=100;// increase by 100 to match number of responses. } }); }};

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Modelling boost::Lockable with semaphore rather than mutex (previously titled: Unlocking a mutex fr

- by dan

I'm using the C++ boost::thread library, which in my case means I'm using pthreads. Officially, a mutex must be unlocked from the same thread which locks it, and I want the effect of being able to lock in one thread and then unlock in another. There are many ways to accomplish this. One possibility would be to write a new mutex class which allows this behavior. For example: class inter_thread_mutex{ bool locked; boost::mutex mx; boost::condition_variable cv; public: void lock(){ boost::unique_lock<boost::mutex> lck(mx); while(locked) cv.wait(lck); locked=true; } void unlock(){ { boost::lock_guard<boost::mutex> lck(mx); if(!locked) error(); locked=false; } cv.notify_one(); } // bool try_lock(); void error(); etc. } I should point out that the above code doesn't guarantee FIFO access, since if one thread calls lock() while another calls unlock(), this first thread may acquire the lock ahead of other threads which are waiting. (Come to think of it, the boost::thread documentation doesn't appear to make any explicit scheduling guarantees for either mutexes or condition variables). But let's just ignore that (and any other bugs) for now. My question is, if I decide to go this route, would I be able to use such a mutex as a model for the boost Lockable concept. For example, would anything go wrong if I use a boost::unique_lock< inter_thread_mutex for RAII-style access, and then pass this lock to boost::condition_variable_any.wait(), etc. On one hand I don't see why not. On the other hand, "I don't see why not" is usually a very bad way of determining whether something will work. The reason I ask is that if it turns out that I have to write wrapper classes for RAII locks and condition variables and whatever else, then I'd rather just find some other way to achieve the same effect. EDIT: The kind of behavior I want is basically as follows. I have an object, and it needs to be locked whenever it is modified. I want to lock the object from one thread, and do some work on it. Then I want to keep the object locked while I tell another worker thread to complete the work. So the first thread can go on and do something else while the worker thread finishes up. When the worker thread gets done, it unlocks the mutex. And I want the transition to be seemless so nobody else can get the mutex lock in between when thread 1 starts the work and thread 2 completes it. Something like inter_thread_mutex seems like it would work, and it would also allow the program to interact with it as if it were an ordinary mutex. So it seems like a clean solution. If there's a better solution, I'd be happy to hear that also. EDIT AGAIN: The reason I need locks to begin with is that there are multiple master threads, and the locks are there to prevent them from accessing shared objects concurrently in invalid ways. So the code already uses loop-level lock-free sequencing of operations at the master thread level. Also, in the original implementation, there were no worker threads, and the mutexes were ordinary kosher mutexes. The inter_thread_thingy came up as an optimization, primarily to improve response time. In many cases, it was sufficient to guarantee that the "first part" of operation A, occurs before the "first part" of operation B. As a dumb example, say I punch object 1 and give it a black eye. Then I tell object 1 to change it's internal structure to reflect all the tissue damage. I don't want to wait around for the tissue damage before I move on to punch object 2. However, I do want the tissue damage to occur as part of the same operation; for example, in the interim, I don't want any other thread to reconfigure the object in such a way that would make tissue damage an invalid operation. (yes, this example is imperfect in many ways, and no I'm not working on a game) So we made the change to a model where ownership of an object can be passed to a worker thread to complete an operation, and it actually works quite nicely; each master thread is able to get a lot more operations done because it doesn't need to wait for them all to complete. And, since the event sequencing at the master thread level is still loop-based, it is easy to write high-level master-thread operations, as they can be based on the assumption that an operation is complete when the corresponding function call returns. Finally, I thought it would be nice to use inter_thread mutex/semaphore thingies using RAII with boost locks to encapsulate the necessary synchronization that is required to make the whole thing work.

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Microcontroller to Microcontroller SPI communication

- by onaclov2000

Hello again, I was doing some reading and have even gotten a "master" SPI working on my microcontroller. Here is my question, basically if the master wants to initialize a write to the slave we write to the SSPBUF, how do we control what the slave responds with? The datasheet doesn't seem really clear to me the order of events in that case. I.E. Master puts a char into the SSPBUF, this initiates the SPI module to send data to the slave, during the shift, the slave returns a byte. In the slave side, is there something that tells you you have incoming data, and you can write to your SSPBUF first, THEN accept the data? OR Do you have to write to the SSPBUF the first "return value" you want sent back before the master can have an opportunity to initiate a transfer?

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Binary Search Help

- by aloh

Hi, for a project I need to implement a binary search. This binary search allows duplicates. I have to get all the index values that match my target. I've thought about doing it this way if a duplicate is found to be in the middle: Target = G Say there is this following sorted array: B, D, E, F, G, G, G, G, G, G, Q, R S, S, Z I get the mid which is 7. Since there are target matches on both sides, and I need all the target matches, I thought a good way to get all would be to check mid + 1 if it is the same value. If it is, keep moving mid to the right until it isn't. So, it would turn out like this: B, D, E, F, G, G, G, G, G, G (MID), Q, R S, S, Z Then I would count from 0 to mid to count up the target matches and store their indexes into an array and return it. That was how I was thinking of doing it if the mid was a match and the duplicate happened to be in the mid the first time and on both sides of the array. Now, what if it isn't a match the first time? For example: B, D, E, F, G, G, J, K, L, O, Q, R, S, S, Z Then as normal, it would grab the mid, then call binary search from first to mid-1. B, D, E, F, G, G, J Since G is greater than F, call binary search from mid+1 to last. G, G, J. The mid is a match. Since it is a match, search from mid+1 to last through a for loop and count up the number of matches and store the match indexes into an array and return. Is this a good way for the binary search to grab all duplicates? Please let me know if you see problems in my algorithm and hints/suggestions if any. The only problem I see is that if all the matches were my target, I would basically be searching the whole array but then again, if that were the case I still would need to get all the duplicates. Thank you BTW, my instructor said we cannot use Vectors, Hash or anything else. He wants us to stay on the array level and get used to using them and manipulating them.

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How to search phrase queries in inverted index structure?

- by Mehdi Amrollahi

If we want to search a query like this "t1 t2 t3" (t1,t2 ,t3 must be queued) in an inverted index structure , which ways could we do ? 1-First we search the "t1" term and find all documents that contains "t1" , then do this work for "t2" and then "t3" . Then find documents that positions of "t1" , "t2" and "t3" are next to each other . 2-First we search the "t1" term and find all documents that contains "t1" , then in all documents that we found , we search the "t2" and next , in the result of this , we find documents that contains "t3" . thanks .

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[change] Vlookup onto another workbook

- by Arcadian

Hello, here is my dilemma. I have two worksheets one that has the name of clients and one that i want to copy the names to depending on the city. For instance: associated to each column is last name, first name and city. i have hundreds of names associated to different cities and what i would like is from worksheet1.xls to copy all the New York clients to worksheet2.xls either when i open worksheet2 or via macro what ever is easier and because last name is in one cell and the first name is in the other i would have to copy both. I saw that its possible to link cells from one worksheet to another and then do a vlookup depending on the criteria. Is that the best easiest way or is there another? thanks in advance and cheers oleg

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In My MVC Controller, Can I Add a Value to My HTML.DropDownList?

- by Aaron Salazar

In my view I have an HTML DropDownList that is filled, in my controller, using a List<string>. <%= Html.DropDownList("ReportedIssue", (IEnumerable<SelectListItem>)ViewData["ReportedIssue"]) %> List<string> reportedIssue = new List<string>(); reportedIssue.Add("All"); reportedIssue.Add(...); ViewData["ReportedIssue"] = new SelectList(reportedIssue); In my view the result is: <select name="ReportedIssue" id="ReportedIssue"><option>All</option> <option>All</option> <option>...</option> </select> Is there a way to do this and also include a value in each of the <option> tags like so? <select name="ReportedIssue" id="ReportedIssue"><option>All</option> <option value="0">All</option> <option value="1">...</option> </select> Thank you, Aaron

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CGContext problems

- by Peyman

Hi I have a CALayer tree hierarchy A B C D where A is the view's root layer (and I create and add B,C and D layers. I am using the same delegate method `- (void) drawLayer:(CALayer *) theLayer inContext:(CGContextRef)context to provide content to each of these layers (implemented through a switch statement in the above method). At initiation A's content is drawn (A.contents) sequentially through these methods `- (void) drawLayer:(CALayer *) theLayer inContext:(CGContextRef)context -(void) drawCircle:(CALayer *) theLayer inContext:(CGContextRef)context where drawCircle does CGContextSaveGState(context); / draws circle and other paths here / CGContextRestoreGState(context); CGImageRef contentImage = CGBitmapContextCreateImage(context); theLayer.contents = (id) contentImage; CGImageRelease(contentImage); (i.e I save the Context, do the drawing, restore the context, make a bitmap of the context, update the layer's contents, in this case A's, then release the contentimage). When the user then clicks somewhere in the circle at touchesEnded:(NSSet*)touches withEvent:(UIEvent*)event delegate method I then try to paint the content of B by (still in touchesEnded:) CGContextRef context = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); [self drawLayer:self.B inContext:context]; [self.B setNeedsDisplay]; the setNeedsDisplay call the delegate - drawLayer:(CALayer *) theLayer inContext:(CGContextRef)context again but this time the switch statement (using a layer flag) calls [self drawCircle:theLayer inContext:context]; with color red. The problem I am facing is that when -drawCircle: inContext: is called I get a long list of CGContext errors, starting with <Error>: CGContextSaveGState: invalid context and ending with CGBitmapContextCreateImage: invalid context I played around with making context the view's ivar and it worked so i am sure the context is the problem but I don't know what. I've tried CGContextFlush but it didn't help. Any help would be appreciated thank you

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In Flex 3 is there a way to pre-buffer an image so that it appears without flickering?

- by Brad Urani

In my application I have an VBox control on top of another VBox that contains an Image control that loads a jpg from a URL (you can't see the bottom panel initially since it's underneath, but the image does fully download). When one clicks on the top VBox, the bottom one gets set to visible=false, then an effect causes the top VBox to vanish, then the bottom VBox is set to visible=true and an effect causes it to appear. Continuously clicking the VBoxes causes them to alternate appearing and disappearing. The problem is that the first time the bottom VBox appears, it flickers once when it draws. After that, there's no problem and it smoothly appears and disappears with the effect with no problem. It's as if the first time the bottom VBox appears, it flickers because even though the image has been downloaded, it has never been displayed before. Can I pre-buffer the image in the bottom VBox somehow to avoid this flicker?

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why can't I comment lines in visual mode

- by Haiyuan Zhang

I want to comment several lines in my .vimrc, the usual way I do it is :x,ys/^/"/ and x stands for the start line number and y stands for the line number of the last line. I read some post which said in visual mode this task can be done by the following step: 1 Select your lines with VISUAL BLOCK 2 press I to insert before all highlighted lines. 3 type your comment charact , in this case should be " 4 then ESC I fllowed the above steps and met met problems in step 2 . the thing is when I select the lines in Visual mode and press I , vim ( I use version7.2) go back to insert mode and the cursor back to the start of the first line. so if you continue to do the step 3 and step 4, you end up in just inserting " at the start the first line , far from what I want to achieve. so could you point out what's wrong with the recipe ? thanks in advance

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TDD and UML together

- by uther-lightbringer

Hello, I'm new to TDD approach so I'm wondering if anyone experienced wit this could enlighten me a little. I would like to get some leads how to use UML and TDD methodology together. I've been used to: Design with UML -- Generate skeleton classes (and then keep it synchronized) - Implement and finally Test. I must admit that testing part was the worst one, so I started to look for something else - TDD. So I have some general knowledge what is it about but before I proceed further, I am interested knowing how it goes together with software design especially UML. So when I first design/create test, how can UML fit in? Would it be possible to design classes first, from them create skeleton classes, from them generate Unit tests which would be "filled" before actual implementation of UML pregenerated classes, would this approach break whole TDD? Or is there any other way that would keep UML and TDD together? Thanks everyone for answer.

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NSNumber floatValue not equal to NSNumber value

- by Mirkules

Hi Everyone, First post here. Having a problem with NSNumber's floatValue method -- somehow, it returns an imprecise number. Here's the problem: I store a bunch of NSNumbers in an array, like this: NSArray *a = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: [NSNumber numberWithFloat:0.04f], [NSNumber numberWithFloat:0.028f], [NSNumber numberWithFloat:0.016f], [NSNumber numberWithFloat:0.004f], nil]; Then I try to retrieve the first value (for example): NSNumber n = (NSNumber) [a objectAtIndex:0]; CGFloat f = [n floatValue]; In the debugger, n shows a value of 0.04 (in the summary column), but f shows a value of 0.0399999991. What am I doing wrong here? Thanks everyone.

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Sorting a nodeset before passing to xsl:for-each

- by Zack Mulgrew

I have a situation where loop through a sorted nodeset and apply a template on each of the nodes: <div id="contractscontainer"> <xsl:for-each select="document"> <xsl:sort select="content[@name='ClientName']/text()" /> <xsl:apply-templates select="." mode="client-contract" /> </xsl:for-each> </div> I want to do something special with the "first" 5 nodes in the node set and render them nested element. The problem is that they need to be in the same order as if they were sorted (as they are in the loop). I had planned on doing this by using two xsl:for-each elements, each with the correct nodes selected from the set. I can't do this, however, because they need to be sorted before I can select the "first" 5. Example: <div id="contractscontainer"> <div class="first-five"> <xsl:for-each select="document[position() < 6]"> <xsl:sort select="content[@name='ClientName']/text()" /> <xsl:apply-templates select="." mode="client-contract" /> </xsl:for-each> </div> <div class="rest-of-them"> <xsl:for-each select="document[position() > 5]"> <xsl:sort select="content[@name='ClientName']/text()" /> <xsl:apply-templates select="." mode="client-contract" /> </xsl:for-each> </div> </div> I don't think this will work because I'm selecting the nodes by position before sorting them, but I can't use xsl:sort outside of the xsl:for-each. Am I approaching this incorrectly?

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using jQuery to load the body of another HTML document between entries

- by justin hall

I'm trying to use jQuery to load the body of another HTML document, which contains our AdSense banner. It should display under each blog entry when in list view. I'm able to get it to load text, even images, but not the banner; the banner is a small script. Here is the website we are working with: http://neverknowtech.com/data/ (that's a test page, and the 'entry' displayed there contains the intended body content) As you can see here the body code does include an ad, and the word 'Ad'. The word 'Ad' is shown correctly below the post (as it is in list view) but the script for the Google Ad doesn't seem to make it. Here is what we have in the footer currently (replace [ with < and ] with ): [script type="text/javascript"] var classSelector = ":nth-child(1n)"; if ($(".list-journal-entry-wrapper .journal-entry-wrapper").length ] 0) { $('.list-journal-entry-wrapper .journal-entry-wrapper' + classSelector).after('[div class="journal-list-ad-insert"][/div]'); $('.list-journal-entry-wrapper .journal-list-ad-insert').load("/data/journal-list-ad-insert.html .body"); } [/script] note: the nth-child is there for when they decide how frequently to place the ads.

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Python mechanize - two buttons of type 'submit'

- by directedition

I have a mechanize script written in python that fills out a web form and is supposed to click on the 'create' button. But there's a problem, the form has two buttons. One for 'add attached file' and one for 'create'. Both are of type 'submit', and the attach button is the first one listed. So when I select the forum and do br.submit(), it clicks on the 'attach' button instead of 'create'. Extensive Googling has yielded nothing useful for selecting a specific button in a form. Does anyone know of any methods for skipping over the first 'submit' button and clicking the second?

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Revert scan state when prompting for variable values

- by Dave Jarvis

How do you detect the current SCAN state and revert it after changing it? An exerpt from the script in question: SET SCAN OFF SET ECHO ON SET SQLBLANKLINES ON SET SCAN ON UPDATE TABLE_NAME SET CREATED_BY = &&created_by; SET SCAN OFF The problem is that if the script doesn't have the first line (SET SCAN OFF), then the code to prompt the user should not turn the SCAN state off. In pseudocode, we'd like to do the following: SET SCAN OFF SET ECHO ON SET SQLBLANKLINES ON PUSH SCAN STATE SET SCAN ON UPDATE TABLE_NAME SET CREATED_BY = &&created_by; POP SCAN STATE The psudeocode PUSH SCAN STATE remembers the state so that if the code is altered by removing the first line, the rest of the script still works as expected.

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Add inner-marging to a 4 columns CSS

- by Martín Marconcini

I am not a CSS expert (mainly because I haven’t had the need to use much HTML/CSS stuff lately), so I came up with the following style/divs to create a 4 column layout: <style type="text/css">  </style> note: most of this stuff comes from this google result, I just adapted it to 4 columns. The HTML then looks like this: <div class="columns col4"> <div class="column first”> SOME TEXT </div> <div class="column last”> SOME LAST TEXT </div> Ok, I’ve simplified that a bit (there’s a small image and some < h2 text in there too) but the thing is that I’d like to add some space between the columns. Here’s how it looks now: Do you have any idea what CSS property should I touch? note: If I add margin or padding, one column shifts down because (as I understand it) it doesn’t fit. There might be other CSSs as well, since this came in a template (I have been asked for this change, but I didn’t do any of this, as usual). Thanks for any insight.

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C# Spell checker Problem

- by reggie

I've incorporated spell check into my win forms C# project. This is my code. public void CheckSpelling() { try { // declare local variables to track error count // and information int SpellingErrors = 0; string ErrorCountMessage = string.Empty; // create an instance of a word application Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.Application WordApp = new Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.Application(); // hide the MS Word document during the spellcheck //WordApp.WindowState = WdWindowState.wdWindowStateMinimize; // check for zero length content in text area if (this.Text.Length > 0) { WordApp.Visible = false; // create an instance of a word document _Document WordDoc = WordApp.Documents.Add(ref emptyItem, ref emptyItem, ref emptyItem, ref oFalse); // load the content written into the word doc WordDoc.Words.First.InsertBefore(this.Text); // collect errors form new temporary document set to contain // the content of this control Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.ProofreadingErrors docErrors = WordDoc.SpellingErrors; SpellingErrors = docErrors.Count; // execute spell check; assumes no custom dictionaries WordDoc.CheckSpelling(ref oNothing, ref oIgnoreUpperCase, ref oAlwaysSuggest, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing); // format a string to contain a report of the errors detected ErrorCountMessage = "Spell check complete; errors detected: " + SpellingErrors; // return corrected text to control's text area object first = 0; object last = WordDoc.Characters.Count - 1; this.Text = WordDoc.Range(ref first, ref last).Text; } else { // if nothing was typed into the control, abort and inform user ErrorCountMessage = "Unable to spell check an empty text box."; } WordApp.Quit(ref oFalse, ref emptyItem, ref emptyItem); System.Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.ReleaseComObject(WordApp); // return report on errors corrected // - could either display from the control or change this to // - return a string which the caller could use as desired. // MessageBox.Show(ErrorCountMessage, "Finished Spelling Check"); } catch (Exception e) { MessageBox.Show(e.ToString()); } } The spell checker works well, the only problem is when I try to move the spell checker the main form blurs up for some reason. Also when I close the spell checker the main form is back to normal. It seems like it is opening up Microsoft word then hiding the window, only allowing the spell checker to be seen. Please help.

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Dereferencing pointers without pointing them at a variable

- by Miguel

I'm having trouble understanding how some pointers work. I always thought that when you created a pointer variable (p), you couldn't deference and assign (*p = value) unless you either malloc'd space for it (p = malloc(x)), or set it to the address of another variable (p = &a) However in this code, the first assignment works consistently, while the last one causes a segfault: typedef struct { int value; } test_struct; int main(void) { //This works int* colin; *colin = 5; //This never works test_struct* carter; carter->value = 5; } Why does the first one work when colin isn't pointing at any spare memory? And why does the 2nd never work? I'm writing this in C, but people with C++ knowledge should be able to answer this as well.

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is cURL part of the original PHP installation?

- by Brook Julias

When I first installed PHP did it include the libraries for cURL?

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MVC2 Client Validation isn't working when getting form from ajax call

- by devlife

I'm trying to use MVC2 client-side validation in a partial view that is rendered via $.get. However, the client validation isn't working. I'm not quite sure what the deal is. [Required(ErrorMessage = "Email is required")] public string Email { get; set; } <% using ( Ajax.BeginForm( new AjaxOptions { Confirm = "You sure?" } ) ) { %> <%: Html.TextBoxFor( m => m.Email, new { @class = "TextBox150" } )%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor( m => m.Email )%> <input type="submit" value="Add/Save" style="float: right;" /> <% } %> I'm not doing anything special to render the the partial view. Just putting the html into a div and showing it in a modal popup. On a side note, does anyone know if it's possible to submit the form with client validation without a submit button?

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Running Visual Studio 2008 and 2010 at the same time

- by aip.cd.aish

A group of us are working on a project which we built with .NET 3.5 in Visual Studio 2008. I want to test out Visual Studio 2010 and .NET 4 (well, mainly for WPF 4). I am just wondering if I install VS 2010, will I still be able to use VS 2008 to open the first project. I know when I open older projects made in VS 2003/2005, I get an upgrade wizard. I do not want to upgrade the first project to 2010, since that would probably mean every one else has to use it too. I have not done this before, is it possible to run both versions of Visual Studio, where each version opens its own projects (this may not even be an issue, but I just wanted someone to confirm this, so that I don't spend a lot of time trying to undo changes)?

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Custom iterator for a class based on two sets

- by Dan Hook

I have a class that contains two sets. They both contain the same key type but have different compare operations. I would like to provide an iterator for the class that iterates through the elements of both sets. I want to start with one set, then when I increment an iterator pointing to the last element of the first set, I want to go to the first element of the second set. How do I do this? I would like to preserve the bidirectional iterator semantics of std::set, but if it turns out that implementing a forward iterator is much easier, so be it. I'm willing to use the Boost Iterator library if that would help.

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