Search Results

Search found 62759 results on 2511 pages for 'view first'.

Page 619/2511 | < Previous Page | 615 616 617 618 619 620 621 622 623 624 625 626  | Next Page >

  • Sorting a nodeset before passing to xsl:for-each

    - by Zack Mulgrew
    I have a situation where loop through a sorted nodeset and apply a template on each of the nodes: <div id="contractscontainer"> <xsl:for-each select="document"> <xsl:sort select="content[@name='ClientName']/text()" /> <xsl:apply-templates select="." mode="client-contract" /> </xsl:for-each> </div> I want to do something special with the "first" 5 nodes in the node set and render them nested element. The problem is that they need to be in the same order as if they were sorted (as they are in the loop). I had planned on doing this by using two xsl:for-each elements, each with the correct nodes selected from the set. I can't do this, however, because they need to be sorted before I can select the "first" 5. Example: <div id="contractscontainer"> <div class="first-five"> <xsl:for-each select="document[position() < 6]"> <xsl:sort select="content[@name='ClientName']/text()" /> <xsl:apply-templates select="." mode="client-contract" /> </xsl:for-each> </div> <div class="rest-of-them"> <xsl:for-each select="document[position() > 5]"> <xsl:sort select="content[@name='ClientName']/text()" /> <xsl:apply-templates select="." mode="client-contract" /> </xsl:for-each> </div> </div> I don't think this will work because I'm selecting the nodes by position before sorting them, but I can't use xsl:sort outside of the xsl:for-each. Am I approaching this incorrectly?

    Read the article

  • Problems using wxWidgets (wxMSW) within multiple DLL instances

    Preface I'm developing VST-plugins which are DLL-based software modules and loaded by VST-supporting host applications. To open a VST-plugin the host applications loads the VST-DLL and calls an appropriate function of the plugin while providing a native window handle, which the plugin can use to draw it's GUI. I managed to port my original VSTGUI code to the wxWidgets-Framework and now all my plugins run under wxMSW and wxMac but I still have problems under wxMSW to find a correct way to open and close the plugins and I am not sure if this is a wxMSW-only issue. Problem If I use any VST-host application I can open and close multiple instances of one of my VST-plugins without any problems. As soon as I open another of my VST-plugins besides my first VST-plugin and then close all instances of my first VST-plugin the application crashes after a short amount of time within the wxEventHandlerr::ProcessEvent function telling me that the wxTheApp object isn't valid any longer during execution of wxTheApp-FilterEvent (see below). So it seems to be that the wxTheApp objects was deleted after closing all instances of the first plugin and is no longer available for the second plugin. bool wxEvtHandler::ProcessEvent(wxEvent& event) { // allow the application to hook into event processing if ( wxTheApp ) { int rc = wxTheApp->FilterEvent(event); if ( rc != -1 ) { wxASSERT_MSG( rc == 1 || rc == 0, _T("unexpected wxApp::FilterEvent return value") ); return rc != 0; } //else: proceed normally } .... } Preconditions 1.) All my VST-plugins a dynamically linked against the C-Runtime and wxWidgets libraries. With regard to the wxWidgets forum this seemed to be the best way to run multiple instances of the software side by side. 2.) The DllMain of each VST-Plugin is defined as follows: // WXW #include "wx/app.h" #include "wx/defs.h" #include "wx/gdicmn.h" #include "wx/image.h" #ifdef __WXMSW__ #include <windows.h> #include "wx/msw/winundef.h" BOOL APIENTRY DllMain ( HANDLE hModule, DWORD ul_reason_for_call, LPVOID lpReserved ) { switch (ul_reason_for_call) { case DLL_PROCESS_ATTACH: { wxInitialize(); ::wxInitAllImageHandlers(); break; } case DLL_THREAD_ATTACH: break; case DLL_THREAD_DETACH: break; case DLL_PROCESS_DETACH: wxUninitialize(); break; } return TRUE; } #endif // __WXMSW__ class Application : public wxApp {}; IMPLEMENT_APP_NO_MAIN(Application) Question How can I prevent this behavior respectively how can I properly handle the wxTheApp object if I have multiple instances of different VST-plugins (DLL-modules), which are dynamically linked against the C-Runtime and wxWidgets libraries? Best reagards, Steffen

    Read the article

  • How switch UIViewController by flip from 3 controllers ?

    - by Sergey
    Hello, all. I've got next problem: i've got 3 UIViewController and need to switch controllers by UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal. Next code working fine: testController.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController:testController animated:YES]; where testController - next controller to switch, self - current controller. And when i've set 3rd controller - it's working fine, but i have problem with back to first controller - when i back to first controller - i can't go to second controller. 1 - 2 - 3 - 1 - it's working fine, but - 2 - don't show. what's mistake ?

    Read the article

  • Got a table of people, who I want to link to each other, many-to-many, with the links being bidirect

    - by dflock
    Imagine you live in very simplified example land - and imagine that you've got a table of people in your MySQL database: create table person ( person_id int, name text ) select * from person; +-------------------------------+ | person_id | name | +-------------------------------+ | 1 | Alice | | 2 | Bob | | 3 | Carol | +-------------------------------+ and these people need to collaborate/work together, so you've got a link table which links one person record to another: create table person__person ( person__person_id int, person_id int, other_person_id int ) This setup means that links between people are uni-directional - i.e. Alice can link to Bob, without Bob linking to Alice and, even worse, Alice can link to Bob and Bob can link to Alice at the same time, in two separate link records. As these links represent working relationships, in the real world they're all two-way mutual relationships. The following are all possible in this setup: select * from person__person; +---------------------+-----------+--------------------+ | person__person_id | person_id | other_person_id | +---------------------+-----------+--------------------+ | 1 | 1 | 2 | | 2 | 2 | 1 | | 3 | 2 | 2 | | 4 | 3 | 1 | +---------------------+-----------+--------------------+ For example, with person__person_id = 4 above, when you view Carol's (person_id = 3) profile, you should see a relationship with Alice (person_id = 1) and when you view Alice's profile, you should see a relationship with Carol, even though the link goes the other way. I realize that I can do union and distinct queries and whatnot to present the relationships as mutual in the UI, but is there a better way? I've got a feeling that there is a better way, one where this issue would neatly melt away by setting up the database properly, but I can't see it. Anyone got a better idea?

    Read the article

  • Get forum page by PostID

    - by cem
    I can't figure out how it's working. Like this. How is this get page number -and records- by post id? I think the first option is; declare an index / int variable in post table and increase-decrease it when adding and deleting post. but whats happen when i delete first row and if table has one million records? Do you have any idea about this? by the way, i'm using nhibernate and sql server 2005. Thank you

    Read the article

  • ASP.MVC 2 RTM + ModelState Error at Id property

    - by Zote
    I have this classes: public class GroupMetadata { [HiddenInput(DisplayValue = false)] public int Id { get; set; } [Required] public string Name { get; set; } } [MetadataType(typeof(GrupoMetadata))] public partial class Group { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } } And this action: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(Group group) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { // Logic to save return RedirectToAction("Index"); } return View(group); } That's my view: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<Group>" %> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <fieldset> <%= Html.EditorForModel() %> <p> <input type="submit" value="Save" /> </p> </fieldset> <% } %> <div> <%=Html.ActionLink("Back", "Index") %> </div> </asp:Content> But ModelState is always invalid! As I can see, for MVC validation 0 is invalid, but for me is valid. How can I fix it since, I didn't put any kind of validation in Id property? UPDATE: I don't know how or why, but renaming Id, in my case to PK, solves this problem. Do you know if this an issue in my logic/configuration or is an bug or expected behavior? Thank you

    Read the article

  • Jquery Ajax Call In For Loop Only Runs Once - Possible Issue with Timing & Exit Condition?

    - by Grumps
    Background I'm building a form that uses autocomplete against the EchoNest API. First the users picks an artist, using the Artist Suggest call. Next they select a song but the Song and/Or Artist song search doesn't provide a "wild card" search. It only returns exact matches. So based on the forums they suggest building an array of the songs and using auto complete on the array. I can only get a maximum of 100 responses at a time. I do know based on the initial response the number of songs. My Plan: Wrap the ajax call in a for loop ('runonceloop'). Amend the loop exit condition after the first response with the total number of songs. Challenge I'm having: The 'runonceloop' only completes a singe loop because or at least that's what I believe: The exit condition is satisfied before the first response [1] is received. I've tried to adjust the 'exit condition' and 'counter' such that they are set and and increased at the end of the success block. This seems to lock up my browser. Can someone provide some guidance on this situation?[2] I'd really appreciate it. I also don't think turning async off is a good idea because it locks the browser. Response[1]: { "response": { "status": { "code": "0", "message": "Success", "version": "4.2" }, "start": 0, "total": 121, //Used for "songs": [ { "id": "SOXZYYG127F3E1B7A2", "title": "Karma police" }, { "id": "SOXZABD127F3E1B7A2", "title" : "Creep" } ] } } } Code[2] var songsList = []; function getSongs() { var numsongs = 2; //at least 2 runs. var startindex = 0; runonceloop: //<~~~~Referenced in question for (var j = 0;j >= numsongs;) { console.log('numsongs' + numsongs); $.ajax({ url: "http://developer.echonest.com/api/v4/artist/songs", dataType: "jsonp", data: { results: 100, api_key: "XXXXXXXXXXX", format: "jsonp", name: $("#artist").val(), start: startindex }, success: function (data) { var songs = data.response.songs; numsongs = data.response.total; //modify exit condition for (var i = 0; i < songs.length; i++) { songsList.push(songs[i].title); } j +=100;// increase by 100 to match number of responses. } }); }};

    Read the article

  • Trouble using latex in Matplotlib / Scipy etc.

    - by ajhall
    I'm having some issues with my first attempts at using matplotlib and scipy to make some scatter plots of my data (too many variables, trying to see many things at once). Here's some code of mine that is working fairly well... import numpy from scipy import * import pylab from matplotlib import * import h5py FileID = h5py.File('3DiPVDplot1.mat','r') # (to view the contents of: list(FileID) ) group = FileID['/'] CurrentsArray = group['Currents'].value IvIIIarray = group['IvIII'].value PFarray = group['PF'].value growthTarray = group['growthT'].value fig = pylab.figure() ax = fig.add_subplot(111) cax = ax.scatter(IvIIIarray, growthTarray, PFarray, CurrentsArray, alpha=0.75) cbar = fig.colorbar(cax) ax.set_xlabel('Cu / III') ax.set_ylabel('Growth T') ax.grid(True) pylab.show() I tried to change the code to include latex fonts and interpreting, none of it seems to work for me, however. Here's an example attempt that didn't work: import numpy from scipy import * import pylab from matplotlib import * import h5py rc('text', usetex=True) rc('font', family='serif') FileID = h5py.File('3DiPVDplot1.mat','r') # (to view the contents of: list(FileID) ) group = FileID['/'] CurrentsArray = group['Currents'].value IvIIIarray = group['IvIII'].value PFarray = group['PF'].value growthTarray = group['growthT'].value fig = pylab.figure() ax = fig.add_subplot(111) cax = ax.scatter(IvIIIarray, growthTarray, PFarray, CurrentsArray, alpha=0.75) cbar = fig.colorbar(cax) ax.set_xlabel(r'Cu / III') ax.set_ylabel(r'Growth T') ax.grid(True) pylab.show() I'm using fink installed python26 with corresponding packages for scipy matplotlib etc. I've been using iPython and manual work instead of scripts in python. Since I'm completely new to python and scipy, I'm sure I'm making some stupid simple mistakes. Please enlighten me! I greatly appreciate the help!

    Read the article

  • iPad: Cannot load facebook page wall in UIWebview

    - by geekay
    Its already too long i am struggling with this issue. After searching a lot I decided to post a question here. What my app does Captures photo Uploads the photo on the wall of the page Displays the facebook page wall in a UIWebview after upload is complete Everything was working as expected 4 days back :) Suddenly something went wrong :( Code NSString *facebookPageURL =@"https://m.facebook.com/pages/<myPageName>/<myPageID>?v=wall" UIWebView *webView = [[UIWebView alloc] initWithFrame:kAppFrame]; [webView setUserInteractionEnabled:NO]; [webView setBackgroundColor:[UIColor clearColor]]; webView.delegate = self; [webView setHidden: YES]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:[facebookPageURL stringByAddingPercentEscapesUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding] relativeToURL:[NSURL URLWithString:@"http://login.facebook.com"]]; NSMutableURLRequest *request = nil; if(url) request = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; [webView loadRequest:request]; [self.view addSubview:webView]; [webView reload]; [self.view bringSubviewToFront:webView]; webView = nil; Scenario If I open the url facebookPageURL in Safari in iOS Simulator it works well If I open the url in any browser on Mac it works well In webView I see a white screen If I change the facebookPageURL to remove ?v=wall to ?v=info I am stil able to see the page.(not blank screen atleast). Note 1. My facebook Page is NOT unpublished and is visible. 2. I have cross checked the facebook page permissions. I suspect there is something changed on facebook side overnight. Please guide.

    Read the article

  • In My MVC Controller, Can I Add a Value to My HTML.DropDownList?

    - by Aaron Salazar
    In my view I have an HTML DropDownList that is filled, in my controller, using a List<string>. <%= Html.DropDownList("ReportedIssue", (IEnumerable<SelectListItem>)ViewData["ReportedIssue"]) %> List<string> reportedIssue = new List<string>(); reportedIssue.Add("All"); reportedIssue.Add(...); ViewData["ReportedIssue"] = new SelectList(reportedIssue); In my view the result is: <select name="ReportedIssue" id="ReportedIssue"><option>All</option> <option>All</option> <option>...</option> </select> Is there a way to do this and also include a value in each of the <option> tags like so? <select name="ReportedIssue" id="ReportedIssue"><option>All</option> <option value="0">All</option> <option value="1">...</option> </select> Thank you, Aaron

    Read the article

  • Multiple join query in eSql

    - by Syma
    Hi guys, This is my first question in stackoverflow but really not the first time to get solution here. I am struggling with multiple join in entity framework 4. I have three tables (Accounts, Users and AccountUsers) that am finding difficult to query. What I want is to get all the users for the provided accountId including the account creator. I can get all the account users with no problem but the hard side for me is getting the account creator since it's not added to AccountUsers table. below is a quick preview how the tables are related. Accounts AccountId UserId (account creator) ...other columns Users UserId ...other columns AccountUsers AccountId UserId I would prefer the query to be esql, but Linq to Entities will do. I trust you guys on stackoverflow, so I know this won't take long to get the 'Answer' mark. Thanks for even reading.

    Read the article

  • writing 'remove' function in prolog

    - by Adrian
    I am desperately trying to create a remove function, that will simply remove all items that equal to X from a list. After many changes, this is my code so far: remove([], X, L1). /* when the source list is empty, stop*/ remove([X|T], X, L1) :- remove(T, X, L1). /* when first element in the list equals X, don't append it to L1 */ remove([H|T], X, L1) :- remove(T, X, [H|L1]). /*when first element in the list doesn't equal X, append it to L1 */ when running on remove([1,2,3,4,5], 3, R). it returns two trues and nothing else. Anyone has any idea what I'm doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Architectural conundrum

    - by Dejan
    The worst thing when working on a one man project is the lack of input that you usually get from your coworkers. And because of the lack of that you tend to make obvious mistakes. After going down that road for some time I would need some help from the community. I started a little home-brew project that should turn into a portal of some sorts. And the main thing that is bothering me is the persistence layer that i have concocted. It should be completely separated from the presentation layer for starters and a OR mapper is also somewhere. This is because I have multiple data stores that have to be used. So the base idea was that the individual "repositories" operate each on their individual database and that the business layer then aggregates the business objects which are then transformed in the presentation layer into view objects. The main problem I face is the following: Multiple classes for the same concept - There is a DAL representation of a user and BL representation of user and a view representation of a user. I can handle the transformation with a tool but is this really the right way. I mean they are all nicely separated, but the overhead is quite something. What do you think? Am I going too deep into the separation of concern rabbit hole or is this still normal?

    Read the article

  • Modelling boost::Lockable with semaphore rather than mutex (previously titled: Unlocking a mutex fr

    - by dan
    I'm using the C++ boost::thread library, which in my case means I'm using pthreads. Officially, a mutex must be unlocked from the same thread which locks it, and I want the effect of being able to lock in one thread and then unlock in another. There are many ways to accomplish this. One possibility would be to write a new mutex class which allows this behavior. For example: class inter_thread_mutex{ bool locked; boost::mutex mx; boost::condition_variable cv; public: void lock(){ boost::unique_lock<boost::mutex> lck(mx); while(locked) cv.wait(lck); locked=true; } void unlock(){ { boost::lock_guard<boost::mutex> lck(mx); if(!locked) error(); locked=false; } cv.notify_one(); } // bool try_lock(); void error(); etc. } I should point out that the above code doesn't guarantee FIFO access, since if one thread calls lock() while another calls unlock(), this first thread may acquire the lock ahead of other threads which are waiting. (Come to think of it, the boost::thread documentation doesn't appear to make any explicit scheduling guarantees for either mutexes or condition variables). But let's just ignore that (and any other bugs) for now. My question is, if I decide to go this route, would I be able to use such a mutex as a model for the boost Lockable concept. For example, would anything go wrong if I use a boost::unique_lock< inter_thread_mutex for RAII-style access, and then pass this lock to boost::condition_variable_any.wait(), etc. On one hand I don't see why not. On the other hand, "I don't see why not" is usually a very bad way of determining whether something will work. The reason I ask is that if it turns out that I have to write wrapper classes for RAII locks and condition variables and whatever else, then I'd rather just find some other way to achieve the same effect. EDIT: The kind of behavior I want is basically as follows. I have an object, and it needs to be locked whenever it is modified. I want to lock the object from one thread, and do some work on it. Then I want to keep the object locked while I tell another worker thread to complete the work. So the first thread can go on and do something else while the worker thread finishes up. When the worker thread gets done, it unlocks the mutex. And I want the transition to be seemless so nobody else can get the mutex lock in between when thread 1 starts the work and thread 2 completes it. Something like inter_thread_mutex seems like it would work, and it would also allow the program to interact with it as if it were an ordinary mutex. So it seems like a clean solution. If there's a better solution, I'd be happy to hear that also. EDIT AGAIN: The reason I need locks to begin with is that there are multiple master threads, and the locks are there to prevent them from accessing shared objects concurrently in invalid ways. So the code already uses loop-level lock-free sequencing of operations at the master thread level. Also, in the original implementation, there were no worker threads, and the mutexes were ordinary kosher mutexes. The inter_thread_thingy came up as an optimization, primarily to improve response time. In many cases, it was sufficient to guarantee that the "first part" of operation A, occurs before the "first part" of operation B. As a dumb example, say I punch object 1 and give it a black eye. Then I tell object 1 to change it's internal structure to reflect all the tissue damage. I don't want to wait around for the tissue damage before I move on to punch object 2. However, I do want the tissue damage to occur as part of the same operation; for example, in the interim, I don't want any other thread to reconfigure the object in such a way that would make tissue damage an invalid operation. (yes, this example is imperfect in many ways, and no I'm not working on a game) So we made the change to a model where ownership of an object can be passed to a worker thread to complete an operation, and it actually works quite nicely; each master thread is able to get a lot more operations done because it doesn't need to wait for them all to complete. And, since the event sequencing at the master thread level is still loop-based, it is easy to write high-level master-thread operations, as they can be based on the assumption that an operation is complete when the corresponding function call returns. Finally, I thought it would be nice to use inter_thread mutex/semaphore thingies using RAII with boost locks to encapsulate the necessary synchronization that is required to make the whole thing work.

    Read the article

  • C# Spell checker Problem

    - by reggie
    I've incorporated spell check into my win forms C# project. This is my code. public void CheckSpelling() { try { // declare local variables to track error count // and information int SpellingErrors = 0; string ErrorCountMessage = string.Empty; // create an instance of a word application Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.Application WordApp = new Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.Application(); // hide the MS Word document during the spellcheck //WordApp.WindowState = WdWindowState.wdWindowStateMinimize; // check for zero length content in text area if (this.Text.Length > 0) { WordApp.Visible = false; // create an instance of a word document _Document WordDoc = WordApp.Documents.Add(ref emptyItem, ref emptyItem, ref emptyItem, ref oFalse); // load the content written into the word doc WordDoc.Words.First.InsertBefore(this.Text); // collect errors form new temporary document set to contain // the content of this control Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.ProofreadingErrors docErrors = WordDoc.SpellingErrors; SpellingErrors = docErrors.Count; // execute spell check; assumes no custom dictionaries WordDoc.CheckSpelling(ref oNothing, ref oIgnoreUpperCase, ref oAlwaysSuggest, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing); // format a string to contain a report of the errors detected ErrorCountMessage = "Spell check complete; errors detected: " + SpellingErrors; // return corrected text to control's text area object first = 0; object last = WordDoc.Characters.Count - 1; this.Text = WordDoc.Range(ref first, ref last).Text; } else { // if nothing was typed into the control, abort and inform user ErrorCountMessage = "Unable to spell check an empty text box."; } WordApp.Quit(ref oFalse, ref emptyItem, ref emptyItem); System.Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.ReleaseComObject(WordApp); // return report on errors corrected // - could either display from the control or change this to // - return a string which the caller could use as desired. // MessageBox.Show(ErrorCountMessage, "Finished Spelling Check"); } catch (Exception e) { MessageBox.Show(e.ToString()); } } The spell checker works well, the only problem is when I try to move the spell checker the main form blurs up for some reason. Also when I close the spell checker the main form is back to normal. It seems like it is opening up Microsoft word then hiding the window, only allowing the spell checker to be seen. Please help.

    Read the article

  • How do I keep existing values from shifting to the right when entering keypresses into a jQuery Mask

    - by Andrew
    I have a text box I'm using as a timer display "hh:mm:ss" When I select the box and press a number, it inserts the number at the cursor location, but instead of replacing the value at that position, it shifts all existing values over. For example, the timer text box reads "01:00:35" and I replace the first minute position with 1, the timer text box will then read "01:10:03." Anybody know how to force the text box to replace, instead of insert, at the cursor position? I've tried intercepting onKeyPress, doing the replace manually, rewriting the entire timer text, and then returning false. But, that doesn't worked with a jQuery masked input, because my function runs first.

    Read the article

  • Jqeury Validate() special function

    - by kevin
    Hi there, i'm using the Jquery validate() plugin for some forms and it goes great. The only thing is that i have an input field that requires a special validation process. Here is how it goes: The Jquery validate plugin is called in the domready for all the required fields. Here is an exemple for an input: <li> <label for="nome">Nome completo*</label> <input name="nome" type="text" id="nome" class="required"/> </li> And here is how i call my special function: <li> <span id="sprytextfield1"> <label for="cpf">CPF* (xxxxxxxxxxx)</label> <input name="cpf" type="text" id="cpf" maxlength="15" class="required" /> <span class="textfieldInvalidFormatMsg">CPF Inv&aacute;lido.</span> </span> </li> And at the bottom of the file i call the Spry function: <script type="text/javascript"> <!-- var sprytextfield1 = new Spry.Widget.ValidationTextField("sprytextfield1","cpf"); //--> </script> Of course i call the Spry css and js files in the head section as well as my special-validate.js. When i just use the Jquery validate() plugin and click on the send button, the page goes automatically back to the first mistaken input field and shows the error type (not a number, not a valid email etc.). But with this new function, this "going-back-to-the-first-mistake" feature doesnt work, of course, because the validate() function sees it all good. I already added a rule for another form (about pictures upload) and it goes like this: $("#commentForm").validate({ rules: { foto34: { required: true, accept: "jpg|png|gif" } } }); Now my question is, how can i add the special validation function as a rule of the whole validation process ? Here is the page to understand it better: link text and the special field is the first one: CPF. Hope i was clear explaining my problem. Thanks in advance. kevin

    Read the article

  • Django LFS - custom views

    - by owca
    For all those ligthning fast shop users. I'm trying to implement my own first page view that will list all products from shop ( under '/' address). So I have a template : {% extends "lfs/shop/shop_base.html" %} {% block content %} <div id="najnowsze_produkty"> <ul> {% for obj in objects %} <li> {{ obj.name }} </li> {% endfor %} </ul> </div> {% endblock %} and then I've edited main shop view : from lfs.catalog.models import Category from lfs.catalog.models import Product def shop_view(request, template_name="lfs/shop/shop.html"): products = Product.objects.all() shop = lfs_get_object_or_404(Shop, pk=1) return render_to_response(template_name, RequestContext(request, { "shop" : shop, "products" : products })) but it just shows nothing. When I do Product.objects.all() query in shell I get results. Any ideas what could cause the problem ? Maybe I should filter products with 'active' status only ? But I'm not sure if it can influence all objects in any way.

    Read the article

  • Looping through JSON arrays

    - by George
    I'm trying to pull the field names in the header of some JSON output. The following is a sample of the JSON header info: {"HEADER":{"company":{"label":"Company Name"},"streetaddress":{"label":"Street Address"},"ceo":{"label":"CEO Name","fields":{"firstname":{"label":"First Name"},"lastname":{"label":"Last Name"}}} I'm able to loop through the header and output the field and label (i.e. company and Company Name) using the following code: obj = JSON.parse(jsonResponse); for (var key in obj.HEADER) { response.write ( obj.HEADER[key].label ); response.write ( key ); } but can't figure out how to loop through and output the sub array of fields (i.e. firstname and First Name). Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Java: JAX-WS passing authentication info to a call to webservice

    - by agnieszka
    I am using JAX-WS. I am connecting to .NET webservice that requires authentication. I first call the Authentication.asmx so that I can be authenticated. The call returns me a LoginResult that contains a cookie name. Then I call another webservice and I need to somehow pass this cookie or a cookie name. and I don't know how. Here is the code: //first service that returns login information Authentication auth = new Authentication(new URL("the_url"), new QName("http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/soap/", "Authentication")); LoginResult result = auth.getAuthenticationSoap().login(HTTPuserName, HTTPpassword); //i need to pass cookie or cookie name or any other login information to call to this service Copy copyService = new Copy(new URL("service_url"), new QName("http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/soap/", "Copy")); BindingProvider p = (BindingProvider) copyService.getCopySoap();

    Read the article

  • jsf flash.keep and redirects does not seem to work

    - by user384706
    Hi, I am trying to use JSF 2.0 flash via redirects. I have a class named UserBean (ManagedScoped and RequestScoped). It has a method called getValuesFromFlash which essentially gets the values from the flash and sets the coresponding properties of the UserBean public void getValuesFromFlash() { Flash flash = FacesContext.getCurrentInstance().getExternalContext().getFlash(); firstName= (String) flash.get("firstName"); lastName = (String) flash.get("lastName"); } In the entry page the <h:inputText> are bound to the flash. Snippet follows: Entry.xhtml <h:form> <table> <tr> <td>First Name:</td> <td> <h:inputText id="fname" value="#{flash.firstName}" required="true"/> <h:message for="fname" /> </td> </tr> <tr> <td>Last Name:</td> <td> <h:inputText id="lname" value="#{flash.lastName}" required="true"/> <h:message for="lname" /> </td> </tr> </table <p><h:commandButton value="Submit" action="confirmation?faces-redirect=true" /></p> </h:form> In confirmation.xhtml these values are supposed to be displayed but they are not. Snippet follows: <table> <tr> <td>First Name:</td> <td> <h:outputText value="#{flash.keep.firstName}" /> </td> </tr> <tr> <td>Last Name:</td> <td> <h:outputText value="#{flash.keep.lastName}"/> </td> </tr> </table> <h:form> <p><h:commandButton value="Confirm" action="finished?faces-redirect=true" /></p> </h:form> In finished.xhtml I want all these to be displayed so: <h:body> <h:form> #{userBean.getValuesFromFlash( )} <table> <tr> <td>First Name:</td> <td> <h:outputText value="#{userBean.firstName}" /> </td> </tr> <tr> <td>Last Name:</td> <td> <h:outputText value="#{userBean.lastName}"/> </td> </tr> </table> </h:form> </h:body> Instead when I get redirected to confirmation.xhtml neither first nor last name is displayed, despite I used flash.keep Also in finished.xhtml I get org.apache.el.parser.ParseException: Encountered " "(" "( "" at line 1, column 30. Was expecting one of: "}" ... "." If I remove the parenthesis from the expression #{userBean.getValuesFromFlash( )} and make it = #{userBean.getValuesFromFlash} javax.el.ELException: /done.xhtml: Property 'getValuesFromFlash' not found on type com.UserBean But why no property??It is a method! Why is the method not visible? What I am doing wrong here please? I am using JSF2.0 (MyFaces), Eclipse Helios and Tomcat 6 (Have also tried in Tomcat 7 but no luck). Any help is appreciated. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Python mechanize - two buttons of type 'submit'

    - by directedition
    I have a mechanize script written in python that fills out a web form and is supposed to click on the 'create' button. But there's a problem, the form has two buttons. One for 'add attached file' and one for 'create'. Both are of type 'submit', and the attach button is the first one listed. So when I select the forum and do br.submit(), it clicks on the 'attach' button instead of 'create'. Extensive Googling has yielded nothing useful for selecting a specific button in a form. Does anyone know of any methods for skipping over the first 'submit' button and clicking the second?

    Read the article

  • Select dynamic string has a different value when referenced in Where clause

    - by David
    I dynamically select a string built using another string. So, if string1='David Banner', then MyDynamicString should be 'DBanne' Select ... , Left( left((select top 1 strval from dbo.SPLIT(string1,' ')) //first word ,1) //first character + (select top 1 strval from dbo.SPLIT(string1,' ') //second word where strval not in (select top 1 strval from dbo.SPLIT(string1,' '))) ,6) //1st character of 1st word, followed by up to 5 characters of second word [MyDynamicString] ,... From table1 Join table2 on table1pkey=table2fkey Where MyDynamicString <> table2.someotherfield I know table2.someotherfield is not equal to the dynamic string. However, when I replace MyDynamicString in the Where clause with the full left(left(etc.. function, it works as expected. Can I not reference this string later in the query? Do I have to build it using the left(left(etc.. function each time in the where clause?

    Read the article

  • Verifying existence of name and password in NSUserDefaults to Skip a login/Screen

    - by Michael Robinson
    I have a Tabbar/Tableview App that modally loads a Login/Signup view when the app loads, I have set up a Root.plist in a settings bundle for the name and password and have successfully retrieved the items. I want to be able to do two things: 1) Do a test to see if the NSUserDefault Strings are empty and if so load the Login/Signup view. 2) If the strings are available then use the string contents to login to my Webservice. Thanks in advance. Here is my LoginViewController .m : @synthesize usernameField; @synthesize passwordField; @synthesize loginButton; @synthesize loginIndicator; @synthesize usernameLabel; @synthesize passwordLabel; -(void)refreshFields { NSUserDefaults *defaults = [NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults]; usernameLabel.text = [defaults objectForKey:kUsernameKey]; passwordLabel.text = [defaults objectForKey:kPasswordKey]; } - (void)viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { [self refreshFields]; [super viewDidAppear:animated]; } - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; [self refreshFields]; [self.navigationController setNavigationBarHidden:YES animated:NO]; } - (IBAction) login: (id) sender { { NSString *post =[NSString stringWithFormat:@"username=%@&password=%@",usernameField.text, passwordField.text]; NSString *hostStr = @"http:~iphone_login.php?"; hostStr = [hostStr stringByAppendingString:post]; NSData *dataURL = [NSData dataWithContentsOfURL: [ NSURL URLWithString: hostStr ]]; NSString *serverOutput = [[NSString alloc] initWithData:dataURL encoding: NSASCIIStringEncoding]; NSLog(@"Site: %@",hostStr); NSLog(@"Site: %@",serverOutput); if([serverOutput isEqualToString:@"Yes"]){ UIAlertView *alertsuccess = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Congrats" message:@"You are authorized " delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:@"OK" otherButtonTitles:nil, nil]; [alertsuccess show]; [alertsuccess release];

    Read the article

  • How to search phrase queries in inverted index structure?

    - by Mehdi Amrollahi
    If we want to search a query like this "t1 t2 t3" (t1,t2 ,t3 must be queued) in an inverted index structure , which ways could we do ? 1-First we search the "t1" term and find all documents that contains "t1" , then do this work for "t2" and then "t3" . Then find documents that positions of "t1" , "t2" and "t3" are next to each other . 2-First we search the "t1" term and find all documents that contains "t1" , then in all documents that we found , we search the "t2" and next , in the result of this , we find documents that contains "t3" . thanks .

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 615 616 617 618 619 620 621 622 623 624 625 626  | Next Page >