Search Results

Search found 62759 results on 2511 pages for 'view first'.

Page 618/2511 | < Previous Page | 614 615 616 617 618 619 620 621 622 623 624 625  | Next Page >

  • Two-way data binding of controls in a user control inside a FormView

    - by Sandor Drieënhuizen
    I'm trying to perform two-way data binding on the controls in my user control, which is hosted inside a FormView template. FormView: <asp:ObjectDataSource runat="server" ID="ObjectDataSource" TypeName="WebApplication1.Data" SelectMethod="GetItem" UpdateMethod="UpdateItem"> </asp:ObjectDataSource> <asp:FormView runat="server" ID="FormView"> <ItemTemplate> <uc:WebUserControl1 runat="server"></uc:WebUserControl1> </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <uc:WebUserControl1 runat="server"></uc:WebUserControl1> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> User control: <%@ Control Language="C#" ... %> <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="TitleTextBox" Text='<%# Bind("Title") %>'> </asp:TextBox> The binding works fine when the FormView is in View mode but when I switch to Edit mode, upon calling UpdateItem on the FormView, the bindings are lost. I know this because the FormView tries to call an update method on the ObjectDataSource that does not have an argument called 'Title'. I tried to solve this by implementing IBindableTemplate to load the controls that are inside my user control, directly into the templates (just like I had entered them declaratively like in the code above). However, when calling UpdateItem in edit mode, the container that gets passed into the ExtractValues method of the template, does not contain the TextBox anymore. It did in view mode! I have found some questions on SO that relate to this problem but they are rather dated and don't provide straight forward answers. How do you think I could solve this problem? It seems to be such a simple requirement but apparently it's more like opening a can of worms...

    Read the article

  • C#: Two forms, one is calling the other one

    - by Shaza
    Hey all, I have a problem like this, I have two Winforms, f1 and f2. f1 will start a loop on button click, this loop checks a condition and decide to call the other form which is f2 or not. The problem is, the loop may call f2 many times, so each time the other form f2 will be called the first form f1 should pause its execution. So, I solved it like this, I used backgroundWorker + AutoResetEvent. I placed the backgroundWorker in the first form and inside the DoWork event handler I called f2.Show() then I called WaitOne on the AutoResetEvent let it be A. In the other form "f2", on Exiting button I called Set on the same A. But, unfortunately f2 got freezed when clicking that button in f1, what should I change??

    Read the article

  • rapid application developement tools for very basic GUI apps

    - by Jurij
    I know there are many RAD platforms out there. Infact there are so many that I'm having a hard time finding out which one fits me best. What I want is a RAD tool that would allow me to define a database data model (make DB tables) and then create (view and edit) forms for the various tables. Data input, updating and various queries should be easy and GUI should generate automatically. I'd like to add some additional functionality by coding (such as various complex calculations on the data). I'm a programmer so I'm willing to learn to use a more complete, full-blown RAD solution if you can point me to it (NetBeans and RubyOnRails being the two such frameworks that I'd would probably be high on the list). I'm currently doing Windows Forms logistics apps in .NET. I've actually developed a very crude and basic version of what I need, but I just know that there are solutions out there that are much better and I'd benefit by knowing how to use them. So in short, the basic requirements: * database based data storage (SQLite if possible) * very automated GUI creation * desktop based (as in: not a web app) * extendable by coding * used for creating simple data entry, view & query apps. So basically something like Oracle Forms or DotNetMushroom Rapid Application Developer. But for .NET and SQLite if possible.

    Read the article

  • Ruby page loading very very slowly - how should I speed it up?

    - by Elliot
    Hey guys, I'm going to try and describe the code in my view, without actually posting all the garbage: It has a standard shell (header, footer etc. in the layout) this is also where the sub navigation exists which is based on a loop (to find the amount of options) - on this page, we have 6 subnav links. Then in the index view, we have a 3rd level nav - with 3 links that use javascript to link/hide divs on the page. This means each of those original 6 options, all have their own 3'rd level nav, with each of their own 3 div pages. These three pages/divs have the input form for creating a record in rails, and then the other 2 pages show the records in different assortments. ALL of this code lives on one page (aside from the shell). The original sub nav uses a javascript tab solution, to browse through all of it... (this means its about 6 divs, which all contain 4 divs of function - so about 24 heavy divs). Loading it seems to take forever, although after loaded its extremely fast (obviously). My big question, is how should I attack this? I don't know ajax - although I imagine it'd be a good solution for loading the tabs when clicked. Thanks! Elliot

    Read the article

  • Looping through JSON arrays

    - by George
    I'm trying to pull the field names in the header of some JSON output. The following is a sample of the JSON header info: {"HEADER":{"company":{"label":"Company Name"},"streetaddress":{"label":"Street Address"},"ceo":{"label":"CEO Name","fields":{"firstname":{"label":"First Name"},"lastname":{"label":"Last Name"}}} I'm able to loop through the header and output the field and label (i.e. company and Company Name) using the following code: obj = JSON.parse(jsonResponse); for (var key in obj.HEADER) { response.write ( obj.HEADER[key].label ); response.write ( key ); } but can't figure out how to loop through and output the sub array of fields (i.e. firstname and First Name). Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Source of UIView Implicit Animation delay?

    - by iPhoneToucher
    I have a block of UIView animation code that looks like this: [UIView beginAnimations:@"pushView" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDelay:0]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:.5]; [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; [UIView setAnimationWillStartSelector:@selector(animationWillStart)]; view.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 416); [UIView commitAnimations]; The code basically mimics the animation of a ModalView presentation and is tied to a button on my interface. When the button is pressed, I get a long (.5 sec) delay (on iPod Touch...twice as fast on iPhone 3GS) before the animationWillStart: actually gets called. My app has lots going on besides this, but I've timed various points of my code and the delay definitely occurs at this block. In other words, a timestamp immediately before this code block and a timestamp when animationWillStart: gets called shows a .5 sec difference. I'm not too experienced with Core Animation and I'm just trying to figure out what the cause of the delay is...Memory use is stable when the animation starts and CoreAnimation FPS seems to be fine in Instruments. The view that gets animated does have upwards of 20 total subviews, but if that were the issue wouldn't it cause choppiness after the animation starts, rather than before? Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Why can't I initialize a class through a setter?

    - by Rob emenaker
    If I have a custom class called Tires: #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @interface Tires : NSObject { @private NSString *brand; int size; } @property (nonatomic,copy) NSString *brand; @property int size; - (id)init; - (void)dealloc; @end ============================================= #import "Tires.h" @implementation Tires @synthesize brand, size; - (id)init { if (self = [super init]) { [self setBrand:[[NSString alloc] initWithString:@""]]; [self setSize:0]; } return self; } - (void)dealloc { [super dealloc]; [brand release]; } @end And I synthesize a setter and getter in my View Controller: #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> #import "Tires.h" @interface testViewController : UIViewController { Tires *frontLeft, *frontRight, *backleft, *backRight; } @property (nonatomic,copy) Tires *frontLeft, *frontRight, *backleft, *backRight; @end ==================================== #import "testViewController.h" @implementation testViewController @synthesize frontLeft, frontRight, backleft, backRight; - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; [self setFrontLeft:[[Tires alloc] init]]; } - (void)dealloc { [super dealloc]; } @end It dies after [self setFrontLeft:[[Tires alloc] init]] comes back. It compiles just fine and when I run the debugger it actually gets all the way through the init method on Tires, but once it comes back it just dies and the view never appears. However if I change the viewDidLoad method to: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; frontLeft = [[Tires alloc] init]; } It works just fine. I could just ditch the setter and access the frontLeft variable directly, but I was under the impression I should use setters and getters as much as possible and logically it seems like the setFrontLeft method should work. This brings up an additional question that my coworkers keep asking in these regards (we are all new to Objective-C); why use a setter and getter at all if you are in the same class as those setters and getters.

    Read the article

  • How to add a another value to a key in python

    - by Nanowatt
    First I'm sorry this might be a dumb question but I'm trying to self learn python and I can't find the answer to my question. I want to make a phonebook and I need to add an email to an already existing name. That name has already a phone number attached. I have this first code: phonebook = {} phonebook ['ana'] = '12345' phonebook ['maria']= '23456' , '[email protected]' def add_contact(): name = raw_input ("Please enter a name:") number = raw_input ("Please enter a number:") phonebook[name] = number Then I wanted to add an email to the name "ana" for example: ana: 12345, [email protected]. I created this code but instead of addend a new value (the email), it just changes the old one, removing the number: def add_email(): name = raw_input("Please enter a name:") email = raw_input("Please enter an email:") phonebook[name] = email I tried .append() too but it didn't work. Can you help me? And I'm sorry if the code is bad, I'm just trying to learn and I'm a bit noob yet :)

    Read the article

  • Is this a tableView issue or a CoreData Issue

    - by monotreme
    I have a CoreData-driven navigation app and I'm trying to figure out why It's crashing. I've got a hierarchy which is 3 view Controllers deep, all related by coredata relatioships, like this. TableViewA =relationship= TableViewB =relationship= TableViewC I'm honestly a novice at core data and I think my problem lies in the fetched results controller. I have one in TableViewA and another in TableViewB, and no matter how deep I go, the console always cites TableViewB's fetched results controller methods after a crash. Is this the problem? What's happening specifically is if I launch my app and drill down into the hierarchy of one record, let's call it Record1, I can delete sub records to my hearts content. Gone! no problem! But the second I go back to TableViewA and drill down into a different record, let's call that one Record2, and try to delete it's subrecords my app crashes, with the console citing this code from TableViewB as the problem. - (void)controllerWillChangeContent:(NSFetchedResultsController *)controller { // The fetch controller is about to start sending change notifications, so prepare the table view for updates. [self.tableView beginUpdates]; } When I go into the debugger, the specific method it always has a problem with is: if (![x.managedObjectContext save:&error]) { NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@", error, [error userInfo]); abort(); } Just a confirmation of my idiocy with CoreData is all I'm looking for I think. Oh and how many ManagedObjectContexts should I have in an app of this type. I've been told I should have separate ones for adding content, which then should re-integrate into the main one. Is this true? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Modifying UINavigation Bar Buttons in SubViews

    - by james
    I'm having trouble trying to modify the navigation bar in the subview portion of my application. self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = [[[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithBarButtonSystemItem:UIBarButtonSystemItemDone target:self action:@selector(add_Clicked:)] autorelease]; I have no issues modifying the navigation bar in any of my UIViewControllers classes. The simplified application class outline is as such: AppDelegate - UIViewControllerA (has a left and a right navigationBarButton) - Subview is displayed when a SegmentControl is selected. (Within the subview, I'm trying to modify the right NavigationBarButton that is displayed) [self.view addSubview:newControllerName.view]; Methods I have attempted: Trying to set self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem within my subview to a new UIBarButtonItem. Creating a pointer to UIViewControllerA within my AppDelegate. The UIViewControllerA contains a function setNavButton I wrote to set the rightBarButtonItem to a button. Then I am referencing the AppDelegate's reference to UIViewControllerA and attempting to call setNavButton. I included a NSLog call to see if that function is being called and it is executing but the NavigationBar isn't being modified. I'm trying to avoid having to push a UIViewController after the SegmentControl is clicked in UIViewControllerA so that I can simulate the SegmentControl as tabs. I'm not getting any errors during compile or run time. Anyone have any ideas?

    Read the article

  • writing 'remove' function in prolog

    - by Adrian
    I am desperately trying to create a remove function, that will simply remove all items that equal to X from a list. After many changes, this is my code so far: remove([], X, L1). /* when the source list is empty, stop*/ remove([X|T], X, L1) :- remove(T, X, L1). /* when first element in the list equals X, don't append it to L1 */ remove([H|T], X, L1) :- remove(T, X, [H|L1]). /*when first element in the list doesn't equal X, append it to L1 */ when running on remove([1,2,3,4,5], 3, R). it returns two trues and nothing else. Anyone has any idea what I'm doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Objective C Array and Object Release

    - by david
    Hi, I have a newbie question regarding when to release the elements of a NSArray. See following pseudo code: NSMutalbeArray *2DArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:10]; for (int i=0;i<10;i++) { NSMutableArray *array = [[MSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:5]; for (int j=0;j<5;j++) { MyObject *obj = [[MyObject alloc] init]; [array addObject:obj]; [obj release]; } [2DArray addObject:array]; [array release]; } // use 2DArray to do something [2DArray release] My question here is, when I release 2DArray, do I need to explicitly release each of its element (array) first? Also, before I release the "array" object, do I need to release each of its element (MyObject) first? I am new to Objective C. Please help. thanks.

    Read the article

  • loading data from file into 2d array

    - by Chris
    I am just starting with perl and would like some help with arrays please. I am reading lines from a data file and splitting the line into fields: open (INFILE, $infile); do { my $linedata = <INFILE>; my @data= split ',',$linedata; .... } until eof; I then want to store the individual field values (in @data) in and array so that the array looks like the input data file ie, the first "row" of the array contains the first line of data from INFILE etc. Each line of data from the infile contains 4 values, x,y,z and w and once the data are all in the array, I have to pass the array into another program which reads the x,y,z,w and displays the w value on a screen at the point determined by the x,y,z value. I can not pas the data to the other program on a row-by-row basis as the program expects the data to in a 2d matrtix format. Any help greatly appreciated. Chris

    Read the article

  • Detect car acceleration in Android app?

    - by Stud33
    I want to incorporate some Accelerometer code into a Android application im working and want to see if this is possible. Basically what I need is for the code to detect car acceleration motion. I am not wanting to determine speed with the code but just distinguish if the phone is in a car and has accelerated motion (Hence the car is moving for the first time). I have gone through many different accelerometer applications to see if this motion produces a viable profile to go off of and it appears it does. Just looking for something that popups a "Hello World" dialog when it detects your in the car and its moving for the first time down the street. Any help would be appreciated and a simple yes or no its possible would work. I would also be interested in compensating anyone that is capable of doing this as well. I need this done like yesterday so please let me know. Thank You, JTW

    Read the article

  • populating a list from another worksheet with 1 criteria

    - by Arcadian
    Hello, here is my dilemma. I have two worksheets one that has the name of clients and one that i want to copy the names to depending on the city. For instance: associated to each column is last name, first name and city. i have hundreds of names associated to different cities and what i would like is from worksheet1.xls to copy all the New York clients to worksheet2.xls either when i open worksheet2 or via macro what ever is easier and because last name is in one cell and the first name is in the other i would have to copy both. I saw that its possible to link cells from one worksheet to another and then do a vlookup depending on the criteria. Is that the best easiest way or is there another? thanks in advance and cheers oleg

    Read the article

  • error by creating process

    - by Tyzak
    hello i want to get startet with programming with WIN32, therefore i wrote a programm that creates a process but in the line of code where i create the process the programm gets an error an dosn't work (abend). i don't know if the code in programm 1 is wrong or the code in the second programm that should be created by the first. ( I don't know if the code in the first programm after "createprocess" is right because i didn't get further with debugging, because in this line i get the error.(i tested it without the cout,waitforobject and close handle but i didn't work either )). First Programm: #include <iostream> #include <windows.h> #include <string> using namespace std; void main() { bool ret; bool retwait; STARTUPINFO startupinfo; GetStartupInfo (&startupinfo); PROCESS_INFORMATION pro2info; ret = CreateProcess(NULL, L"D:\\betriebssystemePRA1PRO2.exe", NULL, NULL, false, CREATE_NEW_CONSOLE, NULL, NULL, &startupinfo, &pro2info); cout<<"hProcess: "<<pro2info.hProcess<<endl; cout<<"dwProcessId: "<<pro2info.dwProcessId <<endl; retwait= WaitForSingleObject (pro2info.hProcess, 100); retwait= WaitForSingleObject (pro2info.hProcess, 100); CloseHandle (pro2info.hProcess);//prozesshandle schließen retwait= WaitForSingleObject (pro2info.hProcess, 100); ExitProcess(0); } Seconde Programm: #include <iostream> #include <windows.h> #include <string> using namespace std; void main() { int b; b=GetCurrentProcessId(); cout<<b<<endl; cout<<"Druecken Sie Enter zum Beenden"<<endl; cin.get(); //warten bis Benutzer bestätigt Sleep (700); ExitProcess(0); cout<<"test"; } Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Select dynamic string has a different value when referenced in Where clause

    - by David
    I dynamically select a string built using another string. So, if string1='David Banner', then MyDynamicString should be 'DBanne' Select ... , Left( left((select top 1 strval from dbo.SPLIT(string1,' ')) //first word ,1) //first character + (select top 1 strval from dbo.SPLIT(string1,' ') //second word where strval not in (select top 1 strval from dbo.SPLIT(string1,' '))) ,6) //1st character of 1st word, followed by up to 5 characters of second word [MyDynamicString] ,... From table1 Join table2 on table1pkey=table2fkey Where MyDynamicString <> table2.someotherfield I know table2.someotherfield is not equal to the dynamic string. However, when I replace MyDynamicString in the Where clause with the full left(left(etc.. function, it works as expected. Can I not reference this string later in the query? Do I have to build it using the left(left(etc.. function each time in the where clause?

    Read the article

  • Verifying existence of name and password in NSUserDefaults to Skip a login/Screen

    - by Michael Robinson
    I have a Tabbar/Tableview App that modally loads a Login/Signup view when the app loads, I have set up a Root.plist in a settings bundle for the name and password and have successfully retrieved the items. I want to be able to do two things: 1) Do a test to see if the NSUserDefault Strings are empty and if so load the Login/Signup view. 2) If the strings are available then use the string contents to login to my Webservice. Thanks in advance. Here is my LoginViewController .m : @synthesize usernameField; @synthesize passwordField; @synthesize loginButton; @synthesize loginIndicator; @synthesize usernameLabel; @synthesize passwordLabel; -(void)refreshFields { NSUserDefaults *defaults = [NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults]; usernameLabel.text = [defaults objectForKey:kUsernameKey]; passwordLabel.text = [defaults objectForKey:kPasswordKey]; } - (void)viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { [self refreshFields]; [super viewDidAppear:animated]; } - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; [self refreshFields]; [self.navigationController setNavigationBarHidden:YES animated:NO]; } - (IBAction) login: (id) sender { { NSString *post =[NSString stringWithFormat:@"username=%@&password=%@",usernameField.text, passwordField.text]; NSString *hostStr = @"http:~iphone_login.php?"; hostStr = [hostStr stringByAppendingString:post]; NSData *dataURL = [NSData dataWithContentsOfURL: [ NSURL URLWithString: hostStr ]]; NSString *serverOutput = [[NSString alloc] initWithData:dataURL encoding: NSASCIIStringEncoding]; NSLog(@"Site: %@",hostStr); NSLog(@"Site: %@",serverOutput); if([serverOutput isEqualToString:@"Yes"]){ UIAlertView *alertsuccess = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Congrats" message:@"You are authorized " delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:@"OK" otherButtonTitles:nil, nil]; [alertsuccess show]; [alertsuccess release];

    Read the article

  • Grouped UITableView Footer Sometimes Hidden On Quick Scroll

    - by jdandrea
    OK, this one is a puzzler. There is one similar post but it's not similar enough to count, so I'm posting this one. :) I've got a grouped UITableView with a header and footer. The footer includes two UIButton views, side-by-side. Nothing major. Now … there is a toggle button in a UIToolbar at the bottom for more/less info in this table view. So I build my index paths to delete/insert with fade row animation, all the usual ingredients, sandwiched between beginUpdates and endUpdates calls on the UITableView … and this works fine! In also happens that my footer can sometimes be pushed off past the bottom of the display. Here's where it gets weird. If I drag my finger up the display, scrolling the view upward, I should see that footer eventually, right? Well … most of the time I do. BUT, if I flick my finger up, for a faster scroll, the footer is missing. Even if you try to tap in that area - no response. However, if I scroll back down again, just to hide that footer (or rather hide the area where the footer would normally be), and then scroll back up, it's there once again! This only happens when inserting rows. If I delete rows, the footer stays put … unless of course it was already hidden and I didn't perform the aforementioned incantation to get it back. :) I am trying to trace through this, but to no avail. I suppose tracing through scroll operations is a bit of a crazy proposition! Perhaps some creative logging … suggestions, anyone? Or is this a known issue in 3.1 where row insert/deletes are concerned? (I don't recall seeing it until 3.1.)

    Read the article

  • Printing an invisible NSView

    - by Rodger Wilson
    Initially I created a simple program with a custom NSView. I drew a picture (certificate) and printed it! beautiful! Everything worked great! I them moved my custom NSView to an existing application. My hope was that when a user hit print it would print this certificate. Simple enough. I figured a could have a NSView pointer in my controller code. Then at initialization I would populate the pointer. Then when someone wanted to print the certificate it would print. The problem is that all of my drawing code is in the "drawRect" method. This method doesn't get called because this view is never displayed in a window. I have heart that others use non-visible NSView objects just for printing. What do I need to do. I really don't want to show this view to the screen. Rodger

    Read the article

  • Appending data to NSFetchedResultsController during find or create loop

    - by Justin Williams
    I have a table view that is managed by an NSFetchedResultsController. I am having an issue with a find-or-create operation, however. When the user hits the bottom of my table view, I am querying my server for another batch of content. If it doesn't exist in the local cache, we create it and store it. If it does exist, however, I want to append that data to the fetched results controller and display it. I can't quite figure that part out. Here's what I'm doing thus far: Passing the returned array of values from my server to an NSOperation to process. In the operation, create a new managed object context to work with. In the operation, I iterate through the array and execute a fetch request to see if the object exists (based on its server id). If the object doesn't exist, we create it and insert it into the operations' managed object context. After the iteration completes, we save the managed object context, which triggers a merge notification on my main thread. At this point, any objects that weren't locally cached in my Core Data store before will appear, but the ones that previously existed do not come along for the ride. I feel like it's something simple I'm missing, and could use a nudge in the right direction.

    Read the article

  • Modelling boost::Lockable with semaphore rather than mutex (previously titled: Unlocking a mutex fr

    - by dan
    I'm using the C++ boost::thread library, which in my case means I'm using pthreads. Officially, a mutex must be unlocked from the same thread which locks it, and I want the effect of being able to lock in one thread and then unlock in another. There are many ways to accomplish this. One possibility would be to write a new mutex class which allows this behavior. For example: class inter_thread_mutex{ bool locked; boost::mutex mx; boost::condition_variable cv; public: void lock(){ boost::unique_lock<boost::mutex> lck(mx); while(locked) cv.wait(lck); locked=true; } void unlock(){ { boost::lock_guard<boost::mutex> lck(mx); if(!locked) error(); locked=false; } cv.notify_one(); } // bool try_lock(); void error(); etc. } I should point out that the above code doesn't guarantee FIFO access, since if one thread calls lock() while another calls unlock(), this first thread may acquire the lock ahead of other threads which are waiting. (Come to think of it, the boost::thread documentation doesn't appear to make any explicit scheduling guarantees for either mutexes or condition variables). But let's just ignore that (and any other bugs) for now. My question is, if I decide to go this route, would I be able to use such a mutex as a model for the boost Lockable concept. For example, would anything go wrong if I use a boost::unique_lock< inter_thread_mutex for RAII-style access, and then pass this lock to boost::condition_variable_any.wait(), etc. On one hand I don't see why not. On the other hand, "I don't see why not" is usually a very bad way of determining whether something will work. The reason I ask is that if it turns out that I have to write wrapper classes for RAII locks and condition variables and whatever else, then I'd rather just find some other way to achieve the same effect. EDIT: The kind of behavior I want is basically as follows. I have an object, and it needs to be locked whenever it is modified. I want to lock the object from one thread, and do some work on it. Then I want to keep the object locked while I tell another worker thread to complete the work. So the first thread can go on and do something else while the worker thread finishes up. When the worker thread gets done, it unlocks the mutex. And I want the transition to be seemless so nobody else can get the mutex lock in between when thread 1 starts the work and thread 2 completes it. Something like inter_thread_mutex seems like it would work, and it would also allow the program to interact with it as if it were an ordinary mutex. So it seems like a clean solution. If there's a better solution, I'd be happy to hear that also. EDIT AGAIN: The reason I need locks to begin with is that there are multiple master threads, and the locks are there to prevent them from accessing shared objects concurrently in invalid ways. So the code already uses loop-level lock-free sequencing of operations at the master thread level. Also, in the original implementation, there were no worker threads, and the mutexes were ordinary kosher mutexes. The inter_thread_thingy came up as an optimization, primarily to improve response time. In many cases, it was sufficient to guarantee that the "first part" of operation A, occurs before the "first part" of operation B. As a dumb example, say I punch object 1 and give it a black eye. Then I tell object 1 to change it's internal structure to reflect all the tissue damage. I don't want to wait around for the tissue damage before I move on to punch object 2. However, I do want the tissue damage to occur as part of the same operation; for example, in the interim, I don't want any other thread to reconfigure the object in such a way that would make tissue damage an invalid operation. (yes, this example is imperfect in many ways, and no I'm not working on a game) So we made the change to a model where ownership of an object can be passed to a worker thread to complete an operation, and it actually works quite nicely; each master thread is able to get a lot more operations done because it doesn't need to wait for them all to complete. And, since the event sequencing at the master thread level is still loop-based, it is easy to write high-level master-thread operations, as they can be based on the assumption that an operation is complete when the corresponding function call returns. Finally, I thought it would be nice to use inter_thread mutex/semaphore thingies using RAII with boost locks to encapsulate the necessary synchronization that is required to make the whole thing work.

    Read the article

  • How to display rich text in tooltip ASP.Net ?

    - by mokokamello
    Experts ! i use the following code to display a tooltip <asp:GridView ID="GridView1" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="False" DataKeyNames="ID" DataSourceID="AccessDataSource1"> <Columns> <asp:CommandField ShowEditButton="True" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="ID" HeaderText="ID" InsertVisible="False" ReadOnly="True" SortExpression="ID" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="datefu" HeaderText="date" SortExpression="datefu" /> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="title" SortExpression="titlefu"> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("titlefu") %>'></asp:TextBox> </EditItemTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <a href="#" title="<asp:Literal ID="Label1" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("fu") %>'/>"/> <asp:Label ID="NamePatientLabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("titlefu") %>' /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView> display the following result however when i edit the text as follows (making it bold and red in another gridview containing rich text editor) i get the following (as a formatting result in the second grid view) however when i view in the first gridview to display the tooltip i get the following reult i really need your help to display the tooltip as rich text

    Read the article

  • Programatic re-evalutation of MVVM command's "can execute" state

    - by dzs
    Hello! I'm writing a WPF application using the MVVM pattern, based on the following article: WPF Apps With The Model-View-ViewModel Design Pattern I have two buttons on my View with the buttons' "Command" property bound (with data binding) to a given instance of the RelayCommand class (see "Figure 3 The RelayCommand Class" from the article above). The RelayCommand class has support for checking whether the given command can be executed. WPF automatically disables buttons whose command cannot be executed. Each of my commands (in the ViewModel class) start a background operation, and the command cannot be executed again until the background operation is finished. The RelayCommand instances have information whether the background operation is still working or it is finished. My problem is the following: after pressing the any of the buttons, the buttons automaticaly go disabled (which is OK) because the background operation started and the command cannot be executed until it is finished, but after the operation had finished, the buttons don't go enabled automatically because their command's "can be executed" predicate is not automatically reevaluated. The reevaluation can be manually triggered by having the application loose and regain focus (by pressing ALT+TAB). After doing this trick, the buttons get enabled once again. How can I programatically reevaluate the buttons' command's "can execute" state?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 614 615 616 617 618 619 620 621 622 623 624 625  | Next Page >