Search Results

Search found 62759 results on 2511 pages for 'view first'.

Page 618/2511 | < Previous Page | 614 615 616 617 618 619 620 621 622 623 624 625  | Next Page >

  • C#: Two forms, one is calling the other one

    - by Shaza
    Hey all, I have a problem like this, I have two Winforms, f1 and f2. f1 will start a loop on button click, this loop checks a condition and decide to call the other form which is f2 or not. The problem is, the loop may call f2 many times, so each time the other form f2 will be called the first form f1 should pause its execution. So, I solved it like this, I used backgroundWorker + AutoResetEvent. I placed the backgroundWorker in the first form and inside the DoWork event handler I called f2.Show() then I called WaitOne on the AutoResetEvent let it be A. In the other form "f2", on Exiting button I called Set on the same A. But, unfortunately f2 got freezed when clicking that button in f1, what should I change??

    Read the article

  • Run ajax scripts on page with navigating with ajax?

    - by Oskar Kjellin
    I got a bit of an issue in my ASP.NET MVC project. I have a chat div in the bottom right corner (like facebook), and of course I do not want this to reload when navigating to all my navigation is ajax. The problem I am facing is that I use the following code on the top of the view page: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('#divTS').hide(); $('a#showTS').click(function() { $('#divTS').slideToggle(400); return false; }); }); </script> The problem is that this code is only loaded with ajax and does not seem to fire? I would like to run all scripts in the newly loaded view, just as if I hadn't navigated with ajax. I cannot put this in the site.master as it only loads once and then probably the divs I am trying to hide doesn't exist. Is there a good way to run scripts in the ajax-loaded div?

    Read the article

  • KendoUI Mobile switch and datasource

    - by OnaBai
    I'm trying to have a list of items displayed using a listview, something like: <div data-role="view" data-model="my_model"> <ul data-role="listview" data-bind="source: ds" data-template="list-tmpl"></ul> </div> Where I have a view using a model called my_model and a listview where the source is bound to ds. My model is something like: var my_model = kendo.observable({ ds: new kendo.data.DataSource({ transport: { read: readData, update: updateData, create: updateData, remove: updateData }, pageSize: 10, schema: { model: { id: "id", fields: { id: { type: "number" }, name: { type: "string" }, active: { type: "boolean" } } } } }) }); Each item includes an id, a name (that is a string) and a boolean named active. The template used to render each element is: <script id="list-tmpl" type="text/kendo-tmpl"> <span>#= name # : #= active #</span> <input data-role="switch" data-bind="checked: active"/> </script> Where I display the name and (for debugging) the value of active. In addition, I render a switch bound to active. You should see something like: The problems observed are: If you click on a switch you will see that the value of active next to the name changes its value (as expected) but if then, you pick another switch, the value (neither next to name nor in the DataSource) is not updated (despite the value of the switch is correctly updated). The update handler in the DataSource is never invoked (not even for the first chosen switch and despite the DataSource for that first toggled switch is updated). You can check it in JSFiddle: http://jsfiddle.net/OnaBai/K7wEC/ How do I make that the DataSource gets updated and update handler invoked?

    Read the article

  • Detect car acceleration in Android app?

    - by Stud33
    I want to incorporate some Accelerometer code into a Android application im working and want to see if this is possible. Basically what I need is for the code to detect car acceleration motion. I am not wanting to determine speed with the code but just distinguish if the phone is in a car and has accelerated motion (Hence the car is moving for the first time). I have gone through many different accelerometer applications to see if this motion produces a viable profile to go off of and it appears it does. Just looking for something that popups a "Hello World" dialog when it detects your in the car and its moving for the first time down the street. Any help would be appreciated and a simple yes or no its possible would work. I would also be interested in compensating anyone that is capable of doing this as well. I need this done like yesterday so please let me know. Thank You, JTW

    Read the article

  • Castle Windsor Dynamic Property in XML config

    - by haxelit
    I'm trying to set the DataContext on ApplicationMainWindow which is a WPF window. When I set it up in the XML like so it leaves the DataContext null: <!-- View Models --> <component id="mainwindow.viewmodel" type="ProjectTracking.ApplicationMainViewModel, ProjectTracking" inspectionBehavior="none" lifestyle="transient"> </component> <!-- UI Components --> <component id="mainwindow.view" type="ProjectTracking.ApplicationMainWindow, ProjectTracking" inspectionBehavior="none" lifestyle="transient"> <parameters> <DataContext>${mainwindow.viewmodel}</DataContext> </parameters> </component> But if I do it this way via C# it works. _Kernel.Register( ... Component.For<ApplicationMainWindow>() .DynamicParameters( (k,d) => { d["DataContext"] = k[typeof(ApplicationMainViewModel)]; }) ); I'm instantiating my window like so: Window window = _Kernel[typeof(ApplicationMainWindow)] as Window; When I configure windsor via the xml config it leaves my DataContext NULL, but when I configure it via code it works like a charm. Do I need to use code to pull this off, or should it work via XML config ? Thanks, Raul

    Read the article

  • Modifying UINavigation Bar Buttons in SubViews

    - by james
    I'm having trouble trying to modify the navigation bar in the subview portion of my application. self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = [[[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithBarButtonSystemItem:UIBarButtonSystemItemDone target:self action:@selector(add_Clicked:)] autorelease]; I have no issues modifying the navigation bar in any of my UIViewControllers classes. The simplified application class outline is as such: AppDelegate - UIViewControllerA (has a left and a right navigationBarButton) - Subview is displayed when a SegmentControl is selected. (Within the subview, I'm trying to modify the right NavigationBarButton that is displayed) [self.view addSubview:newControllerName.view]; Methods I have attempted: Trying to set self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem within my subview to a new UIBarButtonItem. Creating a pointer to UIViewControllerA within my AppDelegate. The UIViewControllerA contains a function setNavButton I wrote to set the rightBarButtonItem to a button. Then I am referencing the AppDelegate's reference to UIViewControllerA and attempting to call setNavButton. I included a NSLog call to see if that function is being called and it is executing but the NavigationBar isn't being modified. I'm trying to avoid having to push a UIViewController after the SegmentControl is clicked in UIViewControllerA so that I can simulate the SegmentControl as tabs. I'm not getting any errors during compile or run time. Anyone have any ideas?

    Read the article

  • How to Filter more than one field using WPF AutoCompleteBox

    - by Drew
    i am trying to customize the suggestions on the AutoCompleteBox in the WPF Tool kit. Right now i have a last name field which when the user enters characters a query runs that retrieves the top 10 records based on that last name. i would also like to filter by first name, i tried splitting out the comma and searching by the last name and the characters entered in the first name. however, as soon as a space or comma is entered into the autocompletebox, the suggest functionality stops working, which I believe is because the ValueMemberPath property is set to be last name. Is there a work around for this, or a way to modify the ValueMemberPath to handle multiple values? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Problems using wxWidgets (wxMSW) within multiple DLL instances

    Preface I'm developing VST-plugins which are DLL-based software modules and loaded by VST-supporting host applications. To open a VST-plugin the host applications loads the VST-DLL and calls an appropriate function of the plugin while providing a native window handle, which the plugin can use to draw it's GUI. I managed to port my original VSTGUI code to the wxWidgets-Framework and now all my plugins run under wxMSW and wxMac but I still have problems under wxMSW to find a correct way to open and close the plugins and I am not sure if this is a wxMSW-only issue. Problem If I use any VST-host application I can open and close multiple instances of one of my VST-plugins without any problems. As soon as I open another of my VST-plugins besides my first VST-plugin and then close all instances of my first VST-plugin the application crashes after a short amount of time within the wxEventHandlerr::ProcessEvent function telling me that the wxTheApp object isn't valid any longer during execution of wxTheApp-FilterEvent (see below). So it seems to be that the wxTheApp objects was deleted after closing all instances of the first plugin and is no longer available for the second plugin. bool wxEvtHandler::ProcessEvent(wxEvent& event) { // allow the application to hook into event processing if ( wxTheApp ) { int rc = wxTheApp->FilterEvent(event); if ( rc != -1 ) { wxASSERT_MSG( rc == 1 || rc == 0, _T("unexpected wxApp::FilterEvent return value") ); return rc != 0; } //else: proceed normally } .... } Preconditions 1.) All my VST-plugins a dynamically linked against the C-Runtime and wxWidgets libraries. With regard to the wxWidgets forum this seemed to be the best way to run multiple instances of the software side by side. 2.) The DllMain of each VST-Plugin is defined as follows: // WXW #include "wx/app.h" #include "wx/defs.h" #include "wx/gdicmn.h" #include "wx/image.h" #ifdef __WXMSW__ #include <windows.h> #include "wx/msw/winundef.h" BOOL APIENTRY DllMain ( HANDLE hModule, DWORD ul_reason_for_call, LPVOID lpReserved ) { switch (ul_reason_for_call) { case DLL_PROCESS_ATTACH: { wxInitialize(); ::wxInitAllImageHandlers(); break; } case DLL_THREAD_ATTACH: break; case DLL_THREAD_DETACH: break; case DLL_PROCESS_DETACH: wxUninitialize(); break; } return TRUE; } #endif // __WXMSW__ class Application : public wxApp {}; IMPLEMENT_APP_NO_MAIN(Application) Question How can I prevent this behavior respectively how can I properly handle the wxTheApp object if I have multiple instances of different VST-plugins (DLL-modules), which are dynamically linked against the C-Runtime and wxWidgets libraries? Best reagards, Steffen

    Read the article

  • Trouble using latex in Matplotlib / Scipy etc.

    - by ajhall
    I'm having some issues with my first attempts at using matplotlib and scipy to make some scatter plots of my data (too many variables, trying to see many things at once). Here's some code of mine that is working fairly well... import numpy from scipy import * import pylab from matplotlib import * import h5py FileID = h5py.File('3DiPVDplot1.mat','r') # (to view the contents of: list(FileID) ) group = FileID['/'] CurrentsArray = group['Currents'].value IvIIIarray = group['IvIII'].value PFarray = group['PF'].value growthTarray = group['growthT'].value fig = pylab.figure() ax = fig.add_subplot(111) cax = ax.scatter(IvIIIarray, growthTarray, PFarray, CurrentsArray, alpha=0.75) cbar = fig.colorbar(cax) ax.set_xlabel('Cu / III') ax.set_ylabel('Growth T') ax.grid(True) pylab.show() I tried to change the code to include latex fonts and interpreting, none of it seems to work for me, however. Here's an example attempt that didn't work: import numpy from scipy import * import pylab from matplotlib import * import h5py rc('text', usetex=True) rc('font', family='serif') FileID = h5py.File('3DiPVDplot1.mat','r') # (to view the contents of: list(FileID) ) group = FileID['/'] CurrentsArray = group['Currents'].value IvIIIarray = group['IvIII'].value PFarray = group['PF'].value growthTarray = group['growthT'].value fig = pylab.figure() ax = fig.add_subplot(111) cax = ax.scatter(IvIIIarray, growthTarray, PFarray, CurrentsArray, alpha=0.75) cbar = fig.colorbar(cax) ax.set_xlabel(r'Cu / III') ax.set_ylabel(r'Growth T') ax.grid(True) pylab.show() I'm using fink installed python26 with corresponding packages for scipy matplotlib etc. I've been using iPython and manual work instead of scripts in python. Since I'm completely new to python and scipy, I'm sure I'm making some stupid simple mistakes. Please enlighten me! I greatly appreciate the help!

    Read the article

  • Why can't I initialize a class through a setter?

    - by Rob emenaker
    If I have a custom class called Tires: #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @interface Tires : NSObject { @private NSString *brand; int size; } @property (nonatomic,copy) NSString *brand; @property int size; - (id)init; - (void)dealloc; @end ============================================= #import "Tires.h" @implementation Tires @synthesize brand, size; - (id)init { if (self = [super init]) { [self setBrand:[[NSString alloc] initWithString:@""]]; [self setSize:0]; } return self; } - (void)dealloc { [super dealloc]; [brand release]; } @end And I synthesize a setter and getter in my View Controller: #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> #import "Tires.h" @interface testViewController : UIViewController { Tires *frontLeft, *frontRight, *backleft, *backRight; } @property (nonatomic,copy) Tires *frontLeft, *frontRight, *backleft, *backRight; @end ==================================== #import "testViewController.h" @implementation testViewController @synthesize frontLeft, frontRight, backleft, backRight; - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; [self setFrontLeft:[[Tires alloc] init]]; } - (void)dealloc { [super dealloc]; } @end It dies after [self setFrontLeft:[[Tires alloc] init]] comes back. It compiles just fine and when I run the debugger it actually gets all the way through the init method on Tires, but once it comes back it just dies and the view never appears. However if I change the viewDidLoad method to: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; frontLeft = [[Tires alloc] init]; } It works just fine. I could just ditch the setter and access the frontLeft variable directly, but I was under the impression I should use setters and getters as much as possible and logically it seems like the setFrontLeft method should work. This brings up an additional question that my coworkers keep asking in these regards (we are all new to Objective-C); why use a setter and getter at all if you are in the same class as those setters and getters.

    Read the article

  • populating a list from another worksheet with 1 criteria

    - by Arcadian
    Hello, here is my dilemma. I have two worksheets one that has the name of clients and one that i want to copy the names to depending on the city. For instance: associated to each column is last name, first name and city. i have hundreds of names associated to different cities and what i would like is from worksheet1.xls to copy all the New York clients to worksheet2.xls either when i open worksheet2 or via macro what ever is easier and because last name is in one cell and the first name is in the other i would have to copy both. I saw that its possible to link cells from one worksheet to another and then do a vlookup depending on the criteria. Is that the best easiest way or is there another? thanks in advance and cheers oleg

    Read the article

  • writing 'remove' function in prolog

    - by Adrian
    I am desperately trying to create a remove function, that will simply remove all items that equal to X from a list. After many changes, this is my code so far: remove([], X, L1). /* when the source list is empty, stop*/ remove([X|T], X, L1) :- remove(T, X, L1). /* when first element in the list equals X, don't append it to L1 */ remove([H|T], X, L1) :- remove(T, X, [H|L1]). /*when first element in the list doesn't equal X, append it to L1 */ when running on remove([1,2,3,4,5], 3, R). it returns two trues and nothing else. Anyone has any idea what I'm doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • error by creating process

    - by Tyzak
    hello i want to get startet with programming with WIN32, therefore i wrote a programm that creates a process but in the line of code where i create the process the programm gets an error an dosn't work (abend). i don't know if the code in programm 1 is wrong or the code in the second programm that should be created by the first. ( I don't know if the code in the first programm after "createprocess" is right because i didn't get further with debugging, because in this line i get the error.(i tested it without the cout,waitforobject and close handle but i didn't work either )). First Programm: #include <iostream> #include <windows.h> #include <string> using namespace std; void main() { bool ret; bool retwait; STARTUPINFO startupinfo; GetStartupInfo (&startupinfo); PROCESS_INFORMATION pro2info; ret = CreateProcess(NULL, L"D:\\betriebssystemePRA1PRO2.exe", NULL, NULL, false, CREATE_NEW_CONSOLE, NULL, NULL, &startupinfo, &pro2info); cout<<"hProcess: "<<pro2info.hProcess<<endl; cout<<"dwProcessId: "<<pro2info.dwProcessId <<endl; retwait= WaitForSingleObject (pro2info.hProcess, 100); retwait= WaitForSingleObject (pro2info.hProcess, 100); CloseHandle (pro2info.hProcess);//prozesshandle schließen retwait= WaitForSingleObject (pro2info.hProcess, 100); ExitProcess(0); } Seconde Programm: #include <iostream> #include <windows.h> #include <string> using namespace std; void main() { int b; b=GetCurrentProcessId(); cout<<b<<endl; cout<<"Druecken Sie Enter zum Beenden"<<endl; cin.get(); //warten bis Benutzer bestätigt Sleep (700); ExitProcess(0); cout<<"test"; } Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Appending data to NSFetchedResultsController during find or create loop

    - by Justin Williams
    I have a table view that is managed by an NSFetchedResultsController. I am having an issue with a find-or-create operation, however. When the user hits the bottom of my table view, I am querying my server for another batch of content. If it doesn't exist in the local cache, we create it and store it. If it does exist, however, I want to append that data to the fetched results controller and display it. I can't quite figure that part out. Here's what I'm doing thus far: Passing the returned array of values from my server to an NSOperation to process. In the operation, create a new managed object context to work with. In the operation, I iterate through the array and execute a fetch request to see if the object exists (based on its server id). If the object doesn't exist, we create it and insert it into the operations' managed object context. After the iteration completes, we save the managed object context, which triggers a merge notification on my main thread. At this point, any objects that weren't locally cached in my Core Data store before will appear, but the ones that previously existed do not come along for the ride. I feel like it's something simple I'm missing, and could use a nudge in the right direction.

    Read the article

  • Verifying existence of name and password in NSUserDefaults to Skip a login/Screen

    - by Michael Robinson
    I have a Tabbar/Tableview App that modally loads a Login/Signup view when the app loads, I have set up a Root.plist in a settings bundle for the name and password and have successfully retrieved the items. I want to be able to do two things: 1) Do a test to see if the NSUserDefault Strings are empty and if so load the Login/Signup view. 2) If the strings are available then use the string contents to login to my Webservice. Thanks in advance. Here is my LoginViewController .m : @synthesize usernameField; @synthesize passwordField; @synthesize loginButton; @synthesize loginIndicator; @synthesize usernameLabel; @synthesize passwordLabel; -(void)refreshFields { NSUserDefaults *defaults = [NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults]; usernameLabel.text = [defaults objectForKey:kUsernameKey]; passwordLabel.text = [defaults objectForKey:kPasswordKey]; } - (void)viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { [self refreshFields]; [super viewDidAppear:animated]; } - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; [self refreshFields]; [self.navigationController setNavigationBarHidden:YES animated:NO]; } - (IBAction) login: (id) sender { { NSString *post =[NSString stringWithFormat:@"username=%@&password=%@",usernameField.text, passwordField.text]; NSString *hostStr = @"http:~iphone_login.php?"; hostStr = [hostStr stringByAppendingString:post]; NSData *dataURL = [NSData dataWithContentsOfURL: [ NSURL URLWithString: hostStr ]]; NSString *serverOutput = [[NSString alloc] initWithData:dataURL encoding: NSASCIIStringEncoding]; NSLog(@"Site: %@",hostStr); NSLog(@"Site: %@",serverOutput); if([serverOutput isEqualToString:@"Yes"]){ UIAlertView *alertsuccess = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Congrats" message:@"You are authorized " delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:@"OK" otherButtonTitles:nil, nil]; [alertsuccess show]; [alertsuccess release];

    Read the article

  • Ruby on Rails Join Table Associations

    - by Eef
    Hey, I have a Ruby on Rails application setup like so: User Model has_and_belongs_to_many :roles Role Model has_many :transactions has_and_belongs_to_many :users Transaction Model belongs_to :role This means that a join table is used called roles_users and it also means that a user can only see the transactions that have been assigned to them through roles, usage example: user = User.find(1) transactions = user.roles.first.transactions This will return the transactions which are associated with the first role assigned to the user. If a user has 2 roles assigned to them, at the moment to get the transactions associated with the second role I would do: transactions = user.roles.last.transactions I am basically trying to figure out a way to setup an association so I can grab the user's transactions via something like this based on the roles defined in the association between the user and roles: user = User.find(1) transactions = user.transactions I am not sure if this is possible? I hope you understand what I am trying to do.

    Read the article

  • Grouped UITableView Footer Sometimes Hidden On Quick Scroll

    - by jdandrea
    OK, this one is a puzzler. There is one similar post but it's not similar enough to count, so I'm posting this one. :) I've got a grouped UITableView with a header and footer. The footer includes two UIButton views, side-by-side. Nothing major. Now … there is a toggle button in a UIToolbar at the bottom for more/less info in this table view. So I build my index paths to delete/insert with fade row animation, all the usual ingredients, sandwiched between beginUpdates and endUpdates calls on the UITableView … and this works fine! In also happens that my footer can sometimes be pushed off past the bottom of the display. Here's where it gets weird. If I drag my finger up the display, scrolling the view upward, I should see that footer eventually, right? Well … most of the time I do. BUT, if I flick my finger up, for a faster scroll, the footer is missing. Even if you try to tap in that area - no response. However, if I scroll back down again, just to hide that footer (or rather hide the area where the footer would normally be), and then scroll back up, it's there once again! This only happens when inserting rows. If I delete rows, the footer stays put … unless of course it was already hidden and I didn't perform the aforementioned incantation to get it back. :) I am trying to trace through this, but to no avail. I suppose tracing through scroll operations is a bit of a crazy proposition! Perhaps some creative logging … suggestions, anyone? Or is this a known issue in 3.1 where row insert/deletes are concerned? (I don't recall seeing it until 3.1.)

    Read the article

  • Programatic re-evalutation of MVVM command's "can execute" state

    - by dzs
    Hello! I'm writing a WPF application using the MVVM pattern, based on the following article: WPF Apps With The Model-View-ViewModel Design Pattern I have two buttons on my View with the buttons' "Command" property bound (with data binding) to a given instance of the RelayCommand class (see "Figure 3 The RelayCommand Class" from the article above). The RelayCommand class has support for checking whether the given command can be executed. WPF automatically disables buttons whose command cannot be executed. Each of my commands (in the ViewModel class) start a background operation, and the command cannot be executed again until the background operation is finished. The RelayCommand instances have information whether the background operation is still working or it is finished. My problem is the following: after pressing the any of the buttons, the buttons automaticaly go disabled (which is OK) because the background operation started and the command cannot be executed until it is finished, but after the operation had finished, the buttons don't go enabled automatically because their command's "can be executed" predicate is not automatically reevaluated. The reevaluation can be manually triggered by having the application loose and regain focus (by pressing ALT+TAB). After doing this trick, the buttons get enabled once again. How can I programatically reevaluate the buttons' command's "can execute" state?

    Read the article

  • Printing an invisible NSView

    - by Rodger Wilson
    Initially I created a simple program with a custom NSView. I drew a picture (certificate) and printed it! beautiful! Everything worked great! I them moved my custom NSView to an existing application. My hope was that when a user hit print it would print this certificate. Simple enough. I figured a could have a NSView pointer in my controller code. Then at initialization I would populate the pointer. Then when someone wanted to print the certificate it would print. The problem is that all of my drawing code is in the "drawRect" method. This method doesn't get called because this view is never displayed in a window. I have heart that others use non-visible NSView objects just for printing. What do I need to do. I really don't want to show this view to the screen. Rodger

    Read the article

  • Binary Search Help

    - by aloh
    Hi, for a project I need to implement a binary search. This binary search allows duplicates. I have to get all the index values that match my target. I've thought about doing it this way if a duplicate is found to be in the middle: Target = G Say there is this following sorted array: B, D, E, F, G, G, G, G, G, G, Q, R S, S, Z I get the mid which is 7. Since there are target matches on both sides, and I need all the target matches, I thought a good way to get all would be to check mid + 1 if it is the same value. If it is, keep moving mid to the right until it isn't. So, it would turn out like this: B, D, E, F, G, G, G, G, G, G (MID), Q, R S, S, Z Then I would count from 0 to mid to count up the target matches and store their indexes into an array and return it. That was how I was thinking of doing it if the mid was a match and the duplicate happened to be in the mid the first time and on both sides of the array. Now, what if it isn't a match the first time? For example: B, D, E, F, G, G, J, K, L, O, Q, R, S, S, Z Then as normal, it would grab the mid, then call binary search from first to mid-1. B, D, E, F, G, G, J Since G is greater than F, call binary search from mid+1 to last. G, G, J. The mid is a match. Since it is a match, search from mid+1 to last through a for loop and count up the number of matches and store the match indexes into an array and return. Is this a good way for the binary search to grab all duplicates? Please let me know if you see problems in my algorithm and hints/suggestions if any. The only problem I see is that if all the matches were my target, I would basically be searching the whole array but then again, if that were the case I still would need to get all the duplicates. Thank you BTW, my instructor said we cannot use Vectors, Hash or anything else. He wants us to stay on the array level and get used to using them and manipulating them.

    Read the article

  • Modelling boost::Lockable with semaphore rather than mutex (previously titled: Unlocking a mutex fr

    - by dan
    I'm using the C++ boost::thread library, which in my case means I'm using pthreads. Officially, a mutex must be unlocked from the same thread which locks it, and I want the effect of being able to lock in one thread and then unlock in another. There are many ways to accomplish this. One possibility would be to write a new mutex class which allows this behavior. For example: class inter_thread_mutex{ bool locked; boost::mutex mx; boost::condition_variable cv; public: void lock(){ boost::unique_lock<boost::mutex> lck(mx); while(locked) cv.wait(lck); locked=true; } void unlock(){ { boost::lock_guard<boost::mutex> lck(mx); if(!locked) error(); locked=false; } cv.notify_one(); } // bool try_lock(); void error(); etc. } I should point out that the above code doesn't guarantee FIFO access, since if one thread calls lock() while another calls unlock(), this first thread may acquire the lock ahead of other threads which are waiting. (Come to think of it, the boost::thread documentation doesn't appear to make any explicit scheduling guarantees for either mutexes or condition variables). But let's just ignore that (and any other bugs) for now. My question is, if I decide to go this route, would I be able to use such a mutex as a model for the boost Lockable concept. For example, would anything go wrong if I use a boost::unique_lock< inter_thread_mutex for RAII-style access, and then pass this lock to boost::condition_variable_any.wait(), etc. On one hand I don't see why not. On the other hand, "I don't see why not" is usually a very bad way of determining whether something will work. The reason I ask is that if it turns out that I have to write wrapper classes for RAII locks and condition variables and whatever else, then I'd rather just find some other way to achieve the same effect. EDIT: The kind of behavior I want is basically as follows. I have an object, and it needs to be locked whenever it is modified. I want to lock the object from one thread, and do some work on it. Then I want to keep the object locked while I tell another worker thread to complete the work. So the first thread can go on and do something else while the worker thread finishes up. When the worker thread gets done, it unlocks the mutex. And I want the transition to be seemless so nobody else can get the mutex lock in between when thread 1 starts the work and thread 2 completes it. Something like inter_thread_mutex seems like it would work, and it would also allow the program to interact with it as if it were an ordinary mutex. So it seems like a clean solution. If there's a better solution, I'd be happy to hear that also. EDIT AGAIN: The reason I need locks to begin with is that there are multiple master threads, and the locks are there to prevent them from accessing shared objects concurrently in invalid ways. So the code already uses loop-level lock-free sequencing of operations at the master thread level. Also, in the original implementation, there were no worker threads, and the mutexes were ordinary kosher mutexes. The inter_thread_thingy came up as an optimization, primarily to improve response time. In many cases, it was sufficient to guarantee that the "first part" of operation A, occurs before the "first part" of operation B. As a dumb example, say I punch object 1 and give it a black eye. Then I tell object 1 to change it's internal structure to reflect all the tissue damage. I don't want to wait around for the tissue damage before I move on to punch object 2. However, I do want the tissue damage to occur as part of the same operation; for example, in the interim, I don't want any other thread to reconfigure the object in such a way that would make tissue damage an invalid operation. (yes, this example is imperfect in many ways, and no I'm not working on a game) So we made the change to a model where ownership of an object can be passed to a worker thread to complete an operation, and it actually works quite nicely; each master thread is able to get a lot more operations done because it doesn't need to wait for them all to complete. And, since the event sequencing at the master thread level is still loop-based, it is easy to write high-level master-thread operations, as they can be based on the assumption that an operation is complete when the corresponding function call returns. Finally, I thought it would be nice to use inter_thread mutex/semaphore thingies using RAII with boost locks to encapsulate the necessary synchronization that is required to make the whole thing work.

    Read the article

  • Objective C Array and Object Release

    - by david
    Hi, I have a newbie question regarding when to release the elements of a NSArray. See following pseudo code: NSMutalbeArray *2DArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:10]; for (int i=0;i<10;i++) { NSMutableArray *array = [[MSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:5]; for (int j=0;j<5;j++) { MyObject *obj = [[MyObject alloc] init]; [array addObject:obj]; [obj release]; } [2DArray addObject:array]; [array release]; } // use 2DArray to do something [2DArray release] My question here is, when I release 2DArray, do I need to explicitly release each of its element (array) first? Also, before I release the "array" object, do I need to release each of its element (MyObject) first? I am new to Objective C. Please help. thanks.

    Read the article

  • Looping through JSON arrays

    - by George
    I'm trying to pull the field names in the header of some JSON output. The following is a sample of the JSON header info: {"HEADER":{"company":{"label":"Company Name"},"streetaddress":{"label":"Street Address"},"ceo":{"label":"CEO Name","fields":{"firstname":{"label":"First Name"},"lastname":{"label":"Last Name"}}} I'm able to loop through the header and output the field and label (i.e. company and Company Name) using the following code: obj = JSON.parse(jsonResponse); for (var key in obj.HEADER) { response.write ( obj.HEADER[key].label ); response.write ( key ); } but can't figure out how to loop through and output the sub array of fields (i.e. firstname and First Name). Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Select dynamic string has a different value when referenced in Where clause

    - by David
    I dynamically select a string built using another string. So, if string1='David Banner', then MyDynamicString should be 'DBanne' Select ... , Left( left((select top 1 strval from dbo.SPLIT(string1,' ')) //first word ,1) //first character + (select top 1 strval from dbo.SPLIT(string1,' ') //second word where strval not in (select top 1 strval from dbo.SPLIT(string1,' '))) ,6) //1st character of 1st word, followed by up to 5 characters of second word [MyDynamicString] ,... From table1 Join table2 on table1pkey=table2fkey Where MyDynamicString <> table2.someotherfield I know table2.someotherfield is not equal to the dynamic string. However, when I replace MyDynamicString in the Where clause with the full left(left(etc.. function, it works as expected. Can I not reference this string later in the query? Do I have to build it using the left(left(etc.. function each time in the where clause?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 614 615 616 617 618 619 620 621 622 623 624 625  | Next Page >