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  • Problems updating a textBox ASP.NET

    - by Roger Filipe
    Hello, I'm starting in asp.net and am having some problems that I do not understand. The problem is this, I am building a site for news. Every news has a title and body. I have a page where I can insert news, this page uses a textbox for each of the fields (title and body), after clicking the submit button everything goes ok and saves the values in the database. And o have another page where I can read the news, I use labels for each of the camps, these labels are defined in the Page_Load. Now I'm having problems on the page where I can edit the news. I am loading two textboxes (title and body) in the Page_Load, so far so good, but then when I change the text and I click the submit button, it ignores the changes that I made in the text and saves the text loaded in Page_Load. This code doesn't show any database connection but you can understand what i'm talking about. protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { textboxTitle.Text = "This is the title of the news"; textboxBody.Text = "This is the body of the news "; } I load the page, make the changes in the text , and then click submit. protected void btnSubmit_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { String title = textboxTitle.Text; String body = textboxBody.Text; Response.Write("Title: " + title + " || "); Response.Write("Body: " + body ); } Nothing happens, the text in the textboxes is always the one I loaded in the page_load, how do I update the Text in the textboxes?

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  • Qt application crashing immediately without debugging info. How do I track down the problem?

    - by jjacksonRIAB
    I run an Qt app I've built: ./App Segmentation fault I run it with strace: strace ./App execve("./App", ["./App"], [/* 27 vars */]) = 0 --- SIGSEGV (Segmentation fault) @ 0 (0) --- +++ killed by SIGSEGV +++ Process 868 detached Again, no useful info. I run it with gdb: (gdb) run Starting program: /root/test/App Reading symbols from shared object read from target memory...(no debugging symbols found)...done. Loaded system supplied DSO at 0xffffe000 Program received signal SIGSEGV, Segmentation fault. 0x00000001 in ?? () Again, nothing. I run it with valgrind: ==948== Process terminating with default action of signal 11 (SIGSEGV) ==948== Bad permissions for mapped region at address 0x0 ==948== at 0x1: (within /root/test/App) Even if I put in debugging symbols, it doesn't give any more useful info. ldd shows all libraries being linked properly. Is there any other way I can find out what's wrong? I can't even do standard printf, cout, etc debugging. The executable doesn't even seem to start running at all. I rebuilt with symbols, and tried the suggestion below (gdb) break main Breakpoint 1 at 0x45470 (gdb) run Starting program: /root/test/App Breakpoint 1 at 0x80045470 Reading symbols from shared object read from target memory...done. Loaded system supplied DSO at 0xffffe000 Program received signal SIGSEGV, Segmentation fault. 0x00000001 in ?? () I checked for static initializers and I don't seem to have any. Yep, I tried printf, cout, etc. It doesn't even make it into the main routine, so I'm looking for problems with static initializers in link libraries, adding them in one-by-one. I'm not getting any stack traces either.

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  • AnyCPU/x86/x64 for C# application and it's C++/CLI dependency

    - by Soonts
    I'm Windows developer, I'm using Microsoft visual studio 2008 SP1. My developer machine is 64 bit. The software I'm currently working on is managed .exe written in C#. Unfortunately, I was unable to solve the whole problem solely in C#. That's why I also developed a small managed DLL in C++/CLI. Both projects are in the same solution. My C# .exe build target is "Any CPU". When my C++ DLL build target is "x86", the DLL is not loaded. As far as I understood when I googled, the reason is C++/CLI language, unlike other .NET languages, compiles to the native code, not managed code. I switched the C++ DLL build target to x64, and everything works now. However, AFAIK everything will stop working as soon as my client will install my product on a 32-bit OS. I have to support Windows Vista and 7, both 32 and 64 bit versions of each of them. I don't want to fall back to 32 bits. That 250 lines of C++ code in my DLL is only 2% of my codebase. And that DLL is only used in several places, so in the typical usage scenario it's not even loaded. My DLL implements two COM objects with ATL, so I can't use "/clr:safe" project setting. Is there way to configure the solution and the projects so that C# project builds "Any CPU" version, the C++ project builds both 32 bit and 64 bit versions, then in the runtime when the managed .EXE is starting up, it uses either 32-bit DLL or 64-bit DLL depending on the OS? Or maybe there's some better solution I'm not aware of? Thanks in advance!

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  • Telerik MVC Grid won't load data into details table (subtable)

    - by henriksen
    I have a list of Plants and assosiated Projects. I want to output this in a table with all the Plants and use Telerik.Grid to expand a Plant, show a Telerik.Grid with associated Projects. I want the Projects to be dynamically loaded with Ajax. The code for the grid: @(Html.Telerik().Grid<PlantDto>() .Name("Plants") .Columns(columns => { columns.Bound(plant => plant.Title); }) .DetailView(details => details.ClientTemplate( Html.Telerik().Grid<ProjectDto>() .Name("Plant_<#= Id #>") .DataBinding(dataBinding => dataBinding.Ajax() .Select("ProjectsForPlant", "User", new { plantId = "<#= Id #>" })) .ToHtmlString() )) .DataBinding(dataBinding => dataBinding.Ajax().Select("PlantsForUser", "User")) ) The initial data is loaded into the grid just fine (the list of Plants) but when I expand a plant I just get an empty sub-table. Looking in FireBug there are no calls to the server. The controller that should serve the list of projects is never called. Anyone have an idea on what it could be?

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  • Detaching all entities of T to get fresh data

    - by Goran
    Lets take an example where there are two type of entites loaded: Product and Category, Product.CategoryId - Category.Id. We have available CRUD operations on products (not Categories). If on another screen Categories are updated (or from another user in the network), we would like to be able to reload the Categories, while preserving the context we currently use, since we could be in the middle of editing data, and we do not want changes to be lost (and we cannot depend on saving, since we have incomplete data). Since there is no easy way to tell EF to get fresh data (added, removed and modified), we thought of twp possible ways: 1) Getting products attached to context, and categories detached from context. This would mean that we loose the ability to access Product.Category.Name, which we do sometimes require, so we would need to manually resolve it (example when printing data). 2) detaching / attaching all Categories from current context. Context.ChangeTracker.Entries().Where(x => x.Entity.GetType() == typeof(T)).ForEach(x => x.State = EntityState.Detached); And then reload the categories, which will get fresh data. Do you find any problem with this second approach? We understand that this will require all constraints to be put on foreign keys, and not navigation properties, since when detaching all Categories, Product.Category navigation properties would be reset to null also. Also, there could be a potential performance problem, which we did not test, since there could be couple of thousand products loaded, and all would need to resolve navigation property when reloading. Which of the two do you prefer, and is there a better way (EF6 + .NET 4.0)?

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  • Javascript onclick() event bubbling - working or not?

    - by user1071914
    I have a table in which the table row tag is decorated with an onclick() handler. If the row is clicked anywhere, it will load another page. In one of the elements on the row, is an anchor tag which also leads to another page. The desired behavior is that if they click on the link, "delete.html" is loaded. If they click anywhere else in the row, "edit.html" is loaded. The problem is that sometimes (according to users) both the link and the onclick() are fired at once, leading to a problem in the back end code. They swear they are not double-clicking. I don't know enough about Javascript event bubbling, handling and whatever to even know where to start with this bizarre problem, so I'm asking for help. Here's a fragment of the rendered page, showing the row with the embedded link and associated script tag. Any suggestions are welcomed: <tr id="tableRow_3339_0" class="odd"> <td class="l"></td> <td>PENDING</td> <td>Yabba Dabba Doo</td> <td>Fred Flintstone</td> <td> <a href="/delete.html?requestId=3339"> <div class="deleteButtonIcon"></div> </a> </td> <td class="r"></td> </tr> <script type="text/javascript">document.getElementById("tableRow_3339_0").onclick = function(event) { window.location = '//edit.html?requestId=3339'; };</script>

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  • How do I override a python import?

    - by Evan Plaice
    So I'm working on pypreprocessor which is a preprocessor that takes c-style directives and I've been able to make it work like a traditional preprocessor (it's self-consuming and executes postprocessed code on-the-fly) except that it breaks library imports. The problem is. The preprocessor runs through the file, processes' it, outputs to a temp file, and exec() the temp file. Libraries that are imported need to be handled a little different because they aren't executed but rather loaded and made accessible to the caller module. What I need to be able to do is. Interrupt the import (since the preprocessor is being run in the middle of the import), load the postprocessed code as a tempModule, and replace the original import with the tempModule to trick the calling script with the import into believing that the tempModule is the original module. I have searched everywhere and so far, have no solution. This question is the closest I've seen so far to providing an answer: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1096216/override-namespace-in-python Here's what I have. # remove the bytecode file created by the first import os.remove(moduleName + '.pyc') # remove the first import del sys.modules[moduleName] # import the postprocessed module tmpModule = __import__(tmpModuleName) # set first module's reference to point to the preprocessed module sys.modules[moduleName] = tmpModule moduleName is the name of the original module, tmpModuleName is the name of the postprocessed code file. The strange part is, this solution still runs completely normal as if the first module completed loaded normally; unless you remove the last line, then you get a module not found error. Hopefully someone on SO know a lot more about imports than I do because this one has me stumped.

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  • C#; On casting to the SAME class that came from another assembly

    - by G. Stoynev
    For complete separation/decoupling, I've implemented a DAL in an assebly that is simply being copied over via post-build event to the website BIN folder. The website then on Application Start loads that assembly via System.Reflection.Assembly.LoadFile. Again, using reflection, I construct a couple of instances from classes in that assembly. I then store a reference to these instances in the session (HttpContext.Current.Items) Later, when I try to get the object stored in the session, I am not able to cast them to their own types (was trying interfaces initially, but for debugging tried to cast to THEIR OWN TYPES), getting this error: [A]DAL_QSYSCamper.NHibernateSessionBuilder cannot be cast to [B] DAL_QSYSCamper.NHibernateSessionBuilder. Type A originates from 'DAL_QSYSCamper, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' in the context 'Default' at location 'C:\Users\dull.anomal\AppData\Local\Temp\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\ad6e8bff\70fa2384\assembly\dl3\aaf7a5b0\84f01b09_b10acb01\DAL_QSYSCamper.DLL'. Type B originates from 'DAL_QSYSCamper, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' in the context 'LoadNeither' at location 'C:\Users\dull.anomal\Documents\Projects\QSYS\Deleteme\UI\MVCClient\bin\DAL_QSYSCa mper.DLL'. This is happening while debugging in VS - VS manages to stop into the source DAL project even though I've loaded from assembly and the project is not refferenced by the website project (they're both in the solution). I do understand the error, but I don't understand how and why the assembly is being used/loaded from two locations - I only load it once from the file and there's no referrence to the project. Should mention that I also use Windsor for DI. The object that tries to extract the object from the session is A) from a class from that DAL assembly; B) is injected into a website class by Windsor. I will work on adding some sample code to this question, but wanted to put it out in case it's obvious what I do wrong.

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  • WPF ResourceDictionary and DynamicResource

    - by lanicor
    i am new to WPF so maybe this will be "noob" question but i can't find answer to it (and it seems so easy)... well i am programing WPF app and i want to use smth similar to css for webpages, so i found ResourceDictionary and tried to use it... I have main window in which i create Frame and on click some UserControl is loaded to that same Frame.I include my ResourceDictionary (root/style/Styles.xaml) to my main window like this: <Window.Resources> <ResourceDictionary x:Key="styles" Source="style/Styles.xaml" /> </Window.Resources> in which i have: <ResourceDictionary xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml"> <Style x:Key="ProductsRequired" TargetType="{x:Type Label}"> <Setter Property="Height" Value="28" /> ... I don't use it on my main window but want to use it on my UserControls, which are loaded to that main window and i try to use it like this: <Label Name="product1" Style="{DynamicResource ProductsRequired}" /> Warning i am getting all the time is: The resource "ProductsRequired" could not be resolved. I even tried including Styles to my UserControl <UserControl.Resources> <ResourceDictionary x:Key="styles" Source="../style/Styles.xaml" /> </UserControl.Resources> and nothing happens... Well my question is long but i wanted to be clear... :) P.S. all that logic works in C# code btw private ResourceDictionary myStyles = new ResourceDictionary(); Style ProductsRequired = myStyles["ProductsRequired"] as Style; product1.Style = ProductsRequired;

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  • MEF GetExports<T, TMetaDataView> returning nothing with AllowMultiple = True

    - by sohum
    I don't understand MEF very well, so hopefully this is a simple fix of how I think it works. I'm trying to use MEF to get some information about a class and how it should be used. I'm using the Metadata options to try to achieve this. My interfaces and attribute looks like this: public interface IMyInterface { } public interface IMyInterfaceInfo { Type SomeProperty1 { get; } double SomeProperty2 { get; } string SomeProperty3 { get; } } [MetadataAttribute] [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Class, AllowMultiple = true)] public class ExportMyInterfaceAttribute : ExportAttribute, IMyInterfaceInfo { public ExportMyInterfaceAttribute(Type someProperty1, double someProperty2, string someProperty3) : base(typeof(IMyInterface)) { SomeProperty1 = someProperty1; SomeProperty2 = someProperty2; SomeProperty3 = someProperty3; } public Type SomeProperty1 { get; set; } public double SomeProperty2 { get; set; } public string SomeProperty3 { get; set; } } The class that is decorated with the attribute looks like this: [ExportMyInterface(typeof(string), 0.1, "whoo data!")] [ExportMyInterface(typeof(int), 0.4, "asdfasdf!!")] public class DecoratedClass : IMyInterface { } The method that is trying to use the import looks like this: private void SomeFunction() { // CompositionContainer is an instance of CompositionContainer var myExports = CompositionContainer.GetExports<IMyInterface, IMyInterfaceInfo>(); } In my case myExports is always empty. In my CompositionContainer, I have a Part in my catalog that has two ExportDefinitions, both with the following ContractName: "MyNamespace.IMyInterface". The Metadata is also loaded correctly per my exports. If I remove the AllowMultiple setter and only include one exported attribute, the myExports variable now has the single export with its loaded metadata. What am I doing wrong?

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  • how to use a PHP Constant that gets pulled from a database

    - by Ronedog
    Can you read out the name of a PHP constant from a database and use it inside of a php variable, to display the value of the constant for use in a menu? For example here's what I'm trying to accomplish In SQL: select menu_name AS php_CONSTANT where menu_id=1 the value returned would be L_HOME which is the name of a CONSTANT in a php config page. The php config page looks like this define('L_HOME','Home'); and gets loaded before the database call. The php usage would be $db_returned_constant which has a value of L_HOME that came from the db call, then I would place this into a string such as $string = '<ul><li>' . $db_returned_constant . '</li></ul>' and thus return a string that looks like $string = '<ul><li><a href="#" onclick="path_from_db">Home</a></li></ul>'. To sum up what I'm trying to do Load a config file based on the language preference query the db to return the menu name, which is the name of a CONSTANT in the config file loaded in step one, and also retrieve the menu_link which is used in the "onclick" event. Use a php variable to hold the name of the CONSTANT Place the variable into a string that gets echo'd out to create the menu displaying the value of the CONSTANT. I hope this makes enough sense...is it even possible to use a constant like this? Thanks.

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  • How do you lock down & secure files stored on server in ASP.NET?

    - by Jon
    How do I go about securing files that are stored on the server? We have an ASP.NET app which generates PDFs. These are not stored in the wwwroot folder but in another folder i.e. C:\inetpub\data. This provides more security but maybe not enough. The ASP.NET/IIS process will need write access to this folder so it generate the PDFs there. Once the pdf is generated, it can be viewed using an ASP.NET form called viewpdf.aspx with the file to be viewed add to the query string like so viewpdf.aspx?FILE=mynewfile.pdf. This is loaded from a gridview. The full path to C:\inetpub\data is resolved and loaded in the Page_load event of the viewer page. Now I'm wondering how to secure this. Anybody could just view the file. Not by entering in the URL, as it won't been seen by IIS (its not in wwwroot), but could change the querystring in the viewpdf page. How do I stop anybody hacking this?

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  • How to Load assembly to AppDomain with all references recursively?

    - by abatishchev
    I want to load to new AppDomin some assembly which has a complex references tree (MyDll.dll - Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.dll - Microsoft.Vbe.Interop.dll - Office.dll - stdole.dll) As far as I understood, when an assembly is been loaded to AppDomain, it's references would not be loaded automatically, and I have to load them manually. So when I do: string dir = @"SomePath"; // different from AppDomain.CurrentDomain.BaseDirectory string path = System.IO.Path.Combine(dir, "MyDll.dll"); AppDomainSetup setup = AppDomain.CurrentDomain.SetupInformation; setup.ApplicationBase = dir; AppDomain domain = AppDomain.CreateDomain("SomeAppDomain", null, setup); domain.Load(AssemblyName.GetAssemblyName(path)); and got FileNotFoundException: Could not load file or assembly 'MyDll, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. I think the key word is one of its dependencies. Ok, I do next before domain.Load(AssemblyName.GetAssemblyName(path)); foreach (AssemblyName refAsmName in Assembly.ReflectionOnlyLoadFrom(path).GetReferencedAssemblies()) { domain.Load(refAsmName); } But got FileNotFoundException again, on another (referenced) assembly. How to load all references recursively? Have I to create references tree before loading root assembly? How to get an assembly's references without loading it?

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  • PHP.ini Settings Are Ignored By PHP5.3.5 Running With Windows 7 And Apache 2.2.15

    - by Andy
    I did an install of PHP5.3.5 on Windows 7 Home Premium using the MSI installer download. I got it to overwrite a previous version of PHP5 in C:\php5\ When first testing it, the server failed to start. I fixed this by adding the path to PHP in the Apache2.2 httpd file where the installer had inserted 2 lines of coded pointing to the ini file directory and the PHP DLL but had left out the directory path. After doing this, the server starts ok and I can run phpinfo to view the PHP settings in my web browser on local host. In the phpinfo it states that the loaded configuration file is C:\php5\php.ini as expected. But if I make any changes to the settings, and reboot the server, none of the changes are reflected in phpinfo. Yes, I do refresh the browser window. If I rename the php.ini to something else to make it invisible phpinfo then correctly identifies that there is no php.ini file loaded. So the settings in php.ini are being ignored and some default settings are being used (but I have no idea where these are derived from). As far as I can tell, there are no other php.ini files on my computer. In phpinfo it states that the Configuration File (php.ini) Path is C:\Windows but this is the same as on a Windows XP computer that I work on. And in the windows folder I don't see any php.ini file. In the windows registry, there is no mention of PHP5, and the PATH environment variable starts with C:\php5\; So hopefully someone can suggest how I can get PHP5 to take notice of the C:\php5\php.ini settings. :)

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  • Linq Scope Problem + Reduce Repeated Code

    - by Tom Gullen
    If the parameter is -1, it needs to run a different query as to if an ID was specified... how do I do this? I've tried initialising var q; outside the If block but no luck! // Loads by Entry ID, or if -1, by latest entry private void LoadEntryByID(int EntryID) { IEnumerable<tblBlogEntry> q; if (EntryID == -1) { q = ( from Blog in db.tblBlogEntries orderby Blog.date descending select new { Blog.ID, Blog.title, Blog.entry, Blog.date, Blog.userID, Comments = ( from BlogComments in db.tblBlogComments where BlogComments.blogID == Blog.ID select BlogComments).Count(), Username = ( from Users in db.yaf_Users where Users.UserID == Blog.userID select new { Users.DisplayName }) }).FirstOrDefault(); } else { q = ( from Blog in db.tblBlogEntries where Blog.ID == EntryID select new { Blog.ID, Blog.title, Blog.entry, Blog.date, Blog.userID, Comments = ( from BlogComments in db.tblBlogComments where BlogComments.blogID == Blog.ID select BlogComments).Count(), Username = ( from Users in db.yaf_Users where Users.UserID == Blog.userID select new { Users.DisplayName }) }).SingleOrDefault(); } if (q == null) { this.Loaded = false; } else { this.ID = q.ID; this.Title = q.title; this.Entry = q.entry; this.Date = (DateTime)q.date; this.UserID = (int)q.userID; this.Loaded = true; this.AuthorUsername = q.Username; } } My main aim is to reduce repeating code

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  • How to Refresh / Reload a KML layer in OpenLayers. Dynamic KML Layer.

    - by Ozaki
    TLDR See my answer below on how to refresh the layer. So far I have tried action function as follows: function RefreshKMLData(layer) { layer.loaded = false; layer.setVisibility(true); layer.redraw({ force: true }); } set interval of the function: window.setInterval(RefreshKMLData, 5000, KMLLAYER); the layer itself: var KMLLAYER = new OpenLayers.Layer.Vector("MYKMLLAYER", { projection: new OpenLayers.Projection("EPSG:4326"), strategies: [new OpenLayers.Strategy.Fixed()], protocol: new OpenLayers.Protocol.HTTP({ url: MYKMLURL, format: new OpenLayers.Format.KML({ extractStyles: true, extractAttributes: true }) }) }); the url for KMLLAYER with Math random so it doesnt cache: var MYKMLURL = var currentanchorpositionurl = 'http://' + host + '/data?_salt=' + Math.random(); I would have thought that this would Refresh the layer. As by setting its loaded to false unloads it. Visibility to true reloads it and with the Math random shouldn't allow it to cache? So has anyone done this before or know how I can get this to work? TLDR See my answer below on how to refresh the layer.

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  • jQuery .load from another page that contains Javascript

    - by Dave
    I've been using jQuery .load() to load content into a div. The content being .loaded occasionally has a document.ready() function which is called, and works, correctly (i.e. the ready() function is called). However, when I use an element ID in the .load(), such as: .load ("test.php #content"), the Javascript is no longer executed even if I put the script tag inside of the element that is being loaded. Does anyone have a solution to this other than to not use the element ID in the .load()? Thanks in advance. Here is the dynamic content (loadDialogTest.php): <div id="test"> <div> Hello, World! </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready (function () { alert ("ready"); }); </script> </div> and here is the page (where the element ID is NOT specified) that loads it (shortened as much as possible while maintaining the form: <head> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready (function () { $("#openDialog").click (function () { $("<div></div>") .load ("loadDialogTest.php") .appendTo ($("#containingDiv")) .dialog ({ autoOpen: 'false', title: 'Test This!', close: function () { $(this).dialog ('destroy').remove (); } }); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <a href="#" id="openDialog">Open it</a> <div id="containingDiv"> </div> </body> If I put #test after the .php file as the div to load, the jQuery ready() function is no longer called.

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  • ctypes DLL with optional dependencies

    - by pisswillis
    Disclaimer: I'm new to windows programming so some of my assumptions may be wrong. Please correct me if so. I am developing a python wrapper for a C API using ctypes. The API ships with both 64 and 32 DLLs/LIBs. I can succesfully load the DLL using ctypes.WinDLL('TheLibName') and call functions etc etc. However some functions were not doing what they should. Upon further investigation it appears that the 32bit DLL is being used, which is what is causing the unexpected behaviour. I have tried using ctypes.WinDLL('TheLibName64') but the module is not found. I have tried registering the DLL with regsrv32, but it reports there is no entry point (it also reports no entry point when I try and register TheLibName, which is found by WinDLL(). The DLL came with a sample project in Visual Studio (I have 0 experience with VS so again please correct me here) which builds both 32 and 64 bit versions of the sample project. In the .vcsproj file the configurations for the 64 bit version include: AdditionalDependencies="TheLibName64.lib" in the VCLinkerTool section. In windows/system32 there are both TheLibName.dll/.lib, and TheLibName64.dll/.lib. So it seems to me that my problem is now to make the python ctypes DLL loader load these optional dependencies when the DLL is loaded. However I can't find any information on this (perhaps because, as a doze noob, I do not know the correct terminology) in the ctypes documentation. Is there a way to do this in ctypes? Am I going about this in completely the wrong way? Any help or general information about optional DLL dependencies and how they are loaded in windows would be much appreciated. Thanks

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  • logic before dispatcher + controller?

    - by Spoonface
    I believe for a typical MVC web application the router / dispatcher routine is used to decide which controller is loaded based primarily on the area requested in the url by the user. However, in addition to checking the url query string, I also like to use the dispatcher to check whether the user is currently logged in or not to decide which controller is loaded. For example if they are logged in and request the login page, the dispatcher would load their account instead. But is this a fairly non-standard design? Would it violate MVC in any way? I only ask as the examples I've read through this weekend have had no major calculations performed before the dispatcher routine, and commonly check whether the user is logged in or not per controller, and then redirect where necessary. But to me it seems odd to redirect a logged in user from the login area to account area if you could just load the account controller in the first place? I hope I've explained my consternation well enough, but could anyone offer some details on how they handle logged in users, and similar session data?

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  • Silverlight Image Data Binding

    - by Alexander
    I am new to Silverlight, and have an issue with binding. I have a class ItemsManager, that has inside its scope another class Item. class ItemsManager { ... class Item : INotifyPropertyChanged { ... private BitmapImage bitmapSource; public BitmapImage BitmapSource { get { return bitmapSource; } set { bitmapSource = value; if(PropertyChanged != null )PropertyChanged("BitmapSource") } } } } I do the following in code to test binding: { ItemsManager.Instance.AddItem("123"); //Items manager started downloading item visual //part (in my case bitmap image png) Binding b = new Binding("Source"); b.Source = ItemsManager.Instance.GetItem("123").BitmapSource; b.BindsDirectlyToSource = true; Image img = new Image(); img.SetBinding(Image.SourceProperty, b); img.Width = (double)100.0; img.Height = (double)100.0; LayoutRoot.Children.Add(img); } Once image is loaded, image doesn't appear. Though, if I set directly after image has been loaded its source, it displays well. I also noticed that PropertyChanged("BitmapSource") never fires, because PropertyChanged is null, like Image never binded to it. I am looking forward to hearing from you!

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  • How to get JTree expanded?

    - by Dzmitry Zhaleznichenka
    I have a wizard with several screens where user has to fill his/her details for further processing. At the second screen I have a radio group with three radio buttons that enable additional elements. To proceed, user has to choose one of them. When user selects third button, single-selection JTree filled in with data enables and user has to select an option from it. Then user has to press "Next" to get to next screen. The option he\she had selected is stored as a TreePath. So far so good. My problem is the following. If the user wants to come back from the following screen to the screen with a JTree, I want to provide him\her with the JTree expanded to the option that had been selected and to highlight the option. However, whatsoever I try to do for that (any combinations of expandPath, scrollPathToVisible, addSelectionPath, makeVisible) always provides me with a collapsed tree. I try to expand both leaves and nodes. My code looks like this: rbProcessJTree.setSelected(isProcessJTree()); if (null != getSelectedTablePath()){ trTables.addSelectionPath(getSelectedTablePath()); trTables.expandPath(getSelectedTablePath()); trTables.scrollPathToVisible(getSelectedTablePath()); } When setSelected() is called, state change listener is invoked that enables JTree. The model is loaded during the form initialization. Each time I switch between screens, I save the input data from previous screen and dispose it. Then, when I need to open previous screen back, I save data from the following screen, dispose it, load data to this screen and show it. So each time the screen is generating from scratch. Could you please explain, what sequence of operations has to be done to get JTree expanded in a newly created form,with data model loaded and selection path provided?

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  • TinyMCE loading lang/plugins/theme from incorrect directory

    - by Anonymous
    I am having trouble with TinyMCE. When it is searching for the lang, theme, and plugins, it is supposed to look in the directory where the base script files are located. however, instead of doing that, it is using the current loaded page as the root for searching. I am looking at the "loadScripts" function in the src file, but changing the path doesn't seem to provide any meaningful effect. Here is the unmodified loadScripts function for your review: // Load scripts function loadScripts() { if (s.language) sl.add(tinymce.baseURL + '/langs/' + s.language + '.js'); if (s.theme && s.theme.charAt(0) != '-' && !ThemeManager.urls[s.theme]) ThemeManager.load(s.theme, 'themes/' + s.theme + '/editor_template' + tinymce.suffix + '.js'); each(explode(s.plugins), function(p) { if (p && p.charAt(0) != '-' && !PluginManager.urls[p]) { // Skip safari plugin for other browsers if (!isWebKit && p == 'safari') return; PluginManager.load(p, 'plugins/' + p + '/editor_plugin' + tinymce.suffix + '.js'); } }); // Init when que is loaded sl.loadQueue(function() { if (!t.removed) t.init(); }); }; loadScripts(); }

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  • Context problem while loading Assemblies via Structuremap

    - by Zebi
    I want to load plugins in a smiliar way as shown here however the loaded assemblies seem not to share the same context. Trying to solve the problem I just build a tiny spike containing two assemblies. One console app and one library. The console app contains the IPlugin interface and has no references to the Plugin dll. I am scanning the plugin dir using a custom Registration convention: ObjectFactory.Initialize(x => x.Scan(s => { s.AssembliesFromPath(@"..\Plugin"); s.With(new PluginScanner()); })); public void Process(Type type, Registry registry) { if (!type.Name.StartsWith("P")) return; var instance = ObjectFactory.GetInstance(type); registry.For<IPlugin>().Add((IPlugin)instance); } Which thows an invalid cast exception saying he can not convert the plugin Type to IPlugin. public class P1 : IPlugin { public void Start() { Console.WriteLine("Hello from P1"); } } Further if I just construct the instance (which works fine by the way) and try to access ObjectFactory in the plugin ObjectFactory.WhatDoIHave() shows that they don't even share the same container instance. Experimenting around with MEF, Structuremap and loading the assembly manually whith Assembly.Load("Plugin") shows if loaded with Assembly.Load it works fine. Any ideas how I can fix this to work with StructureMaps assembly scanning?

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  • How do I execute queries upon DB connection in Rails?

    - by sycobuny
    I have certain initializing functions that I use to set up audit logging on the DB server side (ie, not rails) in PostgreSQL. At least one has to be issued (setting the current user) before inserting data into or updating any of the audited tables, or else the whole query will fail spectacularly. I can easily call these every time before running any save operation in the code, but DRY makes me think I should have the code repeated in as few places as possible, particularly since this diverges greatly from the ideal of database agnosticism. Currently I'm attempting to override ActiveRecord::Base.establish_connection in an initializer to set it up so that the queries are run as soon as I connect automatically, but it doesn't behave as I expect it to. Here is the code in the initializer: class ActiveRecord::Base # extend the class methods, not the instance methods class << self alias :old_establish_connection :establish_connection # hide the default def establish_connection(*args) ret = old_establish_connection(*args) # call the default # set up necessary session variables for audit logging # call these after calling default, to make sure conn is established 1st db = self.class.connection db.execute("SELECT SV.set('current_user', 'test@localhost')") db.execute("SELECT SV.set('audit_notes', NULL)") # end "empty variable" err ret # return the default's original value end end end puts "Loaded custom establish_connection into ActiveRecord::Base" sycobuny:~/rails$ ruby script/server = Booting WEBrick = Rails 2.3.5 application starting on http://0.0.0.0:3000 Loaded custom establish_connection into ActiveRecord::Base This doesn't give me any errors, and unfortunately I can't check what the method looks like internally (I was using ActiveRecord::Base.method(:establish_connection), but apparently that creates a new Method object each time it's called, which is seemingly worthless cause I can't check object_id for any worthwhile information and I also can't reverse the compilation). However, the code never seems to get called, because any attempt to run a save or an update on a database object fails as I predicted earlier. If this isn't a proper way to execute code immediately on connection to the database, then what is?

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  • Preserving timestamps on Clojure .clj files when building shaded jar via Maven Shade Plugin

    - by Dereference
    When using the maven-shade-plugin to package our jar artifact that contained a few Clojure libs and some Java. We were using AOT compilation for our Clojure code. When we loaded the jar, it was having very slow load times. AOT compilation is supposed to help this quite a bit, but that wasn't what we were seeing. We noticed in java jar -verbose output that there was a lot of JVM__DEFINE_CLASS calls happening when Clojure classes were being loaded. This didn't make sense, since more of our Clojure code was AOT compiled to .class files. Turns out the maven-shade-plugin creates all new files, with new timestamps in the final artifact Clojure uses the timestamp information on a .clj file vs. a .class file, to determine if the file needs to be recompiled. The maven-shade-plugin was causing the .clj file and it's associated .class file to have the same timestamp, so Clojure always chose to dynamically recompile the source. The only workaround that we have been able to figure out, at this point, is to write a script that would re-open the shaded jar and bump the .clj file timestamps back to some time in the past, so that they wouldn't be equal to the timestamps of their associated .class files. Does anyone know of a better approach?

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