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  • Iterating through Event Log Entry Collection, IndexOutOutOfBoundsException

    - by fjdumont
    Hello, in a service application I am iterating through the Windows application event log to parse Events in order react depanding on the entry message. In the case that the event log is full (Windows usually makes sure there is enough space by deleting old entries - this is configurable in the eventvwr.exe settings), the service always runs into an IndexOutOfBoundsException while iterating through the EventLog.Entries collection. No matter how I iterate (for-loop, using the collections enumerator, copying the collection into an array, ...), I can't seem to get rid of this ´bug´. Currently, I ensure that the log is not full in order to keep the service running by regularly deleting the last few item by parsing the event log file and deleting the last few nodes (Don't beat me up, I couldn't find a better alternative...). How can I iterate through the collection without trying to access already deleted entries? Is there probably a more elegant method? I am only trying to acces the logs written during the last x seconds (even LINQ failed to select those when the log is full - same exception), could this help? Thanks for any advice and hints Frank Edit: I forgot to mention that my assumption is the loops are accessing entries which are being deleted during iteration by Windows. Basically that is why I tried to clone the collection. Is there perhaps a way to lock the collection for a small amount of time for just my application?

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  • A quick question on data returned by jquery.ajax() call (EDITED)

    - by recipriversexclusion
    EDIT: The original problem was due a stupid syntax mistake somewhere else, whicj I fixed. I have a new problem though, as described below I have the following jquery.ajax call: $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: servicesUrl + "/" + ID + "/tasks", dataType: "xml", success : createTaskListTable }); The createTaskListTable function is defined as function createTaskListTable(taskListXml) { $(taskListXml).find("Task").each(function(){ alert("Found task") }); // each task } Problem is: this doesn't work, I get an error saying taskListXml is not defined. JQuery documentation states that the success functions gets passed three arguments, the first of which is the data. How can I pass the data returned by .ajax() to my function with a variable name of my own choosing. My problem now is that I'm getting the XML from a previous ajax call! How is this even possible? That previous function is defined as function convertServiceXmlDataToTable(xml), so they don't use the same variable name. Utterly confused. Is this some caching issue? If so, how can I clear the browser cache to get rid of the earlier XML? Thanks!

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  • When to drop an IT job

    - by Nippysaurus
    In my career I have had two programming jobs. Both these jobs were in a field that I am most familiar with (C# / MSSQL) but I have quit both jobs for the same reason: unmanageable code and bad (loose) company structure. There was something in common with both these jobs: small companies (in one I was the only developer). Currently I am in the following position: being given written instructions which are almost impossible to follow (somewhat of a fools errand). we are given short time constraints, but seldom asked how long work will take, and when we do it is always too long and needs to be shorter (and when it ends up taking longer than they need it to take, it's always our fault). there is no time for proper documenting, but we get blamed for not documenting (see previous point). Management is constantly screwing me around, saying I'm underperforming on a given task (which is not true, and switching me to a task which is much more confusing). So I must ask my fellow developers: how bad does a job need to be before you would consider jumping ship? And what to look out for when considering taking a job. In future I will be asking about documented procedures, release control, bug management and adoption of new technologies. EDIT: Let me add some more fuel to the fire ... I have been in my current job for just over a year, and the work I am doing almost never uses any of the knowledge I have gained from the other work I have been doing here. Everything is a giant learning curve. Because of this about 30% of my time is learning what is going on with this new product (who's owner / original developer has left the company), 30% trying to find the relevant documentation that helps the whole thing make sense, 30% actually finding where to make the change, 10% actually making the change.

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  • Help with why my app crashed?

    - by Moshe
    I'm writing an iPad app that is a "kiosk" app. The iPad should be hanging on the wall and the app should just run. I did a test, starting the app last night (Friday, December 31) and letting it run. This morning, when I woke up, it was not running. I just checked the iPad's console and I can't figure out why it crashed. The iPad was plugged in and so the battery is not the issued. I did disable the idleTimer in my application delegate. The app was seen running as late as midnight last night. I would like to note that my app acts as a Bluetooth server through Game Kit and large portion of the console output is occupied by bluetooth status messages. When I opened the iPad, the app was paused and there was a system alert which prompted me to check an "Expiring Provisioning Profile". I tapped "dismiss" and the alert went away. The app crashed about a second after I dismissed the system alert. Any ideas how I can diagnose this problem? Why would my app crash? Here is my iPad's Console log, as copied from Xcode's organizer. Edit: A bit of Googling lead me to this site which says that alert views cause the app to lose focus. Could that be involved? What can I do to fix the problem? EDIT2: My Crash log describes the situation as: Application Specific Information: appname failed to resume in time Elapsed total CPU time (seconds): 10.010 (user 8.070, system 1.940), 100% CPU Elapsed application CPU time (seconds): 9.470, 95% CPU

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  • LINQ-SQL Updating Multiple Rows in a single transaction

    - by RPM1984
    Hi guys, I need help re-factoring this legacy LINQ-SQL code which is generating around 100 update statements. I'll keep playing around with the best solution, but would appreciate some ideas/past experience with this issue. Here's my code: List<Foo> foos; int userId = 123; using (DataClassesDataContext db = new FooDatabase()) { foos = (from f in db.FooBars where f.UserId = userId select f).ToList(); foreach (FooBar fooBar in foos) { fooBar.IsFoo = false; } db.SubmitChanges() } Essentially i want to update the IsFoo field to false for all records that have a particular UserId value. Whats happening is the .ToList() is firing off a query to get all the FooBars for a particular user, then for each Foo object, its executing an UPDATE statement updating the IsFoo property. Can the above code be re-factored to one single UPDATE statement? Ideally, the only SQL i want fired is the below: UPDATE FooBars SET IsFoo = FALSE WHERE UserId = 123 EDIT Ok so looks like it cant be done without using db.ExecuteCommand. Grr...! What i'll probably end up doing is creating another extension method for the DLINQ namespace. Still require some hardcoding (ie writing "WHERE" and "UPDATE"), but at least it hides most of the implementation details away from the actual LINQ query syntax.

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  • How do I make a serialization class for this?

    - by chobo2
    I have something like this (sorry for the bad names) <root xmlns="http://www.domain.com" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.Domain.com Schema.xsd> <product></product> <SomeHighLevelElement> <anotherElment> <lowestElement> </lowestElement> </anotherElment> </SomeHighLevelElement> </root> I have something like this for my class public class MyClass { public MyClass() { ListWrapper= new List<UserInfo>(); } public string product{ get; set; } public List<SomeHighLevelElement> ListWrapper{ get; set; } } public class SomeHighLevelElement { public string lowestElement{ get; set; } } But I don't know how to write the code for the "anotherElement" not sure if I have to make another wrapper around it. Edit I know get a error in my actual xml file. I have this in my tag xmlns="http://www.domain.com" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.Domain.com Schema.xsd Throws an exception on the root line saying there was a error with this stuff. So I don't know if it is mad at the schemaLocation since I am using local host right now or what.

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  • P/Invoke declarations should not be safe-critical

    - by Bobrovsky
    My code imports following native methods: DeleteObject, GetFontData and SelectObject from gdi32.dll GetDC and ReleaseDC from user32.dll I want to run the code in full trust and medium trust environments (I am fine with exceptions being thrown when these imported methods are indirectly used in medium trust environments). When I run Code Analysis on the code I get warnings like: CA5122 P/Invoke declarations should not be safe-critical. P/Invoke method 'GdiFont.DeleteObject(IntPtr)' is marked safe-critical. Since P/Invokes may only be called by critical code, this declaration should either be marked as security critical, or have its annotation removed entirely to avoid being misleading. Could someone explain me (in layman terms) what does this warning really mean? I tried putting these imports in static SafeNativeMethods class as internal static methods but this doesn't make the warnings go away. I didn't try to put them in NativeMethods because after reading this article I am unsure that it's the right way to go because I don't want my code to be completely unusable in medium trust environments (I think this will be the consequence of moving imports to NativeMethods). Honestly, I am pretty much confused about the real meaning of the warning and consequences of different options to suppressing it. Could someone shed some light on all this? EDIT: My code target .NET 2.0 framework. Assembly is marked with [assembly: AllowPartiallyTrustedCallers] Methods are declared like this: [DllImport("gdi32")] internal static extern int DeleteObject(HANDLE hObject);

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  • 'WebException' error on back button even when calling 'void' async method

    - by BlazingFrog
    I have a windows phone app that allows the user to interact with it. Each interaction will always result in an async WCF call. In addition to that, some interactions will result in opening the browser, maps, email, etc... The problem is that, when hitting the back button, I sometime get the following error "An error (WebException) occurred while transmitting data over the HTTP channel." with the following stack trace: at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelUtilities.ProcessGetResponseWebException(WebException webException, HttpWebRequest request, HttpAbortReason abortReason) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelAsyncRequest.CompleteGetResponse(IAsyncResult result) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelAsyncRequest.OnGetResponse(IAsyncResult result) at System.Net.Browser.ClientHttpWebRequest.<>c__DisplayClassa.<InvokeGetResponseCallback>b__8(Object state2) at System.Threading.ThreadPool.WorkItem.WaitCallback_Context(Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ThreadPool.WorkItem.doWork(Object o) at System.Threading.Timer.ring() My understanding is that it's happening because my app opened another app (browser, maps, etc) before it had the time to execute the EndMyAsyncMethod(System.IAsyncResult result). Fair enough... What's really annoying is that it seems it should get fixed by cloning the server-side method, only making it void with the following operation contract [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true)] but I'm still getting the error. What's worse is that the exception is thrown in a system-generated part of the code and, thus, cannot be manually caught causing the app to just crash. I simply don't understand the need to execute an Endxxx method when it's explicitely marked as OneWay and void. EDIT I did find a similar issue here. It does seem that it is related to the message getting to the service (not the client callback). My next question is: if I'm now calling a method marked AsyncPattern and OneWay, what exactly should I be waiting for on the client to be sure the message was transmitted successfully? This is new service definition: [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true, AsyncPattern = true)] IAsyncResult BeginCacheQueryWithoutCallback(string param1, QueryInfoDataContract queryInfo, AsyncCallback cb, Object s); void EndCacheQueryWithoutCallback(IAsyncResult r); And the implementation: public IAsyncResult BeginCacheQueryWithoutCallback(string param1, QueryInfoDataContract queryInfo, AsyncCallback cb, Object s) { // do some stuff return new CompletedAsyncResult<string>(""); } public void EndCacheQueryWithoutCallback(IAsyncResult r) { }

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  • How to cancel a jquery.load()?

    - by Dirk Jönsson
    I'd like to cancel a .load() operation, when the load() does not return in 5 seconds. If it's so I show an error message like 'sorry, no picture loaded'. What I have is... ...the timeout handling: jQuery.fn.idle = function(time, postFunction){ var i = $(this); i.queue(function(){ setTimeout(function(){ i.dequeue(); postFunction(); }, time); }); return $(this); }; ... initializing of the error message timeout: var hasImage = false; $('#errorMessage') .idle(5000, function() { if(!hasImage) { // 1. cancel .load() // 2. show error message } }); ... the image loading: $('#myImage') .attr('src', '/url/anypath/image.png') .load(function(){ hasImage = true; // do something... }); The only thing I could not figure out is how to cancel the running load() (if it's possible). Please help. Thanks! Edit: Another way: How do I prevent the .load() method to call it's callback function when it's returning?

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  • Packet fragmentation when sending data via SSLStream

    - by Ive
    When using an SSLStream to send a 'large' chunk of data (1 meg) to a (already authenticated) client, the packet fragmentation / dissasembly I'm seeing is FAR greater than when using a normal NetworkStream. Using an async read on the client (i.e. BeginRead()), the ReadCallback is repeatedly called with exactly the same size chunk of data up until the final packet (the remainder of the data). With the data I'm sending (it's a zip file), the segments happen to be 16363 bytes long. Note: My receive buffer is much bigger than this and changing it's size has no effect I understand that SSL encrypts data in chunks no bigger than 18Kb, but since SSL sits on top of TCP, I wouldn't think that the number of SSL chunks would have any relevance to the TCP packet fragmentation? Essentially, the data is taking about 20 times longer to be fully read by the client than with a standard NetworkStream (both on localhost!) What am I missing? EDIT: I'm beginning to suspect that the receive (or send) buffer size of an SSLStream is limited. Even if I use synchronous reads (i.e. SSLStream.Read()), no more data ever becomes available, regardless of how long I wait before attempting to read. This would be the same behavior as if I were to limit the receive buffer to 16363 bytes. Setting the Underlying NetworkStream's SendBufferSize (on the server), and ReceiveBufferSize (on the client) has no effect.

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  • How to retrieve view of MultiIndex DataFrame

    - by Henry S. Harrison
    This question was inspired by this question. I had the same problem, updating a MultiIndex DataFrame by selection. The drop_level=False solution in Pandas 0.13 will allow me to achieve the same result, but I am still wondering why I cannot get a view from the MultiIndex DataFrame. In other words, why does this not work?: >>> sat = d.xs('sat', level='day', copy=False) Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> File "C:\Python27\lib\site-packages\pandas\core\frame.py", line 2248, in xs raise ValueError('Cannot retrieve view (copy=False)') ValueError: Cannot retrieve view (copy=False) Of course it could be only because it is not implemented, but is there a reason? Is it somehow ambiguous or impossible to implement? Returning a view is more intuitive to me than returning a copy then later updating the original. I looked through the source and it seems this situation is checked explicitly to raise an error. Alternatively, is it possible to get the same sort of view from any of the other indexing methods? I've experimented but have not been successful. [edit] Some potential implementations are discussed here. I guess with the last question above I'm wondering what the current best solution is to index into arbitrary multiindex slices and cross-sections.

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  • How should I configure grub for booting linux kernel from a USB hard drive?

    - by skolima
    I have a laptop hard drive in an external enclosure which I use as a large pendrive. For an added twist, I have installed Linux on it, so I can boot any machine with my distribution of choice (e.g. for data recovery or repairing a b0rked system or just using a borrowed laptop without destroying the preinstalled Windows). The problem is that, depending on the hardware configuration, the USB hard drive may be visible under different paths. For grub configuration I just use (hda0,0) as it is relative to the device the grub was launched from. I have UUID entries in /etc/fstab. I also specify rootwait in the kernel parameters so that it waits for the USB subsystem to settle down before trying to mount the device. What should I pass to the kernel as root= ? Currently boot from the pendrive once, check the debug messages to see what /dev/sdX device has been assigned to the USB drive by the kernel, then reboot and edit the grub configuration. I can't change anything on the PC besides enabling Boot from USB hard drive in BIOS and setting it to higher priority than internal hard drives. There are various initrd generating scripts which include support for UUID in root device path, unfortunately the Gentoo native one (genkernel) does not support rootwait and I had no luck trying to use others. The boot process goes like this (it is quite similar in Windows): The BIOS chooses the boot device and loads whatever is its MBR (which happens to be grub stage-1). Grub loads it's configuration and stage-2 files from device it has set as root, using (hd0) for the device it was loaded from by BIOS. Grub loads and starts a kernel (still the same numbering, so I can use (hd0,0) again ). Kernel initializes all built-in devices (rootwait does it's magic now). Kernel mounts the partition it was passed as root (this is a kernel parameter, not grub parameter). init.d starts the userland booting process, including mounting things from /etc/fstab. Part 5 is the one giving me problems.

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  • How to get at specific HTML elements of a document using C# and Hide them/Show them etc.

    - by LaserBeak
    Basically I want to load a HTML document and using controls such as multiple check boxes which will be programmed to hide, delete or show HTML elements with certain ID's. So I am thinking I would have to set an inline CSS property for visibility to: false on the ones I want to hide or delete them altogether when necessary. I need this so I don't have to edit my Ebay HTML templates in dreamweaver all the time, where I usually have to scroll around messy code and manually delete or add tags and their respective content. Whereas I just want to create one master template in dreamweaver which has all the variations that my products have, since they are all of the same genre with slight changes here and there and I just need to enable and disable the visibility of these variants as required and copy + paste the final html. I haven's used Windows Forms before, but tried doing this in WebForms which I do know a bit. I am able to get the result that I want by wrapping any HTML elements in a <asp:PlaceHolder></asp:PlaceHolder> and just setting that place holders visibility to false after the associated checkbox is checked and a postback occurs, finally I add a checkbox/button control that removes all the checkboxes, including itself etc for final html. But this method seems just like too much pain in the ass as I have to add the placeholder tags around everything that I need control over as ordinary html elements do not run at server, also webforms injects a bunch of Javascript and ViewState data so I don't have clean HTML which I can just copy after viewing the page source. Any tips/code that you can suggest to achieve the desired effect with the least changes required to existing HTML documents? Ideally I would want to load the HTML document in, have a live design preview of it and underneath have a bunch of well labelled checkboxes programmed to hide, delete or show elements with certain ID's. Thanks...

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  • connecting to secure database on private network from website host

    - by jim
    Hello all, I've got a requirement to both read and write data via a .net webservice to a sqlserver database that's on a private network. this database is currently accessed via a vpn connection by remote client software (on standard desktop machines) to get latest product prices and to upload product stock sales. I've been tasked with finding a way to centralise this access from a webservice that the clients then access, rather than them using the vpn route to connect directly to the database. My question is related to my .net service's relationship to the sqlserver database. What are the options for connecting to a private network vpn from a domain host in order to achive the functionality of allowing the webservice to both read and write data to the database. For now, I'm not too concerned about the client connectivity and security (tho i appreciate that this will have to be worked out too), I'm really just interested in discovering the options available in order to allow my .net webservice to connect to the private network in as painless and transparent a way as posible. [edit] the webservice will also be available to the retail website in order for it to lookup product info as well as allocate stock transfers to the same sqlserver db. it will therefore be located on the same domain as the retail site The option of switching the database onto public hosting is not feasible, so I have to work with the scenario as described above for now, unless there's a compelling rationale presented to do otherwise. thanks all... jim

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  • OptimisticLockException in inner transaction ruins outer transaction

    - by Pace
    I have the following code (OLE = OptimisticLockException)... public void outer() { try { middle() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); outer(); } } @Transactional public void middle() { try { inner() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); middle(); } @Transactional public void inner() { //Do DB operation } inner() is called by other non-transactional methods which is why both middle() and inner() are transactional. As you can see, I deal with OLEs by updating the entities and retrying the operation. The problem I'm having is that when I designed things this way I was assuming that the only time one could get an OLE was when a transaction closed. This is apparently not the case as the call to inner() is throwing an OLE even when the stack is outer()->middle()->inner(). Now, middle() is properly handling the OLE and the retry succeeds but when it comes time to close the transaction it has been marked rollbackOnly by Spring. When the middle() method call finally returns the closing aspect throws an exception because it can't commit a transaction marked rollbackOnly. I'm uncertain what to do here. I can't clear the rollbackOnly state. I don't want to force create a transaction on every call to inner because that kills my performance. Am I missing something or can anyone see a way I can structure this differently? EDIT: To clarify what I'm asking, let me explain my main question. Is it possible to catch and handle OLE if you are inside of an @Transactional method? FYI: The transaction manager is a JpaTransactionManager and the JPA provider is Hibernate.

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  • How to properly load HTML data from third party website using MVC+AJAX?

    - by Dmitry
    I'm building ASP.NET MVC2 website that lets users store and analyze data about goods found on various online trade sites. When user is filling a form to create or edit an item, he should have a button "Import data" that automatically fills some fields based on data from third party website. The question is: what should this button do under the hood? I see at least 2 possible solutions. First. Do the import on client side using AJAX+jQuery load method. I tried it in IE8 and received browser warning popup about insecure script actions. Of course, it is completely unacceptable. Second. Add method ImportData(string URL) to ItemController class. It is called via AJAX, does the import + data processing server-side and returns JSON-d result to client. I tried it and received server exception (503) Server unavailable when loading HTML data into XMLDocument. Also I have a feeling that dealing with not well-formed HTML (missing closing tags, etc.) will be a huge pain. Any ideas how to parse such HTML documents?

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  • [MySQL] Efficiently store last X records per item

    - by Saif Bechan
    I want to store the last X records in an MySQL database in an efficient way. So when the 4th record is stored the first should be deleted. The way I do this not is first run a query getting the items. Than check what I should do then insert/delete. There has to be a better way to do this. Any suggestions? Edit I think I should add that the records stored do not have a unique number. They have a mixed par. For example article_id and user_id. Then I want to make a table with the last X items for user_x. Just selecting the article from the table grouped by user and sorted by time is not an option for me. The table where I do the sort and group on has millions of records and gets hit a lot for no reason. So making a table in between with the last X records is way more effient. PS. I am not using this for articles and users.

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  • How can I execute an ANTLR parser action for each item in a rule that can match more than one item?

    - by Chris Farmer
    I am trying to write an ANTLR parser rule that matches a list of things, and I want to write a parser action that can deal with each item in the list independently. Some example input for these rules is: $(A1 A2 A3) I'd like this to result in an evaluator that contains a list of three MyIdentEvaluator objects -- one for each of A1, A2, and A3. Here's a snippet of my grammar: my_list returns [IEvaluator e] : { $e = new MyListEvaluator(); } '$' LPAREN op=my_ident+ { /* want to do something here for each 'my_ident'. */ /* the following seems to see only the 'A3' my_ident */ $e.Add($op.e); } RPAREN ; my_ident returns [IEvaluator e] : IDENT { $e = new MyIdentEvaluator($IDENT.text); } ; I think my_ident is defined correctly, because I can see the three MyIdentEvaluators getting created as expected for my input string, but only the last my_ident ever gets added to the list (A3 in my example input). How can I best treat each of these elements independently, either through a grammar change or a parser action change? It also occurred to me that my vocabulary for these concepts is not what it should be, so if it looks like I'm misusing a term, I probably am. EDIT in response to Wayne's comment: I tried to use op+=my_ident+. In that case, the $op in my action becomes an IList (in C#) that contains Antlr.Runtime.Tree.CommonTree instances. It does give me one entry per matched token in $op, so I see my three matches, but I don't have the MyIdentEvaluator instances that I really want. I was hoping I could then find a rule attribute in the ANTLR docs that might help with this, but nothing seemed to help me get rid of this IList. Result... Based on chollida's answer, I ended up with this which works well: my_list returns [IEvaluator e] : { $e = new MyListEvaluator(); } '$' LPAREN (op=my_ident { $e.Add($op.e); } )+ RPAREN ; The Add method gets called for each match of my_ident.

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  • How to debug an external library (OpenCV) in Visual C++?

    - by neuviemeporte
    I am developing a project in VC++2008. The project uses the OpenCV library (but I guess this applies to any other library). I am working with the Debug configuration, the linker properties include the debug versions of the library .lib's as additional dependencies. In VC++ Directories under Tools|Options i set up the include directory, the .lib directory, the source directories for the library as well. I get an error while calling one of the functions from the library and I'd like to see exactly what that function is doing. The line that produces the error is: double error = cvStereoCalibrate(&calObjPointsM, &img1PointsM, &img2PointsM, &pointCountsM, &cam1M, &dist1M, &cam2M, &dist2M, imgSize, &rotM, &transM, NULL, NULL, cvTermCriteria(CV_TERMCRIT_ITER + CV_TERMCRIT_EPS, 100, 1e-5)); I set up a breakpoint at this line to see how the cvStereoCalibrate() function fails. Unfortunately the debugger won't show the source code for this function when I hit "Step into". It skips immediately to the cvTermCriteria() (which is a simple inline, macro-kinda function) and show its contents. Is there anything else I need to do to be able to enter the external library functions in the debugger? EDIT: I think the cvTermCriteria() function shows in the debugger, because it's defined in a header file, therefore immediately accesible to the project.

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  • Modifying C# dictionary value

    - by minjang
    I'm a C++ expert, but not at all for C#. I created a Dictionary<string, STATS>, where STATS is a simple struct. Once I built the dictionary with initial string and STATS pairs, I want to modify the dictionary's STATS value. In C++, it's very clear: Dictionary<string, STATS*> benchmarks; Initialize it... STATS* stats = benchmarks[item.Key]; // Touch stats directly However, I tried like this in C#: Dictionary<string, STATS> benchmarks = new Dictionary<string, STATS>(); // Initialize benchmarks with a bunch of STATS foreach (var item in _data) benchmarks.Add(item.app_name, item); foreach (KeyValuePair<string, STATS> item in benchmarks) { // I want to modify STATS value inside of benchmarks dictionary. STATS stat_item = benchmarks[item.Key]; ParseOutputFile("foo", ref stat_item); // But, not modified in benchmarks... stat_item is just a copy. } This is a really novice problem, but wasn't easy to find an answer. EDIT: I also tried like the following: STATS stat_item = benchmarks[item.Key]; ParseOutputFile(file_name, ref stat_item); benchmarks[item.Key] = stat_item; However, I got the exception since such action invalidates Dictionary: Unhandled Exception: System.InvalidOperationException: Collection was modified; enumeration operation may not execute. at System.ThrowHelper.ThrowInvalidOperationException(ExceptionResource resource) at System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary`2.Enumerator.MoveNext() at helper.Program.Main(String[] args) in D:\dev\\helper\Program.cs:line 75

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  • How to reduce the need for IISRESET for developing ASP.NET web app in IIS 5.1

    - by John Galt
    I have a web application project on my dev PC running WinXP and hence IIS 5.1. The changes I'm making to this site seem to "take effect" only after I do IISRESET. That is, I make a source change, Rebuild the project and then Start without Debugging (or with debugging). The newly changed code is not "visible" or in effect unless I intervene with an IISRESET. BTW, the "web" tab on the Properties display for the web app project is configured to use the Local IIS web server at project Url: http://localhost/myVirtualDirectory ... but I've noticed the same issue when using the VStudio Dev Server (i.e. I have to stop it by visiting the taskbar tray area in order to see my source changes take effect). Is this something I can change? EDIT UPDATE: Just wanting to clear this up if possible. Two answers diverge below; not sure how to move forward. One states this is to be expected (weakness of IIS 5.1 which in turn is the best WinXP can provide). Another states this is not expected behavior (and I tend to agree since this is the first I've encounted this on the same old WinXP dev platform I've had a long time). I suspect it may be something "deep inside" the Visual Studio 2008 web app which was upgraded to this new IDE from VStudio 2002 (ASP.NET 1.1). I've tried to add comment/questions down each answer path. Thanks.

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  • UITableView superClass for delegate?

    - by fuzzygoat
    A quick question, I am setting a delegate for UITableView and I have a question regarding setting the delegate and dataSource properties. I have noticed that the properties for delegate and dataSource are not available, I was thinking that adopting the protocols would make them available. But I am now thinking that I maybe have the superclass for my delegate class wrong. Currently I have: -(void)viewDidLoad { TestDelegate *tempDelegate = [[TestDelegate alloc] init]; [self setMyDelegate:tempDelegate]; // setDelegate // setDataSource [tempDelegate release]; [super viewDidLoad]; } My interface for TestDelegate looks like: @interface TestDelegate : NSObject <UITableViewDelegate, UITableViewDataSource> { NSArray *listData; int myCounter; } Can I ask if the above should be: @interface TestDelegate : UITableView <UITableViewDelegate, UITableViewDataSource> { NSArray *listData; int myCounter; } gary EDIT: I think it might be right as NSObject, I have a viewtableView in IB, thats what I will need to connect my delegate class to. I added to tableView in IB so maybe I just need to make it available in Xcode.

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  • Programming an IPTV application- Client/Server

    - by Sumit Ghosh
    I am part of a team which has been given a task to deploy an IPTV solution for a company. The system has been architect-ed like this. There is Video capture card , which receives satellite signals from a satellite receiver. This video capture card is part of a windows 7 machine. The signals need to be trans coded here and passed to a streaming server which will be received by end users. The end users will be desktop users having a C#.NET application installed to view the channels. I am confused at the choice of server software as I have multiple choices - Windows Media Server, VideoLan (VLC project), or Flash Media Server, it also supports MPEG-2 HD. My main aim to be able to stream MPEG-2 channels with HD quality and encrypt the channels at the server end so that the streams can be protected. I know reversing is possible but it wont be easy as for every naive user with wireshark snooping my streams. If any of you here has ever done such an implementation please do suggest me the best technologies I should go for. Iam open to C#,C++ and other similar languages. Any help shall be deeply appreciated. edit: End Users shall be part of Internet and not necessarily a lan, reason for this question is internet doesn't support multicast like Lan, so I need some suggestions.

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  • Give More Prominence To DIV or <P> That Is After Floating DIV

    - by Aahan Krish
    Consider this HTML: <div id="entry-content"> <div id="my-300px-ad">AD CODE HERE</div> <p><img src="file.jpg" alt="file" /></p> <p>SOME TEXT</p> <p>SOME MORE TEXT</p> </div> Now, consider that the div#my-300px-ad is floating right. Would it be possible for me to have the image in the next paragraph show up before the ad so that the TEXT in its following paragraphs can wrap around the ad? For example, like this: Why so...? The thing is, due to various reasons (including Google) I want to avoid placing an ad in BETWEEN the post's content. CSS only I am sure that something like this would be possible with some JavaScript code. But I am looking for a CSS-based solution only. (Cross-browser compatibility, = IE8) Please note that ONLY the CSS of div#my-300px-ad can be changed. Nothing else should be touched as this is not a static HTML page, besides they are articles. PS: It was hard to frame a one-line question for this. Please feel free to edit the question's title if it can be made more clear.

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  • How are property assignment expressions handled in C#?

    - by Serious
    In C# you can use a property as both an lrvalue and rvalue at the same time like this : int n = N = 1; Here is a complete C# sample : class Test { static int n; static int N { get { System.Console.WriteLine("get"); return n; } set { System.Console.WriteLine("set"); n = value; } } static void Main() { int n = N = 1; System.Console.WriteLine("{0}/{1}", n, N); } } You can't do that in C++/CLI as the resulting type of the assignment expression "N = 1" is void. EDIT: here is a C++/CLI sample that shows this : ref class A { public: static property int N; }; int main() { int n = A::N = 1; System::Console::WriteLine("{0}/{1}", n, A::N); } So what's the magic behind C# syntax allowing a void-expression to be used as a rvalue ? Is this special treatment only available for properties or do you know other C# tricks like this ?

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