Search Results

Search found 37135 results on 1486 pages for 'html tables'.

Page 638/1486 | < Previous Page | 634 635 636 637 638 639 640 641 642 643 644 645  | Next Page >

• OracleDataAdapter returns no rows, but the query string works in SQLDeveloper

  - by belzebu

  visual studion 2008 oracle db 11.1.0.7 oracle client for .NET I have a relatively simple query, that selects the rows from across multiple tables (up to 4) using joins. OracleDataAdapter returns no rows for the only dataset's table, but if I copy and paste that query in SQLDeveloper then I get the desired results. I can get the data from other tables using the adapter with no problem, but it seems like it struggles with the bit longer selection query (string length is ~ 300 (not that much at all)) Connection string for the connection is 100% correct. Any ideas? thank you...

  Read the article

• join two oracle queries

  - by coder247

  I've to query from two tables and want one result.. how can i join these two queries? First query is querying from two tables and the second one is only from one. select pt.id,pt.promorow,pt.promocolumn,pt.type,pt.image,pt.style,pt.quota_allowed,ptc.text,pq.quota_left from promotables pt,promogroups pg ,promotablecontents ptc ,promoquotas pq where pt.id_promogroup = 1 and ptc.country ='049' and ptc.id_promotable = pt.id and pt.id_promogroup = pg.id and pq.id_promotable = pt.id order by pt.promorow,pt.promocolumn select pt.id,pt.promorow,pt.promocolumn,pt.type,pt.image,pt.style,pt.quota_allowed from promotables pt where pt.type='heading'

  Read the article

• Creating transparent gridlines

  - by Rob Penridge

  I'm trying to get the chart's gridlines to be transparent but it doesn't seem to be supported: http://support.sas.com/documentation/cdl/en/grstatug/63302/HTML/default/viewer.htm#n1f71f6e9v037an1jy274v66z4r1.htm I'm doing to try and blend the gridlines with the chart background color (which in my code can change between colors) which would make the gridlines subtle rather than jarring when background colors change. Here is my code: ** ** TAKE THE DEFAULT STYLE BEING USED. MODIFY IT SO THAT ** GRAPH GRIDLINES WILL BE GREEN AND MOSTLY TRANSPARENT *; proc template; define style my_style; parent = styles.default; style GraphGridLines from GraphGridLines / contrastcolor=green transparency=.05; end; run; ** ** LAYOUT TEMPLATE FOR A SIMPLE SERIES CHART *; proc template; define statgraph mychart; begingraph; layout overlay / wallcolor=black xaxisopts=(display=(line) griddisplay=on) yaxisopts=(display=(line)) ; seriesplot x=name y=height / lineattrs=(color=white); endlayout; endgraph; end; run; ** ** PLOT SAMPLE DATA USING CUSTOM STYLE AND CHART LAYOUT WE JUST DEFINED *; ods graphics / width=640 height=640 ; ods html style=my_style; proc sgrender data=sashelp.class template=mychart; run; ods html close; Is there another way to achieve this effect by blending the green color with the background color?

  Read the article

• SQL Server architecture guidance

  - by Liam

  Hi, We are designing a new version of our existing product on a new schema. Its an internal web application with possibly 100 concurrent users (max)This will run on a SQL Server 2008 database. On of the discussion items recently is whether we should have a single database of split the database for performance reasons across 2 separate databases. The database could grow anywhere from 50-100GB over 5 years. We are Developers and not DBAs so it would be nice to get some general guidance. [I know the answer is not simple as it depends on the schema, archiving policy, amount of data etc. ] Option 1 Single Main Database [This is my preferred option]. The plan would be to have all the tables in a single database and possibly to use file groups and partitioning to separate the data if required across multiple disks. [Use schema if appropriate]. This should deal with the performance concerns One of the comments wrt this was that the a single server instance would still be processing this data so there would still be a processing bottle neck. For reporting we could have a separate reporting DB but this is still being discussed. Option 2 Split the database into 2 separate databases DB1 - Customers, Accounts, Customer resources etc DB2 - This would contain the bulk of the data [i.e. Vehicle tracking data, financial transaction tables etc]. These tables would typically contain a lot of data. [It could reside on a separate server if required] This plan would involve keeping the main data in a smaller database [DB1] and retaining the [mainly] read only transaction type data in a separate DB [DB2]. The UI would mainly read from DB1 and thus be more responsive. [I'm aware that this option makes it harder for Referential Integrity to be enforced.] Points for consideration As we are at the design stage we can at least make proper use of indexes to deal performance issues so thats why option 1 to me is attractive and its more of a standard approach. For both options we are considering implementing an archiving database. Apologies for the long Question. In summary the question is 1 DB or 2? Thanks in advance, Liam

  Read the article

• Alternative to NOT EXISTS

  - by Dave Colwell

  Hi all, I have two tables linked by an ID column, lets call them Table A and table B. My goal is to find all the records in table A that have no record in table B. For instance: Table A: ID----Value 1-----value1 2-----value2 3-----value3 4-----value4 Table B ID----Value 1-----x 2-----y 4-----z 4-----l As you can see, record with ID = 3 does not exist in table B, so i want a query that will give me record 3 from table A. the way i am currently doing this is by saying AND NOT EXISTS (SELECT ID FROM TableB) but since the tables are huge, the performance on this is terrible. Also, when i tried using a Left Join where TableB.ID is null, it didnt work. Can anyone suggest an alternative?

  Read the article

• Where does "new" fit in the flex creation cycle?

  - by deux11

  In the following code, the call to myChild.bar() results in an exception because myChild is null. myParent is a valid object. What I don't understand is why myChild has not been created yet. I have read the following document related to object creation sequence, but I am unsure how "new" is related: http://livedocs.adobe.com/flex/3/html/help.html?content=layoutperformance_03.html Any help is appreciated! // Main.mxml <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" creationComplete="created()"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ public var myParent:Parent = new Parent(); public function created():void { myParent.foo(); } ]]> </mx:Script> </mx:Application> // Parent.mxml <mx:Canvas xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" xmlns="*"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ public function foo():void { myChild.bar(); } ]]> </mx:Script> <Child id="myChild"/> </mx:Canvas> // Child.mxml <mx:Canvas xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ public function bar():void { trace("Hello World"); } ]]> </mx:Script> </mx:Canvas>

  Read the article

• JPA Database strcture for internationalisation

  - by IrishDubGuy

  I am trying to get a JPA implementation of a simple approach to internationalisation. I want to have a table of translated strings that I can reference in multiple fields in multiple tables. So all text occurrences in all tables will be replaced by a reference to the translated strings table. In combination with a language id, this would give a unique row in the translated strings table for that particular field. For example, consider a schema that has entities Course and Module as follows :- Course int course_id, int name, int description Module int module_id, int name The course.name, course.description and module.name are all referencing the id field of the translated strings table :- TranslatedString int id, String lang, String content That all seems simple enough. I get one table for all strings that could be internationalised and that table is used across all the other tables. How might I do this in JPA, using eclipselink 2.4? I've looked at embedded ElementCollection, ala this... JPA 2.0: Mapping a Map - it isn't exactly what i'm after cos it looks like it is relating the translated strings table to the pk of the owning table. This means I can only have one translatable string field per entity (unless I add new join columns into the translatable strings table, which defeats the point, its the opposite of what I am trying to do). I'm also not clear on how this would work across entites, presumably the id of each entity would have to use a database wide sequence to ensure uniqueness of the translatable strings table. BTW, I tried the example as laid out in that link and it didn't work for me - as soon as the entity had a localizedString map added, persisting it caused the client side to bomb but no obvious error on the server side and nothing persisted in the DB :S I been around the houses on this about 9 hours so far, I've looked at this Internationalization with Hibernate which appears to be trying to do the same thing as the link above (without the table definitions it hard to see what he achieved). Any help would be gratefully achieved at this point... Edit 1 - re AMS anwser below, I'm not sure that really addresses the issue. In his example it leaves the storing of the description text to some other process. The idea of this type of approach is that the entity object takes the text and locale and this (somehow!) ends up in the translatable strings table. In the first link I gave, the guy is attempting to do this by using an embedded map, which I feel is the right approach. His way though has two issues - one it doesn't seem to work! and two if it did work, it is storing the FK in the embedded table instead of the other way round (I think, I can't get it to run so I can't see exactly how it persists). I suspect the correct approach ends up with a map reference in place of each text that needs translating (the map being locale-content), but I can't see how to do this in a way that allows for multiple maps in one entity (without having corresponding multiple columns in the translatable strings table)...

  Read the article

• Select in a many-to-many relationship in MySQL

  - by Joff Williams

  I have two tables in a MySQL database, Locations and Tags, and a third table LocationsTagsAssoc which associates the two tables and treats them as a many-to-many relationship. Table structure is as follows: Locations --------- ID int (Primary Key) Name varchar(128) LocationsTagsAssoc ------------------ ID int (Primary Key) LocationID int (Foreign Key) TagID int (Foreign Key) Tags ---- ID int (Primary Key) Name varchar(128) So each location can be tagged with multiple tagwords, and each tagword can be tagged to multiple locations. What I want to do is select only Locations which are tagged with all of the tag names supplied. For example: I want all locations which are tagged with both "trees" and "swings". Location "Park" should be selected, but location "Forest" should not. Any insight would be appreciated. Thanks!

  Read the article

• How to use multiple database in a PHP web application?

  - by Harish

  I am making a PHP web Application in which i am using MySQL as database server, i want to make backup of some tables from one database to another database(with that tables in it). i have created two different connection, but the table is not updated. $dbcon1 = mysql_connect(DB_SERVER,DB_USER,DB_PASSWORD) or die(mysql_error()); $dbase1 = mysql_select_db(TEMP_DB_NAME,$dbcon)or die(mysql_error()); $query1=mysql_query("SELECT * FROM emp"); while($row = mysql_fetch_array($query1, MYSQL_NUM)) { $dbcon2 = mysql_connect(DB_SERVER,DB_USER,DB_PASSWORD) or die(mysql_error()); $dbase2 = mysql_select_db(TEMP_DB_NAME2,$dbcon)or die(mysql_error()); mysql_query("INSERT INTO backup_emp VALUES(null,'$row[1]',$row[2])"); mysql_close($dbcon2); } the code above is taking the data of emp from first database, and updataing it into another backup_emp table of another database. the code is not working properly, is there any other way of doing this...please help.

  Read the article

• Progressively stream the output of an ASP.NET page - or render a page outside of an HTTP request

  - by Evgeny

  I have an ASP.NET 2.0 page with many repeating blocks, including a third-party server-side control (so it's not just plain HTML). Each is quite expensive to generate, in terms of both CPU and RAM. I'm currently using a standard Repeater control for this. There are two problems with this simple approach: The entire page must be rendered before any of it is returned to the client, so the user must wait a long time before they see any data. (I write progress messages using Response.Write, so there is feedback, but no actual results.) The ASP.NET worker process must hold everything in memory at the same time. There is no inherent needs for this: once one block is processed it won't be changed, so it could be returned to the client and the memory could be freed. I would like to somehow return these blocks to the client one at a time, as each is generated. I'm thinking of extracting the stuff inside the Repeater into a separate page and getting it repeatedly using AJAX, but there are some complications involved in that and I wonder if there is some simper approach. Ideally I'd like to keep it as one page (from the client's point of view), but return it incrementally. Another way would be to do something similar, but on the server: still create a separate page, but have the server access it and then Response.Write() the HTML it gets to the response stream for the real client request. Is there a way to avoid an HTTP request here, though? Is there some ASP.NET method that would render a UserControl or a Page outside of an HTTP request and simply return the HTML to me as a string? I'm open to other ideas on how to do this as well.

  Read the article

• Have Microsoft changed how ASP.NET MVC deals with duplicate action method names?

  - by Jason Evans

  I might be missing something here, but in ASP.NET MVC 4, I can't get the following to work. Given the following controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string order1, string order2) { return null; } } and it's view: @{ ViewBag.Title = "Home"; } @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.TextBox("order1")<br /> @Html.TextBox("order2") <input type="submit" value="Save"/> } When start the app, all I get is this: The current request for action 'Index' on controller type 'HomeController' is ambiguous between the following action methods: System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index() on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index(System.String, System.String) on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController Now, in ASP.NET MVC 3 the above works fine, I just tried it, so what's changed in ASP.NET MVC 4 to break this? OK there could be a chance that I'm doing something silly here, and not noticing it. EDIT: I notice that in the MVC 4 app, the Global.asax.cs file did not contain this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); } which the MVC 3 app does, by default. So I added the above to the MVC 4 app but it fails with the same error. Note that the MVC 3 app does work fine with the above route. I'm passing the "order" data via the Request.Form. EDIT: In the file RouteConfig.cs I can see RegisterRoutes is executed, with the following default route: routes.MapRoute( name: "Default", url: "{controller}/{action}/{id}", defaults: new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); I still get the original error, regards ambiguity between which Index() method to call.

  Read the article

• Need help on nested loop of queries in php and mysql?

  - by mysqllearner

  Hi, I am trying to get do this: <?php $good_customer = 0; $q = mysql_query("SELECT user FROM users WHERE activated = '1'"); // this gives me about 40k users while($r = mysql_fetch_assoc($q)){ $money_spent = 0; $user = $r['user']; // Do queries on another 20 tables for($i = 1; $i<=20 ; $i++){ $tbl_name = 'data' . $i; $q2 = mysql_query("SELECT money_spent FROM $tbl_name WHERE user = '{$user}'"); while($r2 = mysql_fetch_assoc($q2)){ $money_spend += $r2['money_spent']; } if($money_spend > 1000000){ $good_customer += 1; } } } This is just an example. I am testing on localhost, for single user, it returns very fast. But when I try 1000, it takes forever, not even mentioned 40k users. Anyway to optimise/improve this code? EDIT: By the way, each of the others 20 tables has ~20 - 40k records

  Read the article

• Running code/script as a result of a form submission in ASP.NET

  - by firmbeliever

  An outside vendor did some html work for us, and I'm filling in the actual functionality. I have an issue that I need help with. He created a simple html page that is opened as a modal pop-up. It contains a form with a few input fields and a submit button. On submitting, an email should be sent using info from the input fields. I turned his simple html page into a simple aspx page, added runat=server to the form, and added the c# code inside script tags to create and send the email. It technically works but has a big issue. After the information is submitted and the email is sent, the page (which is supposed to just be a modal pop-up type thing) gets reloaded, but it is now no longer a pop-up. It's reloaded as a standalone page. So I'm trying to find out if there is a way to get the form to just execute those few lines of c# code on submission without reloading the form. I'm somewhat aware of cgi scripts, but from what I've read, that can be buggy with IIS and all. Plus I'd like to think I could get these few lines of code to run without creating a separate executable. Any help is greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• Fulltext for innoDB? or a good solution for php app

  - by Joshua

  I have a table I want to run a fulltext search on, but it is currently innoDB and is using a lot of foreign keys for other kinds of queries. Should I make like a 1:1 "meta-data" table that is myisam for fulltext? Also I am reading some things that say that fulltext corrupts MySQL tables pretty randomly? I dunno, the articles are a couple years old, maybe they've fixed that in 5+? If not what's a good solution for searching? Zend_Lucene seems cool but slow, even with caching, for the client's large tables and autocomplete functionality et al.

  Read the article

• PHP/MySQL: Check if something 'belongs-to' something else?

  - by Nebs

  I have two tables: Stores and Items. The relationship is: Stores 1---* Items In PHP/MySQL what would be the best (fastest/simplest) way to check if a particular item belongs to a particular store. In other words given for example: $store_id = 1; $item_id = 12; I want to check if item 12 belongs to store 1 (and not some other store). I usually do a select on Items matching both the store_id and item_id and limit the results to 1. Then check how many rows (0 or 1) were returned with mysql_num_rows. Is there a better way? Update: Both tables have an "id" column. The Items table has a "store_id" column.

  Read the article

• Sort a GridView Column related to other Table

  - by Tim

  Hello, i have a GridView bound to a DataView. Some columns in the DataView's table are foreignkeys to related tables(f.e. Customer). I want to enable sorting for these columns too, but all i can do is sorting the foreignkey(fiCustomer) and not the CustomerName. I have tried this without success(" Cannot find column ERP_Customer.CustomerName "): <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Customer" SortExpression="ERP_Customer.CustomerName" > A tried also the DataViewManager, but i've a problem to detect the table to sort: Dim viewManager As New DataViewManager(Me.dsERP) viewManager.DataViewSettings(dsERP.ERP_Charge).RowFilter = filter viewManager.DataViewSettings(dsERP.ERP_Charge).Sort = sort 'sort is the GridView's SortExpression Me.GrdCharge.DataSource = viewManager.CreateDataView(dsERP.ERP_Charge) I have to apply the sort on a distinct table of the DataViewManager, but this table would differ on the related tables. I have bound the TemplateColumns in Codebehind in RowDataBound-Event f.e.: Dim LblCustomer As Label = DirectCast(e.Row.FindControl("LblCustomer"), Label) LblCustomer.Text = drCharge.ERP_CustomerRow.CustomerName 'drCharge inherits DataRow What is the recommended way to sort a GridView on columns related to another table?

  Read the article

• TypeError when using v 0.8.1 of FLOT library, but no error with v. 0.7

  - by DanielAttard

  I need some help to figure out why I am getting an error when trying to create a simple graph using the jQuery FLOT library. When I reference version 0.7 of the FLOT library, the page renders correctly: http://attardpropertytax.ca/flot07.html But when I switch to version 0.8.1 of the FLOT library, the page returns an error saying: Uncaught TypeError: Cannot read property 'left' of null http://attardpropertytax.ca/flot81.html The HTML is the same for both pages, so I cannot figure out why the new version 0.8.1 of FLOT returns an error, but the old version 0.7 does not. Any ideas? I somehow stumbled across a work-around that managed to fix my problem. I'm nut sure why, but I had to comment-out the following two sections of code from the v. 0.8.1 FLOT library: This was the first spot: // If the grid is visible, add its border width to the offset for (var a in plotOffset) { if(typeof(options.grid.borderWidth) == "object") { plotOffset[a] += showGrid ? options.grid.borderWidth[a] : 0; } else { plotOffset[a] += showGrid ? options.grid.borderWidth : 0; } } And this was the second spot: if (isNaN(v) || v < axis.min || v > axis.max // skip those lying on the axes if we got a border || (t == "full" && ((typeof bw == "object" && bw[axis.position] > 0) || bw > 0) && (v == axis.min || v == axis.max))) continue; I'm sure eventually @DNS will be taking a look at this question and maybe he will be able to help me understand what is going wrong with my code. Thanks.

  Read the article

• MySQL multi CREATE TABLE syntax help?

  - by rlb.usa

  Hi guys, I'm trying to write a MySQL script that creates several tables. I have: CREATE TABLE `DataBase1`.`tbl_this`( ... ); CREATE TABLE `DataBase1`.`tbl_that`( ... ); ... (14 more) ... BUT, only the first CREATE TABLE statement is executed. I get no syntax errors. Erm, am I missing the MSSQL equivalent of GO ? What am I doing wrong here; how do I get this baby to run all the tables?

  Read the article

• using 'or' operator not working for menu

  - by John Wilkes

  In my code here, I have a CSS class called "active" which I use if the $_GET['page'] == tutorials, php, mysql, etc... The problem is, even if the 'page' variable is not equal to any of these values, the Tutorials button in this case is still active for some reason. Any ideas why this would be happening? Am I using the 'or' (||) operand incorrectly? <?php if($_GET['page'] == 'tutorials' || 'php' || 'mysql' || 'html' || 'css' || 'js') { ?> <li class="active"> <?php } else { ?> <li> <?php } ?> <a href="index.php?page=tutorials">Tutorials</a> <ul> <li><a href="index.php?page=php">PHP</a></li> <li><a href="index.php?page=mysql">MySQL</a></li> <li><a href="index.php?page=html">HTML</a></li> <li><a href="index.php?page=css">CSS</a></li> <li><a href="index.php?page=js">JS</a></li> </ul> </li>

  Read the article

• Json get a parameter can't access on it iOS

  - by Usi Usi

  That's an example { "updated":1350213484, "id":"http://www.google.com/reader/api/0/feed-finder?q\u003dProva\u0026output\u003djson", "title":"Risultati di feed per \"Prova\"", "self":[ { "href":"http://www.google.com/reader/api/0/feed-finder?q\u003dProva\u0026output\u003djson" } ], "items":[ { "title":"Home Page - La prova del cuoco", "id":"http://www.laprovadelcuoco.rai.it/", "updated":1350213485, "feed":[ { "href":"http://www.laprovadelcuoco.rai.it/dl/portali/site/page/Page-ffb545b4-9e72-41e5-866f-a465588c43fa-rss.html" } ], "alternate":[ { "href":"http://www.laprovadelcuoco.rai.it/", "type":"text/html" } ], "content":{ "direction":"ltr", "content":"Diventa un cuoco provetto con “La Prova del Cuoco”: le videoricette in un' applicazione di facile e veloce consultazione per il tuo Iphone. Scopri come acquistare ..." } }, { "title":"Le prove Invalsi di matematica e italiano", "id":"http://online.scuola.zanichelli.it/quartaprova/", "updated":1350213486, "feed":[ { "href":"http://online.scuola.zanichelli.it/quartaprova/feed/" } ], "alternate":[ { "href":"http://online.scuola.zanichelli.it/quartaprova/", "type":"text/html" } ], "content":{ "direction":"ltr", "content":"Un sito Zanichelli dedicato alle prove Invalsi di italiano e matematica: esercitazioni, consigli, informazioni utili, novità, aggiornamenti e blog d'autore sulle prove ..." } }, How can I get the feed URL? That's what I do NSString *daParsare=[reader searchFeed:searchText]; NSArray *items = [[daParsare JSONValue] objectForKey:@"items"]; for (NSDictionary *item in items) { NSString *title = [item objectForKey:@"title"]; NSString *feed = [item valueForKeyPath:@"feed.href"]; } [tab reloadData]; With the title everything is ok but when I try to access to the feed paramater I get the error...

  Read the article

• Weird problem with PHP mail() under Linux.

  - by Vilx-

  This is the case when it "works on my machine". Except that my machine is Windows, and the target is some sort of Linux. The idea is that the mail() function puts a newline between the MIME-Version and Content-Type headers, thus breaking the whole thing. Here's the code, simpliefied as much as possible: <?php $HTMLPart = chunk_split(base64_encode('<html><body style="color: red">Test.</body></html>')); $PlaintextPart = chunk_split(base64_encode('>>> TEST <<<')); $Headers =<<<AKAM From: "My Test" <[email protected]> Reply-To: [email protected] MIME-Version: 1.0 Content-Type: multipart/alternative; boundary="9-1410065408-1410065408=:27514" AKAM; $Body =<<<AKAM This is a multi-part message in MIME format. --9-1410065408-1410065408=:27514 Content-Type: text/plain; charset="windows-1252" Content-Transfer-Encoding: base64 $PlaintextPart --9-1410065408-1410065408=:27514 Content-Type: text/html; charset="windows-1252" Content-Transfer-Encoding: base64 $HTMLPart --9-1410065408-1410065408=:27514-- AKAM; echo 'Try 3: '; echo mail('[email protected]', 'Testmail', $Body, $Headers) ? 'WIN' : 'FAIL'; ?>

  Read the article

• Implementing Tagging using Core Data on the iPhone

  - by Jonathan Penn

  I have an application that uses CoreData and I'm trying to figure out the best way to implement tagging and filtering by tag. For my purposes, if I was doing this in raw SQLite I would only need three tables, tags, item_tags and of course my items table. Then filtering would be as simple as joining between the three tables where only items are related to the given tags. Quite straightforward. But, is there a way to do this in CoreData and utilizing NSFetchedResultsController? It doesn't seem that NSPredicate give you the ability to filter through joins. NSPredicate's aren't full SQL anyway so I'm probably barking up the wrong tree there. I'm trying to avoid reimplementing my app using SQLite without CoreData since I'm enjoying the performance CoreData gives me in other areas. Yes, I did consider (and built a test implementation) diving into the raw SQLite that CoreData generates, but that's not future proof and I want to avoid that, too. Has anyone else tried to tackle tagging/filtering with CoreData in a UITableView with NSFetchedResultsController

  Read the article

• PHP what is faster to use

  - by user1631500

  What is faster / better to use? To put html into variables and print them later, or to just html print / echo print the content based on condition? EXAMPLE 1:(html into variables) if(!isset($_SESSION['daddy'])) { $var = "<span class='something'>Go here:<a href='#'>Click</a></span> <span class='something'>Go here:<a href='#'>Click</a></span>" } else { $one=$_SESSION["one"]; $two=$_SESSION["two"]; $three=$_SESSION["three"]; $var = You are cool enough to view the content; } echo $var; EXAMPLE 2:(print based on condition) if(!isset($_SESSION['daddy'])) { $var = 1; } else { $one=$_SESSION["one"]; $two=$_SESSION["two"]; $three=$_SESSION["three"]; $var = 0; } if ($var==1) { ?> <span class='something'>Go here:<a href='#'>Click</a></span> <span class='something'>Go here:<a href='#'>Click</a></span <?php } else { ?> You are cool enough to view the content. <?php } ?>

  Read the article

• Parent-Child relation while using object data source

  - by Saba

  Hello guys I am experiencing with a class generator I've written, which generates a class for each table in database with each table field as a property and such. Before that, I used to add a typed dataset to the project and add some tables to it. It automatically detected the relationship between tables and when I added a parent table as data source of a datagrid, I could add another datagrid and use the foreing key data member of it's bindingsource to fill it, and when someone moved the focus on parent datagrid, the data in child datagrid would change accordingly. Now that I have my classes, I add an object as data source for my 2 datagrids, but obviously it doesn't detect a parent child relation. But It'd really help if I could have that foreign key relation in my object datasources. Is there any way to have that relation in object datasource?

  Read the article

• Database permissions and ORMs

  - by Jonn

  I've been using .NET's Entity Framework a lot lately and have absolutely no wish to go back to using Stored Procedures. Been shocked though that the company I'm building this project for had a policy where applications were only given accounts that only had permissions to access stored procedures! Apparently, they believe that there's a security risk involved in allowing applications to access the tables/views directly. I don't get this. My first question is, can someone enlighten me as to what kind of security risk applications having direct access to the database may pose? AND If that's the case, are there any other ORM solutions that can provide a workaround to this (I can't think of any logical possibility atm) that would allow me to circumvent the restrictions on the user account to be assigned to me? OR is my understanding that I'd need direct permissions for the tables and views wrong?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 634 635 636 637 638 639 640 641 642 643 644 645  | Next Page >