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• Jquery Ajax + PHP

  - by Kris.Mitchell

  I am having problems with jQuery Ajax and PHP I have my php file set up to echo the data I am gathering from a mysql database. I have verified that the database is returning something and that the string at the end of the function actually contains data. What is happening though, is that it looks like the php echo is happening before the ajax call, causing the php data to be displayed at the top of the page, and not below in proper div. I think it might have something to do with timing of the ajax and the php call, but I am not sure. So, why is the data not getting caught by the .ajax and thrown into the div? Thanks for the help! jQuery $(document).ready(function() { $.ajax({ url: "../database_functions.php", type: "GET", data: "cat=jw&sub=pi&sort=no", cache: false, success: function (html) { alert("Success!"); $('#product-list').html(html); } }); }); PHP echo "Hello World";

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• Creating transparent gridlines

  - by Rob Penridge

  I'm trying to get the chart's gridlines to be transparent but it doesn't seem to be supported: http://support.sas.com/documentation/cdl/en/grstatug/63302/HTML/default/viewer.htm#n1f71f6e9v037an1jy274v66z4r1.htm I'm doing to try and blend the gridlines with the chart background color (which in my code can change between colors) which would make the gridlines subtle rather than jarring when background colors change. Here is my code: ** ** TAKE THE DEFAULT STYLE BEING USED. MODIFY IT SO THAT ** GRAPH GRIDLINES WILL BE GREEN AND MOSTLY TRANSPARENT *; proc template; define style my_style; parent = styles.default; style GraphGridLines from GraphGridLines / contrastcolor=green transparency=.05; end; run; ** ** LAYOUT TEMPLATE FOR A SIMPLE SERIES CHART *; proc template; define statgraph mychart; begingraph; layout overlay / wallcolor=black xaxisopts=(display=(line) griddisplay=on) yaxisopts=(display=(line)) ; seriesplot x=name y=height / lineattrs=(color=white); endlayout; endgraph; end; run; ** ** PLOT SAMPLE DATA USING CUSTOM STYLE AND CHART LAYOUT WE JUST DEFINED *; ods graphics / width=640 height=640 ; ods html style=my_style; proc sgrender data=sashelp.class template=mychart; run; ods html close; Is there another way to achieve this effect by blending the green color with the background color?

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• How can I (both) create a row and accessing that row in the same 'Stored Procedure'?

  - by Richard77

  Hello, I'd like to get the value of the id column for an object just after I've created it. But I don't want to run another query for that. My book for beginner (SQL Server 2008 for Dummies) says that there are 2 tables (inserted and deleted) that hold the last row(s) that have been inserted, updated, or deleted. Unfortunately, only Triggers (says the book) can access those tables. But, if I use triggers, they will go off each time I "insert" a row even when I don't need them that functionality. Can I obtain the same effect with a Store Procedure (without having to run a separate query?) This is what I'm trying to do CREATE PROCEDURE myProcedure DECLARE @OrganizationName @ColumnID OUTPUT AS INSERT INTO Organization (OrganizationName) VALUES (@OrganizationName) SET @ColumnID = (// Please, I need Help here ...) Thanks for helping

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• Get the identity value from an insert via a .net dataset update call

  - by DeveloperMCT

  Here is some sample code that inserts a record into a db table: Dim ds As DataSet = New DataSet() da.Fill(ds, "Shippers") Dim RowDatos As DataRow RowDatos = ds.Tables("Shippers").NewRow RowDatos.Item("CompanyName") = "Serpost Peru" RowDatos.Item("Phone") = "(511) 555-5555" ds.Tables("Shippers").Rows.Add(RowDatos) Dim custCB As SqlCommandBuilder = New SqlCommandBuilder(da) da.Update(ds, "Shippers") It inserts a row in the Shippers Table, the ShippersID is a Indentity value. My question is how can i retrieve the Identity value generated when the new row is inserted in the Shippers table. I have done several web searches and the sources I've seen on the net don't answer it speccifically or go on to talk about stored procedures. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks!

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• Parse error: syntax error, unexpected T_STRING with index.php?

  - by janoChen

  It works perfectly in local host but when I upload it intothe server it has the following error: Parse error: syntax error, unexpected T_STRING in D:\Hosting\4923367\html\beta\index.php on line 4 index.php: <?php include_once 'localization.php'; ?> <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html> <head> <!--Start Kampyle Exit-Popup Code--> <script type="text/javascript"> var k_push_vars = { "view_percentage": 10, "popup_font_color": "#000000", "popup_background": "#D4E2F0", "header": "Your feedback is important to us!", "question": "Would you be willing to give us a short (1 minute) feedback?", "footer": "Thank you for helping us improve our website", "yes": "Yes", "no": "No", "text_direction": "ltr", "images_dir": "http://cf.kampyle.com/", "yes_background": "#76AC78", "no_background": "#8D9B86", "site_code": 9662374 } </script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://cf.kampyle.com/k_push.js"></script> <!--End Kampyle Exit-Popup Code--> <!-- Start Kampyle Css --> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" media="screen" href="http://cf.kampyle.com/k_button.css" /> <!-- End Kampyle Css --> (continues)

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• help with generating models from database for many to many in doctrine

  - by ajsie

  im using doctrine and i have set up some test tables to be generated into models: I want a many-to-many relationship models (3 tables converted into 3 models) (things are simplified to make the point clear) mysql tables: user: id INT // primary key name VARCHAR group: id INT // primary key name VARCHAR user_group: user_id INT // primary and foreign key to user.id group_id INT // primary and foreign key to group.id i thought that it would generate these models (from the documentation): // User.php class User extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('id'); $this->hasColumn('name); } public function setUp() { $this->hasMany('Group as Groups', array( 'refClass' => 'UserGroup', 'local' => 'user_id', 'foreign' => 'group_id' ) ); } } // Group.php class Group extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('id'); $this->hasColumn('name); } public function setUp() { $this->hasMany('User as Users', array( 'refClass' => 'UserGroup', 'local' => 'group_id', 'foreign' => 'user_id' ) ); } } // UserGroup.php class UserGroup extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('user_id') ); $this->hasColumn('group_id') ); } } but it generated this: // User.php abstract class BaseUser extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('id'); $this->hasColumn('name'); } public function setUp() { $this->hasMany('UserGroup', array( 'local' => 'id', 'foreign' => 'user_id')); } } // Group.php abstract class BaseGroup extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('id'); $this->hasColumn('name'); } public function setUp() { $this->hasMany('UserGroup', array( 'local' => 'id', 'foreign' => 'group_id')); } } // UserGroup.php abstract class BaseUserGroup extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('user_id'); $this->hasColumn('group_id'); } public function setUp() { $this->hasOne('User', array( 'local' => 'user_id', 'foreign' => 'id')); $this->hasOne('Group', array( 'local' => 'group_id', 'foreign' => 'id')); } } as you can see, there is no 'refClass' in the 'User' and 'Group' models pointing to the 'UserGroup'. the 'UserGroup' table in this case is just another table from Doctrine's perspective not a reference table. I've checked my table definitions in mysql. They are correct. user_group has 2 columns (primary keys and foreign keys), each one pointing to the primary key in either User or Group. But i want the standard many-to-many relationship models in Doctrine models. I'd appreciate some help. I have struggled to figure it out for a half day now. What is wrong? Thanks!

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• Partioning the Table into .net - Creating columner database.

  - by Omky

  Hello Geeks, I am developing some tool for BI. There are terms like Fact, Dimensions and Measures. My application will connect to the normal database and read the data from that table. Now, I want to convert all this data into columnar database. That is all the columns from this table will be transfer into 3 tables each. Consider below table:- ID Product 1 XYZ 2 ABC 3 ABC Now, I want to convert the Product column i.e. dimension into 3 tables. dim_product_table:- ID Product 1 XYZ 2 ABC dim_product_fmk(fact map by key):- Where we will store key-value pair of Key Row 1 1 1 2 2 3 dim_product_fmr(fact map by row):- The above table will be reversed. Row Key 1 1 2 1 3 2 The another requirement is all above table should be generated dynamically and I should be able to JOIN all those. Can anybody help me? Thanks in advance.

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• call back function set by JS settimeout doesn't work in IE8....

  - by NAG

  <html <head <script function addEvent( obj, type, fn ) { if ( obj.attachEvent ) { obj['e'+type+fn] = fn; obj[type+fn] = function(){obj['e'+type+fn]( window.event );} obj.attachEvent( 'on'+type, obj[type+fn] ); } else obj.addEventListener( type, fn, false ); } </script </head <body <!-- HTML for example event goes here -- <div id="mydiv" style="border: 1px solid black; width: 100px; height: 100px; margin-top: 10px;"</div <script // Script for example event goes here addEvent(document.getElementById('mydiv'), 'contextmenu', function(event) { display_short('right-clicked (contextmenu)'); }); function display_short(str) { clearTimeout(); document.getElementById('mydiv').innerHTML = str; if (str != '') alert("hello"); setTimeout("display_short('abcd')", 1000); } </script </body </html Behaves diffrently in IE and FF when you right click on the div area. In ff display_short will be called for evry 1 sec eventhough you dont release right click but in IE it will not call display_short if you dont release right click. But i expect in IE it should call display_short for every 1 sec if you dont release also. Is there any solution for this?

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• Zend Framework Relations vs. Table Select

  - by rtmilker

  Hey! I just want to know your guys opinion on using join tables within the zend framework. Of course you can use relations by defining a referenceMap and dependentTables and stuff, or using setIntegrityCheck(false) within a db select(). The setIntegrityCheck version seems a little bit dirty to me, but the other version is not very suitable for big querys and joining many tables... I'm a PHP developer for 5 years now and new to the zend framework and just want get a direction for my first project. Thanks!!!

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• simple fbml fb:login-button is not rendering in ie6

  - by Mark

  The following codes works in FF and Chrome, but IE6 does not render the connect button. What am I missing here? <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns:fb="http://www.facebook.com/2008/fbml"> <head> <title></title> </head> <body> <fb:login-button>Login button</fb:login-button> <script src="http://static.ak.connect.facebook.com/js/api_lib/v0.4/FeatureLoader.js.php" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> FB_RequireFeatures(["XFBML"], function(){ FB.Facebook.init("API_KEY", "/xd_receiver.htm"); }); </script> </body> </html>

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• Stop invalid data in a attribute with foreign key constraint using triggers?

  - by Eternal Learner

  How to specify a trigger which checks if the data inserted into a tables foreign key attribute, actually exists in the references table. If it exist no action should be performed , else the trigger should delete the inserted tuple. Eg: Consider have 2 tables R(A int Primary Key) and S(B int Primary Key , A int Foreign Key References R(A) ) . I have written a trigger like this : Create Trigger DelS BEFORE INSERT ON S FOR EACH ROW BEGIN Delete FROM S where New.A <> ( Select * from R;) ); End; I am sure I am making a mistake while specifying the inner sub query within the Begin and end Blocks of the trigger. My question is how do I make such a trigger ?

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• document class problem in latex

  - by laspal

  Hi, My problem is my full tables and text are coming some says 15 cm away from left side, so my text has very less space on right side says 3cm. How can I change my text and tables to start from 5 cm awayfrom left and 5 cm before right side. What all \documentclass[] {} can I try to change this format. \documentclass[a4paper]{article} \usepackage{graphics} \usepackage{color} \usepackage{hyperref} \usepackage{multirow} \usepackage{longtable} \usepackage{fullpage} \usepackage[pdftex]{graphicx} \usepackage{fancyhdr} \oddsidemargin 0cm \evensidemargin 0cm \pagestyle{fancy} \renewcommand{\headrulewidth}{0.0pt} \lfoot{%(full_name)s/%(emp_id)s/\thepage} \cfoot{} \topmargin -2.5cm \parindent 0cm \textheight 27.5cm \parskip 3mm \begin{document} \fontencoding{\encodingdefault} \renewcommand{\familydefault}{\sfdefault} \fontshape{\shapedefault} \selectfont Thanks

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• Have Microsoft changed how ASP.NET MVC deals with duplicate action method names?

  - by Jason Evans

  I might be missing something here, but in ASP.NET MVC 4, I can't get the following to work. Given the following controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string order1, string order2) { return null; } } and it's view: @{ ViewBag.Title = "Home"; } @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.TextBox("order1")<br /> @Html.TextBox("order2") <input type="submit" value="Save"/> } When start the app, all I get is this: The current request for action 'Index' on controller type 'HomeController' is ambiguous between the following action methods: System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index() on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index(System.String, System.String) on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController Now, in ASP.NET MVC 3 the above works fine, I just tried it, so what's changed in ASP.NET MVC 4 to break this? OK there could be a chance that I'm doing something silly here, and not noticing it. EDIT: I notice that in the MVC 4 app, the Global.asax.cs file did not contain this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); } which the MVC 3 app does, by default. So I added the above to the MVC 4 app but it fails with the same error. Note that the MVC 3 app does work fine with the above route. I'm passing the "order" data via the Request.Form. EDIT: In the file RouteConfig.cs I can see RegisterRoutes is executed, with the following default route: routes.MapRoute( name: "Default", url: "{controller}/{action}/{id}", defaults: new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); I still get the original error, regards ambiguity between which Index() method to call.

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• Why is IE8 on XP not properly reading from XML using JQuery?

  - by dking

  Given this XML in data.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <data> <bar>100</bar> </data> I want to display the content from the "bar" element using the following code in test.html <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.3.2/jquery.min.js"></script> </head> <body> <script type="text/javascript"> $.get('data.xml', function(xml) { var foo = $(xml).find('bar').text(); document.write("<span>foo: [" + foo + "]</span>"); }); </script> </body> </html> The output in webkit based browsers: foo: [100] The output in IE8 on XP: foo: [] Why do webkit browsers read the element's content correctly while IE8 interprets it as an empty string?

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• Accettend letter and other graphic simbols PHP->JS

  - by Kreker

  I have to read a txt via file php. This file contains some normal so may contains this kind of symbols : € é ò à ° % etc I read the content in php with file_get_contents and transform these for inserenting in SQL database. $contFile = file_get_contents($pathFile); $testoCommento = htmlspecialchars($contFile,ENT_QUOTES); $testoCommento = addslashes($testoCommento); Now if I have this text for example : "l'attesa ?é cruciale fino a quando il topo non viene morso dall'?€" in the database I have this: l&#039;attesa è cruciale fino a quando il topo non veniene morso dall&#039;€ When I was GETTING the data from the database I use the php function for decode html entites $descrizione = htmlspecialchars_decode($risultato['descrizione'],ENT_QUOTES); $descrizione = addslashes($descrizione); Now I use jasvascript and AJAX for getting the table content and display to an HTML page In the browser instead of getting the correct text (€,è) I have square symbol. I think there is some mess with charset code/decode but never figured out. The SQL' table is in "utf8_unicode_ci" format and the column in "utf8_general_ci". The content-type of the page is <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> Thanks for help me!

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• JSP - Beginner question , Bypass the if..statement on page load?

  - by TatMing

  i am new in JSP,i have some problem with the following code : <%@ page contentType="text/html;charset=Big5" %> <html> <head> <title></title> </head> <body> <form method="post" action="InsertStudent.jsp"> <input type="text" size="20" name="txtName" /> <input type="text" size="20" name="txtDob" /> <input type="text" size="20" name="txtProStudied" /> <input type="submit" name="B1" value="Submit" /> </form> <% if (request.getParameter("txtName") !="" && request.getParameter("txtDob") != "" && request.getParameter("txtProStudied") != "" ) { out.println("...bypass the if....statement"); } %> </body> </html> If run this code, the out.println will fire even the 3 input box have value or not..

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• Database permissions and ORMs

  - by Jonn

  I've been using .NET's Entity Framework a lot lately and have absolutely no wish to go back to using Stored Procedures. Been shocked though that the company I'm building this project for had a policy where applications were only given accounts that only had permissions to access stored procedures! Apparently, they believe that there's a security risk involved in allowing applications to access the tables/views directly. I don't get this. My first question is, can someone enlighten me as to what kind of security risk applications having direct access to the database may pose? AND If that's the case, are there any other ORM solutions that can provide a workaround to this (I can't think of any logical possibility atm) that would allow me to circumvent the restrictions on the user account to be assigned to me? OR is my understanding that I'd need direct permissions for the tables and views wrong?

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• ASP.MVC 2 Model Data Persistance

  - by toccig

  I'm and MVC1 programmer, new to the MVC2. The data will not persist to the database in an edit scenario. Create works fine. Controller: // // POST: /Attendee/Edit/5 [Authorize(Roles = "Admin")] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(Attendee attendee) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { UpdateModel(attendee, "Attendee"); repository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", attendee); } else { return View(attendee); } } Model: [MetadataType(typeof(Attendee_Validation))] public partial class Attendee { } public class Attendee_Validation { [HiddenInput(DisplayValue = false)] public int attendee_id { get; set; } [HiddenInput(DisplayValue = false)] public int attendee_pin { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "* required")] [StringLength(50, ErrorMessage = "* Must be under 50 characters")] public string attendee_fname { get; set; } [StringLength(50, ErrorMessage = "* Must be under 50 characters")] public string attendee_mname { get; set; } } I tried to add [Bind(Exclude="attendee_id")] above the Class declaration, but then the value of the attendee_id attribute is set to '0'. View (Strongly-Typed): <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> ... <%=Html.Hidden("attendee_id", Model.attendee_id) %> ... <%=Html.SubmitButton("btnSubmit", "Save") %> <% } %> Basically, the repository.Save(); function seems to do nothing. I imagine it has something to do with a primary key constraint violation. But I'm not getting any errors from SQL Server. The application appears to runs fine, but the data is never persisted to the Database.

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• JPA Database strcture for internationalisation

  - by IrishDubGuy

  I am trying to get a JPA implementation of a simple approach to internationalisation. I want to have a table of translated strings that I can reference in multiple fields in multiple tables. So all text occurrences in all tables will be replaced by a reference to the translated strings table. In combination with a language id, this would give a unique row in the translated strings table for that particular field. For example, consider a schema that has entities Course and Module as follows :- Course int course_id, int name, int description Module int module_id, int name The course.name, course.description and module.name are all referencing the id field of the translated strings table :- TranslatedString int id, String lang, String content That all seems simple enough. I get one table for all strings that could be internationalised and that table is used across all the other tables. How might I do this in JPA, using eclipselink 2.4? I've looked at embedded ElementCollection, ala this... JPA 2.0: Mapping a Map - it isn't exactly what i'm after cos it looks like it is relating the translated strings table to the pk of the owning table. This means I can only have one translatable string field per entity (unless I add new join columns into the translatable strings table, which defeats the point, its the opposite of what I am trying to do). I'm also not clear on how this would work across entites, presumably the id of each entity would have to use a database wide sequence to ensure uniqueness of the translatable strings table. BTW, I tried the example as laid out in that link and it didn't work for me - as soon as the entity had a localizedString map added, persisting it caused the client side to bomb but no obvious error on the server side and nothing persisted in the DB :S I been around the houses on this about 9 hours so far, I've looked at this Internationalization with Hibernate which appears to be trying to do the same thing as the link above (without the table definitions it hard to see what he achieved). Any help would be gratefully achieved at this point... Edit 1 - re AMS anwser below, I'm not sure that really addresses the issue. In his example it leaves the storing of the description text to some other process. The idea of this type of approach is that the entity object takes the text and locale and this (somehow!) ends up in the translatable strings table. In the first link I gave, the guy is attempting to do this by using an embedded map, which I feel is the right approach. His way though has two issues - one it doesn't seem to work! and two if it did work, it is storing the FK in the embedded table instead of the other way round (I think, I can't get it to run so I can't see exactly how it persists). I suspect the correct approach ends up with a map reference in place of each text that needs translating (the map being locale-content), but I can't see how to do this in a way that allows for multiple maps in one entity (without having corresponding multiple columns in the translatable strings table)...

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• Disable Primary Key and Re-Enable After SQL Bulk Insert

  - by Jon

  I am about to run a massive data insert into my DB. I have managed to work out how to enable and rebuild non-clustered indexes on my tables but I also want to disable/enable primary keys. You can't disable the clustered index for the primary key as the table is inaccessible when that is done and my attempt to do a ALTER TABLE for constraints does not work as I think that is only for foreign keys. Do you know of a way to Disable the Primary Key and Re-Enable After SQL Bulk Insert. NOTE: This is over numerous tables and so I don't know the exact primary key specifications eg/name etc

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• Overriding check box in JavaScript with jQuery

  - by Gutzofter

  Help with unit testing checkbox behavior. I have this page: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <title></title> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $('<div><input type="checkbox" name="makeHidden" id="makeHidden" checked="checked" />Make Hidden</div>').appendTo('body'); $('<div id="displayer" style="display:none;">Was Hidden</div>').appendTo('body'); $('#makeHidden').click(function() { var isChecked = $(this).is(':checked'); if (isChecked) { $('#displayer').hide(); } else { $('#displayer').show(); } return false; }); }); </script> </head> <body> </body> </html> This doesn't work it is because of the return false; in the click handler. If I remove it it works great. The problem is if I pull the click function out into it's own function and unit test it with qunit it will not work without the return false;

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• Help me write a nicer SQL query in Rails

  - by Sainath Mallidi

  Hi, I am trying to write an SQL query to update some of the attributes that are regularly pulled from source. the output will be a text file with the following fields: author, title, date, popularity I have two tables to update one is the author information and the other is popularity table. And the Author Active Record object has one popularity. Currently I'm doing it like this.\ arr.each { |x| x = x.split(" ") results = Author.find_by_sql("SELECT authors.id FROM authors, priorities WHERE authors.id=popularity.authors_id AND authors.author = x[0]") results[0].popularity.update_attribute("popularity", x[3]) I need two tables because the popularity keeps changing, and I need only the top 1000 popular ones, but I still need to keep the previously popular ones also. Is there any nicer way to do this, instead of one query for every new object. Thanks.

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• In Entity framework, we can use Model first, DB first, Code first but how can we create table programmatically

  - by AukI

  In entity framework we can use 3 approaches model first , code first , database first but each one of them needs manual hand touch(means creating database or create model or write the POCO class codes or entity class codes) before proceeding to the next step ( using EF in context ). What if I want to create database and tables and table relationships programatically and still want to have to features of EntityFramework 4.3. To be more specific , from this example http://support.microsoft.com/kb/307283 we can create database , tables and everything using SQL command but we can't have the advantages of entity framework. So if we want to have that what should we do?

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• XSLT - Comparing preceding-sibling's elements with current's node element

  - by siondream

  Hello, I have this XML file: <recursos> <recurso url="http://w3c.com"> <descripcion>Consorcio W3C</descripcion> <tipo>externo</tipo> <idioma>ingles</idioma> <contenido>General</contenido> <unidad>Unidad 2</unidad> </recurso> <recurso url="http://html.com"> <descripcion>Especificación HTML</descripcion> <tipo>externo</tipo> <idioma>castellano</idioma> <contenido>HTML</contenido> <version>4.01</version> <unidad>Unidad 3</unidad> </recurso> </recursos> I want to compare one "recurso"'s preceding sibling element "unidad" with the "unidad" of the current "recurso" to check if they're different. I was trying: <xsl:if test="preceding-sibling::recurso[position()=1]::unidad != unidad"> </xsl:if> But I know it's horribly wrong :( I hope you could help me, thank you very much.

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• SQL Server JOIN with optional NULL values

  - by Paul McLoughlin

  Imagine that we have two tables as follows: Trades ( TradeRef INT NOT NULL, TradeStatus INT NOT NULL, Broker INT NOT NULL, Country VARCHAR(3) NOT NULL ) CTMBroker ( Broker INT NOT NULL, Country VARCHAR(3) NULL ) (These have been simplified for the purpose of this example). Now, if we wish to join these two tables on the Broker column, and if a country exists in the CTMBroker table on the Country, we have the following two choices: SELECT T.TradeRef,T.TradeStatus FROM Trades AS T JOIN CTMBroker AS B ON B.Broker=T.Broker AND ISNULL(B.Country, T.Country) = T.Country or SELECT T.TradeRef,T.TradeStatus FROM Trades AS T JOIN CTMBroker AS B ON B.Broker=T.Broker AND (B.COUNTRY=T.Country OR B.Country IS NULL) These are both logically equivalent, however in this specific circumstance for our database (SQL Server 2008, SP1) two different execution plans are produced for these two queries with the second version significantly outperforming the first version in terms of both time and logical reads. My question really is as follows: as a general rule would (2) be preferred to (1), or does this just happen to be exploiting some particular idiosyncracy of the optimiser in 2008 SP1 (that could therefore change with future versions of SQL Server).

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