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  • JPA Database strcture for internationalisation

    - by IrishDubGuy
    I am trying to get a JPA implementation of a simple approach to internationalisation. I want to have a table of translated strings that I can reference in multiple fields in multiple tables. So all text occurrences in all tables will be replaced by a reference to the translated strings table. In combination with a language id, this would give a unique row in the translated strings table for that particular field. For example, consider a schema that has entities Course and Module as follows :- Course int course_id, int name, int description Module int module_id, int name The course.name, course.description and module.name are all referencing the id field of the translated strings table :- TranslatedString int id, String lang, String content That all seems simple enough. I get one table for all strings that could be internationalised and that table is used across all the other tables. How might I do this in JPA, using eclipselink 2.4? I've looked at embedded ElementCollection, ala this... JPA 2.0: Mapping a Map - it isn't exactly what i'm after cos it looks like it is relating the translated strings table to the pk of the owning table. This means I can only have one translatable string field per entity (unless I add new join columns into the translatable strings table, which defeats the point, its the opposite of what I am trying to do). I'm also not clear on how this would work across entites, presumably the id of each entity would have to use a database wide sequence to ensure uniqueness of the translatable strings table. BTW, I tried the example as laid out in that link and it didn't work for me - as soon as the entity had a localizedString map added, persisting it caused the client side to bomb but no obvious error on the server side and nothing persisted in the DB :S I been around the houses on this about 9 hours so far, I've looked at this Internationalization with Hibernate which appears to be trying to do the same thing as the link above (without the table definitions it hard to see what he achieved). Any help would be gratefully achieved at this point... Edit 1 - re AMS anwser below, I'm not sure that really addresses the issue. In his example it leaves the storing of the description text to some other process. The idea of this type of approach is that the entity object takes the text and locale and this (somehow!) ends up in the translatable strings table. In the first link I gave, the guy is attempting to do this by using an embedded map, which I feel is the right approach. His way though has two issues - one it doesn't seem to work! and two if it did work, it is storing the FK in the embedded table instead of the other way round (I think, I can't get it to run so I can't see exactly how it persists). I suspect the correct approach ends up with a map reference in place of each text that needs translating (the map being locale-content), but I can't see how to do this in a way that allows for multiple maps in one entity (without having corresponding multiple columns in the translatable strings table)...

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  • Help me write a nicer SQL query in Rails

    - by Sainath Mallidi
    Hi, I am trying to write an SQL query to update some of the attributes that are regularly pulled from source. the output will be a text file with the following fields: author, title, date, popularity I have two tables to update one is the author information and the other is popularity table. And the Author Active Record object has one popularity. Currently I'm doing it like this.\ arr.each { |x| x = x.split(" ") results = Author.find_by_sql("SELECT authors.id FROM authors, priorities WHERE authors.id=popularity.authors_id AND authors.author = x[0]") results[0].popularity.update_attribute("popularity", x[3]) I need two tables because the popularity keeps changing, and I need only the top 1000 popular ones, but I still need to keep the previously popular ones also. Is there any nicer way to do this, instead of one query for every new object. Thanks.

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  • Have Microsoft changed how ASP.NET MVC deals with duplicate action method names?

    - by Jason Evans
    I might be missing something here, but in ASP.NET MVC 4, I can't get the following to work. Given the following controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string order1, string order2) { return null; } } and it's view: @{ ViewBag.Title = "Home"; } @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.TextBox("order1")<br /> @Html.TextBox("order2") <input type="submit" value="Save"/> } When start the app, all I get is this: The current request for action 'Index' on controller type 'HomeController' is ambiguous between the following action methods: System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index() on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index(System.String, System.String) on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController Now, in ASP.NET MVC 3 the above works fine, I just tried it, so what's changed in ASP.NET MVC 4 to break this? OK there could be a chance that I'm doing something silly here, and not noticing it. EDIT: I notice that in the MVC 4 app, the Global.asax.cs file did not contain this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); } which the MVC 3 app does, by default. So I added the above to the MVC 4 app but it fails with the same error. Note that the MVC 3 app does work fine with the above route. I'm passing the "order" data via the Request.Form. EDIT: In the file RouteConfig.cs I can see RegisterRoutes is executed, with the following default route: routes.MapRoute( name: "Default", url: "{controller}/{action}/{id}", defaults: new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); I still get the original error, regards ambiguity between which Index() method to call.

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  • In Entity framework, we can use Model first, DB first, Code first but how can we create table programmatically

    - by AukI
    In entity framework we can use 3 approaches model first , code first , database first but each one of them needs manual hand touch(means creating database or create model or write the POCO class codes or entity class codes) before proceeding to the next step ( using EF in context ). What if I want to create database and tables and table relationships programatically and still want to have to features of EntityFramework 4.3. To be more specific , from this example http://support.microsoft.com/kb/307283 we can create database , tables and everything using SQL command but we can't have the advantages of entity framework. So if we want to have that what should we do?

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  • Getting highest results in a JOIN

    - by Keithamus
    I've got three tables; Auctions, Auction Bids and Users. The table structure looks something like this: Auctions: id title -- ----- 1 Auction 1 2 Auction 2 Auction Bids: id user_id auction_id bid_amt -- ------- ---------- ------- 1 1 1 200.00 2 2 1 202.00 3 1 2 100.00 Users is just a standard table, with id and user name. My aim is to join these tables so I can get the highest values of these bids, as well as get the usernames related to those bids; so I have a result set like so: auction_id auction_title auctionbid_amt user_username ---------- ------------- -------------- ------------- 1 Auction 1 202.00 Bidder2 2 Auction 2 100.00 Bidder1 So far my query is as follows: SELECT a.id, a.title, ab.bid_points, u.display_name FROM auction a LEFT JOIN auctionbid ab ON a.id = ab.auction_id LEFT JOIN users u ON u.id = ab.user_id GROUP BY a.id This gets the single rows I am after, but it seems to display the lowest bid_amt, not the highest.

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  • sql server 2005 replication article conflict

    - by Daniel
    Hi all, I have a sql server 2005 database that I want to setup replication for. The problem is that the database has two schemas both of which have a table with the same name in it. For some reason even though the tables are in different schemas the replication creation fails when done through management studio due to conflicting article names (i assume its trying to create the same name for both tables in the different schemas). Is there any workaround for doing this in the studio, I can probably write a script or program to do this but just for this one thign is a bit annoying and it probably wont be allowed to run in production. Perhaps there is a hot fix or something I'm not aware about? Cheers,

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  • servicestack Razor view with request and response DTO

    - by user7398
    I'm having a go with the razor functionality in service stack. I have a razor cshtml view working for one of my response DTO's. I need to access some values from the request DTO in the razor view that have been filled in from some fields from the REST route, so i can construct a url to put into the response html page and also label some form labels. Is there anyway of doing this? I don't want to duplicate the property from the request DTO into the response DTO just for this html view. Because i'm trying to emulate an existing REST service of another product, i do not want to emit extra data just for the html view. eg http://localhost/rest/{Name}/details/{Id} eg @inherits ViewPage<DetailsResponse> @{ ViewBag.Title = "todo title"; Layout = "HtmlReport"; } this needs to come from the request dto NOT @Model <a href="/rest/@Model.Name">link to user</a> <a href="/rest/@Model.Name/details/@Model.Id">link to user details</a>

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  • How to Set up Virtual Static Subdomain

    - by Chip D
    Given current rewrite rules at http://www.example.com/: Options +FollowSymlinks +Includes RewriteEngine on RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^www\.example\.com [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^$ RewriteRule ^/?(.*) http://www.example.com/$1 [L,R,NE] # Remove all "index.html"s. RewriteCond %{THE_REQUEST} \ /(.+/)?index\.html(\?.*)?\ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.+/)?index\.html$ /%1 [R=301,L] # Remove all "index.php"s. RewriteCond %{THE_REQUEST} \ /(.+/)?index\.php(\?.*)?\ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.+/)?index\.php$ /%1 [R=301,L] I'm attempting to serve some site assets (.png|.ico|.jpg|.gif|.css|.js) from a static subdomain like http://static.example.com which my Apache 1.3 shared host (GoDaddy) has mapped to a subdirectory for file management (http://www.example.com/static/). Currently these assets live in same-site subdirectories such as images/, js/, css/, etc. (1) Something...maybe the "+www" rewrite rule?...is not letting me access the subdomain. Is this likely caused by my rewrite rules above, or do I need to set up DNS changes with the host to enable access to the subdirectory, in addition to changing the rewrite rules? (2) Do I have to move those assets to that subdirectory and change all references sitewide? Would that perform the fastest? (3) Or can .htaccess make this much easier? (4) Should my first rewrite rule above include L,R=301,NE instead of [L,R,NE]?

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  • How do I extract this value using PHP Dom

    - by mathew
    Hello I do have html file this is just a prt of it though... <div id="result" > <div class="res_item" id="1" h="63c2c439b62a096eb3387f88465d36d0"> <div class="res_main"> <h2 class="res_main_top"> <img src="/ff/gigablast.com.png" alt="favicon for gigablast.com" width=16 height=16 />&nbsp; <a href="http://www.gigablast.com/" rel="nofollow" > Gigablast </a> <div class="res_main"> <h2 class="res_main_top"> <img src="/ff/ask.com.png" alt="favicon for ask.com" width=16 height=16 />&nbsp; <a href="http://ask.com/" rel="nofollow" > Ask.com - What&#039;s Your Question? </a>.... I want extract only url address (for example: http://www.gigablast.com and http://ask.com/ - there are atleast 10 urls in that html) from above using PHP Dom Document..I know up to this but dont know how to move ahead?? $doc = new DomDocument; $doc->loadHTMLFile('urllist.html'); $data = $doc->getElementById('result'); then what?? this is inside tag hence I cant use $data->getElementsByTagName() here!! any help??

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  • Sanitizing User Input with Ruby on Rails

    - by phreakre
    I'm writing a very simple CRUD app that takes user stories and stores them into a database so another fellow coder can organize them for a project we're both working on. However, I have come across a problem with sanitizing user input before it is saved into the database. I cannot call the sanitize() function from within the Story model to strip out all of the html/scripting. It requires me to do the following: def sanitize_inputs self.name = ActionController::Base.helpers.sanitize(self.name) unless self.name.nil? self.story = ActionController::Base.helpers.sanitize(self.story) unless self.story.nil? end I want to validate that the user input has been sanitized and I am unsure of two things: 1) When should the user input validation take place? Before the data is saved is pretty obvious, I think, however, should I be processing this stuff in the Controller, before validation, or some other non-obvious area before I validate that the user input has no scripting/html tags? 2) Writing a unit test for this model, how would I verify that the scripting/html is removed besides comparing "This is a malicious code example" to the sanitize(example) output? Thanks in advance.

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  • Accessing the calling object into ajax response... (not the ajax call)

    - by Nishchay Sharma
    I have an object of type Application (defined by me). Whenever an object of this type is created, it automatically loads a php file say "start.php" using jquery ajax and assign the response to a div say "Respo". Now what i want is to access the Application object from that Respo div. Unfortunately, i have no clue how to do this... in my ajax call: function Application(options) { ....... var appObj=this; $.ajax({ url:appObj.location, //Already defined success:function(data) { $("#respo").html(data); } }); } Now in my Respo division i want to access that Application object... I tried: alert(this) but it resulted in an object of DOMWindow... i tried editing success function as: function Application(options) { ....... var appObj=this; $.ajax({ url:appObj.location, //Already defined success:function(data) { $("#respo").html("<script type='text/javascript'>var Self="+appObj+"</script>"); $("#respo").html(data); } }); } But i ended nowhere. :( Although if i assign "var Self='nishchay';" then alerting Self from start.php gives nishchay but i am not able to assign the calling object of Application type to the Self variable. It is the only way I cud think of. :\ Please help me... actually my object has some editing functions to control itself - its look and feel and some other options. I want the code loaded by object to control the object itself. Please help me.. Thanks in advance. Nishchay

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  • return specific values from youtube

    - by user1631487
    I am trying to write a small function that will allow a user to submit a specific youtube channel url, and then return the number of views on the channel. Anyobne have any ideas? <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> </head> <body> <p id="demo">Click the button to get the value of the attribute with the specified namespaceURI and name</p> <button onclick="myFunction()">Try it</button> <script> function myFunction() { var http; if (window.XMLHttpRequest) {xhttp=new XMLHttpRequest();} else {xhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP");} xhttp.open("GET","booksns.xml",false); xhttp.send(); var xmlDoc=xhttp.responseXML; var price=xmlDoc.getElementsByTagName("price")[0]; var x=document.getElementById("demo"); x.innerHTML=price.getAttributeNS("http://www.w3schools.com/NS","currency"); }; </script> </body> </html>

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  • Mysql Master Slave Replication on Large Database table (how to sync initial data)

    - by Brian Lovett
    We have a production server and a dev server. We have found that backups are nearly impossible on the production server because of the query volume we experience. So, we're looking at setting up replication with our dev server being the slave. This is ideal because we can afford to lock the tables on that server and additionally it will be nice to have up to date data for the developers. Now, the issues. The production server can't really be taken down or locked at this point, at least not easily. We have a high query volume and fairly large 30+ GB innodb tables. Both servers are running all innodb and are also both on mysql 5.1. What can we do to sync the data initially to get replication started? I've tried a few options, but so far, none have worked.

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  • jQuery ajax only works first time

    - by Michael Itzoe
    I have a table of data that on a button click certain values are saved to the database, while other values are retrieved. I need the process to be continuous, but I can only get it to work the first time. At first I was using .ajax() and .replaceWith() to rewrite the entire table, but because this overwrites the DOM it was losing events associated with the table. I cannot use .live() because I'm using stopPropagation() and .live() doesn't support it due to event bubbling. I was able to essentially re-bind the click event onto the table within the .ajax() callback, but a second call to the button click event did nothing. I changed the code to use .get() for the ajax and .html() to put the results in the table (the server-side code now returns the complete table sans the <table> tags). I no longer have to rebind the click event to the table, but subsequent clicks to the button still do nothing. Finally, I changed it to .load(), but with the same (non-) results. By "do nothing" I mean while the ajax call is returning the new HTML as expected, it's not being applied to the table. I'm sure it has something to do with altering the DOM, but I thought since I'm only overwriting the table contents and not the table object itself, it should work. Obviously I'm missing something; what is it? Edit: HTML: <table id="table1" class="mytable"> <tr> <td><span id="item1" class="myitem"></span> <td><span id="item2" class="myitem"></span> </tr> </table> <input id="Button1" type="button" value="Submit" /> jQuery: $( "Button1" ).click( function() { $( "table1" ).load( "data.aspx", function( data ) { //... } ); } );

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  • Qlikview joins that dosen't join on all matching column names

    - by Dev_Karl
    Hi! I'm new to Qlikview and looking for some answers regarding scripting. How can I create Qlickview joins that just join on a specific column (and not all that are having a matching name)? Let's say that I'm having the following tables: Employee Id | Person | DepartmentID | Flags 1000 , Bob , 2001 , 1000000 1001 , Sue , 2002 , 1100000 Department Id | Name | Flags 2001 , HR , 01101111 2001 , R&D , 1100000 What is the best way of joining those tables on the DepartmentID <- ID field? The data is provided by SQL selects. I'm thinking of writing SQL views using unique names would be one idea, but there must be a simpler way. Please advice Kind regards, Karl

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  • jquery mobile mPDF not rendering on form submission

    - by Adam
    Im trying to have the user submit form data to a mPDF page the will render a pdf with the data included. The problem Im having is that jquery mobile initializes the mPDF page not allowing the mPDF to render properly. Im trying to figure out how to stop jquery mobile from initializing the mPDF page. Just a note, when I remove query mobile the functionality works. HTML <form id="rxForm" method="post" action="rxPDF.php"> <input type="text" name="dueDate"></form> </form> <button id="printPDF">Submit</button> JQUERY $('#printPDF').on('click', function() { console.log('pdf'); $('#rxForm').submit(); return false; }); mPDF <?php include ("library/mpdf.php"); $dueDate = $_POST['dueDate']; $html = 'The date is '.$dueDate.''; $mpdf = new mPDF(); $mpdf->WriteHTML($html, 0); $mpdf->Output(); exit; ?> I appreciate anyone's help!

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  • Zend Framework Handle One to Many

    - by user192344
    I have 2 tables "user", "contact", the relation between two tables is one user has many contact Table member m_id name ------------ Table Contact c_id c_m_id value in zend model class, i do it in this way /* Member.php */ class Default_Model_DbTable_Member extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = 'member'; protected $_dependentTables = array('Default_Model_DbTable_Contact'); } /* Contact.php */ class Default_Model_DbTable_Contact extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = 'contact'; protected $_referenceMap = array( 'Member' => array( 'columns'=> array('c_id'), 'refTableClass'=> 'Default_Model_DbTable_Member', 'refColumns'=> array('c_m_id') ) ); /* IndexController.php */ class IndexController extends Zend_Controller_Action { public function indexAction() { $m= new Default_Model_DbTable_Member(); $row = $m->find(1); $data = $row->current(); $data = $data->findDependentRowset('Default_Model_DbTable_Contact'); print_r($data->toArray()); } } But i just get Invalid parameter number: no parameters were bound , my goal is to search a member detail record, and it also contains a array which store all contact info (i can use join method to do that, but i just want to try zend feature)

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  • Cannot redeclare class on a copy of a site

    - by Polity
    I've developed a small SMS utility for a customer in PHP. The details are of non-importance. This project is hosted in: http://project.example.com/customer1 Now a second customer requests almost the same functionality, one cheap way of providing this is to copy the project from the first customer and modify it slightly. So i made a direct copy of the project for customer1 to another folder for customer 2. This project is hosted in: http://project.example.com/customer2 Now when i try and run the project for customer2 (calling a single page), i get the error message: Fatal error: Cannot redeclare class SmsService in /var/www/html/project/customer1/application/service.class.php on line 3 Here, service.class.php is a simple interface with 3 methods: interface SmsService { public function SendSms($mobile, $customerId, $customerName, $message); public function QueryIncomingResponse(); public function CleanExpiredConfirmations($maxConfirmationDays); } printing the backtrace in service.class.php reveals something interresting: #0 require_once() called at [/var/www/html/project/customer2/endpoint/queryIncomingResponse.php:2] Fatal error: Cannot redeclare class SmsService in /var/www/html/project/customer1/application/service.class.php on line 3 Line 2 in queryIncomingResponses is the very first require line there is. Line 3 in service.class.php is the first statement there is in the file (Line 2 is an empty line and line 1 is the php file opening tag). Naturally, I only work with relative requires (double checked this) so there is no way one include/require from customer2 actually refers to a file for customer1. It seems to me that in some way SmsService and other classes gets cached by PHP. (I have little control over the server environment). One solution to this would be namespaces. Unfortunatly, we work with PHP 5.1.7 where namespaces are not a part of the language feature just yet. Another way would be to mimic namespaces by prefixing all classes but this approach just feels dirty. Does anyone have more information on this problem and possibly solutions? Many thanks in advance!

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  • jQuery AJAX tabs + PHP

    - by ufw
    Hi, seems like I'm stuck with jQuery tabs. I'm trying to pass selected tab name to some php script but is seems like it doesn't get any data. This is how tabs normally work without any response from server side: http://pastebin.com/KBxj7p5k And this is how I try to pass the the current tab name to the server: $(document).ready(function() { $('ul.tabs li').css('cursor', 'pointer'); $('ul.tabs.tabs1 li').click(function(){ var thisClass = this.className.slice(0,2); $('div.t1').hide(); $('div.t2').hide(); $('div.t3').hide(); $('div.t4').hide(); $('div.' + thisClass).show('fast'); $('ul.tabs.tabs1 li').removeClass('tab-current'); $(this).addClass('tab-current'); var name = thisClass; var data = 'name='+name; $.ajax ({ type:"GET", url:"handler.php", data:data, success:function(html) { thisClass.html(html); } }); }); Thanks.

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  • Javascript style variables with "-" in their name aren't able to be changed?

    - by William
    Okay, so this bug has cost me quite a bit of time and embarrassment. It seems that any style variable with a - in it's name can't be modified by javascript. As seen here: <!DOCTYPE html> <html lang="en"> <head> <title>Class Test</title> <meta charset="utf-8" /> <style> body { text-align: center; background-color: #ffffff;} #box { position: absolute; left: 610px; top: 80px; height: 50px; width: 50px; background-color: #ff0000; color: #000000;} </style> <script type="text/javascript"> var box = 0; </script> </head> <body> <div id="box" ></div> <script type="text/javascript"> box = document.getElementById('box'); box.style.background-color = "#0000ff"; </script> </body> </html> The box in said example will just remain red. So how do I change a style variable with a - in it's name?

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  • Combining JavaScript for Google Analytics with yours. (Asynchronous tracking.)

    - by lorenzo 72
    I have a JavaScript file which is loaded up at the end of my HTML page. Rather than adding the script code for asynchronous tracking for Google in yet another script I would rather combine the two scripts together. So instead of this: <html> ... <script src="myScript.js"> <!-- google analytics --> <script type="text/javascript"> var _gaq = _gaq || []; _gaq.push(['_setAccount', 'UA-XXXXX-X']); _gaq.push(['_trackPageview']); (function() { var ga = document.createElement('script'); ga.type = 'text/javascript'; ga.async = true; ga.src = ('https:' == document.location.protocol ? 'https://ssl' : 'http://www') + '.google-analytics.com/ga.js'; (document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0] || document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0]).appendChild(ga); })(); </script> </html> I would have that bit of code in the second script tag at the end of my 'myScript.js'. I have not found one place in google documentation where it suggests to combine the script with yours.

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  • Linq-to-SQL- A stored procedure returns field which is not there in Mapped Table Info

    - by jalpesh
    We are using Linq-to-SQL with stored Procedures we need help on one of our problem. We are having user tables which is having all field required for user table like firstname,lastname and other fields that table is also there in our DBML files.Now the problem is that we are having a stored procedure that is mapped to table-User returning a field called fullname (Combination of firstname and lastname)which is not there in usertable. So what is the best way to slove this. Another thing is that one of other stored procedure return inner join of two tables with mix columns in this case how can i mapped that stored procedure with Table mapped info class in our dbml files.

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  • MySQL User AutoIncrement Permissions Restriction

    - by psayre23
    I have two databases that need to have their auto increment ids on various tables synced. Right now, I have a PHP function that checks the current auto increment id for both tables and then sets the lowest to the highest. If there is a better way to do this, I'm all ears. I really don't want to give the web user alter permissions, as a SQL injection could clear all passwords (or something else silly). Is there any way to restrict a MySQL user to changing auto increment without opening it up to alter statements?

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