Search Results

Search found 18916 results on 757 pages for 'sharing nothing architect'.

Page 648/757 | < Previous Page | 644 645 646 647 648 649 650 651 652 653 654 655  | Next Page >

  • JAVA MySql multiple word search

    - by user1703849
    i have a database in MySql that has a name column in it which contains several words(description). I am connected to database with java through eclipse. I have a search, that returns results if only name field contains one word. id: name: info: type: 1 balloon big red balloon big 2 house expensive beautiful luxury 3 chicken wings deep fried wings tasty these are just random words but as an example my search can only see ex. balloon and then show info, but if i type chicken wings, it does nothing. so it possible somehow to search from columns with multiple words? this is my search code below import java.io.*; import java.sql.*; import java.util.*; class Search { public static void main(String[] args) { Scanner inp``ut = new Scanner(System.in); try { Connection con = DriverManager.getConnection( "jdbc:mysql://example/mydb", "user", "password"); Statement stmt = (Statement) con.createStatement(); System.out.print("enter search: "); String name = input.next(); String SQL = "SELECT * FROM menu where name LIKE '" + name + "'"; ResultSet rs = stmt.executeQuery(SQL); while (rs.next()) { System.out.println("Name: " +rs.getString("name")); System.out.println("Description: " + rs.getString("info") ); System.out.println("Price: " + rs.getString("Price")); } } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println("ERROR: " + e.getMessage()); } } }

    Read the article

  • PHP in_array() can't even match a single character. Strict is set to true.

    - by solefald
    I've seen a million of these threads here already, and read through every single one already. Including some serious time Googling. Nothing complicated. All I have to do is check if a single character in a loop matches my alphabet array. print_r($alphabet); // all 26 letters Array ( [0] => a [1] => b [2] => c ... [23] => x [24] => y [25] => z ) print_r($emptyLetters); // dynamic array. Array ( [0] => b [1] => s ) foreach($alphabet as $letter): { echo $letter . '<br />' // Correctly prints out every letter from $alphabet. if(in_array($letter, $emptyLetters, true)): // $strict is set // do something endif; } What the hell is going on??? I do not understand what i am doing wrong.... I tried every combination and option possible, but for some reason even array_search() is bit working...

    Read the article

  • jQuery: AJAX call isn't updating page

    - by Cortopasta
    Thought I had a simple AJAX call using $.POST(), but apparently my function isn't firing, and nothing is updating :-/ Here is the call: $(".answerVerse ul li").click(function(){ var rank = $(this).removeClass("star_empty star_full star_highlight").attr("class"); var verse_id = $(this).parent().parent().find(".verseId").html(); var answer_id = $(this).parent().parent().find(".answerId").html(); var place = this; $.post("rank.php", { rank: rank, verse_id: verse_id, answer_id: answer_id },function(data){ $(place).parent().removeClass().addClass(data.newVerseRank); for (i=0;i<=5;i++) { $(".answerVerse ul."+i).each(function(){ $(".answerVerse ul."+i+" li."+i).prevAll().andSelf().removeClass("star_empty").addClass("star_full"); }); } }, "json"); }); And here is the PHP (rank.php) that it calls: require_once("dbcon.php"); $user = new user(); $user->updateVerseRank($_POST['verse_id'], $_POST['rank']); $user->getVerse($_POST['verse_id']); $user->getAnswer($_POST['answer_id']; $arr = array ('newVerseRank'=>htmlspecialchars(round($user->verse[3])),'newVerseVotes'=>htmlspecialchars(round($user->verse[4])),'newAnswerRank'=>htmlspecialchars($user->answer[3])); echo json_encode($arr); Why am I not updating the page? I know it's something dumb I'm doing seeing as how this is my first attempt at AJAX and JSON :-/ Just trying to learn

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to Kick off a java process under Windows Service with C#?

    - by Wing C. Chen
    I would like to wrap a java program into a windows service with C# using System.ServiceProcess.ServiceBase. So I came up with the following code: /// <summary> /// The main entry point for the application. /// </summary> static void Main() { System.ServiceProcess.ServiceBase.Run(new JavaLauncher()); } protected override void OnStart(string[] args) { Thread _thread; _thread = new Thread(StartService); _thread.Start(); base.OnStart(args); } protected override void OnStop() { Thread _thread; _thread = new Thread(StopService); _thread.Start(); base.OnStop(); } static public void StartService() { System.Diagnostics.Process proc = new System.Diagnostics.Process(); proc.EnableRaisingEvents = false; proc.StartInfo.FileName = "javaw"; proc.StartInfo.Arguments = config.generateLaunchCommand(); proc.Start(); } static public void StopService() { System.Diagnostics.Process proc = new System.Diagnostics.Process(); proc.EnableRaisingEvents = false; proc.StartInfo.FileName = "javaw"; proc.StartInfo.Arguments = "-jar stop.jar"; proc.Start(); } Firstly I had to use Threads in OnStart and OnStop. If not, an exception occurs complaining that the service is terminated because of doing nothing. Secondly, the service can be hooked up to windows smoothly. However, the service terminates a short while after it is started. I looked into the process monitor, only the service process stays alive for that short while, the javaw process never showed up, however. Is there anyone who knows how this can be fixed? It works fine in an ordinary console environment. I think it has something to do with Windows service.

    Read the article

  • iPhone app. Creating a custom UIView that contains UITextField and UIButton.

    - by Dmitry Burchik
    Hi all. I am new to iPhone programming. And I have an issue. I need to create a custom user control that I will add to my UIScrollView dinamically. The control has an UITextField and an UIButton. See the code below: #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface FieldWithValueControl : UIView { UITextField *txtTagName; UIButton *addButton; } @property (nonatomic, readonly) UITextField *txtTagName; @property (nonatomic, readonly) UIButton *addButton; @end #import "FieldWithValueControl.h" #define ITEM_SPACING 10 #define ITEM_HEIGHT 20 #define SWITCHBOX_WIDTH 100 #define SCREEN_WIDTH 320 #define ITEM_FONT_SIZE 14 #define TEXTBOX_WIDTH 150 @implementation FieldWithValueControl @synthesize txtTagName; @synthesize addButton; - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame { if (self = [super initWithFrame:frame]) { // Initialization code txtTagName = [[UITextField alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, TEXTBOX_WIDTH, ITEM_HEIGHT)]; txtTagName.borderStyle = UITextBorderStyleRoundedRect; addButton = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeContactAdd]; [addButton setFrame:CGRectMake(ITEM_SPACING + TEXTBOX_WIDTH, 0, ITEM_HEIGHT, ITEM_HEIGHT)]; [addButton addTarget:self action:@selector(addButtonTouched:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; [self addSubview:txtTagName]; [self addSubview:addButton]; } return self; } - (void)addButtonTouched:sender { UIButton *button = (UIButton*)sender; NSString *title = [button titleLabel].text; } - (void)drawRect:(CGRect)rect { // Drawing code } - (void)dealloc { [txtTagName release]; [addButton release]; [super dealloc]; } @end In my code I create an object of that class and add it to scrollView on form. FieldWithValueControl *newTagControl = (FieldWithValueControl*)[[FieldWithValueControl alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(ITEM_SPACING, currentOffset + ITEM_SPACING, 0, 0)]; [scrollView addSubview:newTagControl]; The control looks fine, but if I click to the textbox or to the button nothing happens. Keyboard doesn't appear, the button is not clickable etc.

    Read the article

  • Need help with a simple ASP.NET ModalPopupExtender example

    - by remdao
    I'm new to ASP.NET and I'm trying to get this Ajax ModalPopupExtender working. This is an example i found on the net, but nothing happens when btnpopup is clicked. <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="ModalTestProject._Default" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <head runat="server"> <title>Untitled Page</title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:scriptmanager id="ScriptManager1" runat="server"> </asp:scriptmanager> <asp:Button ID="btnpopup" runat="server" Text="Button" /> <ajaxToolkit:ModalPopupExtender ID="mpe" runat="server" TargetControlID="btnpopup" PopupControlID="pnlpopup" CancelControlID="btnCancelpopup" EnableViewState="true" DropShadow="true" /> <asp:Panel ID="pnlpopup" runat="server" Width="400px"> test <asp:Button ID="btnCancelpopup" runat="server" Text="Button" /> </asp:Panel> </form> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • Create a new webpage using a WCF service

    - by sweeney
    Hello, I'd like to create WCF operation contract which consumes a string, produces a public webpage and then returns the address of this new page. [ServiceContract(Namespace = "")] public class DatabaseService { [OperationContract] public string BuildPage(string fileName, string html) { //writes html to file //returns public file url } } This doesn't seem like it should be complicated but i cant figure out how to do it. So far what i've tried is this: [OperationContract] public string PrintToFile(string name, string text) { FileInfo f = new FileInfo(name); StreamWriter w = f.AppendText(); w.Write(text); w.Close(); return f.Directory.ToString(); } Here's the problem. This does not create a file in the web root, it creates it in the directory where the webdav server is running. When i run this on an IIS server it seems to do nothing at all (at least not that i can tell). How can I get a handle to the webroot programmatically so that i can place the resultant file there and then return the public URL? I can tack on the domain name after the fact without issue so if it only returns the relative path to the file that's fine. Thanks, brian

    Read the article

  • Routing redirection decision

    - by programming late night
    I have really no idea why I'm asking this as this a really completely irrelevant question for which I should have figured out an answer within milliseconds, yet I'm doing it. So in my project I have a Router class which splits up the request and selects the right page to be loaded. Fine so far. Now I have a page displayed when the user requests a page that doesn't exist, you know, 404. So theoretically, if the user entered mydomain.com/404 (I use mod_rewrite with a requests collector via index.php?req=*) the 404 error would be shown to him, but in fact there was no error - the 404 page would be displayed as a perfectly normal page. So if someone would try out requesting the 404 page via /404, he would be shown the page but he can't tell if the 404 page he requested doesn't exist and he is actually getting a, you guessed it, 404 error or if he actually found some flaw in the system that makes him able to see an error page when there is no error. I don't know how dumb this whole thing here is but I'm sure some of you have in fact ran into this problem already. Short version: If the user enters mydomain.com/404 the 404 page is shown even though there is no 404 error. I know this is a completely irrelevant question, please don't tell me, but I just spontaneously wanted to hear your thoughts on it. Strange eh? Should I redirect direct access to my 404-page to the home page? Should I do nothing? Should I just go to bed and stop asking irrelevant stuff?

    Read the article

  • UITableView reloaddata doesn't reload immediately

    - by D33
    Hi everyone. I'm trying to work with online data in my iPhone app. But I'm getting mad because of this: I have object for downloading data with NSURLConnection. Method starting the work with connection (and other stuff) in separate thread - [ NSThread detachNewThreadSelector:@selector( doConnectionInNewThread ) toTarget: self withObject: nil ]; When data are loaded (connectionDidFinishLoading) I give them to my viewController. This all stuff works fine. When I use breakpoints or NSLog I have the data ready to show in UITableView. When I call reloadData, nothing happens immediately. It reloads data after maybe 2 seconds (- (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath is called after this delay). BUT when I slide the tableView, it reloads data immediately. So the connection and so on works fine but it just doesn't reload the data. Why? I thought it could be due to blocked mainThread by URLConnection. But now I use it in separate thread and it is still the same...

    Read the article

  • Subversion commands not being run by Ubuntu rc.local

    - by talentedmrjones
    Here is my rc.local for an autoscaling amazon ec2 instance based on ubuntu: (Note that user names, domains, and paths have been changed for security purposes) logger "Begin rc.local startup script:" logger "svn checkout" sudo -u nonRootUser /usr/bin/svn co svn+ssh://[email protected]/path/to/repo /var/www/html | logger logger "chown writeable folder" chown www-data /var/www/html/writeableFolder logger "restart apache" /etc/init.d/apache2 restart | logger exit 0 And here is the output of sudo tail -n 40 /var/log/syslog Mar 10 22:05:20 ubuntu logger: Begin rc.local startup script: Mar 10 22:05:20 ubuntu logger: svn checkout Mar 10 22:05:20 ubuntu logger: chown writeable folder Of course its not getting to apache2 restart because it error'd on the chown. I did find however that if I do a checkout beforehand, and set the rc.local svn command to an svn update, that it still does not run the svn command but does output apache2 restart successfully. These same svn commands work perfectly when I run them manually, tho it's strange that within rc.local they do not produce any output whatsoever to logger yet apache2 restart does. I've also tried running the svn co and svn update both with sudo -u and without. How do I get the svn command to run? Either a full checkout or an update. At this point either would be better than nothing!

    Read the article

  • Help! Getting an error copying the data from one column to the same column in a similar recordset..

    - by Mike D
    I have a routine which reads one recordset, and adds/updates rows in a similar recordset. The routine starts off by copying the columns to a new recordset: Here's the code for creating the new recordset.. For X = 1 To aRS.Fields.Count mRS.Fields.Append aRS.Fields(X - 1).Name, aRS.Fields(X - 1).Type, aRS.Fields(X - _ 1).DefinedSize, aRS.Fields(X - 1).Attributes Next X Pretty straight forward. Notice the copying of the name, Type, DefinedSize & Attributes... Further down in the code, (and there's nothing that modifies any of the columns between.. ) I'm copying the values of a row to a row in the new recordset as such: For C = 1 To aRS.Fields.Count mRS.Fields(C - 1) = aRS.Fields(C - 1) Next C When it gets to the last column which is a numeric, it craps with the "Mutliple-Step Operation Generated an error" message. I know that MS says this is an error generated by the provider, which in this case is ADO 2.8. There is no open connect to the DB at this point in time either. I'm pulling what little hair I have left over this one... (and I don't really care at this point that the column index is 'X' in one loop & 'C' in the other... I'll change it later when I get the real problem fixed...)

    Read the article

  • Using entity framework to connect to multiple similar tables in .net MVC.

    - by Dite
    A relative newcomer to .net MVC2 and the entity framework, I am working on a project which requires a single web application, (C# .net 4), to connect to multiple different databases depending on the route of access, (ie subdomain). No problem with this in principle and all the logic is written to transform the subdomain into an entity connection and pass this through to the Entity Model. The problem comes with the fact that the different database whilst being largely similar in structure contain 3 or 4 unique tables bespoke to that instance. To my mind there are two ways to solve this issue, neither of which i am sure will be possible. 1/ Use a separate entity model for each database. -Attempts down this route have through up conflicts where table/sp names are the same across differnt db's, or implicit conversion errors when I try and put the different models in different namespaces. or 2/ Overwrite the classes which refer to the changeable database objects based on the value of a base controller property. -I have found nothing to suggest i can even do this. My question is if either of theser routes can ever work in principle or if i should just give up on the EF and connect to the dtabases directlky using ADO. Perhaps there is another way to solve this problem i haven't thought of? Thanks for any help...

    Read the article

  • Ajax request not receiving xml from Django

    - by amougeot
    I have a Django server which handles requests to a URL which will return some HTML for use in an image gallery. I can navigate to the URL and the browser will display the HTML that is returned, but I can't get that same HTML by doing an AJAX call (using jQuery) to the same URL. This is the view that generates the response: def gallery_images(request, gallery_name): return render_to_response('galleryimages.html', {'images': get_images_of_gallery(gallery_name)}, mimetype='text/xml') This is the 'galleryimages.html' template: {% for image in images %} <div id="{{image.name}}big"> <div class="actualImage" style="background-image:url({{image.image.name}});"> <h1>{{image.caption|safe}}</h1> </div> </div> {% endfor %} This is the jQuery call I am making: $("#allImages").load("http://localhost:8000/galleryimages/Web"); However, this loads nothing into my #allImages div. I've used firebug and ran jQuery's Ajax method .get("http://localhost:8000/galleryimages/Web") and firebug says that the response text is completely empty. When I check my Django server log, this is the entry I see for when I navigate to the URL manually, through my browser: [16/Jan/2010 17:34:10] "GET /galleryimages/Web HTTP/1.1" 200 215 This is the entry in the server log for when I make the AJAX call: [16/Jan/2010 17:36:19] "OPTIONS /galleryimages/Web HTTP/1.1" 200 215 Why does the AJAX request not get the xml that my Django page is serving?

    Read the article

  • How to match a period in Regex coming from Firefox browser?

    - by Dr. Zim
    I have the following C# code which should match a quantity / $ price string like "4/$3.99". It works all day long until we use it against a string returned from Firefox Browser. 77.77 becomes 77 (dropping the .77 cents). var matches = Regex.Match(_priceText, @"^\s?((?<qty>\d+)\s?/)?\s?[$]?\s?(?<price>[0-9]?\.?[0-9]?[0-9]?)"); if( matches.Success) { if (!Decimal.TryParse(matches.Groups["price"].Value, out this._price)) this._price = 0.0m; if (!Int32.TryParse(matches.Groups["qty"].Value, out this._qty)) this._qty = (this._price > 0 ? 1 : 0); else if (this._price > 0 && this._qty == 0) this._qty = 1; } Any idea why the period wouldn't match coming from a Firefox string, but the C# string matches? There isn't any special about the Firefox we used. It's a plain Jane 1252 code page download right off the Firefox site. The computer's local settings are unaltered North American, etc. We have two different computers showing the same effects. It's Firefox 3.6.4, nothing fancy or beta.

    Read the article

  • Java - problems iterating through an ArrayList

    - by cc0
    Ok so I have an ArrayList (arrBok), which is full of book objects (the code is in Norwegian, so pay no attention to that please). I want to make a public method which iterates through all the objects in the arraylist. When I execute the code, it just seems to run in an infinite loop, not producing any return values. Here is the relevant (I hope, because there are a couple of other classes involved) part of the code; public String listAll() { itr = arrBok.iterator(); while (itr.hasNext()) { i++; } return "lol"; } This code does nothing useful, but I just want to see if it can iterate through it successfully. What I have tried so far; Tested if the bokArr (arraylist) is empty, which it's not. It has 4 objects inside of it. Return the toString() method of the itr, with the following result; java.util.AbstractList$Itr@173a10f // <-- not sure if this would be relevant to anything return itr.next().toString(); <-- // which seems to return the first object in the array, does that make sense?

    Read the article

  • Powershell - Using variables in -Include filter

    - by TheD
    (again!) My final question for the night. I have a function which uses the Get-ChildItem to work out the newest file within a folder. The reason being I need to find the latest incremental backup in a folder and script an EXE to mount it. However, within this same folder there are multiple backup chains for all different servers: i.e. SERVER1_C_VOL_b001_i015.spi SERVER2_D_VOL_b001_i189.spi SERVER1_C_VOL_b002_i091.spi SERVER1_E_VOL_b002_i891.spi (this is the newest file created) I want only to look at SERVER1, look at only the C_VOL and look at only b001 - nothing else. I have all these seperate components: the drive letter, the Server Name, the b00X number stored in array. How then can I go and use the Get-ChildItem with the -Include filter to only look at: .spi SERVER1 C_VOL b001 Given I have all of these separate components in an array taken from a text file: Get-Content .\PostBackupCheck-TextFile.txt | Select-Object -First $i { $a = $_ -split ' ' ; $locationArray += "$($a[0]):\$($a[1])\$($a[2])" ; $imageArray += "$($a[2])_$($a[3])_VOL_b00$($a[4])_i$($a[5]).spi" } I then go onto try and filter then and then get stuck: $latestIncremental = Get-ChildItem -Path ${shadowProtectDataLocation}\*.* -Include *.spi | Sort-Object LastAccessTime -Descending | Select-Object -First 1 I have the .spi filtered, but how can I also just include the C (for volume), the number for the b00x and the server name. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • visual studio 2008 (VB)

    - by Ousman
    hello guys, Am writing a programming with visual basic 2008 and i want the programme to be able to read and loop through a text file line by line and showing the event of the loop on a textbox or label until a button is press and the loop will stop on any number that happend to be at the loop event and when a button is press again the loop will continue from where it starts. this is my codes below and having problem with it and any help will be really great. tanks ==========================my codes======================= Imports System.IO '========================================================================================== Public Class Form1 '====================================================================================== 'Dim nFileNum As Integer = FreeFile() ' Get a free file number Dim strFileName As String = "C:\scb.txt" Dim objFilename As FileStream = New FileStream(strFileName, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read, FileShare.Read) Dim objFileRead As StreamReader = New StreamReader(objFilename) 'Dim lLineCount As Long 'Dim sNextLine As String '====================================================================================== '======================================================================================== Private Sub btStart_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btStart.Click Try If objFileRead.ReadLine = Nothing Then MsgBox("No Accounts Available to show!", MsgBoxStyle.Information, MsgBoxStyle.DefaultButton2 = MsgBoxStyle.OkOnly) Return Else Do While (objFileRead.Peek() > -1) Loop lblAccounts.Text = objFileRead.ReadLine() 'objFileRead.Close() 'objFilename.Close() End If Catch ex As Exception MessageBox.Show(ex.Message) Finally 'objFileRead.Close() 'objFilename.Close() End Try End Sub Private Sub Form1_Load(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles MyBase.Load End Sub End Class

    Read the article

  • Rails: Rendered JS file doesn't execute using UJS

    - by Hassinus
    I would like to display a Rails edit form using JS instead of redirecting with HTML. To do this, I use UJS for the edit link: <%= link_to "Edit user info", edit_user_path(1), :remote => true %> Then, the "edit" action of User controller is like this (simplified version): controllers/users_controller.rb: def edit # Step 1: Get the edit HTML form @html = render_to_string(:template => "users/edit.html") # Step 2: Use JS to display the form in the correct place render "users/edit.js" end As you may guess, I have two views: The html version of "edit" action which contains the form in HTML format. Let's consider a test version: views/users/edit.html.erb: <h1>This is just a test</h1> The js version that will display the form in the correct place, using jQuery for example. Again, for test purpose, let's just popup the html text: views/users/edit.js.erb: alert("<%= @html %>"); The problem is that nothing is executed (no popup) Using the inspector (from Chrome web browser), I get the response as text format: alert("<h1>This is just a test</h1>"); Do you have any idea? Why do the rendered JS is not executed? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Combining two .png images into one image using .NET

    - by Omega
    I have two (actually many) .png images in my application. Both have transparent areas here and there. I want, in my application, to take both images, combine them, and display the result in a picture box. Later I want to save the result through a button. So far I managed to find the two images and combine them, but it seems the transparency thing won't work. I mean, if you put one image over another, only the top image is visible as the result because, apparently, the image's background is a plain white box. Which is not. Here is a bit of my code: Dim Result As New Bitmap(96, 128) Dim g As Graphics = Graphics.FromImage(Result) Dim Name As String For Each Name In BasesCheckList.CheckedItems Dim Layer As New Bitmap(resourcesPath & "Bases\" & Name) For x = 0 To Layer.Width - 1 For y = 0 To Layer.Height - 1 Result.SetPixel(x, y, Layer.GetPixel(x, y)) Next Next Layer = Nothing Next resourcesPath is the path to my resources folder. Bases is a folder in it. And Name is the image's name. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • SQL Server 2008 R2

    - by kevchadders
    Hi all, I heard on the grapevine that Microsoft will be releasing SQL Server 2008 R2 within a year. Though I initially thought this was a patch for the just released 2008 version, I realised that it’s actually a completely different version that you would have to pay for. (Am I correct, if you had SQL Server 2008, would you have to pay again if you wanted to upgrade to 2008 R2?) If you’re already running SQL Server 2008, would you say it’s still worth the upgrade? Or does it depend on the size of your company and current setup. For what I’ve initially read, I do get the impression that this version would be more useful for the very high end hardware setup where you want to have very good scalability. With regard to programming, is there any extra enhancements/support in there which you’re aware of that will significantly help .NET Products/Web Development? Initially found a couple of links on it, but I was wondering if anyone had anymore info to share on subject as I couldn’t find nothing on SO about it? Thanks. New SQL Server R2 Microsoft Link on it. Microsoft SQL 2008 R2 EDIT: More information based on the Express Edition One very interesting thing about SQL Server 2008 R2 concerns the Express edition. Previous express versions of SQL Server Express had a database size limit of 4GB. With SQL Server Express 2008 R2, this has now been increased to 10GB !! This now makes the FREE express edition a much more viable option for small & medium sized applications that are relatively light on database requirements. Bear in mind, that this limit is per database, so if you coded your application cleverly enough to use a separate database for historical/archived data, you could squeeze even more out of it! For more information, see here: http://blogs.msdn.com/sqlexpress/archive/2010/04/21/database-size-limit-increased-to-10gb-in-sql-server-2008-r2-express.aspx

    Read the article

  • Android: Adding data to Intent fails to load Activity

    - by DroidIn.net
    I have a widget that supposed to call an Activity of the main app when the user clicks on widget body. My setup works for a single widget instance but for a second instance of the same widget the PendingIntent gets reused and as result the vital information that I'm sending as extra gets overwritten for the 1st instance. So I figured that I should pass widget ID as Intent data however as soon as I add Intent#setData I would see in the log that 2 separate Intents are appropriately fired but the Activity fails to pick it up so basically Activity will not come up and nothing happens (no error or warning ether) Here's how the activity is setup in the Manifest: <activity android:name=".SearchResultsView" android:label="@string/search_results" <intent-filter> <action android:name="bostone.android.search.RESULTS" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.DEFAULT" /> </intent-filter> </activity> And here's code that is setup for handling the click Intent di = new Intent("bostone.android.search.RESULTS"); di.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); // if line below is commented out - the Activity will start di.setData(ContentUris.withAppendedId(Uri.EMPTY, widgetId)); di.putExtra("URL", url); views.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.widgetContent, PendingIntent.getActivity(this, 0, di, 0)); The main app and the widget are packaged as 2 separate APK each in its own package and Manifest

    Read the article

  • Javascript error : " 'Sys' is undefined "

    - by Simon
    Hi there, I keep having an error when running my web application. The error does not cause a compilation error when on live server at least a javascript error and nothing else. But the real problem is when "debug" ... javascript error stops the compilation and I have to "Continue" three times before proceeding normally my debug. But this error occurs at every refresh the page. All this using Visual Studio. After several hours of search on google, I saw that it was a problem with the ScriptManager and Ajax. The real problem is that I do not use any Ajax on this page but the ScriptManager is on the masterpage. Worse still, on any other page on the website, that may use Ajax or not, no javascript error! Only THIS page cause this error! Any suggestion? Note that I usualy talk french so there's probably error and sorry for this! EDIT There's the 3 places were compilation stop. 1. Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager._initialize('ctl00$ctl08', document.getElementById('aspnetForm')); 2. Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager.getInstance()._updateControls([], [], [], 90); 3. Sys.Application.initialize();

    Read the article

  • This code is not submitting to a form? Why

    - by Ankur
    Since I am using get I expect to see the submitted values appended to the queryString but instead all I see is the URL of the servlet being called with nothing added at the end. <form id="editClassList" name="editClassList" method="get" action="EditClassList"> <% HashMap<Integer,String> classes = new HashMap<Integer,String>(); classes = (HashMap<Integer,String>) request.getAttribute("classes"); %> <% if(classes.size()==0){ %> <label><input class="small-link" type="text" id="add-this-class" size="42" value="" /></label> <% } %> <% Set<Integer> classIds = new HashSet<Integer>(); classIds = classes.keySet(); Iterator<Integer> itr = classIds.iterator(); while(itr.hasNext()){ int nextId = (Integer)itr.next(); %> <label><input class="small-link" type="text" id="<% out.print(nextId); %>" size="42" value="<% out.print(classes.get(nextId)); %>" /> </label> <img id="add-class" src="images/add.png" width="16" height="16" /><br /> <label><input class="small-link" type="text" id="class-to-add" size="42" value="" /></label> <% } %> <label><input type="submit" id="save-class-btn" value="Save Class(es)" /></label> </form>

    Read the article

  • iphone - why is this flip animation using layers not working?

    - by Digital Robot
    I would like to make an animation that goes like this: imagine a picture sitting on a shelve. It drops from the shelve and as it falls it rotates along the horizontal axis and translates along the vertical axis. I would like to do this with perspective and the back side should be the image reversed, like the picture is a kind of slide. I have done this: CALayer* layer = myImageView.layer; layer.doubleSided = YES; CAKeyframeAnimation* animationTransform = [CAKeyframeAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"transform"]; CATransform3D startTransform = CATransform3DIdentity; CATransform3D endTransform = CATransform3DTranslate (layer.transform, 0.0f, 200.0f, 0.0f); endTransform = CATransform3DRotate (endTransform, degreesToRadian(350.0f), 1.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f); endTransform.m34 = 1.0 / -500; NSArray *values = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: [NSValue valueWithCATransform3D:startTransform], [NSValue valueWithCATransform3D:endTransform], nil]; [animationTransform setValues:values]; NSArray *tempos = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: [NSNumber numberWithFloat:0.0f], [NSNumber numberWithFloat:0.7f], nil]; [animationTransform setKeyTimes:tempos]; NSArray *timing = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: [CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionEaseInEaseOut], nil]; [animationTransform setTimingFunctions:timing]; animationTransform.fillMode = kCAFillModeRemoved; animationTransform.removedOnCompletion = YES; animationTransform.repeatCount = 1; animationTransform.duration = 3.7f; animationTransform.cumulative = YES; the result of this has nothing to do with anything. The result is: the image translates down an inch on the screen and then up half inch. Then it disappears and appears at its starting position again. What am I missing? thanks

    Read the article

  • Outstanding issues with jQuery.ajax() in IE8?

    - by RyanV
    I am loading feed-items into a ul using this jQuery .ajax() call, which I basically lifted from http://www.makemineatriple.com/2007/10/bbcnewsticker/ var timestamp = true; //set whether timestamp is displayed in $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "sample-feed.xml", dataType: "xml", success: function(xml) { $(xml).find('item').each(function(){ var title = $(this).find('title').text(); var link = $(this).find('link').text(); if(title.length >=57){ title = title.substring(0,54) + "..."; } var addItem = '<li class="tickerTitle"><a href="'+link+'">'+title+'</a>'; if (Boolean(timestamp)== true){ var time = new Date(Date.parse($(this).find('pubDate').text())); addItem +='<span class="timestamp">' + makestamp(time) +'</span></li>'; } $('ul#news').append(addItem); }); It works in Chrome 4 and Firefox 3.6, but I load it up in IE8 and somehow the ajax call fails. I have tried to use IE8's Developer tools to see where exactly it fails, but I haven't been successful yet. So two questions Is there anything blatantly wrong with my ajax call here that could be preventing me from seeing it in IE where it works in FF/Chrome? Are there any special considerations I have to make for the Internet Explorer family of browsers with regards to this particular jQuery method? I've done some googling on this but nothing obvious is coming up. One other note: I am currently using jQuery 1.3.2 due to some legacy scripts on the same site. I did try loading 1.4.2 and it had the same results on IE8

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 644 645 646 647 648 649 650 651 652 653 654 655  | Next Page >