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  • Is it correct or incorrect for a Java JAR to contain its own dependencies?

    - by 4herpsand7derpsago
    I guess this is a two-part question. I am trying to write my own Ant task (MyFirstTask) that can be used in other project's build.xml buildfiles. To do this, I need to compile and package my Ant task inside its own JAR. Because this Ant task that I have written is fairly complicated, it has about 20 dependencies (other JAR files), such as using XStream for OX-mapping, Guice for DI, etc. I am currently writing the package task in the build.xml file inside the MyFirstTask project (the buildfile that will package myfirsttask.jar, which is the reusable Ant task). I am suddenly realizing that I don't fully understand the intention of a Java JAR. Is it that a JAR should not contain dependencies, and leave it to the runtime configuration (the app container, the runtime environment, etc.) to supply it with the dependencies it needs? I would assume if this is the case, an executable JAR is an exception to the rule, yes? Or, is it the intention for Java JARs to also include their dependencies? Either way, I don't want to be forcing my users to be copying-n-pasting 25+ JARs into their Ant libs; that's just cruel. I like the way WAR files are set up, where the classpath for dependencies is defined under the classes/ directory. I guess, ultimately, I'd like my JAR structure to look like: myfirsttask.jar/ com/ --> the root package of my compiled binaries config/ --> config files, XML, XSD, etc. classes/ --> all dependencies, guice-3.0.jar, xstream-1.4.3.jar, etc. META-INF/ MANIFEST.MF I assume that in order to accomplish this (and get the runtime classpath to also look into the classes/ directory), I'll need to modify the MANIFEST.MF somehow (I know there's a manifest attribute called ClassPath, I believe?). I'm just having a tough time putting everything together, and have a looming/lingering question about the very intent of JARs to begin with. Can someone please confirm whether Oracle intends for JARs to contain their dependencies or not? And, either way, what I would have to do in the manifest (or anywhere else) to make sure that, at runtime, the classpath can find the dependencies stored under the classes/ directory? Thanks in advance!

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  • Specializing a template on a lambda in C++0x

    - by Tony A.
    I've written a traits class that lets me extract information about the arguments and type of a function or function object in C++0x (tested with gcc 4.5.0). The general case handles function objects: template <typename F> struct function_traits { template <typename R, typename... A> struct _internal { }; template <typename R, typename... A> struct _internal<R (F::*)(A...)> { // ... }; typedef typename _internal<decltype(&F::operator())>::<<nested types go here>>; }; Then I have a specialization for plain functions at global scope: template <typename R, typename... A> struct function_traits<R (*)(A...)> { // ... }; This works fine, I can pass a function into the template or a function object and it works properly: template <typename F> void foo(F f) { typename function_traits<F>::whatever ...; } int f(int x) { ... } foo(f); What if, instead of passing a function or function object into foo, I want to pass a lambda expression? foo([](int x) { ... }); The problem here is that neither specialization of function_traits<> applies. The C++0x draft says that the type of the expression is a "unique, unnamed, non-union class type". Demangling the result of calling typeid(...).name() on the expression gives me what appears to be gcc's internal naming convention for the lambda, main::{lambda(int)#1}, not something that syntactically represents a C++ typename. In short, is there anything I can put into the template here: template <typename R, typename... A> struct function_traits<????> { ... } that will allow this traits class to accept a lambda expression?

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  • C - How to use both aio_read() and aio_write().

    - by Slav
    I implement game server where I need to both read and write. So I accept incoming connection and start reading from it using aio_read() but when I need to send something, I stop reading using aio_cancel() and then use aio_write(). Within write's callback I resume reading. So, I do read all the time but when I need to send something - I pause reading. It works for ~20% of time - in other case call to aio_cancel() fails with "Operation now in progress" - and I cannot cancel it (even within permanent while cycle). So, my added write operation never happens. How to use these functions well? What did I missed? EDIT: Used under Linux 2.6.35. Ubuntu 10 - 32 bit. Example code: void handle_read(union sigval sigev_value) { /* handle data or disconnection */ } void handle_write(union sigval sigev_value) { /* free writing buffer memory */ } void start() { const int acceptorSocket = socket(AF_INET, SOCK_STREAM, 0); struct sockaddr_in addr; memset(&addr, 0, sizeof(struct sockaddr_in)); addr.sin_family = AF_INET; addr.sin_addr.s_addr = INADDR_ANY; addr.sin_port = htons(port); bind(acceptorSocket, (struct sockaddr*)&addr, sizeof(struct sockaddr_in)); listen(acceptorSocket, SOMAXCONN); struct sockaddr_in address; socklen_t addressLen = sizeof(struct sockaddr_in); for(;;) { const int incomingSocket = accept(acceptorSocket, (struct sockaddr*)&address, &addressLen); if(incomingSocket == -1) { /* handle error ... */} else { //say socket to append outcoming messages at writing: const int currentFlags = fcntl(incomingSocket, F_GETFL, 0); if(currentFlags < 0) { /* handle error ... */ } if(fcntl(incomingSocket, F_SETFL, currentFlags | O_APPEND) == -1) { /* handle another error ... */ } //start reading: struct aiocb* readingAiocb = new struct aiocb; memset(readingAiocb, 0, sizeof(struct aiocb)); readingAiocb->aio_nbytes = MY_SOME_BUFFER_SIZE; readingAiocb->aio_fildes = socketDesc; readingAiocb->aio_buf = mySomeReadBuffer; readingAiocb->aio_sigevent.sigev_notify = SIGEV_THREAD; readingAiocb->aio_sigevent.sigev_value.sival_ptr = (void*)mySomeData; readingAiocb->aio_sigevent.sigev_notify_function = handle_read; if(aio_read(readingAiocb) != 0) { /* handle error ... */ } } } } //called at any time from server side: send(void* data, const size_t dataLength) { //... some thread-safety precautions not needed here ... const int cancellingResult = aio_cancel(socketDesc, readingAiocb); if(cancellingResult != AIO_CANCELED) { //this one happens ~80% of the time - embracing previous call to permanent while cycle does not help: if(cancellingResult == AIO_NOTCANCELED) { puts(strerror(aio_return(readingAiocb))); // "Operation now in progress" /* don't know what to do... */ } } //otherwise it's okay to send: else { aio_write(...); } }

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  • php download file slows

    - by hobbywebsite
    OK first off thanks for your time I wish I could give more than one point for this question. Problem: I have some music files on my site (.mp3) and I am using a php file to increment a database to count the number of downloads and to point to the file to download. For some reason this method starts at 350kb/s then slowly drops to 5kb/s which then the file says it will take 11hrs to complete. BUT if I go directly to the .mp3 file my browser brings up a player and then I can right click and "save as" which works fine complete download in 3mins. (Yes both during the same time for those that are thinking it's my connection or ISP and its not my server either.) So the only thing that I've been playing around with recently is the php.ini and the .htcaccess files. So without further ado, the php file, php.ini, and the .htcaccess: download.php <?php include("config.php"); include("opendb.php"); $filename = 'song_name'; $filedl = $filename . '.mp3'; $query = "UPDATE songs SET song_download=song_download+1 WHER song_linkname='$filename'"; mysql_query($query); header('Content-Disposition: attachment; filename='.basename($filedl)); header('Content-type: audio/mp3'); header('Content-Length: ' . filesize($filedl)); readfile('/music/' . $filename . '/' . $filedl); include("closedb.php"); ?> php.ini register_globals = off allow_url_fopen = off expose_php = Off max_input_time = 60 variables_order = "EGPCS" extension_dir = ./ upload_tmp_dir = /tmp precision = 12 SMTP = relay-hosting.secureserver.net url_rewriter.tags = "a=href,area=href,frame=src,input=src,form=,fieldset=" ; Defines the default timezone used by the date functions date.timezone = "America/Los_Angeles" .htaccess Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^(www.MindCollar.com)?$ [NC] RewriteRule (.*) http://www.MindCollar.com/$1 [R=301,L] <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On ErrorDocument 404 /errors/404.php ErrorDocument 403 /errors/403.php ErrorDocument 500 /errors/500.php </IfModule> Options -Indexes Options +FollowSymlinks <Files .htaccess> deny from all </Files> thanks for you time

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  • Not allowing characters after Space. Mysql Insert With PHP

    - by Jake
    Ok so I think this is easy but I dont know (I'm a novice to PHP and MySQL). I have a select that is getting data from a table in the database. I am simply taking whatever options the user selects and putting it into a separate table with a php mysql insert statement. But I am having a problem. When I hit submit, everything is submitted properly except for any select options that have spaces don't submit after the first space. For example if the option was COMPUTER REPAIR, all that would get sent is COMPUTER. I will post code if needed, and any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks! Ok here is my select code: <?php include("./config.php"); $query="SELECT id,name FROM category_names ORDER BY name"; $result = mysql_query ($query); echo"<div style='overflow:auto;width:100%'><label>Categories (Pick three that describe your business)</label><br/><select name='select1'><option value='0'>Please Select A Category</option>"; // printing the list box select command while($catinfo=mysql_fetch_array($result)){//Array or records stored in $nt echo "<option>$catinfo[name]</option><br/> "; } echo"</select></div>"; ?> And here is my insert code ( Just to let you know its got everything not just the select!) ?php require("./config.php"); $companyname = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes(trim($_REQUEST['name']))); $phone = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['phone'])); $zipcode = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['zipcode'])); $city = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['city'])); $description = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['description'])); $website = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['website'])); $address = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['address'])); $other = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['other'])); $payment = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['payment'])); $products = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['products'])); $email = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['email'])); $select1 = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['select1'])); $select2 = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['select2'])); $select3 = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['select3'])); $save=$_POST['save']; if(!empty($save)){ $sql="INSERT INTO gj (name, phone, city, zipcode, description, dateadded, website, address1, other2, payment_options, Products, email,cat1,cat2,cat3) VALUES ('$companyname','$phone','$city','$zipcode','$description',curdate(),'$website','$address','$other','$payment','$products','$email','$select1','$select2','$select3')"; if (!mysql_query($sql,$link)) { die('Error: ' . mysql_error()); } echo "<br/><h2><font color='green' style='font-size:15px'>1 business added</font></h2>"; mysql_close($link); } ?>

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  • ASP.Net / MySQL : Translating content into several languages

    - by philwilks
    I have an ASP.Net website which uses a MySQL database for the back end. The website is an English e-commerce system, and we are looking at the possibility of translating it into about five other languages (French, Spanish etc). We will be getting human translators to perform the translation - we've looked at automated services but these aren't good enough. The static text on the site (e.g. headings, buttons etc) can easily be served up in multiple languages via .Net's built in localization features (resx files etc). The thing that I'm not so sure about it how best to store and retrieve the multi-language content in the database. For example, there is a products table that includes these fields... productId (int) categoryId (int) title (varchar) summary (varchar) description (text) features (text) The title, summary, description and features text would need to be available in all the different languages. Here are the two options that I've come up with... Create additional field for each language For example we could have titleEn, titleFr, titleEs etc for all the languages, and repeat this for all text columns. We would then adapt our code to use the appropriate field depending on the language selected. This feels a bit hacky, and also would lead to some very large tables. Also, if we wanted to add additional languages in the future it would be time consuming to add even more columns. Use a lookup table We could create a new table with the following format... textId | languageId | content ------------------------------- 10 | EN | Car 10 | FR | Voiture 10 | ES | Coche 11 | EN | Bike 11 | FR | Vélo We'd then adapt our products table to reference the appropriate textId for the title, summary, description and features instead of having the text stored in the product table. This seems much more elegant, but I can't think of a simple way of getting this data out of the database and onto the page without using complex SQL statements. Of course adding new languages in the future would be very simple compared to the previous option. I'd be very grateful for any suggestions about the best way to achieve this! Is there any "best practice" guidance out there? Has anyone done this before?

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  • Rails 3: How do I call a javascript function from a js.erb file

    - by user321775
    Now that I've upgraded to Rails 3, I'm trying to figure out the proper way to separate and reuse pieces of javascript. Here's the scenario I'm dealing with: I have a page with two areas: one with elements that should be draggable, the other with droppables. When the page loads I use jQuery to setup the draggables and droppables. Currently I have the script in the head portion of application.html.erb, which I'm sure is not the right solution but at least works. When I press a button on the page, an ajax call is made to my controller that replaces the draggables with a new set of elements that should also be draggable. I have a js.erb file that renders a partial in the correct location. After rendering I need to make the new elements draggable, so I'd like to reuse the code that currently lives in application.html.erb, but I haven't found the right way to do it. I can only make the new elements draggable by pasting the code directly into my js.erb file (yuck). What I'd like to have: - a javascript file that contains the functions prepdraggables() and prepdroppables() - a way to call either function from application.html.erb or from a js.erb file I've tried using :content_for to store and reuse the code, but can't seem to get it working correctly. What I currently have in the head section of application.html.erb <% content_for :drag_drop_prep do %> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> $(document).ready(function () { // declare all DOM elements with class draggable to be draggable $( ".draggable" ).draggable( { revert : 'invalid' }); // declare all DOM elements with class legal to be droppable $(".legal").droppable({ hoverClass : 'legal_hover', drop : function(event, ui) { var c = new Object(); c['die'] = ui.draggable.attr("id"); c['cell'] = $(this).attr("id"); c['authenticity_token'] = encodeURIComponent(window._token); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/placeDie", data: c, timeout: 5000 }); }}); }); </script> <% end %> undo.js.erb $("#board").html("<%= escape_javascript(render :partial => 'shared/board', :locals => { :playable => true, :restartable => !session[:challenge]}) %>") // This is where I want to prepare draggables. <%= javascript_include_tag "customdragdrop.js" %> // assuming this file had the draggables code from above in a prepdraggables() function prepdraggables();

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  • Can I write a test that succeeds if and only if a statement does not compile?

    - by Billy ONeal
    I'd like to prevent clients of my class from doing something stupid. To that end, I have used the type system, and made my class only accept specific types as input. Consider the following example (Not real code, I've left off things like virtual destructors for the sake of example): class MyDataChunk { //Look Ma! Implementation! }; class Sink; class Source { virtual void Run() = 0; Sink *next_; void SetNext(Sink *next) { next_ = next; } }; class Sink { virtual void GiveMeAChunk(const MyDataChunk& data) { //Impl }; }; class In { virtual void Run { //Impl } }; class Out { }; //Note how filter and sorter have the same declaration. Concrete classes //will inherit from them. The seperate names are there to ensure only //that some idiot doesn't go in and put in a filter where someone expects //a sorter, etc. class Filter : public Source, public Sink { //Drop objects from the chain-of-command pattern that don't match a particular //criterion. }; class Sorter : public Source, public Sink { //Sorts inputs to outputs. There are different sorters because someone might //want to sort by filename, size, date, etc... }; class MyClass { In i; Out o; Filter f; Sorter s; public: //Functions to set i, o, f, and s void Execute() { i.SetNext(f); f.SetNext(s); s.SetNext(o); i.Run(); } }; What I don't want is for somebody to come back later and go, "Hey, look! Sorter and Filter have the same signature. I can make a common one that does both!", thus breaking the semantic difference MyClass requires. Is this a common kind of requirement, and if so, how might I implement a test for it?

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  • ACL implementation

    - by Kirzilla
    First question Please, could you explain me how simpliest ACL could be implemented in MVC. Here is the first approach of using Acl in Controller... <?php class MyController extends Controller { public function myMethod() { //It is just abstract code $acl = new Acl(); $acl->setController('MyController'); $acl->setMethod('myMethod'); $acl->getRole(); if (!$acl->allowed()) die("You're not allowed to do it!"); ... } } ?> It is very bad approach, and it's minus is that we have to add Acl piece of code into each controller's method, but we don't need any additional dependencies! Next approach is to make all controller's methods private and add ACL code into controller's __call method. <?php class MyController extends Controller { private function myMethod() { ... } public function __call($name, $params) { //It is just abstract code $acl = new Acl(); $acl->setController(__CLASS__); $acl->setMethod($name); $acl->getRole(); if (!$acl->allowed()) die("You're not allowed to do it!"); ... } } ?> It is better than previous code, but main minuses are... All controller's methods should be private We have to add ACL code into each controller's __call method. The next approach is to put Acl code into parent Controller, but we still need to keep all child controller's methods private. What is the solution? And what is the best practice? Where should I call Acl functions to decide allow or disallow method to be executed. Second question Second question is about getting role using Acl. Let's imagine that we have guests, users and user's friends. User have restricted access to viewing his profile that only friends can view it. All guests can't view this user's profile. So, here is the logic.. we have to ensure that method being called is profile we have to detect owner of this profile we have to detect is viewer is owner of this profile or no we have to read restriction rules about this profile we have to decide execute or not execute profile method The main question is about detecting owner of profile. We can detect who is owner of profile only executing model's method $model-getOwner(), but Acl do not have access to model. How can we implement this? I hope that my thoughts are clear. Sorry for my English. Thank you.

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  • Flex bug?? Get messed up stacked ColumnChart with type="100%"

    - by Nir
    I am trying to do a stacked Column chart with type="100%" and a mixture of positive and negative values. When all the values are positive, is functions well, but when negative numbers come to the game, it looks totally messed up. When I also look at Adobe documentation (look here), I see the following code for stacked column chart involving negative numbers: <?xml version="1.0"?> <!-- charts/StackedNegative.mxml --> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml"> <mx:Script><![CDATA[ import mx.collections.ArrayCollection; [Bindable] public var expenses:ArrayCollection = new ArrayCollection([ {Month:"Jan", Profit:-2000, Expenses:-1500}, {Month:"Feb", Profit:1000, Expenses:-200}, {Month:"Mar", Profit:1500, Expenses:-500} ]); ]]></mx:Script> <mx:Panel title="Column Chart"> <mx:ColumnChart id="myChart" dataProvider="{expenses}" showDataTips="true"> <mx:horizontalAxis> <mx:CategoryAxis dataProvider="{expenses}" categoryField="Month" /> </mx:horizontalAxis> <mx:series> <mx:ColumnSet type="stacked" allowNegativeForStacked="true"> <mx:series> <mx:ColumnSeries xField="Month" yField="Profit" displayName="Profit" /> <mx:ColumnSeries xField="Month" yField="Expenses" displayName="Expenses" /> </mx:series> </mx:ColumnSet> </mx:series> </mx:ColumnChart> <mx:Legend dataProvider="{myChart}"/> </mx:Panel> </mx:Application> It works fine. But try to change: <mx:ColumnSet type="stacked" allowNegativeForStacked="true"> to: <mx:ColumnSet type="100%" allowNegativeForStacked="true"> and you'll see that it doesn't on January data, where both values are negative, the chart shows as if they are positive, and on the other two where one value is positive and the other is negative, it shows only the positive part as 100%... Isn't it a Flex Bug? I have my own case with such data and it behaves wrong the same way. I'd expect that if it has 800 stacked on -200, it will show 80% up and 20% down, totalling 100%. BTW: Using Flex 4, though these are all mx components. Thanks a lot and regards from Berlin, Germany, Nir.

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  • choosing an image locally from http url and serving that image without a server round trip

    - by serverman
    Hi folks I am a complete novice to Flash (never created anything in flash). I am quite familiar with web applications (J2EE based) and have a reasonable expertise in Javascript. Here is my requirement. I want the user to select (via an html form) an image. Normally in the post, this image would be sent to server and may be stored there to be served later. I do not want that. I want to store this image locally and then serve it via HTTP to the user. So, the flow is: 1. Go to the "select image url":mywebsite.com/selectImage Browse the image and select the image This would transfer control locally to some code running on the client (Javascript or flash), which would then store the image locally at some place on the client machine. Go to the "show image url": mywebsite.com/showImage This would eventually result in some client code running on the browser that retrieves the image and renders it (without any server round trips.) I considered the following options: Use HTML5 local storage. Since I am a complete novice to flash, I looked into this. I found that it is fairly straightforward to store and retrieve images in javascript (only strings are allowed but I am hoping storing base64 encoded strings would work at least for small images). However, how do I serve the image via http url that points to my server without a server round trip? I saw the interesting article at http://hacks.mozilla.org/category/fileapi/ but that would work only in firefox and I need to work on all latest browsers (at least the ones supporting HTML5 local storage) Use flash SharedObjects. OK, this would have been good - the only thing is I am not sure where to start. Snippets of actionscripts to do this are scattered everywhere but I do not know how to use those scripts in an actual html page:) I do not need to create any movies or anything - just need to store an image and serve it locally. If I go this route, I would also use it to store other "strings" locally. If you suggest this, please give me the exact steps (could be pointers to other web sites) on how to do this. I would like to avoid paying for any flash development environment software ideally:) Thank you!

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  • How can I execute an insert with data from a repeater-generated form whose data source is SQL?

    - by Duke
    I'm storing multilingual data in a database whose model is language normalized (like this). For this particular problem the key for the table in question consists of a value entered by the user and a language from the language table. I'd like to dynamically generate a form with input fields for all available languages. The user inputs a key value then goes down a list of field sets filling out the information in each language. In this case there are two fields for every language, a name and a value (the value is language dependent.) I have all existing information displayed on the page with a gridview, below which I have a formview that is always in insert mode allowing the user to enter new data. Within the formview I have a repeater with an SQLDataSource that gets a list of available languages: <asp:Repeater ID="SessionLocaleRepeater" runat="server" DataSourceID="LocaleSQLDataSource" EnableViewState="false"> <ItemTemplate> <tr> <th scope="row"><%# DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "LocaleName") %></th> <td>Name:</td> <td><asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server" Text="" /></td> <td>Number:</td> <td><asp:TextBox ID="TextBox2" runat="server" Text="" /></td> </tr> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> I figured that in order to insert this data I'd have to execute my sql server insert stored procedure for each item in the repeater; I am trying to use the formview inserting event. The problem is that the repeater isn't databound to the SQLDataSource until after the formview inserting event (inserting event is in PostBackEvent and databind is in PreRender), which means the controls and data are not available when the inserting event is fired. I tried databinding the repeater during the formview inserting event; the controls were available but the data was not. Would this have something to do with how/when the viewstate information is re-added to the controls? From what I've read, Viewstate is one of the first things to be restored. Given the order of events how can I get the data I need for the insert? I'm open to other solutions to creating dynamic input controls, but they will have to query the database to determine how many sets of controls to create.

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  • Dynamically loaded jQuery with GreaseMonkey inconsistent on pages (refreshing seems to fix it)... do

    - by uprightnetizen
    Hi, I want a custom page analysis footer on every site I visit... so I've used a method to attach JQuery to unsafeWindow. I then create a floating footer on the page. I want to be able to call commands in a menu, do some processing, then put the results in the footer. Unfortunately it sometimes works, sometimes it doesn't. At least two alerts should happen in the printOutput function. Sometimes it only fires one, then it (crashes?) without error? On other pages, both alerts fire and it finds the element, but it doesn't add the extra text. (e.g. www.linode.com) Refreshing the page, then running the printOutput command again seems to always work. Does anyone know what's going on??? The userscript can be installed at: http://www.captionwizard.com/test/page_analysis.user.js // ==UserScript== // @name page_analysis // @namespace markspace // @description Page Analysis // @include http://*/* // ==/UserScript== (function() { // Add jQuery var GM_JQ = document.createElement('script'); GM_JQ.src = 'http://code.jquery.com/jquery-1.4.2.min.js'; GM_JQ.type = 'text/javascript'; document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0].appendChild(GM_JQ); var jqueryActive = false; //Check if jQuery's loaded function GM_wait() { if(typeof unsafeWindow.jQuery == 'undefined') { window.setTimeout(GM_wait,100); } else { $ = unsafeWindow.jQuery; letsJQuery(); } } GM_wait(); function letsJQuery() { jqueryActive = true; setupOutputFooter(); } /******************************* Analysis FOOTER Functions ******************************/ function printOutput(someText) { alert('printing output'); if($('div.analysis_footer').length) { alert('is here - appending'); $('div.analysis_footer').append('<br>' + someText); } else { alert('not here - trying again'); setupOutputFooter(); $('div.analysis_footer').append('<br>' + someText); } } GM_registerMenuCommand("Test Output", testOutput, "k", "control", "k" ); function testOutput() { printOutput('testing this'); } function setupOutputFooter() { $('<div class="analysis_footer">Page Analysis Footer:</div>').appendTo('body'); $('div.analysis_footer').css('position','fixed').css('bottom', '0px').css('background-color','#F8F8F8'); $('div.analysis_footer').css('width','100%').css('color','#3B3B3B').css('font-size', '0.8em'); $('div.analysis_footer').css('font-family', '"Myriad",Verdana,Arial,Helvetica,sans-serif').css('padding', '5px'); $('div.analysis_footer').css('border-top', '1px solid black').css('text-align', 'left'); } }());

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  • Passing ViewModel for backbone.js from MVC3 Server-Side

    - by Roman
    In ASP.NET MVC there is Model, View and Controller. MODEL represents entities which are stored in database and essentially is all the data used in a application (for example, generated by EntityFramework, "DB First" approach). Not all data from model you want to show in the view (for example, hashs of passwords). So you create VIEW MODEL, each for every strongly-typed-razor-view you have in application. Like this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; namespace MyProject.ViewModels.SomeController.SomeAction { public class ViewModel { public ViewModel() { Entities1 = new List<ViewEntity1>(); Entities2 = new List<ViewEntity2>(); } public List<ViewEntity1> Entities1 { get; set; } public List<ViewEntity2> Entities2 { get; set; } } public class ViewEntity1 { //some properties from original DB-entity you want to show } public class ViewEntity2 { } } When you create complex client-side interfaces (I do), you use some pattern for javascript on client, MVC or MVVM (I know only these). So, with MVC on client you have another model (Backbone.Model for example), which is third model in application. It is a bit much. Why don`t we use the same ViewModel model on a client (in backbone.js or another framework)? Is there a way to transfer CS-coded model to JS-coded? Like in MVVM pattern, with knockout.js, when you can do like this: in SomeAction.cshtml: <div style="display: none;" id="view_model">@Json.Encode(Model)</div> after that in Javascript-code var ViewModel = ko.mapping.fromJSON($("#view_model").get(0).innerHTML); now you can extend your ViewModel with some actions, event handlers, etc: ko.utils.extend(ViewModel, { some_function: function () { //some code } }); So, we are not building the same view model on the client again, we are transferring existing view model from server. At least, data. But knockout.js is not suitable for me, you can`t build complex UI with it, it is just data-binding. I need something more structural, like backbone.js. The only way to build ViewModel for backbone.js I can see now is re-writing same ViewModel in JS from server with hands. Is there any ways to transfer it from server? To reuse the same viewmodel on server view and client view?

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  • Are there any platforms where using structure copy on an fd_set (for select() or pselect()) causes p

    - by Jonathan Leffler
    The select() and pselect() system calls modify their arguments (the 'struct fd_set *' arguments), so the input value tells the system which file descriptors to check and the return values tell the programmer which file descriptors are currently usable. If you are going to call them repeatedly for the same set of file descriptors, you need to ensure that you have a fresh copy of the descriptors for each call. The obvious way to do that is to use a structure copy: struct fd_set ref_set_rd; struct fd_set ref_set_wr; struct fd_set ref_set_er; ... ...code to set the reference fd_set_xx values... ... while (!done) { struct fd_set act_set_rd = ref_set_rd; struct fd_set act_set_wr = ref_set_wr; struct fd_set act_set_er = ref_set_er; int bits_set = select(max_fd, &act_set_rd, &act_set_wr, &act_set_er, &timeout); if (bits_set > 0) { ...process the output values of act_set_xx... } } My question: Are there any platforms where it is not safe to do a structure copy of the struct fd_set values as shown? I'm concerned lest there be hidden memory allocation or anything unexpected like that. (There are macros/functions FD_SET(), FD_CLR(), FD_ZERO() and FD_ISSET() to mask the internals from the application.) I can see that MacOS X (Darwin) is safe; other BSD-based systems are likely to be safe, therefore. You can help by documenting other systems that you know are safe in your answers. (I do have minor concerns about how well the struct fd_set would work with more than 8192 open file descriptors - the default maximum number of open files is only 256, but the maximum number is 'unlimited'. Also, since the structures are 1 KB, the copying code is not dreadfully efficient, but then running through a list of file descriptors to recreate the input mask on each cycle is not necessarily efficient either. Maybe you can't do select() when you have that many file descriptors open, though that is when you are most likely to need the functionality.) There's a related SO question - asking about 'poll() vs select()' which addresses a different set of issues from this question.

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  • SQL Native Client 10 Performance miserable (due to server-side cursors)

    - by namezero
    we have an application that uses ODBC via CDatabase/CRecordset in MFC (VS2010). We have two backends implemented. MSSQL and MySQL. Now, when we use MSSQL (with the Native Client 10.0), retrieving records with SELECT is dramatically slow via slow links (VPN, for example). The MySQL ODBC driver does not exhibit this nasty behavior. For example: CRecordset r(&m_db); r.Open(CRecordset::snapshot, L"SELECT a.something, b.sthelse FROM TableA AS a LEFT JOIN TableB AS b ON a.ID=b.Ref"); r.MoveFirst(); while(!r.IsEOF()) { // Retrieve CString strData; crs.GetFieldValue(L"a.something", strData); crs.MoveNext(); } Now, with the MySQL driver, everything runs as it should. The query is returned, and everything is lightning fast. However, with the MSSQL Native Client, things slow down, because on every MoveNext(), the driver communicates with the server. I think it is due to server-side cursors, but I didn't find a way to disable them. I have tried using: ::SQLSetConnectAttr(m_db.m_hdbc, SQL_ATTR_ODBC_CURSORS, SQL_CUR_USE_ODBC, SQL_IS_INTEGER); But this didn't help either. There are still long-running exec's to sp_cursorfetch() et al in SQL Profiler. I have also tried a small reference project with SQLAPI and bulk fetch, but that hangs in FetchNext() for a long time, too (even if there is only one record in the resultset). This however only happens on queries with LEFT JOINS, table-valued functions, etc. Note that the query doesn't take that long - executing the same SQL via SQL Studio over the same connection returns in a reasonable time. Question1: Is is possible to somehow get the native client to "cache" all results locally use local cursors in a similar fashion as the MySQL driver seems to do it? Maybe this is the wrong approach altogether, but I'm not sure how else to do this. All we want is to retrieve all data at once from a SELECT, then never talk the server again until the next query. We don't care about recordset updates, deletes, etc or any of that nonsense. We only want to retrieve data. We take that recordset, get all the data, and delete it. Question2: Is there a more efficient way to just retrieve data in MFC with ODBC?

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  • Why do we have reinterpret_cast in C++ when two chained static_cast can do it's job?

    - by Nawaz
    Say I want to cast A* to char* and vice-versa, we have two choices (I mean, many of us think we've two choices, because both seems to work! Hence the confusion!): struct A { int age; char name[128]; }; A a; char *buffer = static_cast<char*>(static_cast<void*>(&a)); //choice 1 char *buffer = reinterpret_cast<char*>(&a); //choice 2 Both work fine. //convert back A *pA = static_cast<A*>(static_cast<void*>(buffer)); //choice 1 A *pA = reinterpret_cast<A*>(buffer); //choice 2 Even this works fine! So why do we have reinterpret_cast in C++ when two chained static_cast can do it's job? Some of you might think this topic is a duplicate of the previous topics such as listed at the bottom of this post, but it's not. Those topics discuss only theoretically, but none of them gives even a single example demonstrating why reintepret_cast is really needed, and two static_cast would surely fail. I agree, one static_cast would fail. But how about two? If the syntax of two chained static_cast looks cumbersome, then we can write a function template to make it more programmer-friendly: template<class To, class From> To any_cast(From v) { return static_cast<To>(static_cast<void*>(v)); } And then we can use this, as: char *buffer = any_cast<char*>(&a); //choice 1 char *buffer = reinterpret_cast<char*>(&a); //choice 2 //convert back A *pA = any_cast<A*>(buffer); //choice 1 A *pA = reinterpret_cast<A*>(buffer); //choice 2 Also, see this situation where any_cast can be useful: Proper casting for fstream read and write member functions. So my question basically is, Why do we have reinterpret_cast in C++? Please show me even a single example where two chained static_cast would surely fail to do the same job? Which cast to use; static_cast or reinterpret_cast? Cast from Void* to TYPE* : static_cast or reinterpret_cast

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  • Zend Framework-where should this root.php file go for MVC?

    - by Joel
    Hi guys, I'm converting over a web-app to use the MVC structure of Zend Framework. I have a root.php include file that contains most of the database info, and some static variables that are used in the program. I'm not sure if some of this should be in the application.ini of in a model that is called by the init() function in a controller, or in the bootstrap or what? Any help would be much appreciated! root.php (include file at the top of every php page): <?php /*** //Configuration file */ ## Site Configuration starts ## define("SITE_ROOT" , dirname(__FILE__)); define("SITE_URL" , "http://localhost/monkeycalendarapp/monkeycalendarapp/public"); define('DB_HOST', "localhost"); define('DB_USER', "root"); define('DB_PASS', "xxx"); define('DB_NAME', "xxxxx"); define("PROJECT_NAME" , "Monkey Mind Manager (beta 2.2)"); //site title define("CALENDAR_WIDTH" , "300"); //left mini calendar width define("CALENDAR_HEIGHT" , "150"); //left mini calendar height $page_title = 'Event List'; $stylesheet_name = 'style.css'; //default stylesheet define("SITE_URL_AJAX" , SITE_URL . "/ajax-tooltip"); define("JQUERY" , SITE_URL . "/jquery-ui-1.7.2"); $a_times = array("12:00","12:30","01:00","01:30","02:00","02:30","03:00","03:30","04:00","04:30","05:00","05:30","06:00","06:30","07:00","07:30","08:00","08:30","09:00","09:30","10:00","10:30","11:00","11:30"); //PTLType Promotional timeline type $a_ptlType= array(1=>"Gigs","To-Do","Completed"); $a_days = array("Su","Mo","Tu","We","Th","Fr","Sa"); $a_timesMerd = array("12:00am","12:30am","01:00am","01:30am","02:00am","02:30am","03:00am","03:30am","04:00am","04:30am","05:00am","05:30am","06:00am","06:30am","07:00am","07:30am","08:00am","08:30am","09:00am","09:30am","10:00am","10:30am","11:00am","11:30am","12:00pm","12:30pm","01:00pm","01:30pm","02:00pm","02:30pm","03:00pm","03:30pm","04:00pm","04:30pm","05:00pm","05:30pm","06:00pm","06:30pm","07:00pm","07:30pm","08:00pm","08:30pm","09:00pm","09:30pm","10:00pm","10:30pm","11:00pm","11:30pm"); //Setting stylesheet for this user. $AMPM=array("am"=>"am","pm"=>"pm"); include(SITE_ROOT . "/includes/functions/general.php"); include(SITE_ROOT . "/includes/db.php"); session_start(); if(isset($_SESSION['userData']['UserID'])) { $s_userID = $_SESSION['userData']['UserID']; } $stylesheet_name = stylesheet(); ini_set('date.timezone', 'GMT'); date_default_timezone_set('GMT'); if($s_userID) { ini_set('date.timezone', $_SESSION['userData']['timezone']); date_default_timezone_set($_SESSION['userData']['timezone']); } ?>

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  • How do I map a one-to-one value type association in an joined-subclass?

    - by David Rubin
    I've got a class hierarchy mapped using table-per-subclass, and it's been working out great: class BasicReport { ... } class SpecificReport : BasicReport { ... } With mappings: <class name="BasicReport" table="reports"> <id name="Id" column="id">...</id> <!-- some common properties --> </class> <joined-subclass name="SpecificReport" table="specificReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <!-- some special properties --> </joined-subclass> So far, so good. The problem I'm struggling with is how to add a property to one of my subclasses that's both a value type for which I have an IUserType implemented and also mapped via an association: class OtherReport : BasicReport { public SpecialValue V { get; set; } } class SpecialValueUserType : IUserType { ... } What I'd like to do is: <joined-subclass name="OtherReport" table="otherReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <join table="rptValues" fetch="join"> <key column="rptId"/> <property name="V" column="value" type="SpecialValueUserType"/> </join> </joined-subclass> This accurately reflects the intent, and the pre-existing database schema I'm tied to: the SpecialValue instance is a property of the OtherReport, but is stored in a separate table ("rptValues"). Unfortunately, it seems as though I can't do this, because <join> elements can't be used in <joined-subclass> mappings. <one-to-one> would require creating a class mapping for SpecialValue, which doesn't make any sense given that SpecialValue is just a meaningful scalar. So what can I do? Do I have any options? Right now I'm playing a game with sets: class OtherReport : BasicReport { public SpecialValue V { get { return _values.Count() > 0 ? _values.First() : null; } set { _values.Clear(); _values.Add(value); } } private ICollection<SpecialValue> _values; } With mapping: <joined-subclass name="OtherReport" table="otherReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <set name="_values" access="field" table="rptValues" cascade="all-delete-orphan"> <key column="rptId" /> <element column="value" type="SpecialValueUserType"/> </set> </joined-subclass> Thanks in advance for the help! I've been banging my head into my desk for several days now.

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  • SWF (using XML) only working locally, not on home server or web hosting server

    - by Andy
    Hi, I use a main SWF file, which has some animations. It uses xml from a .php file which specifies several items, e.g. images and other SWFs to be used in the main SWF. Locally everything works perfectly, but when invoking it via my home server, or hosting provider it doesn't work anymore and I don't get why. All links are relative and correct. Somehow the main SWF doesn't load fully, or has problems with the XML from the .php file. I'm not sure, now I only get a black box that doesn't show any of the other content it's supposed to. check it out: http://deoshermes.ath.cx/cc-common/templates/dynamiclead/dynamic_leadee.swf the XML: <?xml version="1.0" ?><dynamic_content> <item blurb="Text 1" content_url="" content_source="" content_timer="8000" content_target="_self" tab_color="0x000000" tab_border_color="0x000000" tab_arrow_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_text_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_image="/template/images/dle_TOPmay06.jpg" cycle="true" content_border_color="0x" content_bg_image="" tab_hl_color="0x000000" tab_highlight_color="0x" tab_highlight_text_color="0x" tab_highlight_image="" > </item> <item blurb="Text 2" content_timer="5000" cycle="true" content_border_color="0x" content_bg_image="" tab_hl_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_border_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_arrow_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_text_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_image="/template/images/dle_MIDandBOTmay06.jpg" tab_highlight_color="0x" tab_highlight_text_color="0x" tab_highlight_image="" content_url="" content_source="" content_target="_self" > </item> <item blurb="Text 3" content_timer="5000" cycle="true" content_border_color="0x" content_bg_image="" tab_hl_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_border_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_arrow_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_text_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_image="/template/images/dle_MIDandBOTmay06.jpg" tab_highlight_color="0x" tab_highlight_text_color="0x" tab_highlight_image="" content_url="" content_source="" content_target="_self" > </item> </dynamic_content> this works like a charm when invoking the main SWF locally. The ActionScript from the main sWF can be found at samedomain as above/Actionscript_mainmovie.txt This also seems to work great. the function formattabs (line 68) uses some javascript. Locally the main SWF functions even without this hbx file which is located /cc-common/wss/hbx.js and use in the webpage actually. I haven't got a clue what's keeping the main SWF from working properly, because all other single SWFs work properly when invoked using a direct link. And this one just isn't working... Do I maybe need to add something in the php.ini file?? Any help would be appreciated!

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  • Changing the title of jQuery-UI dialog-box with in another dialog-box's function...

    - by Brian Ojeda
    Why doesn't doesn't the second jQuery-UI dialog box title change when popped. The first dialog box I change the title of the box with using the following .attr("title", "Confirm") -- it change the title of the first box to 'Confirm', like it should have. Now when the second box pops up it should change the title to 'Message' since did the same thing for the second box -- .attr("title", "Message"). Right? But it doesnt. It keep the title from before. However, the message change like it should have. I have tested in IE8, Chrome, and FF3.6. <div id="dialog-confirm" title=""></div> <-- This is the html before jQuery functions. Javascript / jQuery $('#userDelete').click(function() { $(function() { var dialogIcon = "<span class=\"ui-icon ui-icon-alert\"></span>"; var dialogMessage = dialogIcon + "Are you sure you want to delete?"; $("#dialog-confirm").attr("title", "Confirm").html(dialogMessage).dialog({ resizable: false, height: 125, width: 300, modal: true, buttons: { 'Delete': function() { $(this).dialog('close'); $.post('user_ajax.php', {action: 'delete', aId: $('[name=aId]').val() }, function(data) { if(data.success){ var dialogIcon = "<span class=\"ui-icon ui-icon-info\"></span>"; var dialogMessage = dialogIcon + data.message; $('#dialog-confirm').attr("title", "Message"); $('#dialog-confirm').html(dialogMessage); $('#dialog-confirm').dialog({ resizable: false, height: 125, width: 300, modal: true, buttons: { 'Okay': function() { $(this).dialog('close'); var url = $_httpaddress + "admin/index.php" $(location).attr('href',url); } // End of Okay Button Function } //--- End of Dialog Button Script });//--- End of Dialog Function } else { $_messageConsole.slideDown(); $_messageConsole.html(data.message); } }, 'json'); }, //--- End of Delete Button Function 'Cancel': function() { $(this).dialog('close'); } //--- End of Cancel Button Function } //--- End of Dialog Button Script }); //--- End of Dialog Script }); //--- End of Dialog Function return false; }); Thank you for you assistant, if you choose to help.

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  • codeIgniter: pass parameter to a select query from previous query

    - by krike
    I'm creating a little management tool for the browser game travian. So I select all the villages from the database and I want to display some content that's unique to each of the villages. But in order to query for those unique details I need to pass the id of the village. How should I do this? this is my code (controller): function members_area() { global $site_title; $this->load->model('membership_model'); if($this->membership_model->get_villages()) { $data['rows'] = $this->membership_model->get_villages(); $id = 1;//this should be dynamic, but how? if($this->membership_model->get_tasks($id)): $data['tasks'] = $this->membership_model->get_tasks($id); endif; } $data['title'] = $site_title." | Your account"; $data['main_content'] = 'account'; $this->load->view('template', $data); } and this is the 2 functions I'm using in the model: function get_villages() { $q = $this->db->get('villages'); if($q->num_rows() > 0) { foreach ($q->result() as $row) { $data[] = $row; } return $data; } } function get_tasks($id) { $this->db->select('name'); $this->db->from('tasks'); $this->db->where('villageid', $id); $q = $this->db->get(); if($q->num_rows() > 0) { foreach ($q->result() as $task) { $data[] = $task; } return $data; } } and of course the view: <?php foreach($rows as $r) : ?> <div class="village"> <h3><?php echo $r->name; ?></h3> <ul> <?php foreach($tasks as $task): ?> <li><?php echo $task->name; ?></li> <?php endforeach; ?> </ul> <?php echo anchor('site/add_village/'.$r->id.'', '+ add new task'); ?> </div> <?php endforeach; ?> ps: please do not remove the comment in the first block of code!

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  • How should I organize my C# classes? [closed]

    - by oscar.fimbres
    I'm creating an email generator system. I'm creating some clases and I'm trying to make things right. By the time, I have created 5 classes. Look at the class diagram: I'm going to explain you each one. Person. It's not a big deal. Just have two constructors: Person(fname, lname1, lname2) and Person(token, fname, lname1, lname2). Note that email property stays without value. StringGenerator. This is a static class and it has only a public function: Generate. The function receives a Person class and it will return a list of patterns for the email. MySql. It contains all the necessary to connect to a database. Database. This class inherits from MySql class. It has particular functions for the database. This gets all the registries from a table (function GetPeople) and return a List. Each person from the list contains all data except Email. Also it can add records (List but this must contains an available email). An available email is when an email doesn't have another person. For that reason, I have a method named ExistsEmail. Container. This is the class which is causing me some problems. It's like a temporary container. It supposed to have a people list from GetPeople (in Database class) and for each person it adds, it must generate a list of possible names (StringGenerator.Generate), then it selects one of the list and it must check out if exists in the database or in the same container. As I told above this is temporal, it may none of the possible emails is available. So the user can modify or enter a custom email available and update the list in this container. When all the email's people are available, it sends a list to add in the database, It must have a Flush method, to insert all the people in the database. I'm trying to design correct class. I need a little help to improve or edite the classes, because I want to separate the logic and visual, and learn of you. I hope you've been able to understand me. Any question or doubt, please let me know. Anyway, I attached the solution here to better understand it: http://www.megaupload.com/?d=D94FH8GZ

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  • Deleting a node in a family tree

    - by user559142
    Hi, I'm trying to calclulate the best way to delete a node in a family tree. First, a little description of how the app works. My app makes the following assumption: Any node can only have one partner. That means that any child a single node has, it will also be the partner nodes child too. Therefore, step relations, divorces etc aren't compensated for. A node always has two parents - A mother and father cannot be added seperately. If the user doesn't know the details - the nodes attributes are set to a default value. Also any node can add parents, siblings, children to itself. Therefore in law relationships can be added. I have the following classes: FamilyMember String fName; String lName; String dob; String gender; FamilyMember mother, father, partner; ArrayListchildren; int index; int generation; void linkParents(); void linkPartner(); void addChild(); //gets & sets for fields Family ArrayListfamily; void addMember(); void removeMember(); FamilyMember getFamilyMember(index); ArrayListgetFamilyMembers(); FamilyTree Family family; void removeMember(); //need help void displayFamilyMembers(); void addFamilyMember(); void enterDetails(); void displayAncestors(); void displayDescendants(); void printDescendants(); FamilyMember findRootNode(); void sortGenerations(); void getRootGeneration(); I am having trouble with identifying the logic for removing a member. All other functions work fine. Has anyone developed a family tree app before who knows how to deal with removing various different nodes in the family "tree"? e.g. removing a leaf removing a leaf with partner (what if partner has parents etc) removing a parent It seems to be another recursive property but my head is swelling from over thought.

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  • Supersized image captions - render outside of JavaScript

    - by Sol
    I am using the jQuery supersized script for a full screen slideshow (not the WordPress plugin as this didn't give me enough control). However, one issue that I am trying to tackle is how to render the image caption text outside of the javascript slides[ ] call - and instead, render them within the page div - to improve SEO on the page. My code works fine right now, images and the caption text are correctly displaying, but looking at the source code, there is very little text outside of the javascript (which is bad for SEO), so I would just like to improve it, if possible. I haven't been able to find any other topic on this subject and so far, I've been unsuccessful at improving on the current code, which is as follows; <!-- Supersized 3.2.7 - By Sam Dunn / One Mighty Roar (www.onemightyroar.com) Released under MIT License / GPL License --> <script type="text/javascript"> var slides=[]; <?php $my_query = new WP_Query ( array( 'post_status' => 'publish', 'post_type' => 'featured', //'numberposts' => 5, 'orderby' => 'menu_order', 'order' => 'ASC', 'showposts' => 50 )); while( $my_query->have_posts() ) : $my_query->the_post(); $slink = get_post_meta($post->ID,'FS_link',true); ?> slides.push({image : '<?php echo get_image_path(get_post_meta($post->ID, 'FS_slideimage_src', true)); ?>', title : '<div class="slidecaptioninside"><h1><?php echo the_title(); ?></h1><p><?php echo strip_tags(get_post_meta($post->ID, 'FS_fitemcaption', true)); ?>...<a href="<?php echo $slink;?>">find out more</a></p></div>', url : '<?php echo $slink;?>'}); <?php endwhile; ?> // start supersized JS $j = jQuery.noConflict(); $j(window).load(function() { $j.supersized({ //Functionality slideshow: 1, // ..... additional functions go here... slide_captions : 1, //Slide caption (Pull from "title" in slides array) slides : slides, slide_links : 'blank', progress_bar : 1, mouse_scrub: 1 }); }); </script> <div id="slidecontainer"> <div id="slidecaption"></div> <!--Thumbnail Navigation--> <div id="prevthumb"></div> <div id="nextthumb"></div> <!--additional tray divs here--> </div><!--slidecontainer--> I have tried to get Supersized to output the content into a parent div [div id="supersized"] using $j('#supersized').supersized({ but this doesn't appear to work. Has anyone managed to do this differently to improve page SEO?

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