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• Finding contained bordered regions from Excel imports.

  - by dmaruca

  I am importing massive amounts of data from Excel that have various table layouts. I have good enough table detection routines and merge cell handling, but I am running into a problem when it comes to dealing with borders. Namely performance. The bordered regions in some of these files have meaning. Data Setup: I am importing directly from Office Open XML using VB6 and MSXML. The data is parsed from the XML into a dictionary of cell data. This wonks wonderfully and is just as fast as using docmd.transferspreadsheet in Access, but returns much better results. Each cell contains a pointer to a style element which contains a pointer to a border element that defines the visibility and weight of each border (this is how the data is structured inside OpenXML, also). Challenge: What I'm trying to do is find every region that is enclosed inside borders, and create a list of cells that are inside that region. What I have done: I initially created a BFS(breadth first search) fill routine to find these areas. This works wonderfully and fast for "normal" sized spreadsheets, but gets way too slow for imports into the thousands of rows. One problem is that a border in Excel could be stored in the cell you are checking or the opposing border in the adjacent cell. That's ok, I can consolidate that data on import to reduce the number of checks needed. One thing I thought about doing is to create a separate graph that outlines the cells using the borders as my edges and using a graph algorithm to find regions that way, but I'm having trouble figuring out how to implement the algorithm. I've used Dijkstra in the past and thought I could do similar with this. So I can span out using no endpoint to search the entire graph, and if I encounter a closed node I know that I just found an enclosed region, but how can I know if the route I've found is the optimal one? I guess I could flag that to run a separate check for the found closed node to the previous node ignoring that one edge. This could work, but wouldn't be much better performance wise on dense graphs. Can anyone else suggest a better method? Thanks for taking the time to read this.

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• How to infer the type of a derived class in base class?

  - by enzi

  I want to create a method that allows me to change arbitrary properties of classes that derive from my base class, the result should look like this: SetPropertyValue("size.height", 50); – where size is a property of my derived class and height is a property of size. I'm almost done with my implementation but there's one final obstacle that I want to solve before moving on, to describe this I will first have to explain my implementation a bit: Properties that can be modified are decorated with an attribute There's a method in my base class that searches for all derived classes and their decorated properties For each property I generate a "property modifier", a class that contains 2 delegates: one to set and one to get the value of the property. Property Modifiers are stored in a dictionary, with the name of the property as key In my base class, there is another dictionary that contains all property-modifier-dictionaries, with the Type of the respective class as key. What the SetPropertyValue method does is this: Get the correct property-modifier-dictionary, using the concrete type of the derived class (<- yet to solve) Get the property modifier of the property to change (e.g. of the property size) Use the get or set delegate to modify the property's value Some example code to clarify further: private static Dictionary<RuntimeTypeHandle, object> EditableTypes; //property-modifier-dictionary protected void SetPropertyValue<T>(EditablePropertyMap<T> map, string property, object value) { var property = map[property]; // get the property modifier property.Set((T)this, value); // use the set delegate (encapsulated in a method) } In the above code, T is the Type of the actual (derived) class. I need this type for the get/set delegates. The problem is how to get the EditablePropertyMap<T> when I don't know what T is. My current (ugly) solution is to pass the map in an overriden virtual method in the derived class: public override void SetPropertyValue(string property, object value) { base.SetPropertyValue((EditablePropertyMap<ExampleType>)EditableTypes[typeof(ExampleType)], property, value); } What this does is: get the correct dictionary containing the property modifiers of this class using the class's type, cast it to the appropiate type and pass it to the SetPropertyValue method. I want to get rid of the SetPropertyValue method in my derived class (since there are a lot of derived classes), but don't know yet how to accomplish that. I cannot just make a virtual GetEditablePropertyMap<T> method because I cannot infer a concrete type for T then. I also cannot acces my dictionary directly with a type and retrieve an EditablePropertyMap<T> from it because I cannot cast to it from object in the base class, since again I do not know T. I found some neat tricks to infere types (e.g. by adding a dummy T parameter), but cannot apply them to my specific problem. I'd highly appreciate any suggestions you may have for me.

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• L-Soft LISTSERV TCPGUI Interface for PHP Creation

  - by poolnoodl

  I'm trying to use LISTSERV's "API" in PHP. L-Soft calls this TCPGUI, and essentially, you can request data like over Telnet. To do this, I'm using PHP's TCP socket functions. I've seen this done in other languages but can't quite convert it to PHP. I can connect, I can change set ASCII or BINARY mode. But I can never quite craft the header packet the way I need to authenticate, so I'm thinking I'm messing up my conversion. C: http://www.lsoft.com/manuals/16.0/htmlhelp/advanced%20topics/TCPGUI.html#2334328 $origin = '[email protected]'; $pwd = 'password'; $host = "example.com"; $port = 2306; $email = "[email protected]"; $list = "mailinglist"; $command = "Query $list FOR $email"; $fp = stream_socket_client("tcp://$host:$port", $errno, $errstr, 30); $cmd = $command . " PW=" . $pwd; $len = strlen($cmd); $orglen = strlen($origin); $n = $len + $orglen + 1; $headerPacket[0] = "1"; $headerPacket[1] = "B"; $headerPacket[2] = "\r"; $headerPacket[3] = "\n"; $headerPacket[4] = ord($n / 256); $headerPacket[5] = ord($n + 255); $headerPacket[6] = ord($orglen); for ($i = 0; $i < $orglen; $i++) { $headerPacket[$i + 7] = ord($origin[$i]); } for ($i = 0; $i < $len; $i++) { $cmdPacket[$i] = ord($cmd[$i]); } fwrite($fp, implode($headerPacket)); while (!feof($fp)) { echo fgets($fp, 1024); } Any thoughts on where I'm going wrong? I'd much appreciate it if anyone could point me toward some code to do this, days of googling and searching here on SO has only lead me to examples in other languages. Of course, if you know C (or Java or Perl as linked below in my comment to bypass the spam filter), PHP, and socket programming fairly well, you could probably rewrite the whole of the code in an hour, maybe a few minutes. You'd have my eternal thanks for that.

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• .NET Windows Service with timer stops responding

  - by Biri

  I have a windows service written in c#. It has a timer inside, which fires some functions on a regular basis. So the skeleton of my service: public partial class ArchiveService : ServiceBase { Timer tickTack; int interval = 10; ... protected override void OnStart(string[] args) { tickTack = new Timer(1000 * interval); tickTack.Elapsed += new ElapsedEventHandler(tickTack_Elapsed); tickTack.Start(); } protected override void OnStop() { tickTack.Stop(); } private void tickTack_Elapsed(object sender, ElapsedEventArgs e) { ... } } It works for some time (like 10-15 days) then it stops. I mean the service shows as running, but it does not do anything. I make some logging and the problem can be the timer, because after the interval it does not call the tickTack_Elapsed function. I was thinking about rewrite it without a timer, using an endless loop, which stops the processing for the amount of time I set up. This is also not an elegant solution and I think it can have some side effects regarding memory. The Timer is used from the System.Timers namespace, the environment is Windows 2003. I used this approach in two different services on different servers, but both is producing this behavior (this is why I thought that it is somehow connected to my code or the framework itself). Does somebody experienced this behavior? What can be wrong? Edit: I edited both services. One got a nice try-catch everywhere and more logging. The second got a timer-recreation on a regular basis. None of them stopped since them, so if this situation remains for another week, I will close this question. Thank you for everyone so far. Edit: I close this question because nothing happened. I mean I made some changes, but those changes are not really relevant in this matter and both services are running without any problem since then. Please mark it as "Closed for not relevant anymore".

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• python object to native c++ pointer

  - by Lodle

  Im toying around with the idea to use python as an embedded scripting language for a project im working on and have got most things working. However i cant seem to be able to convert a python extended object back into a native c++ pointer. So this is my class: class CGEGameModeBase { public: virtual void FunctionCall()=0; virtual const char* StringReturn()=0; }; class CGEPYGameMode : public CGEGameModeBase, public boost::python::wrapper<CGEPYGameMode> { public: virtual void FunctionCall() { if (override f = this->get_override("FunctionCall")) f(); } virtual const char* StringReturn() { if (override f = this->get_override("StringReturn")) return f(); return "FAILED TO CALL"; } }; Boost wrapping: BOOST_PYTHON_MODULE(GEGameMode) { class_<CGEGameModeBase, boost::noncopyable>("CGEGameModeBase", no_init); class_<CGEPYGameMode, bases<CGEGameModeBase> >("CGEPYGameMode", no_init) .def("FunctionCall", &CGEPYGameMode::FunctionCall) .def("StringReturn", &CGEPYGameMode::StringReturn); } and the python code: import GEGameMode def Ident(): return "Alpha" def NewGamePlay(): return "NewAlpha" def NewAlpha(): import GEGameMode import GEUtil class Alpha(GEGameMode.CGEPYGameMode): def __init__(self): print "Made new Alpha!" def FunctionCall(self): GEUtil.Msg("This is function test Alpha!") def StringReturn(self): return "This is return test Alpha!" return Alpha() Now i can call the first to functions fine by doing this: const char* ident = extract< const char* >( GetLocalDict()["Ident"]() ); const char* newgameplay = extract< const char* >( GetLocalDict()["NewGamePlay"]() ); printf("Loading Script: %s\n", ident); CGEPYGameMode* m_pGameMode = extract< CGEPYGameMode* >( GetLocalDict()[newgameplay]() ); However when i try and convert the Alpha class back to its base class (last line above) i get an boost error: TypeError: No registered converter was able to extract a C++ pointer to type class CGEPYGameMode from this Python object of type Alpha I have done alot of searching on the net but cant work out how to convert the Alpha object into its base class pointer. I could leave it as an object but rather have it as a pointer so some non python aware code can use it. Any ideas?

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• vector related memory allocation question

  - by memC

  hi all, I am encountering the following bug. I have a class Foo . Instances of this class are stored in a std::vector vec of class B. in class Foo, I am creating an instance of class A by allocating memory using new and deleting that object in ~Foo(). the code compiles, but I get a crash at the runtime. If I disable delete my_a from desstructor of class Foo. The code runs fine (but there is going to be a memory leak). Could someone please explain what is going wrong here and suggest a fix? thank you! class A{ public: A(int val); ~A(){}; int val_a; }; A::A(int val){ val_a = val; }; class Foo { public: Foo(); ~Foo(); void createA(); A* my_a; }; Foo::Foo(){ createA(); }; void Foo::createA(){ my_a = new A(20); }; Foo::~Foo(){ delete my_a; }; class B { public: vector<Foo> vec; void createFoo(); B(){}; ~B(){}; }; void B::createFoo(){ vec.push_back(Foo()); }; int main(){ B b; int i =0; for (i = 0; i < 5; i ++){ std::cout<<"\n creating Foo"; b.createFoo(); std::cout<<"\n Foo created"; } std::cout<<"\nDone with Foo creation"; std::cout << "\nPress RETURN to continue..."; std::cin.get(); return 0; }

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• Why does the Ternary\Conditional operator seem significantly faster

  - by Jodrell

  Following on from this question, which I have partially answered. I compile this console app in x64 Release Mode, with optimizations on, and run it from the command line without a debugger attached. using System; using System.Diagnostics; class Program { static void Main() { var stopwatch = new Stopwatch(); var ternary = Looper(10, Ternary); var normal = Looper(10, Normal); if (ternary != normal) { throw new Exception(); } stopwatch.Start(); ternary = Looper(10000000, Ternary); stopWatch.Stop(); Console.WriteLine( "Ternary took {0}ms", stopwatch.ElapsedMilliseconds); stopwatch.Start(); normal = Looper(10000000, Normal); stopWatch.Stop(); Console.WriteLine( "Normal took {0}ms", stopwatch.ElapsedMilliseconds); if (ternary != normal) { throw new Exception(); } Console.ReadKey(); } static int Looper(int iterations, Func<bool, int, int> operation) { var result = 0; for (int i = 0; i < iterations; i++) { var condition = result % 11 == 4; var value = ((i * 11) / 3) % 5; result = operation(condition, value); } return result; } static int Ternary(bool condition, in value) { return value + (condition ? 2 : 1); } static int Normal(int iterations) { if (condition) { return = 2 + value; } return = 1 + value; } } I don't get any exceptions and the output to the console is somthing close to, Ternary took 107ms Normal took 230ms When I break down the CIL for the two logical functions I get this, ... Ternary ... { : ldarg.1 // push second arg : ldarg.0 // push first arg : brtrue.s T // if first arg is true jump to T : ldc.i4.1 // push int32(1) : br.s F // jump to F T: ldc.i4.2 // push int32(2) F: add // add either 1 or 2 to second arg : ret // return result } ... Normal ... { : ldarg.0 // push first arg : brfalse.s F // if first arg is false jump to F : ldc.i4.2 // push int32(2) : ldarg.1 // push second arg : add // add second arg to 2 : ret // return result F: ldc.i4.1 // push int32(1) : ldarg.1 // push second arg : add // add second arg to 1 : ret // return result } Whilst the Ternary CIL is a little shorter, it seems to me that the execution path through the CIL for either function takes 3 loads and 1 or 2 jumps and a return. Why does the Ternary function appear to be twice as fast. I underdtand that, in practice, they are both very quick and indeed, quich enough but, I would like to understand the discrepancy.

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• Best approach for using Scanner Objects in Java?

  - by devjeetroy

  Although I'm more of a C++/ASM guy, I have to work with java as a part of my undergrad course at college. Our teacher taught us input using Scanner(System.in), and told us that if multiple functions are were taking user input, it would be advisable that a single Scanner object is passed around so as to reduce chances of the input stream getting screwed up. Now using this approach has gotten me into a situation where I'm trying to use a Scanner.nextLine(), and this statement does not wait for user input. It just moves on to the following statement. I figured there may be some residual cr/lf or other characters in the Scanner that might not have been retrieved are causing the problem. Here is the code. while(lineScanner.hasNext()) { if(isPlaceHolder(temp = lineScanner.next())) { temp = temp.replace("<",""); temp = temp.replace(">", ""); System.out.print("Enter "+aOrA(temp.charAt(0)) +" " +temp + " : "); temp = consoleInput.nextLine(); } outputFileStream.print(temp + " "); } All of the code is inside a function which receives a Scanner object consoleInput. Ok, so what happens when i run it is that when the program enters the if() the first time, It carries out theSystem.out.print, does not wait for user input, and moves on to the second time that it enters the 'if' block. This time, it takes the input and the rest of the program operates normally. What is even more surprising is that when i check the output file created by the program, it is perfect, just as i want to be. Almost as if the first time input using the scanner is correct. I have solved this problem by creating a new system.in Scanner in the function itself, instead of receiving the Scanner object as a parameter. But I am still very curious to know what the hell is happening and why it couldn't be solved using a simple Scanner.reset(). Would it be better to just simply create a Scanner Object for each function? Thanks, Devjeet PS. Although I know how to take input using fileinputstreams and the like, we are not supposed to use it with the homework.

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• Lift session valid ajax callback from a static javascript

  - by ChrisJamesC

  I am currently implementing a graph visualisation tool using lift on the server side and d3 ( a javascript visualisation framework) for all the visualisation. The problem I have is that in the script I want to get session dependent data from the server. So basically, my objective is to write lift-valid ajax callbacks in a static js script. Here is what I tried so far: What I have tried so far If you feel that the best solution is one that I already tried feel free to post a detailed answer telling me how to use it exactly and how it completely solves my problem. REST interface Usually what one would do to get data from a javascript function in lift is to create a REST interface. However this interface will not be linked to any session. This is the solution I got from my previous question: Get json data in d3 from lift snippet Give function as argument of script Another solution would be to give the ajaxcallback as an argument of the main script called to generate my graph. However I expect to have a lot of callbacks and I don't want to have to mess with the arguments of my script. Write the ajax callback in another script using lift and call it from the main script This solution, which is similar to a hidden text input is probably the more likely to work. However it is not elegant and it would mean that I would have to load a lot of scripts on load, which is not really conveniant. Write the whole script in lift and then serve it to the client This solution can be elegant, however my script is very long and I would really prefer that it remainss static. What I want On client side While reviewing the source code of my webpage I found that the callback for an ajaxSelect is: <select onchange="liftAjax.lift_ajaxHandler('F966066257023LYKF4=' + encodeURIComponent(this.value), null, null, null)" name="F96606625703QXTSWU" id="node_delete" class="input"> Moreover, there is a variable containing the state of the page in the end of the webpage: var lift_page = "F96606625700QRXLDO"; So, I am wondering if it is possible to simulate that my ajaxcall is valid using this liftAjax.lift_ajaxHandler function. However I don't know the exact synthax to use. On server side Since I "forged" a request on client side, I would now like to get the request on client side and to dispatch it to the correct function. This is where the LiftRules.dispatch object seems the best solution: when it is called, all the session management has been made (the request is authentified and linked to a session), however I don't know how to write the correct piece of code in the append function. Remark In lift all names of variables are changed to a random string in order to increase the security, I would like to have the same behavior in my application even if that will probably mean that I will have to "give" the javascript these values. However an array of 15 string values is still a better tradeoff than 15 functions as argument of a javascript function.

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• Why do we have reinterpret_cast in C++ when two chained static_cast can do it's job?

  - by Nawaz

  Say I want to cast A* to char* and vice-versa, we have two choices (I mean, many of us think we've two choices, because both seems to work! Hence the confusion!): struct A { int age; char name[128]; }; A a; char *buffer = static_cast<char*>(static_cast<void*>(&a)); //choice 1 char *buffer = reinterpret_cast<char*>(&a); //choice 2 Both work fine. //convert back A *pA = static_cast<A*>(static_cast<void*>(buffer)); //choice 1 A *pA = reinterpret_cast<A*>(buffer); //choice 2 Even this works fine! So why do we have reinterpret_cast in C++ when two chained static_cast can do it's job? Some of you might think this topic is a duplicate of the previous topics such as listed at the bottom of this post, but it's not. Those topics discuss only theoretically, but none of them gives even a single example demonstrating why reintepret_cast is really needed, and two static_cast would surely fail. I agree, one static_cast would fail. But how about two? If the syntax of two chained static_cast looks cumbersome, then we can write a function template to make it more programmer-friendly: template<class To, class From> To any_cast(From v) { return static_cast<To>(static_cast<void*>(v)); } And then we can use this, as: char *buffer = any_cast<char*>(&a); //choice 1 char *buffer = reinterpret_cast<char*>(&a); //choice 2 //convert back A *pA = any_cast<A*>(buffer); //choice 1 A *pA = reinterpret_cast<A*>(buffer); //choice 2 Also, see this situation where any_cast can be useful: Proper casting for fstream read and write member functions. So my question basically is, Why do we have reinterpret_cast in C++? Please show me even a single example where two chained static_cast would surely fail to do the same job? Which cast to use; static_cast or reinterpret_cast? Cast from Void* to TYPE* : static_cast or reinterpret_cast

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• How to compare filename of uploaded file and string

  - by user225269

  I use this code to upload image files in xammp server: <?php if ((($_FILES["file"]["type"] == "image/gif") || ($_FILES["file"]["type"] == "image/jpeg") || ($_FILES["file"]["type"] == "image/pjpeg")) && ($_FILES["file"]["size"] < 100000)) { if ($_FILES["file"]["error"] > 0) { echo "Return Code: " . $_FILES["file"]["error"] . "<br />"; } else { echo "Upload: " . $_FILES["file"]["name"] . "<br />"; echo "Type: " . $_FILES["file"]["type"] . "<br />"; echo "Size: " . ($_FILES["file"]["size"] / 1024) . " Kb<br />"; echo "Temp file: " . $_FILES["file"]["tmp_name"] . "<br />"; if (file_exists("upload/" . $_FILES["file"]["name"])) { echo $_FILES["file"]["name"] . " already exists. "; } else { move_uploaded_file($_FILES["file"]["tmp_name"], "upload/" . $_FILES["file"]["name"]); echo "Stored in: " . "upload/" . $_FILES["file"]["name"]; } } } else { echo "Invalid file, File must be less than 100Kb in size with .jpg, .jpeg, or .gif file extension"; } ?> What do I do to compare the file name of the uploaded files with the text inputted by the user? My goal is to be able to compare the user input(ID number) and the file name of the image file which should also be an ID number. So that I will be able to display the image that corresponds with the ID Number provided. What do I need to do?Please give me an idea on how can I achieve this. Thanks

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• Not allowing characters after Space. Mysql Insert With PHP

  - by Jake

  Ok so I think this is easy but I dont know (I'm a novice to PHP and MySQL). I have a select that is getting data from a table in the database. I am simply taking whatever options the user selects and putting it into a separate table with a php mysql insert statement. But I am having a problem. When I hit submit, everything is submitted properly except for any select options that have spaces don't submit after the first space. For example if the option was COMPUTER REPAIR, all that would get sent is COMPUTER. I will post code if needed, and any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks! Ok here is my select code: <?php include("./config.php"); $query="SELECT id,name FROM category_names ORDER BY name"; $result = mysql_query ($query); echo"<div style='overflow:auto;width:100%'><label>Categories (Pick three that describe your business)</label><br/><select name='select1'><option value='0'>Please Select A Category</option>"; // printing the list box select command while($catinfo=mysql_fetch_array($result)){//Array or records stored in $nt echo "<option>$catinfo[name]</option><br/> "; } echo"</select></div>"; ?> And here is my insert code ( Just to let you know its got everything not just the select!) ?php require("./config.php"); $companyname = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes(trim($_REQUEST['name']))); $phone = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['phone'])); $zipcode = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['zipcode'])); $city = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['city'])); $description = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['description'])); $website = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['website'])); $address = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['address'])); $other = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['other'])); $payment = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['payment'])); $products = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['products'])); $email = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['email'])); $select1 = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['select1'])); $select2 = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['select2'])); $select3 = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['select3'])); $save=$_POST['save']; if(!empty($save)){ $sql="INSERT INTO gj (name, phone, city, zipcode, description, dateadded, website, address1, other2, payment_options, Products, email,cat1,cat2,cat3) VALUES ('$companyname','$phone','$city','$zipcode','$description',curdate(),'$website','$address','$other','$payment','$products','$email','$select1','$select2','$select3')"; if (!mysql_query($sql,$link)) { die('Error: ' . mysql_error()); } echo "<br/><h2><font color='green' style='font-size:15px'>1 business added</font></h2>"; mysql_close($link); } ?>

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• C++ string sort like a human being?

  - by Walter Nissen

  I would like to sort alphanumeric strings the way a human being would sort them. I.e., "A2" comes before "A10", and "a" certainly comes before "Z"! Is there any way to do with without writing a mini-parser? Ideally it would also put "A1B1" before "A1B10". I see the question "Natural (human alpha-numeric) sort in Microsoft SQL 2005" with a possible answer, but it uses various library functions, as does "Sorting Strings for Humans with IComparer". Below is a test case that currently fails: #include <set> #include <iterator> #include <iostream> #include <vector> #include <cassert> template <typename T> struct LexicographicSort { inline bool operator() (const T& lhs, const T& rhs) const{ std::ostringstream s1,s2; s1 << toLower(lhs); s2 << toLower(rhs); bool less = s1.str() < s2.str(); std::cout<<s1.str()<<" "<<s2.str()<<" "<<less<<"\n"; return less; } inline std::string toLower(const std::string& str) const { std::string newString(""); for (std::string::const_iterator charIt = str.begin(); charIt!=str.end();++charIt) { newString.push_back(std::tolower(*charIt)); } return newString; } }; int main(void) { const std::string reference[5] = {"ab","B","c1","c2","c10"}; std::vector<std::string> referenceStrings(&(reference[0]), &(reference[5])); //Insert in reverse order so we know they get sorted std::set<std::string,LexicographicSort<std::string> > strings(referenceStrings.rbegin(), referenceStrings.rend()); std::cout<<"Items:\n"; std::copy(strings.begin(), strings.end(), std::ostream_iterator<std::string>(std::cout, "\n")); std::vector<std::string> sortedStrings(strings.begin(), strings.end()); assert(sortedStrings == referenceStrings); }

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• C# xml Class to substitute ini files

  - by Eduardo

  Hi guys, I am learning Windows Forms in C#.NET 2008 and i want to build a class to work with SIMPLE xml files (config file like INI files), but i just need a simple class (open, getvalue, setvalue, creategroup, save and close functions), to substitute of ini files. I already did something and it is working but I am having trouble when I need to create different groups, something like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <CONFIG> <General> <Field1>192.168.0.2</Field1> </General> <Data> <Field1>Joseph</Field1> <Field2>Locked</Field2> </Data> </CONFIG> how can i specify that i want to read the field1 of [data] group? note that i have same field name in both groups (Field1)! I am using System.Linq, something like this: To open document: XmlDocument xmlDoc = new XmlDocument(); xmlDoc.Load(FilePath); To save document: xmlDoc.Save(FilePath); To get value: public string getValue(string Field) { string result = ""; try { XmlNodeList xmlComum = xmlDoc.GetElementsByTagName(Field); if (xmlComum.Item(0) == null) result = ""; else result = xmlComum.Item(0).InnerText; } catch (Exception ex) { return ""; } return result; } To set value: public void setValue(string Group, string Field, string FieldValue) { try { XmlNodeList xmlComum = xmlDoc.GetElementsByTagName(Field); if (xmlComum.Item(0) == null) { xmlComum = xmlDoc.GetElementsByTagName(Group); if (xmlComum.Item(0) == null) { // create group createGroup(Group); xmlComum = xmlDoc.GetElementsByTagName(Group); } XmlElement xmlE = xmlDoc.CreateElement(Field); XmlText xmlT = xmlDoc.CreateTextNode(FieldValue); xmlE.AppendChild(xmlT); xmlComum.Item(0).AppendChild(xmlE); } else { // item already exists, just change its value xmlComum.Item(0).InnerText = Value; } xmlDoc.Save(FilePath); } catch (Exception ex) { } } The CreateGroup code: public void createGroup(string Group) { try { XmlElement xmlComum = xmlDoc.CreateElement(Group); xmlDoc.DocumentElement.AppendChild(xmlComum); xmlDoc.Save(FilePath); } catch (Exception ex) { } } Thank You!

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• ASP.Net / MySQL : Translating content into several languages

  - by philwilks

  I have an ASP.Net website which uses a MySQL database for the back end. The website is an English e-commerce system, and we are looking at the possibility of translating it into about five other languages (French, Spanish etc). We will be getting human translators to perform the translation - we've looked at automated services but these aren't good enough. The static text on the site (e.g. headings, buttons etc) can easily be served up in multiple languages via .Net's built in localization features (resx files etc). The thing that I'm not so sure about it how best to store and retrieve the multi-language content in the database. For example, there is a products table that includes these fields... productId (int) categoryId (int) title (varchar) summary (varchar) description (text) features (text) The title, summary, description and features text would need to be available in all the different languages. Here are the two options that I've come up with... Create additional field for each language For example we could have titleEn, titleFr, titleEs etc for all the languages, and repeat this for all text columns. We would then adapt our code to use the appropriate field depending on the language selected. This feels a bit hacky, and also would lead to some very large tables. Also, if we wanted to add additional languages in the future it would be time consuming to add even more columns. Use a lookup table We could create a new table with the following format... textId | languageId | content ------------------------------- 10 | EN | Car 10 | FR | Voiture 10 | ES | Coche 11 | EN | Bike 11 | FR | Vélo We'd then adapt our products table to reference the appropriate textId for the title, summary, description and features instead of having the text stored in the product table. This seems much more elegant, but I can't think of a simple way of getting this data out of the database and onto the page without using complex SQL statements. Of course adding new languages in the future would be very simple compared to the previous option. I'd be very grateful for any suggestions about the best way to achieve this! Is there any "best practice" guidance out there? Has anyone done this before?

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• PHP running as a FastCGI application (php-cgi) - how to issue concurrent requests?

  - by Sbm007

  Some background information: I'm writing my own webserver in Java and a couple of days ago I asked on SO how exactly Apache interfaces with PHP, so I can implement PHP support. I learnt that FastCGI is the best approach (since mod_php is not an option). So I have looked at the FastCGI protocol specification and have managed to write a working FastCGI wrapper for my server. I have tested phpinfo() and it works, in fact all PHP functions seem to work just fine (posting data, sessions, date/time, etc etc). My webserver is able to serve requests concurrently (ie user1 can retrieve file1.html at the same time as user2 requesting some_large_binary_file.zip), it does this by spawning a new Java thread for each user request (terminating when completed or user connection with client is cancelled). However, it cannot deal with 2 (or more) FastCGI requests at the same time. What it does is, it queues them up, so when request 1 is completed immediately thereafter it starts processing request 2. I tested this with 2 PHP pages, one contains sleep(10) and the other phpinfo(). How would I go about dealing with multiple requests as I know it can be done (PHP under IIS runs as FastCGI and it can deal with multiple requests just fine). Some more info: I am coding under windows and my batch file used to execute php-cgi.exe contains: set PHP_FCGI_CHILDREN=8 set PHP_FCGI_MAX_REQUESTS=500 php-cgi.exe -b 9000 But it does not spawn 8 children, the service simply terminates after 500 requests. I have done research and from Wikipedia: Processing of multiple requests simultaneously is achieved either by using a single connection with internal multiplexing (ie. multiple requests over a single connection) and/or by using multiple connections Now clearly the multiple connections isn't working for me, as everytime a client requests something that involves FastCGI it creates a new socket to the FastCGI application, but it does not work concurrently (it queues them up instead). I know that internal multiplexing of FastCGI requests under the same connection is accomplished by issuing each unique FastCGI request with a different request ID. (also see the last 3 paragraphs of 'The Communication Protocol' heading in this article). I have not tested this, but how would I go about implementing that? I take it I need some kind of FastCGI Java thread which contains a Map of some sort and a static function which I can use to add requests to. Then in the Thread's run() function it would have a while loop and for every cycle it would check whether the Map contains new requests, if so it would assign them a request ID and write them to the FastCGI stream. And then wait for input etc etc, As you can see this becomes too complicated. Does anyone know the correct way of doing this? Or any thoughts at all? Thanks very much. Note, if required I can supply the code for my FastCGI wrapper.

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• Haskell data serialization of some data implementing a common type class

  - by Evan

  Let's start with the following data A = A String deriving Show data B = B String deriving Show class X a where spooge :: a -> Q [ Some implementations of X for A and B ] Now let's say we have custom implementations of show and read, named show' and read' respectively which utilize Show as a serialization mechanism. I want show' and read' to have types show' :: X a => a -> String read' :: X a => String -> a So I can do things like f :: String -> [Q] f d = map (\x -> spooge $ read' x) d Where data could have been [show' (A "foo"), show' (B "bar")] In summary, I wanna serialize stuff of various types which share a common typeclass so I can call their separate implementations on the deserialized stuff automatically. Now, I realize you could write some template haskell which would generate a wrapper type, like data XWrap = AWrap A | BWrap B deriving (Show) and serialize the wrapped type which would guarantee that the type info would be stored with it, and that we'd be able to get ourselves back at least an XWrap... but is there a better way using haskell ninja-ery? EDIT Okay I need to be more application specific. This is an API. Users will define their As, and Bs and fs as they see fit. I don't ever want them hacking through the rest of the code updating their XWraps, or switches or anything. The most i'm willing to compromise is one list somewhere of all the A, B, etc. in some format. Why? Here's the application. A is "Download a file from an FTP server." B is "convert from flac to mp3". A contains username, password, port, etc. information. B contains file path information. A and B are Xs, and Xs shall be called "Tickets." Q is IO (). Spooge is runTicket. I want to read the tickets off into their relevant data types and then write generic code that will runTicket on the stuff read' from the stuff on disk. At some point I have to jam type information into the serialized data.

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• making a password-only auth with bcrypt and mongoose

  - by user3081123

  I want to create service that let you login only with password. You type a password and if this password exists - you are logged in and if it's not - username is generated and password is encrypted. I'm having some misunderstandings and hope someone would help me to show where I'm mistaken. I guess, it would look somewhat like this in agularjs First we receive a password in login controller. $scope.signup = function() { var user = { password: $scope.password, }; $http.post('/auth/signup', user); }; Send it via http.post and get in in our node server file. We are provided with a compare password bcrypt function userSchema.methods.comparePassword = function(candidatePassword, cb) { bcrypt.compare(candidatePassword, this.password, function(err, isMatch) { if (err) return cb(err); cb(null, isMatch); }); }; So right now we are creating function to catch our http request app.post('/auth/signup', function(req, res, next) { Inside we use a compair password function to realize if such password exists or not yet. So we have to encrypt a password with bcrypt to make a comparison First we hash it same way as in .pre var encPass; bcrypt.genSalt(10, function(err, salt) { if (err) return next(err); bcrypt.hash(req.body.password, salt, function(err, hash) { if (err) return next(err); encPass=hash; )}; )}; We have encrypted password stored in encPass so now we follow to finding a user in database with this password User.findOne({ password: encPass }, function(err, user) { if (user) { //user exists, it means we should pass an ID of this user to a controller to display it in a view. I don't know how. res.send({user.name}) //like this? How should controller receive this? With $http.post? } else { and now if user doesn't exist - we should create it with user ID generated by my function var nUser = new User({ name: generId(), password: req.body.password }); nUser.save(function(err) { if (err) return next(err); )}; )}; )}; Am I doing anything right? I'm pretty new to js and angular. If so - how do I throw a username back at controller? If someone is interested - this service exists for 100+ symbol passphrases so possibility of entering same passphrase as someone else is miserable. And yeah, If someone logged in under 123 password - the other guy will log in as same user if he entered 123 password, but hey, you are warned to make a big passphrase. So I'm confident about the idea and I only need a help with understanding and realization.

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• Loosely coupled implicit conversion

  - by ltjax

  Implicit conversion can be really useful when types are semantically equivalent. For example, imagine two libraries that implement a type identically, but in different namespaces. Or just a type that is mostly identical, except for some semantic-sugar here and there. Now you cannot pass one type into a function (in one of those libraries) that was designed to use the other, unless that function is a template. If it's not, you have to somehow convert one type into the other. This should be trivial (or otherwise the types are not so identical after-all!) but calling the conversion explicitly bloats your code with mostly meaningless function-calls. While such conversion functions might actually copy some values around, they essentially do nothing from a high-level "programmers" point-of-view. Implicit conversion constructors and operators could obviously help, but they introduce coupling, so that one of those types has to know about the other. Usually, at least when dealing with libraries, that is not the case, because the presence of one of those types makes the other one redundant. Also, you cannot always change libraries. Now I see two options on how to make implicit conversion work in user-code: The first would be to provide a proxy-type, that implements conversion-operators and conversion-constructors (and assignments) for all the involved types, and always use that. The second requires a minimal change to the libraries, but allows great flexibility: Add a conversion-constructor for each involved type that can be externally optionally enabled. For example, for a type A add a constructor: template <class T> A( const T& src, typename boost::enable_if<conversion_enabled<T,A>>::type* ignore=0 ) { *this = convert(src); } and a template template <class X, class Y> struct conversion_enabled : public boost::mpl::false_ {}; that disables the implicit conversion by default. Then to enable conversion between two types, specialize the template: template <> struct conversion_enabled<OtherA, A> : public boost::mpl::true_ {}; and implement a convert function that can be found through ADL. I would personally prefer to use the second variant, unless there are strong arguments against it. Now to the actual question(s): What's the preferred way to associate types for implicit conversion? Are my suggestions good ideas? Are there any downsides to either approach? Is allowing conversions like that dangerous? Should library implementers in-general supply the second method when it's likely that their type will be replicated in software they are most likely beeing used with (I'm thinking of 3d-rendering middle-ware here, where most of those packages implement a 3D vector).

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• Multiple word Auttosuggest using Lucene.Net

  - by eric

  I am currently working on an search application which uses Lucene.Net to index the data from the database to Index file. I have a product catalog which has Name, short and long description, sku and other fields. The data is stored in Index using StandardAnalyzer. I am trying to add auto suggestion for a text field and using TermEnum to get all the keyword terms and its score from the Index. But the terms returned are of single term. For example, if I type for co, the suggestion returned are costume, count, collection, cowboy, combination etc. But I want the suggestion to return phrases. For exmaple, if I search for co, the suggestions should be cowboy costume, costume for adults, combination locks etc. The following is the code used to get the suggestions: public string[] GetKeywords(string strSearchExp) { IndexReader rd = IndexReader.Open(mIndexLoc); TermEnum tenum = rd.Terms(new Term("Name", strSearchExp)); string[] strResult = new string[10]; int i = 0; Dictionary<string, double> KeywordList = new Dictionary<string, double>(); do { //terms = tenum.Term(); if (tenum.Term() != null) { //strResult[i] = terms.text.ToString(); KeywordList.Add(tenum.Term().text.ToString(), tenum.DocFreq()); } } while (tenum.Next() && tenum.Term().text.StartsWith(strSearchExp) && tenum.Term().text.Length > 1); var sortedDict = (from entry in KeywordList orderby entry.Value descending select entry); foreach (KeyValuePair<string, double> data in sortedDict) { if (data.Key.Length > 1) { strResult[i] = data.Key; i++; } if (i >= 10) //Exit the for Loop if the count exceeds 10 break; } tenum.Close(); rd.Close(); return strResult; } Can anyone please give me directions to achive this? Thanks for looking into this.

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• How can I execute an insert with data from a repeater-generated form whose data source is SQL?

  - by Duke

  I'm storing multilingual data in a database whose model is language normalized (like this). For this particular problem the key for the table in question consists of a value entered by the user and a language from the language table. I'd like to dynamically generate a form with input fields for all available languages. The user inputs a key value then goes down a list of field sets filling out the information in each language. In this case there are two fields for every language, a name and a value (the value is language dependent.) I have all existing information displayed on the page with a gridview, below which I have a formview that is always in insert mode allowing the user to enter new data. Within the formview I have a repeater with an SQLDataSource that gets a list of available languages: <asp:Repeater ID="SessionLocaleRepeater" runat="server" DataSourceID="LocaleSQLDataSource" EnableViewState="false"> <ItemTemplate> <tr> <th scope="row"><%# DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "LocaleName") %></th> <td>Name:</td> <td><asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server" Text="" /></td> <td>Number:</td> <td><asp:TextBox ID="TextBox2" runat="server" Text="" /></td> </tr> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> I figured that in order to insert this data I'd have to execute my sql server insert stored procedure for each item in the repeater; I am trying to use the formview inserting event. The problem is that the repeater isn't databound to the SQLDataSource until after the formview inserting event (inserting event is in PostBackEvent and databind is in PreRender), which means the controls and data are not available when the inserting event is fired. I tried databinding the repeater during the formview inserting event; the controls were available but the data was not. Would this have something to do with how/when the viewstate information is re-added to the controls? From what I've read, Viewstate is one of the first things to be restored. Given the order of events how can I get the data I need for the insert? I'm open to other solutions to creating dynamic input controls, but they will have to query the database to determine how many sets of controls to create.

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• Cocoa WebView won't render all images on OSX 10.8

  - by user2906962

  I'm currently developing an application for OS X, backwards compatible with OS X 10.6. At some point I create a WebView in which I load html content that I create dynamically. The html content is formed only of image links <img src= and text, there is no javascript or anything of that kind. All the images (there are only 5 png images) are stored locally and their size is 4 KB. The problem I have is that some images (those that are not on the visible side of the "scroll"), the very first time I run the application,the images are not shown unless I drag the window to another screen or load again the view controller that contains the WebView. In those cases the images appear on the "scroll" even if they are offsite. I've tried creating the WebView both with IB and programatically, I've used WebPreferences like Autosaves, AllowsAnimatedImages … I've tried using NSURLCache to load each image so that the WebView will get access to them easier ... same result. Taking into account that my code is quite extensive I'm gonna post only the bits that I think are relevant: NSString *finalHtml ... //contains the complete html CGRect screenRect = [self.fixedView bounds]; CGRect webFrame = CGRectMake(0.0f, 0.0f, screenRect.size.width, screenRect.size.height); self.miwebView=[[WebView alloc] initWithFrame:webFrame]; [self.miwebView setEditable:NO]; [self.miwebView setUIDelegate:self]; ... NSURLCache *URLCache = [[NSURLCache alloc] initWithMemoryCapacity:4 * 1024 * 1024 diskCapacity:20 * 1024 * 1024 diskPath:nil]; [NSURLCache setSharedURLCache:URLCache]; NSString *imagePath = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"line" ofType:@"png"]; NSURL *resourceUrl = [NSURL URLWithString:imagePath]; NSURLRequest *request = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:resourceUrl cachePolicy:NSURLRequestUseProtocolCachePolicy timeoutInterval:10.0f]; [URLCache cachedResponseForRequest:request]; ... [self.miwebView setResourceLoadDelegate:self]; WebPreferences *webPref = [[WebPreferences alloc]init]; [webPref setAutosaves:YES]; [webPref setAllowsAnimatedImages:YES]; [webPref setAllowsAnimatedImageLooping:YES]; [self.miwebView setPreferences:webPref]; NSString *pathResult = [[NSBundle mainBundle] bundlePath]; NSURL *baseURLRes = [NSURL fileURLWithPath:pathResult]; [[self.miwebView mainFrame] loadHTMLString:finalHtml baseURL:baseURLRes]; [self.fixedView addSubview:self.miwebView]; I should also mention that if an image is caught somewhere in between the visible and non visible side of the "scroll" only the visible bit of the image is going to be rendered even if the page gets scrolled up ... so I think all this is some rendering issue ... I appreciate your help, thank you!

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• Is it correct or incorrect for a Java JAR to contain its own dependencies?

  - by 4herpsand7derpsago

  I guess this is a two-part question. I am trying to write my own Ant task (MyFirstTask) that can be used in other project's build.xml buildfiles. To do this, I need to compile and package my Ant task inside its own JAR. Because this Ant task that I have written is fairly complicated, it has about 20 dependencies (other JAR files), such as using XStream for OX-mapping, Guice for DI, etc. I am currently writing the package task in the build.xml file inside the MyFirstTask project (the buildfile that will package myfirsttask.jar, which is the reusable Ant task). I am suddenly realizing that I don't fully understand the intention of a Java JAR. Is it that a JAR should not contain dependencies, and leave it to the runtime configuration (the app container, the runtime environment, etc.) to supply it with the dependencies it needs? I would assume if this is the case, an executable JAR is an exception to the rule, yes? Or, is it the intention for Java JARs to also include their dependencies? Either way, I don't want to be forcing my users to be copying-n-pasting 25+ JARs into their Ant libs; that's just cruel. I like the way WAR files are set up, where the classpath for dependencies is defined under the classes/ directory. I guess, ultimately, I'd like my JAR structure to look like: myfirsttask.jar/ com/ --> the root package of my compiled binaries config/ --> config files, XML, XSD, etc. classes/ --> all dependencies, guice-3.0.jar, xstream-1.4.3.jar, etc. META-INF/ MANIFEST.MF I assume that in order to accomplish this (and get the runtime classpath to also look into the classes/ directory), I'll need to modify the MANIFEST.MF somehow (I know there's a manifest attribute called ClassPath, I believe?). I'm just having a tough time putting everything together, and have a looming/lingering question about the very intent of JARs to begin with. Can someone please confirm whether Oracle intends for JARs to contain their dependencies or not? And, either way, what I would have to do in the manifest (or anywhere else) to make sure that, at runtime, the classpath can find the dependencies stored under the classes/ directory? Thanks in advance!

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• Specializing a template on a lambda in C++0x

  - by Tony A.

  I've written a traits class that lets me extract information about the arguments and type of a function or function object in C++0x (tested with gcc 4.5.0). The general case handles function objects: template <typename F> struct function_traits { template <typename R, typename... A> struct _internal { }; template <typename R, typename... A> struct _internal<R (F::*)(A...)> { // ... }; typedef typename _internal<decltype(&F::operator())>::<<nested types go here>>; }; Then I have a specialization for plain functions at global scope: template <typename R, typename... A> struct function_traits<R (*)(A...)> { // ... }; This works fine, I can pass a function into the template or a function object and it works properly: template <typename F> void foo(F f) { typename function_traits<F>::whatever ...; } int f(int x) { ... } foo(f); What if, instead of passing a function or function object into foo, I want to pass a lambda expression? foo([](int x) { ... }); The problem here is that neither specialization of function_traits<> applies. The C++0x draft says that the type of the expression is a "unique, unnamed, non-union class type". Demangling the result of calling typeid(...).name() on the expression gives me what appears to be gcc's internal naming convention for the lambda, main::{lambda(int)#1}, not something that syntactically represents a C++ typename. In short, is there anything I can put into the template here: template <typename R, typename... A> struct function_traits<????> { ... } that will allow this traits class to accept a lambda expression?

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• Database schema for simple stats project

  - by Bubnoff

  Backdrop: I have a file hierarchy of cvs files for multiple locations named by dates they cover ...by month specifically. Each cvs file in the folder is named after the location. eg', folder name: 2010-feb contains: location1.csv location2.csv Each CSV file holds records like this: 2010-06-28, 20:30:00 , 0 2010-06-29, 08:30:00 , 0 2010-06-29, 09:30:00 , 0 2010-06-29, 10:30:00 , 0 2010-06-29, 11:30:00 , 0 meaning of record columns ( column names ): Date, time, # of sessions I have a perl script that pulls the data from this mess and originally I was going to store it as json files, but am thinking a database might be more appropriate long term ...comparing year to year trends ...fun stuff like that. Pt 2 - My question/problem: So I now have a REST service that coughs up json with a test database. My question is [ I suck at db design ], how best to design a database backend for this? I am thinking the following tables would suffice and keep it simple: Location: (PK)location_code, name session: (PK)id, (FK)location_code, month, hour, num_sessions I need to be able to average sessions (plus min and max) for each hour across days of week in addition to days of week in a given month or months. I've been using perl hashes to do this and am trying to decide how best to implement this with a database. Do you think stored procedures should be used? As to the database, depending on info gathered here, it will be postgresql or sqlite. If there is no compelling reason for postgresql I'll stick with sqlite. How and where should I compare the data to hours of operation. I am storing the hours of operation in a yaml file. I currently 'match' the hour in the data to a hash from the yaml to do this. Would a database open simpler methods? I am thinking I would do this comparison as I do now then insert the data. Can be recalled with: SELECT hour, num_sessions FROM session WHERE location_code=LOC1 Since only hours of operation are present, I do not need to worry about it. Should I calculate all results as I do now then store as a stats table for different 'reports'? This, rather than processing on demand? How would this look? Anyway ...I ramble. Thanks for reading! Bubnoff

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