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  • Displaying an Image in an activity using URI

    - by evkwan
    Hi, I'm writing an application that uses Intent(MediaStore.ACTION_IMAGE_CAPTURE) to capture and image. On the process of capturing the image, I noted the output of the image's URI. Right after finishing the camera activity, I wish to display the image using this specific URI. The method I used to capture images is: private void saveFullImage() { Intent intent = new Intent(MediaStore.ACTION_IMAGE_CAPTURE); File file = new File(Environment.getExternalStorageDirectory(), "test.jpg"); outputFileUri = Uri.fromFile(file); intent.putExtra(MediaStore.EXTRA_OUTPUT, outputFileUri); startActivityForResult(intent, TAKE_PICTURE); } Which is a method taken from Reto Meier's book Professional Android 2 Application Development. The method works fine, and I assume that the URI of the picture I just took is stored in the outputFileUri variable. Then at this point of the code is where I want to display the picture: @Override protected void onActivityResult(int requestCode, int resultCode, Intent data) { if (requestCode == TAKE_PICTURE) { //I want to display the picture I just took here //using the URI } } I'm not sure how to do it. I tried creating a new layout object and a new ImageView object using the method setImageURI(outputFileUri). My main layout (xml) did not have a ImageView object. But even when I set the contentView to the new layout with the ImageView attached to it, it doesn't display anything. I tried creating a Bitmap object from the URI and set it to the ImageView, but I get an unexpected error and forced exit. I have seen examples from here here which creates a Bitmap from URI, but it's not displaying it? My question is just how to display an image in the middle of a running activity? Do I need to get the File Path (like this) in order to display it? If I make a Bitmap out of the URI, how do I display the Bitmap? I'm just probably missing something simple...so any help would be a greatly appreciated! Also additional question for thought: If I were to take multiple pictures, would you recommend me to use the SimpleCursorAdapter instead? Thanks!

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  • C - How to use both aio_read() and aio_write().

    - by Slav
    I implement game server where I need to both read and write. So I accept incoming connection and start reading from it using aio_read() but when I need to send something, I stop reading using aio_cancel() and then use aio_write(). Within write's callback I resume reading. So, I do read all the time but when I need to send something - I pause reading. It works for ~20% of time - in other case call to aio_cancel() fails with "Operation now in progress" - and I cannot cancel it (even within permanent while cycle). So, my added write operation never happens. How to use these functions well? What did I missed? EDIT: Used under Linux 2.6.35. Ubuntu 10 - 32 bit. Example code: void handle_read(union sigval sigev_value) { /* handle data or disconnection */ } void handle_write(union sigval sigev_value) { /* free writing buffer memory */ } void start() { const int acceptorSocket = socket(AF_INET, SOCK_STREAM, 0); struct sockaddr_in addr; memset(&addr, 0, sizeof(struct sockaddr_in)); addr.sin_family = AF_INET; addr.sin_addr.s_addr = INADDR_ANY; addr.sin_port = htons(port); bind(acceptorSocket, (struct sockaddr*)&addr, sizeof(struct sockaddr_in)); listen(acceptorSocket, SOMAXCONN); struct sockaddr_in address; socklen_t addressLen = sizeof(struct sockaddr_in); for(;;) { const int incomingSocket = accept(acceptorSocket, (struct sockaddr*)&address, &addressLen); if(incomingSocket == -1) { /* handle error ... */} else { //say socket to append outcoming messages at writing: const int currentFlags = fcntl(incomingSocket, F_GETFL, 0); if(currentFlags < 0) { /* handle error ... */ } if(fcntl(incomingSocket, F_SETFL, currentFlags | O_APPEND) == -1) { /* handle another error ... */ } //start reading: struct aiocb* readingAiocb = new struct aiocb; memset(readingAiocb, 0, sizeof(struct aiocb)); readingAiocb->aio_nbytes = MY_SOME_BUFFER_SIZE; readingAiocb->aio_fildes = socketDesc; readingAiocb->aio_buf = mySomeReadBuffer; readingAiocb->aio_sigevent.sigev_notify = SIGEV_THREAD; readingAiocb->aio_sigevent.sigev_value.sival_ptr = (void*)mySomeData; readingAiocb->aio_sigevent.sigev_notify_function = handle_read; if(aio_read(readingAiocb) != 0) { /* handle error ... */ } } } } //called at any time from server side: send(void* data, const size_t dataLength) { //... some thread-safety precautions not needed here ... const int cancellingResult = aio_cancel(socketDesc, readingAiocb); if(cancellingResult != AIO_CANCELED) { //this one happens ~80% of the time - embracing previous call to permanent while cycle does not help: if(cancellingResult == AIO_NOTCANCELED) { puts(strerror(aio_return(readingAiocb))); // "Operation now in progress" /* don't know what to do... */ } } //otherwise it's okay to send: else { aio_write(...); } }

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  • Not allowing characters after Space. Mysql Insert With PHP

    - by Jake
    Ok so I think this is easy but I dont know (I'm a novice to PHP and MySQL). I have a select that is getting data from a table in the database. I am simply taking whatever options the user selects and putting it into a separate table with a php mysql insert statement. But I am having a problem. When I hit submit, everything is submitted properly except for any select options that have spaces don't submit after the first space. For example if the option was COMPUTER REPAIR, all that would get sent is COMPUTER. I will post code if needed, and any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks! Ok here is my select code: <?php include("./config.php"); $query="SELECT id,name FROM category_names ORDER BY name"; $result = mysql_query ($query); echo"<div style='overflow:auto;width:100%'><label>Categories (Pick three that describe your business)</label><br/><select name='select1'><option value='0'>Please Select A Category</option>"; // printing the list box select command while($catinfo=mysql_fetch_array($result)){//Array or records stored in $nt echo "<option>$catinfo[name]</option><br/> "; } echo"</select></div>"; ?> And here is my insert code ( Just to let you know its got everything not just the select!) ?php require("./config.php"); $companyname = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes(trim($_REQUEST['name']))); $phone = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['phone'])); $zipcode = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['zipcode'])); $city = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['city'])); $description = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['description'])); $website = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['website'])); $address = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['address'])); $other = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['other'])); $payment = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['payment'])); $products = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['products'])); $email = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['email'])); $select1 = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['select1'])); $select2 = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['select2'])); $select3 = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['select3'])); $save=$_POST['save']; if(!empty($save)){ $sql="INSERT INTO gj (name, phone, city, zipcode, description, dateadded, website, address1, other2, payment_options, Products, email,cat1,cat2,cat3) VALUES ('$companyname','$phone','$city','$zipcode','$description',curdate(),'$website','$address','$other','$payment','$products','$email','$select1','$select2','$select3')"; if (!mysql_query($sql,$link)) { die('Error: ' . mysql_error()); } echo "<br/><h2><font color='green' style='font-size:15px'>1 business added</font></h2>"; mysql_close($link); } ?>

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  • Haskell data serialization of some data implementing a common type class

    - by Evan
    Let's start with the following data A = A String deriving Show data B = B String deriving Show class X a where spooge :: a -> Q [ Some implementations of X for A and B ] Now let's say we have custom implementations of show and read, named show' and read' respectively which utilize Show as a serialization mechanism. I want show' and read' to have types show' :: X a => a -> String read' :: X a => String -> a So I can do things like f :: String -> [Q] f d = map (\x -> spooge $ read' x) d Where data could have been [show' (A "foo"), show' (B "bar")] In summary, I wanna serialize stuff of various types which share a common typeclass so I can call their separate implementations on the deserialized stuff automatically. Now, I realize you could write some template haskell which would generate a wrapper type, like data XWrap = AWrap A | BWrap B deriving (Show) and serialize the wrapped type which would guarantee that the type info would be stored with it, and that we'd be able to get ourselves back at least an XWrap... but is there a better way using haskell ninja-ery? EDIT Okay I need to be more application specific. This is an API. Users will define their As, and Bs and fs as they see fit. I don't ever want them hacking through the rest of the code updating their XWraps, or switches or anything. The most i'm willing to compromise is one list somewhere of all the A, B, etc. in some format. Why? Here's the application. A is "Download a file from an FTP server." B is "convert from flac to mp3". A contains username, password, port, etc. information. B contains file path information. A and B are Xs, and Xs shall be called "Tickets." Q is IO (). Spooge is runTicket. I want to read the tickets off into their relevant data types and then write generic code that will runTicket on the stuff read' from the stuff on disk. At some point I have to jam type information into the serialized data.

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  • ASP.Net / MySQL : Translating content into several languages

    - by philwilks
    I have an ASP.Net website which uses a MySQL database for the back end. The website is an English e-commerce system, and we are looking at the possibility of translating it into about five other languages (French, Spanish etc). We will be getting human translators to perform the translation - we've looked at automated services but these aren't good enough. The static text on the site (e.g. headings, buttons etc) can easily be served up in multiple languages via .Net's built in localization features (resx files etc). The thing that I'm not so sure about it how best to store and retrieve the multi-language content in the database. For example, there is a products table that includes these fields... productId (int) categoryId (int) title (varchar) summary (varchar) description (text) features (text) The title, summary, description and features text would need to be available in all the different languages. Here are the two options that I've come up with... Create additional field for each language For example we could have titleEn, titleFr, titleEs etc for all the languages, and repeat this for all text columns. We would then adapt our code to use the appropriate field depending on the language selected. This feels a bit hacky, and also would lead to some very large tables. Also, if we wanted to add additional languages in the future it would be time consuming to add even more columns. Use a lookup table We could create a new table with the following format... textId | languageId | content ------------------------------- 10 | EN | Car 10 | FR | Voiture 10 | ES | Coche 11 | EN | Bike 11 | FR | Vélo We'd then adapt our products table to reference the appropriate textId for the title, summary, description and features instead of having the text stored in the product table. This seems much more elegant, but I can't think of a simple way of getting this data out of the database and onto the page without using complex SQL statements. Of course adding new languages in the future would be very simple compared to the previous option. I'd be very grateful for any suggestions about the best way to achieve this! Is there any "best practice" guidance out there? Has anyone done this before?

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  • How can I execute an insert with data from a repeater-generated form whose data source is SQL?

    - by Duke
    I'm storing multilingual data in a database whose model is language normalized (like this). For this particular problem the key for the table in question consists of a value entered by the user and a language from the language table. I'd like to dynamically generate a form with input fields for all available languages. The user inputs a key value then goes down a list of field sets filling out the information in each language. In this case there are two fields for every language, a name and a value (the value is language dependent.) I have all existing information displayed on the page with a gridview, below which I have a formview that is always in insert mode allowing the user to enter new data. Within the formview I have a repeater with an SQLDataSource that gets a list of available languages: <asp:Repeater ID="SessionLocaleRepeater" runat="server" DataSourceID="LocaleSQLDataSource" EnableViewState="false"> <ItemTemplate> <tr> <th scope="row"><%# DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "LocaleName") %></th> <td>Name:</td> <td><asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server" Text="" /></td> <td>Number:</td> <td><asp:TextBox ID="TextBox2" runat="server" Text="" /></td> </tr> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> I figured that in order to insert this data I'd have to execute my sql server insert stored procedure for each item in the repeater; I am trying to use the formview inserting event. The problem is that the repeater isn't databound to the SQLDataSource until after the formview inserting event (inserting event is in PostBackEvent and databind is in PreRender), which means the controls and data are not available when the inserting event is fired. I tried databinding the repeater during the formview inserting event; the controls were available but the data was not. Would this have something to do with how/when the viewstate information is re-added to the controls? From what I've read, Viewstate is one of the first things to be restored. Given the order of events how can I get the data I need for the insert? I'm open to other solutions to creating dynamic input controls, but they will have to query the database to determine how many sets of controls to create.

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  • Unit Testing - Am I doing it right?

    - by baron
    Hi everyone, Basically I have been programing for a little while and after finishing my last project can fully understand how much easier it would have been if I'd have done TDD. I guess I'm still not doing it strictly as I am still writing code then writing a test for it, I don't quite get how the test becomes before the code if you don't know what structures and how your storing data etc... but anyway... Kind of hard to explain but basically lets say for example I have a Fruit objects with properties like id, color and cost. (All stored in textfile ignore completely any database logic etc) FruitID FruitName FruitColor FruitCost 1 Apple Red 1.2 2 Apple Green 1.4 3 Apple HalfHalf 1.5 This is all just for example. But lets say I have this is a collection of Fruit (it's a List<Fruit>) objects in this structure. And my logic will say to reorder the fruitids in the collection if a fruit is deleted (this is just how the solution needs to be). E.g. if 1 is deleted, object 2 takes fruit id 1, object 3 takes fruit id2. Now I want to test the code ive written which does the reordering, etc. How can I set this up to do the test? Here is where I've got so far. Basically I have fruitManager class with all the methods, like deletefruit, etc. It has the list usually but Ive changed hte method to test it so that it accepts a list, and the info on the fruit to delete, then returns the list. Unit-testing wise: Am I basically doing this the right way, or have I got the wrong idea? and then I test deleting different valued objects / datasets to ensure method is working properly. [Test] public void DeleteFruit() { var fruitList = CreateFruitList(); var fm = new FruitManager(); var resultList = fm.DeleteFruitTest("Apple", 2, fruitList); //Assert that fruitobject with x properties is not in list ? how } private static List<Fruit> CreateFruitList() { //Build test data var f01 = new Fruit {Name = "Apple",Id = 1, etc...}; var f02 = new Fruit {Name = "Apple",Id = 2, etc...}; var f03 = new Fruit {Name = "Apple",Id = 3, etc...}; var fruitList = new List<Fruit> {f01, f02, f03}; return fruitList; }

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  • jQuery action being called when selector isn't met?

    - by dougoftheabaci
    I've been working on a prototype for a client's web site and I've run into a rather significant snag. You can view the prototype here. As you can see, the way it works is you can scroll a set of slides horizontally and, by clicking one, open a stack containing yet more slides. If you then click again on an image in that stack it opens up a lightbox. Clicking on another stack or the close button will close that stack (and open another, as case may be). That all works great. However you get some weird behavior if you do the following: Click to open any stack. Click to open an image's light box (this works best if you click on the image that's level with the main list). Close the light box and the stack either by clicking the close button or clicking on another stack. Click back to the first stack. Instead of reopening the stack, you get the lightbox. This confuses me as the light box should only ever be called if there is a class on the containing UL and that class is removed when the lightbox is closed. I've checked and double-checked this, it's definitely missing. Here are the respective functions: $("ul.hide a.lightbox").live("click",function(){ $("ul.show").removeClass("show").addClass("hide"); $(this).parent().parent().removeClass("hide").addClass("show"); $("ul.hide").animate({opacity: 0.2}); $("ul.show").animate({opacity: 1}); $("#next").animate({opacity: 0.2}); $("#prev").animate({opacity: 0.2}); return false; }); $("ul.show a.lightbox").live("click",function(){ $(this).fancybox().trigger("click"); return false; }); As you can see, in order for the lightbox to be called the containing UL has to have the class of show. However, if you check it with Firebug it won't. For those who are curious, the added .trigger("click"); is because the lightbox will require a double-click to launch otherwise. Any idea how I can fix this?

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  • codeIgniter: pass parameter to a select query from previous query

    - by krike
    I'm creating a little management tool for the browser game travian. So I select all the villages from the database and I want to display some content that's unique to each of the villages. But in order to query for those unique details I need to pass the id of the village. How should I do this? this is my code (controller): function members_area() { global $site_title; $this->load->model('membership_model'); if($this->membership_model->get_villages()) { $data['rows'] = $this->membership_model->get_villages(); $id = 1;//this should be dynamic, but how? if($this->membership_model->get_tasks($id)): $data['tasks'] = $this->membership_model->get_tasks($id); endif; } $data['title'] = $site_title." | Your account"; $data['main_content'] = 'account'; $this->load->view('template', $data); } and this is the 2 functions I'm using in the model: function get_villages() { $q = $this->db->get('villages'); if($q->num_rows() > 0) { foreach ($q->result() as $row) { $data[] = $row; } return $data; } } function get_tasks($id) { $this->db->select('name'); $this->db->from('tasks'); $this->db->where('villageid', $id); $q = $this->db->get(); if($q->num_rows() > 0) { foreach ($q->result() as $task) { $data[] = $task; } return $data; } } and of course the view: <?php foreach($rows as $r) : ?> <div class="village"> <h3><?php echo $r->name; ?></h3> <ul> <?php foreach($tasks as $task): ?> <li><?php echo $task->name; ?></li> <?php endforeach; ?> </ul> <?php echo anchor('site/add_village/'.$r->id.'', '+ add new task'); ?> </div> <?php endforeach; ?> ps: please do not remove the comment in the first block of code!

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  • C# xml Class to substitute ini files

    - by Eduardo
    Hi guys, I am learning Windows Forms in C#.NET 2008 and i want to build a class to work with SIMPLE xml files (config file like INI files), but i just need a simple class (open, getvalue, setvalue, creategroup, save and close functions), to substitute of ini files. I already did something and it is working but I am having trouble when I need to create different groups, something like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <CONFIG> <General> <Field1>192.168.0.2</Field1> </General> <Data> <Field1>Joseph</Field1> <Field2>Locked</Field2> </Data> </CONFIG> how can i specify that i want to read the field1 of [data] group? note that i have same field name in both groups (Field1)! I am using System.Linq, something like this: To open document: XmlDocument xmlDoc = new XmlDocument(); xmlDoc.Load(FilePath); To save document: xmlDoc.Save(FilePath); To get value: public string getValue(string Field) { string result = ""; try { XmlNodeList xmlComum = xmlDoc.GetElementsByTagName(Field); if (xmlComum.Item(0) == null) result = ""; else result = xmlComum.Item(0).InnerText; } catch (Exception ex) { return ""; } return result; } To set value: public void setValue(string Group, string Field, string FieldValue) { try { XmlNodeList xmlComum = xmlDoc.GetElementsByTagName(Field); if (xmlComum.Item(0) == null) { xmlComum = xmlDoc.GetElementsByTagName(Group); if (xmlComum.Item(0) == null) { // create group createGroup(Group); xmlComum = xmlDoc.GetElementsByTagName(Group); } XmlElement xmlE = xmlDoc.CreateElement(Field); XmlText xmlT = xmlDoc.CreateTextNode(FieldValue); xmlE.AppendChild(xmlT); xmlComum.Item(0).AppendChild(xmlE); } else { // item already exists, just change its value xmlComum.Item(0).InnerText = Value; } xmlDoc.Save(FilePath); } catch (Exception ex) { } } The CreateGroup code: public void createGroup(string Group) { try { XmlElement xmlComum = xmlDoc.CreateElement(Group); xmlDoc.DocumentElement.AppendChild(xmlComum); xmlDoc.Save(FilePath); } catch (Exception ex) { } } Thank You!

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  • ACL implementation

    - by Kirzilla
    First question Please, could you explain me how simpliest ACL could be implemented in MVC. Here is the first approach of using Acl in Controller... <?php class MyController extends Controller { public function myMethod() { //It is just abstract code $acl = new Acl(); $acl->setController('MyController'); $acl->setMethod('myMethod'); $acl->getRole(); if (!$acl->allowed()) die("You're not allowed to do it!"); ... } } ?> It is very bad approach, and it's minus is that we have to add Acl piece of code into each controller's method, but we don't need any additional dependencies! Next approach is to make all controller's methods private and add ACL code into controller's __call method. <?php class MyController extends Controller { private function myMethod() { ... } public function __call($name, $params) { //It is just abstract code $acl = new Acl(); $acl->setController(__CLASS__); $acl->setMethod($name); $acl->getRole(); if (!$acl->allowed()) die("You're not allowed to do it!"); ... } } ?> It is better than previous code, but main minuses are... All controller's methods should be private We have to add ACL code into each controller's __call method. The next approach is to put Acl code into parent Controller, but we still need to keep all child controller's methods private. What is the solution? And what is the best practice? Where should I call Acl functions to decide allow or disallow method to be executed. Second question Second question is about getting role using Acl. Let's imagine that we have guests, users and user's friends. User have restricted access to viewing his profile that only friends can view it. All guests can't view this user's profile. So, here is the logic.. we have to ensure that method being called is profile we have to detect owner of this profile we have to detect is viewer is owner of this profile or no we have to read restriction rules about this profile we have to decide execute or not execute profile method The main question is about detecting owner of profile. We can detect who is owner of profile only executing model's method $model-getOwner(), but Acl do not have access to model. How can we implement this? I hope that my thoughts are clear. Sorry for my English. Thank you.

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  • Count seconds and minutes with MCU timer/interrupt?

    - by arynhard
    I am trying to figure out how to create a timer for my C8051F020 MCU. The following code uses the value passed to init_Timer2() with the following formula: 65535-(0.1 / (12/2000000)=48868. I set up the timer to count every time it executes and for every 10 counts, count one second. This is based on the above formula. 48868 when passed to init_Timer2 will produce a 0.1 second delay. It would take ten of them per second. However, when I test the timer it is a little fast. At ten seconds the timer reports 11 seconds, at 20 seconds the timer reports 22 seconds. I would like to get as close to a perfect second as I can. Here is my code: #include <compiler_defs.h> #include <C8051F020_defs.h> void init_Clock(void); void init_Watchdog(void); void init_Ports(void); void init_Timer2(unsigned int counts); void start_Timer2(void); void timer2_ISR(void); unsigned int timer2_Count; unsigned int seconds; unsigned int minutes; int main(void) { init_Clock(); init_Watchdog(); init_Ports(); start_Timer2(); P5 &= 0xFF; while (1); } //============================================================= //Functions //============================================================= void init_Clock(void) { OSCICN = 0x04; //2Mhz //OSCICN = 0x07; //16Mhz } void init_Watchdog(void) { //Disable watchdog timer WDTCN = 0xDE; WDTCN = 0xAD; } void init_Ports(void) { XBR0 = 0x00; XBR1 = 0x00; XBR2 = 0x40; P0 = 0x00; P0MDOUT = 0x00; P5 = 0x00; //Set P5 to 1111 P74OUT = 0x08; //Set P5 4 - 7 (LEDs) to push pull (Output) } void init_Timer2(unsigned int counts) { CKCON = 0x00; //Set all timers to system clock divided by 12 T2CON = 0x00; //Set timer 2 to timer mode RCAP2 = counts; T2 = 0xFFFF; //655535 IE |= 0x20; //Enable timer 2 T2CON |= 0x04; //Start timer 2 } void start_Timer2(void) { EA = 0; init_Timer2(48868); EA = 1; } void timer2_ISR(void) interrupt 5 { T2CON &= ~(0x80); P5 ^= 0xF0; timer2_Count++; if(timer2_Count % 10 == 0) { seconds++; } if(seconds % 60 == 0 && seconds != 0) { minutes++; } }

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  • Database schema for simple stats project

    - by Bubnoff
    Backdrop: I have a file hierarchy of cvs files for multiple locations named by dates they cover ...by month specifically. Each cvs file in the folder is named after the location. eg', folder name: 2010-feb contains: location1.csv location2.csv Each CSV file holds records like this: 2010-06-28, 20:30:00 , 0 2010-06-29, 08:30:00 , 0 2010-06-29, 09:30:00 , 0 2010-06-29, 10:30:00 , 0 2010-06-29, 11:30:00 , 0 meaning of record columns ( column names ): Date, time, # of sessions I have a perl script that pulls the data from this mess and originally I was going to store it as json files, but am thinking a database might be more appropriate long term ...comparing year to year trends ...fun stuff like that. Pt 2 - My question/problem: So I now have a REST service that coughs up json with a test database. My question is [ I suck at db design ], how best to design a database backend for this? I am thinking the following tables would suffice and keep it simple: Location: (PK)location_code, name session: (PK)id, (FK)location_code, month, hour, num_sessions I need to be able to average sessions (plus min and max) for each hour across days of week in addition to days of week in a given month or months. I've been using perl hashes to do this and am trying to decide how best to implement this with a database. Do you think stored procedures should be used? As to the database, depending on info gathered here, it will be postgresql or sqlite. If there is no compelling reason for postgresql I'll stick with sqlite. How and where should I compare the data to hours of operation. I am storing the hours of operation in a yaml file. I currently 'match' the hour in the data to a hash from the yaml to do this. Would a database open simpler methods? I am thinking I would do this comparison as I do now then insert the data. Can be recalled with: SELECT hour, num_sessions FROM session WHERE location_code=LOC1 Since only hours of operation are present, I do not need to worry about it. Should I calculate all results as I do now then store as a stats table for different 'reports'? This, rather than processing on demand? How would this look? Anyway ...I ramble. Thanks for reading! Bubnoff

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  • .NET Windows Service with timer stops responding

    - by Biri
    I have a windows service written in c#. It has a timer inside, which fires some functions on a regular basis. So the skeleton of my service: public partial class ArchiveService : ServiceBase { Timer tickTack; int interval = 10; ... protected override void OnStart(string[] args) { tickTack = new Timer(1000 * interval); tickTack.Elapsed += new ElapsedEventHandler(tickTack_Elapsed); tickTack.Start(); } protected override void OnStop() { tickTack.Stop(); } private void tickTack_Elapsed(object sender, ElapsedEventArgs e) { ... } } It works for some time (like 10-15 days) then it stops. I mean the service shows as running, but it does not do anything. I make some logging and the problem can be the timer, because after the interval it does not call the tickTack_Elapsed function. I was thinking about rewrite it without a timer, using an endless loop, which stops the processing for the amount of time I set up. This is also not an elegant solution and I think it can have some side effects regarding memory. The Timer is used from the System.Timers namespace, the environment is Windows 2003. I used this approach in two different services on different servers, but both is producing this behavior (this is why I thought that it is somehow connected to my code or the framework itself). Does somebody experienced this behavior? What can be wrong? Edit: I edited both services. One got a nice try-catch everywhere and more logging. The second got a timer-recreation on a regular basis. None of them stopped since them, so if this situation remains for another week, I will close this question. Thank you for everyone so far. Edit: I close this question because nothing happened. I mean I made some changes, but those changes are not really relevant in this matter and both services are running without any problem since then. Please mark it as "Closed for not relevant anymore".

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  • Multiple word Auttosuggest using Lucene.Net

    - by eric
    I am currently working on an search application which uses Lucene.Net to index the data from the database to Index file. I have a product catalog which has Name, short and long description, sku and other fields. The data is stored in Index using StandardAnalyzer. I am trying to add auto suggestion for a text field and using TermEnum to get all the keyword terms and its score from the Index. But the terms returned are of single term. For example, if I type for co, the suggestion returned are costume, count, collection, cowboy, combination etc. But I want the suggestion to return phrases. For exmaple, if I search for co, the suggestions should be cowboy costume, costume for adults, combination locks etc. The following is the code used to get the suggestions: public string[] GetKeywords(string strSearchExp) { IndexReader rd = IndexReader.Open(mIndexLoc); TermEnum tenum = rd.Terms(new Term("Name", strSearchExp)); string[] strResult = new string[10]; int i = 0; Dictionary<string, double> KeywordList = new Dictionary<string, double>(); do { //terms = tenum.Term(); if (tenum.Term() != null) { //strResult[i] = terms.text.ToString(); KeywordList.Add(tenum.Term().text.ToString(), tenum.DocFreq()); } } while (tenum.Next() && tenum.Term().text.StartsWith(strSearchExp) && tenum.Term().text.Length > 1); var sortedDict = (from entry in KeywordList orderby entry.Value descending select entry); foreach (KeyValuePair<string, double> data in sortedDict) { if (data.Key.Length > 1) { strResult[i] = data.Key; i++; } if (i >= 10) //Exit the for Loop if the count exceeds 10 break; } tenum.Close(); rd.Close(); return strResult; } Can anyone please give me directions to achive this? Thanks for looking into this.

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  • How to infer the type of a derived class in base class?

    - by enzi
    I want to create a method that allows me to change arbitrary properties of classes that derive from my base class, the result should look like this: SetPropertyValue("size.height", 50); – where size is a property of my derived class and height is a property of size. I'm almost done with my implementation but there's one final obstacle that I want to solve before moving on, to describe this I will first have to explain my implementation a bit: Properties that can be modified are decorated with an attribute There's a method in my base class that searches for all derived classes and their decorated properties For each property I generate a "property modifier", a class that contains 2 delegates: one to set and one to get the value of the property. Property Modifiers are stored in a dictionary, with the name of the property as key In my base class, there is another dictionary that contains all property-modifier-dictionaries, with the Type of the respective class as key. What the SetPropertyValue method does is this: Get the correct property-modifier-dictionary, using the concrete type of the derived class (<- yet to solve) Get the property modifier of the property to change (e.g. of the property size) Use the get or set delegate to modify the property's value Some example code to clarify further: private static Dictionary<RuntimeTypeHandle, object> EditableTypes; //property-modifier-dictionary protected void SetPropertyValue<T>(EditablePropertyMap<T> map, string property, object value) { var property = map[property]; // get the property modifier property.Set((T)this, value); // use the set delegate (encapsulated in a method) } In the above code, T is the Type of the actual (derived) class. I need this type for the get/set delegates. The problem is how to get the EditablePropertyMap<T> when I don't know what T is. My current (ugly) solution is to pass the map in an overriden virtual method in the derived class: public override void SetPropertyValue(string property, object value) { base.SetPropertyValue((EditablePropertyMap<ExampleType>)EditableTypes[typeof(ExampleType)], property, value); } What this does is: get the correct dictionary containing the property modifiers of this class using the class's type, cast it to the appropiate type and pass it to the SetPropertyValue method. I want to get rid of the SetPropertyValue method in my derived class (since there are a lot of derived classes), but don't know yet how to accomplish that. I cannot just make a virtual GetEditablePropertyMap<T> method because I cannot infer a concrete type for T then. I also cannot acces my dictionary directly with a type and retrieve an EditablePropertyMap<T> from it because I cannot cast to it from object in the base class, since again I do not know T. I found some neat tricks to infere types (e.g. by adding a dummy T parameter), but cannot apply them to my specific problem. I'd highly appreciate any suggestions you may have for me.

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  • Can MySQL reasonably perform queries on billions of rows?

    - by haxney
    I am planning on storing scans from a mass spectrometer in a MySQL database and would like to know whether storing and analyzing this amount of data is remotely feasible. I know performance varies wildly depending on the environment, but I'm looking for the rough order of magnitude: will queries take 5 days or 5 milliseconds? Input format Each input file contains a single run of the spectrometer; each run is comprised of a set of scans, and each scan has an ordered array of datapoints. There is a bit of metadata, but the majority of the file is comprised of arrays 32- or 64-bit ints or floats. Host system |----------------+-------------------------------| | OS | Windows 2008 64-bit | | MySQL version | 5.5.24 (x86_64) | | CPU | 2x Xeon E5420 (8 cores total) | | RAM | 8GB | | SSD filesystem | 500 GiB | | HDD RAID | 12 TiB | |----------------+-------------------------------| There are some other services running on the server using negligible processor time. File statistics |------------------+--------------| | number of files | ~16,000 | | total size | 1.3 TiB | | min size | 0 bytes | | max size | 12 GiB | | mean | 800 MiB | | median | 500 MiB | | total datapoints | ~200 billion | |------------------+--------------| The total number of datapoints is a very rough estimate. Proposed schema I'm planning on doing things "right" (i.e. normalizing the data like crazy) and so would have a runs table, a spectra table with a foreign key to runs, and a datapoints table with a foreign key to spectra. The 200 Billion datapoint question I am going to be analyzing across multiple spectra and possibly even multiple runs, resulting in queries which could touch millions of rows. Assuming I index everything properly (which is a topic for another question) and am not trying to shuffle hundreds of MiB across the network, is it remotely plausible for MySQL to handle this? UPDATE: additional info The scan data will be coming from files in the XML-based mzML format. The meat of this format is in the <binaryDataArrayList> elements where the data is stored. Each scan produces = 2 <binaryDataArray> elements which, taken together, form a 2-dimensional (or more) array of the form [[123.456, 234.567, ...], ...]. These data are write-once, so update performance and transaction safety are not concerns. My naïve plan for a database schema is: runs table | column name | type | |-------------+-------------| | id | PRIMARY KEY | | start_time | TIMESTAMP | | name | VARCHAR | |-------------+-------------| spectra table | column name | type | |----------------+-------------| | id | PRIMARY KEY | | name | VARCHAR | | index | INT | | spectrum_type | INT | | representation | INT | | run_id | FOREIGN KEY | |----------------+-------------| datapoints table | column name | type | |-------------+-------------| | id | PRIMARY KEY | | spectrum_id | FOREIGN KEY | | mz | DOUBLE | | num_counts | DOUBLE | | index | INT | |-------------+-------------| Is this reasonable?

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  • Dynamically loaded jQuery with GreaseMonkey inconsistent on pages (refreshing seems to fix it)... do

    - by uprightnetizen
    Hi, I want a custom page analysis footer on every site I visit... so I've used a method to attach JQuery to unsafeWindow. I then create a floating footer on the page. I want to be able to call commands in a menu, do some processing, then put the results in the footer. Unfortunately it sometimes works, sometimes it doesn't. At least two alerts should happen in the printOutput function. Sometimes it only fires one, then it (crashes?) without error? On other pages, both alerts fire and it finds the element, but it doesn't add the extra text. (e.g. www.linode.com) Refreshing the page, then running the printOutput command again seems to always work. Does anyone know what's going on??? The userscript can be installed at: http://www.captionwizard.com/test/page_analysis.user.js // ==UserScript== // @name page_analysis // @namespace markspace // @description Page Analysis // @include http://*/* // ==/UserScript== (function() { // Add jQuery var GM_JQ = document.createElement('script'); GM_JQ.src = 'http://code.jquery.com/jquery-1.4.2.min.js'; GM_JQ.type = 'text/javascript'; document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0].appendChild(GM_JQ); var jqueryActive = false; //Check if jQuery's loaded function GM_wait() { if(typeof unsafeWindow.jQuery == 'undefined') { window.setTimeout(GM_wait,100); } else { $ = unsafeWindow.jQuery; letsJQuery(); } } GM_wait(); function letsJQuery() { jqueryActive = true; setupOutputFooter(); } /******************************* Analysis FOOTER Functions ******************************/ function printOutput(someText) { alert('printing output'); if($('div.analysis_footer').length) { alert('is here - appending'); $('div.analysis_footer').append('<br>' + someText); } else { alert('not here - trying again'); setupOutputFooter(); $('div.analysis_footer').append('<br>' + someText); } } GM_registerMenuCommand("Test Output", testOutput, "k", "control", "k" ); function testOutput() { printOutput('testing this'); } function setupOutputFooter() { $('<div class="analysis_footer">Page Analysis Footer:</div>').appendTo('body'); $('div.analysis_footer').css('position','fixed').css('bottom', '0px').css('background-color','#F8F8F8'); $('div.analysis_footer').css('width','100%').css('color','#3B3B3B').css('font-size', '0.8em'); $('div.analysis_footer').css('font-family', '"Myriad",Verdana,Arial,Helvetica,sans-serif').css('padding', '5px'); $('div.analysis_footer').css('border-top', '1px solid black').css('text-align', 'left'); } }());

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  • Deleting a node in a family tree

    - by user559142
    Hi, I'm trying to calclulate the best way to delete a node in a family tree. First, a little description of how the app works. My app makes the following assumption: Any node can only have one partner. That means that any child a single node has, it will also be the partner nodes child too. Therefore, step relations, divorces etc aren't compensated for. A node always has two parents - A mother and father cannot be added seperately. If the user doesn't know the details - the nodes attributes are set to a default value. Also any node can add parents, siblings, children to itself. Therefore in law relationships can be added. I have the following classes: FamilyMember String fName; String lName; String dob; String gender; FamilyMember mother, father, partner; ArrayListchildren; int index; int generation; void linkParents(); void linkPartner(); void addChild(); //gets & sets for fields Family ArrayListfamily; void addMember(); void removeMember(); FamilyMember getFamilyMember(index); ArrayListgetFamilyMembers(); FamilyTree Family family; void removeMember(); //need help void displayFamilyMembers(); void addFamilyMember(); void enterDetails(); void displayAncestors(); void displayDescendants(); void printDescendants(); FamilyMember findRootNode(); void sortGenerations(); void getRootGeneration(); I am having trouble with identifying the logic for removing a member. All other functions work fine. Has anyone developed a family tree app before who knows how to deal with removing various different nodes in the family "tree"? e.g. removing a leaf removing a leaf with partner (what if partner has parents etc) removing a parent It seems to be another recursive property but my head is swelling from over thought.

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  • Flex bug?? Get messed up stacked ColumnChart with type="100%"

    - by Nir
    I am trying to do a stacked Column chart with type="100%" and a mixture of positive and negative values. When all the values are positive, is functions well, but when negative numbers come to the game, it looks totally messed up. When I also look at Adobe documentation (look here), I see the following code for stacked column chart involving negative numbers: <?xml version="1.0"?> <!-- charts/StackedNegative.mxml --> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml"> <mx:Script><![CDATA[ import mx.collections.ArrayCollection; [Bindable] public var expenses:ArrayCollection = new ArrayCollection([ {Month:"Jan", Profit:-2000, Expenses:-1500}, {Month:"Feb", Profit:1000, Expenses:-200}, {Month:"Mar", Profit:1500, Expenses:-500} ]); ]]></mx:Script> <mx:Panel title="Column Chart"> <mx:ColumnChart id="myChart" dataProvider="{expenses}" showDataTips="true"> <mx:horizontalAxis> <mx:CategoryAxis dataProvider="{expenses}" categoryField="Month" /> </mx:horizontalAxis> <mx:series> <mx:ColumnSet type="stacked" allowNegativeForStacked="true"> <mx:series> <mx:ColumnSeries xField="Month" yField="Profit" displayName="Profit" /> <mx:ColumnSeries xField="Month" yField="Expenses" displayName="Expenses" /> </mx:series> </mx:ColumnSet> </mx:series> </mx:ColumnChart> <mx:Legend dataProvider="{myChart}"/> </mx:Panel> </mx:Application> It works fine. But try to change: <mx:ColumnSet type="stacked" allowNegativeForStacked="true"> to: <mx:ColumnSet type="100%" allowNegativeForStacked="true"> and you'll see that it doesn't on January data, where both values are negative, the chart shows as if they are positive, and on the other two where one value is positive and the other is negative, it shows only the positive part as 100%... Isn't it a Flex Bug? I have my own case with such data and it behaves wrong the same way. I'd expect that if it has 800 stacked on -200, it will show 80% up and 20% down, totalling 100%. BTW: Using Flex 4, though these are all mx components. Thanks a lot and regards from Berlin, Germany, Nir.

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  • EXC_MEMORY_ACCESS when trying to delete from Core Data ($cash solution)

    - by llloydxmas
    I have an application that downloads an xml file, parses the file, and creates core data objects while doing so. In the parse code I have a function called 'emptydatacontext' that removes all items from Core Data before creating replacements items from the xml data. This method looks like this: -(void) emptyDataContext { NSFetchRequest * allCon = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; [allCon setEntity:[NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Condition" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]]; NSError * error = nil; NSArray * conditions = [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:allCon error:&error]; DebugLog(@"ERROR: %@",error); DebugLog(@"RETRIEVED: %@", conditions); [allCon release]; for (NSManagedObject * condition in conditions) { [managedObjectContext deleteObject:condition]; } // Update the data model effectivly removing the objects we removed above. //NSError *error; if (![managedObjectContext save:&error]) { DebugLog(@"%@", [error domain]); } } The first time this runs it deletes all objects and functions as it should - creating new objects from the xml file. I created a 'update' button that starts the exact same process of retrieving the file the proceeding with the parse & build. All is well until its time to delete the core data objects. This 'deleteObject' call creates a "EXC_BAD_ACCESS" error each time. This only happens on the second time through. Captured errors return null. If I log the 'conditions' array I get a list of NSManagedObjects on the first run. On the second this log request causes a crash exactly as the deleteObject call does. I have a feeling it is something very simple I'm missing or not doing correctly to cause this behavior. The data works great on my tableviews - its only when trying to update I get the crashes. I have spent days & days on this trying numerous alternative methods. Whats left of my hair is falling out. I'd be willing to ante up some cash for anyone willing to look at my code and see what I'm doing wrong. Just need to get past this hurdle. Thanks in advance for the help!

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  • assignment not working in a dll exported C++ class

    - by Jim Jones
    Using VS 2008 Have a C++ class in which I'm calling functions from a 3rd party dll. The definition in the header file is as follows: namespace OITImageExport { class ImageExport { private: SCCERR seResult; /* Error code returned. */ VTHDOC hDoc; /* Input doc handle returned by DAOpenDocument(). */ VTHEXPORT hExport; /* Handle to the export returned by EXOpenExport(). */ VTDWORD dwFIFlags; /* Used in setting the SCCOPT_FIFLAGS option. */ VTCHAR szError[256]; /* Error string buffer. */ VTDWORD dwOutputId; /* Output Format. */ VTDWORD dwSpecType; public: ImageExport(const char* outputId, const char* specType); void ProcessDocument(const char* inputPath, const char* outputPath); ~ImageExport(); }; } In the constructor I initialize two of the class fields having values which come from enumerations in the 3rd party dll: ImageExport::ImageExport(const char* outputId, const char* specType) { if(outputId == "jpeg") { dwOutputId = FI_JPEGFIF; } if(specType == "ansi") { dwSpecType = IOTYPE_ANSIPATH; } seResult = DAInit(); if (seResult != SCCERR_OK) { DAGetErrorString(seResult, szError, sizeof(szError)); fprintf(stderr, "DAInit() failed: %s (0x%04X)\n", szError, seResult); exit(seResult); } } When I use this class inside of a console app, with a main method in another file (all in the same namespace), instantiating the class object and calling the methods, it works like a champ. So, now that I know the basic code works, I open a dll project using the class header and code file. Course I have to add the dll macro, namely: #ifdef IMAGEDLL_EXPORTS #define DLL __declspec(dllexport) #else #define DLL __declspec(dllimport) #endif and changed the class definition to "class DLL ImageExport". Compiled nicely to a dll and .lib file (No errors, No warnings). Now to test this dll I open another console project using the same main method as before and linking to the (dll) lib file. Had problems, which when tracked down were the result of the two fields not being set; both had values of 0. Went back to the first console app and printed out the values: dwOutputId was 1535 (#define FI_JPEGFIF 1535) and dwSpecType was 2 (#define IOTYPE_ANSIPATH 2). Now if I was assigning these values outside of the class, I can see how the visibility could be different, but why is the assignment in the dll not working? Is it something about having a class in the dll?

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  • How do I map a one-to-one value type association in an joined-subclass?

    - by David Rubin
    I've got a class hierarchy mapped using table-per-subclass, and it's been working out great: class BasicReport { ... } class SpecificReport : BasicReport { ... } With mappings: <class name="BasicReport" table="reports"> <id name="Id" column="id">...</id> <!-- some common properties --> </class> <joined-subclass name="SpecificReport" table="specificReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <!-- some special properties --> </joined-subclass> So far, so good. The problem I'm struggling with is how to add a property to one of my subclasses that's both a value type for which I have an IUserType implemented and also mapped via an association: class OtherReport : BasicReport { public SpecialValue V { get; set; } } class SpecialValueUserType : IUserType { ... } What I'd like to do is: <joined-subclass name="OtherReport" table="otherReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <join table="rptValues" fetch="join"> <key column="rptId"/> <property name="V" column="value" type="SpecialValueUserType"/> </join> </joined-subclass> This accurately reflects the intent, and the pre-existing database schema I'm tied to: the SpecialValue instance is a property of the OtherReport, but is stored in a separate table ("rptValues"). Unfortunately, it seems as though I can't do this, because <join> elements can't be used in <joined-subclass> mappings. <one-to-one> would require creating a class mapping for SpecialValue, which doesn't make any sense given that SpecialValue is just a meaningful scalar. So what can I do? Do I have any options? Right now I'm playing a game with sets: class OtherReport : BasicReport { public SpecialValue V { get { return _values.Count() > 0 ? _values.First() : null; } set { _values.Clear(); _values.Add(value); } } private ICollection<SpecialValue> _values; } With mapping: <joined-subclass name="OtherReport" table="otherReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <set name="_values" access="field" table="rptValues" cascade="all-delete-orphan"> <key column="rptId" /> <element column="value" type="SpecialValueUserType"/> </set> </joined-subclass> Thanks in advance for the help! I've been banging my head into my desk for several days now.

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  • Why do we have reinterpret_cast in C++ when two chained static_cast can do it's job?

    - by Nawaz
    Say I want to cast A* to char* and vice-versa, we have two choices (I mean, many of us think we've two choices, because both seems to work! Hence the confusion!): struct A { int age; char name[128]; }; A a; char *buffer = static_cast<char*>(static_cast<void*>(&a)); //choice 1 char *buffer = reinterpret_cast<char*>(&a); //choice 2 Both work fine. //convert back A *pA = static_cast<A*>(static_cast<void*>(buffer)); //choice 1 A *pA = reinterpret_cast<A*>(buffer); //choice 2 Even this works fine! So why do we have reinterpret_cast in C++ when two chained static_cast can do it's job? Some of you might think this topic is a duplicate of the previous topics such as listed at the bottom of this post, but it's not. Those topics discuss only theoretically, but none of them gives even a single example demonstrating why reintepret_cast is really needed, and two static_cast would surely fail. I agree, one static_cast would fail. But how about two? If the syntax of two chained static_cast looks cumbersome, then we can write a function template to make it more programmer-friendly: template<class To, class From> To any_cast(From v) { return static_cast<To>(static_cast<void*>(v)); } And then we can use this, as: char *buffer = any_cast<char*>(&a); //choice 1 char *buffer = reinterpret_cast<char*>(&a); //choice 2 //convert back A *pA = any_cast<A*>(buffer); //choice 1 A *pA = reinterpret_cast<A*>(buffer); //choice 2 Also, see this situation where any_cast can be useful: Proper casting for fstream read and write member functions. So my question basically is, Why do we have reinterpret_cast in C++? Please show me even a single example where two chained static_cast would surely fail to do the same job? Which cast to use; static_cast or reinterpret_cast? Cast from Void* to TYPE* : static_cast or reinterpret_cast

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  • Loading datasets from datastore and merge into single dictionary. Resource problem.

    - by fredrik
    Hi, I have a productdatabase that contains products, parts and labels for each part based on langcodes. The problem I'm having and haven't got around is a huge amount of resource used to get the different datasets and merging them into a dict to suit my needs. The products in the database are based on a number of parts that is of a certain type (ie. color, size). And each part has a label for each language. I created 4 different models for this. Products, ProductParts, ProductPartTypes and ProductPartLabels. I've narrowed it down to about 10 lines of code that seams to generate the problem. As of currently I have 3 Products, 3 Types, 3 parts for each type, and 2 languages. And the request takes a wooping 5500ms to generate. for product in productData: productDict = {} typeDict = {} productDict['productName'] = product.name cache_key = 'productparts_%s' % (slugify(product.key())) partData = memcache.get(cache_key) if not partData: for type in typeData: typeDict[type.typeId] = { 'default' : '', 'optional' : [] } ## Start of problem lines ## for defaultPart in product.defaultPartsData: for label in labelsForLangCode: if label.key() in defaultPart.partLabelList: typeDict[defaultPart.type.typeId]['default'] = label.partLangLabel for optionalPart in product.optionalPartsData: for label in labelsForLangCode: if label.key() in optionalPart.partLabelList: typeDict[optionalPart.type.typeId]['optional'].append(label.partLangLabel) ## end problem lines ## memcache.add(cache_key, typeDict, 500) partData = memcache.get(cache_key) productDict['parts'] = partData productList.append(productDict) I guess the problem lies in the number of for loops is too many and have to iterate over the same data over and over again. labelForLangCode get all labels from ProductPartLabels that match the current langCode. All parts for a product is stored in a db.ListProperty(db.key). The same goes for all labels for a part. The reason I need the some what complex dict is that I want to display all data for a product with it's default parts and show a selector for the optional one. The defaultPartsData and optionaPartsData are properties in the Product Model that looks like this: @property def defaultPartsData(self): return ProductParts.gql('WHERE __key__ IN :key', key = self.defaultParts) @property def optionalPartsData(self): return ProductParts.gql('WHERE __key__ IN :key', key = self.optionalParts) When the completed dict is in the memcache it works smoothly, but isn't the memcache reset if the application goes in to hibernation? Also I would like to show the page for first time user(memcache empty) with out the enormous delay. Also as I said above, this is only a small amount of parts/product. What will the result be when it's 30 products with 100 parts. Is one solution to create a scheduled task to cache it in the memcache every hour? It this efficient? I know this is alot to take in, but I'm stuck. I've been at this for about 12 hours straight. And can't figure out a solution. ..fredrik

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