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  • Deleting a node in a family tree

    - by user559142
    Hi, I'm trying to calclulate the best way to delete a node in a family tree. First, a little description of how the app works. My app makes the following assumption: Any node can only have one partner. That means that any child a single node has, it will also be the partner nodes child too. Therefore, step relations, divorces etc aren't compensated for. A node always has two parents - A mother and father cannot be added seperately. If the user doesn't know the details - the nodes attributes are set to a default value. Also any node can add parents, siblings, children to itself. Therefore in law relationships can be added. I have the following classes: FamilyMember String fName; String lName; String dob; String gender; FamilyMember mother, father, partner; ArrayListchildren; int index; int generation; void linkParents(); void linkPartner(); void addChild(); //gets & sets for fields Family ArrayListfamily; void addMember(); void removeMember(); FamilyMember getFamilyMember(index); ArrayListgetFamilyMembers(); FamilyTree Family family; void removeMember(); //need help void displayFamilyMembers(); void addFamilyMember(); void enterDetails(); void displayAncestors(); void displayDescendants(); void printDescendants(); FamilyMember findRootNode(); void sortGenerations(); void getRootGeneration(); I am having trouble with identifying the logic for removing a member. All other functions work fine. Has anyone developed a family tree app before who knows how to deal with removing various different nodes in the family "tree"? e.g. removing a leaf removing a leaf with partner (what if partner has parents etc) removing a parent It seems to be another recursive property but my head is swelling from over thought.

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  • [NHibernate and ASP.NET MVC] How can I implement a robust session-per-request pattern in my project,

    - by Guillaume Gervais
    I'm currently building an ASP.NET MVC project, with NHibernate as its persistance layer. For now, some functionnalities have been implemented, but only use local NHibernate sessions: each method that accessed the database (read or write) needs to instanciate its own NHibernate session, with the "using()" directive. The problem is that I want to leverage NHibernate's Lazy-Loading capabilities to improve the performance of my project. This implies an open NHibernate session per request until the view is rendered. Furthermore, simultaneous request must be supported (multiple Sessions at the same time). How can I achieve that as cleanly as possible? I searched the Web a little bit and learned about the session-per-request pattern. Most of the implementations I saw used some sort of Http* (HttpContext, etc.) object to store the session. Also, using the Application_BeginRequest/Application_EndRequest functions is complicated, since they get fired for each HTTP request (aspx files, css files, js files, etc.), when I only want to instanciate a session once per request. The concern that I have is that I don't want my views or controllers to have access to NHibernate sessions (or, more generally, NHibernate namespaces and code). That means that I do not want to handle sessions at the controller level nor the view one. I have a few options in mind. Which one seems the best ? Use interceptors (like in GRAILS) that get triggered before and after the controller action. These would open and close sessions/transactions. Is it possible in the ASP.NET MVC world? Use the CurrentSessionContext Singleton provided by NHibernate in a Web context. Using this page as an example, I think this is quite promising, but that still requires filters at the controller level. Use the HttpContext.Current.Items to store the request session. This, coupled with a few lines of code in Global.asax.cs, can easily provide me with a session on the request level. However, it means that dependencies will be injected between NHibernate and my views (HttpContext). Thank you very much!

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  • Primary language - QtC++, C#, Java?

    - by Airjoe
    I'm looking for some input, but let me start with a bit of background (for tl;dr skip to end). I'm an IT major with a concentration in networking. While I'm not a CS major nor do I want to program as a vocation, I do consider myself a programmer and do pretty well with the concepts involved. I've been programming since about 6th grade, started out with a proprietary game creation language that made my transition into C++ at college pretty easy. I like to make programs for myself and friends, and have been paid to program for local businesses. A bit about that- I wrote some programs for a couple local businesses in my senior year in high school. I wrote management systems for local shops (inventory, phone/pos orders, timeclock, customer info, and more stuff I can't remember). It definitely turned out to be over my head, as I had never had any formal programming education. It was a great learning experience, but damn was it crappy code. Oh yeah, by the way, it was all vb6. So, I've used vb6 pretty extensively, I've used c++ in my classes (intro to programming up to algorithms), used Java a little bit in another class (had to write a ping client program, pretty easy) and used Java for some simple Project Euler problems to help learn syntax and such when writing the program for the class. I've also used C# a bit for my own simple personal projects (simple programs, one which would just generate an HTTP request on a list of websites and notify if one responded unexpectedly or not at all, and another which just held a list of things to do and periodically reminded me to do them), things I would've written in vb6 a year or two ago. I've just started using Qt C++ for some undergrad research I'm working on. Now I've had some formal education, I [think I] understand organization in programming a lot better (I didn't even use classes in my vb6 programs where I really should have), how it's important to structure code, split into functions where appropriate, document properly, efficiency both in memory and speed, dynamic and modular programming etc. I was looking for some input on which language to pick up as my "primary". As I'm not a "real programmer", it will be mostly hobby projects, but will include some 'real' projects I'm sure. From my perspective: QtC++ and Java are cross platform, which is cool. Java and C# run in a virtual machine, but I'm not sure if that's a big deal (something extra to distribute, possibly a bit slower? I think Qt would require additional distributables too, right?). I don't really know too much more than this, so I appreciate any help, thanks! TL;DR Am an avocational programmer looking for a language, want quick and straight forward development, liked vb6, will be working with database driven GUI apps- should I go with QtC++, Java, C#, or perhaps something else?

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  • choosing an image locally from http url and serving that image without a server round trip

    - by serverman
    Hi folks I am a complete novice to Flash (never created anything in flash). I am quite familiar with web applications (J2EE based) and have a reasonable expertise in Javascript. Here is my requirement. I want the user to select (via an html form) an image. Normally in the post, this image would be sent to server and may be stored there to be served later. I do not want that. I want to store this image locally and then serve it via HTTP to the user. So, the flow is: 1. Go to the "select image url":mywebsite.com/selectImage Browse the image and select the image This would transfer control locally to some code running on the client (Javascript or flash), which would then store the image locally at some place on the client machine. Go to the "show image url": mywebsite.com/showImage This would eventually result in some client code running on the browser that retrieves the image and renders it (without any server round trips.) I considered the following options: Use HTML5 local storage. Since I am a complete novice to flash, I looked into this. I found that it is fairly straightforward to store and retrieve images in javascript (only strings are allowed but I am hoping storing base64 encoded strings would work at least for small images). However, how do I serve the image via http url that points to my server without a server round trip? I saw the interesting article at http://hacks.mozilla.org/category/fileapi/ but that would work only in firefox and I need to work on all latest browsers (at least the ones supporting HTML5 local storage) Use flash SharedObjects. OK, this would have been good - the only thing is I am not sure where to start. Snippets of actionscripts to do this are scattered everywhere but I do not know how to use those scripts in an actual html page:) I do not need to create any movies or anything - just need to store an image and serve it locally. If I go this route, I would also use it to store other "strings" locally. If you suggest this, please give me the exact steps (could be pointers to other web sites) on how to do this. I would like to avoid paying for any flash development environment software ideally:) Thank you!

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  • Are there any platforms where using structure copy on an fd_set (for select() or pselect()) causes p

    - by Jonathan Leffler
    The select() and pselect() system calls modify their arguments (the 'struct fd_set *' arguments), so the input value tells the system which file descriptors to check and the return values tell the programmer which file descriptors are currently usable. If you are going to call them repeatedly for the same set of file descriptors, you need to ensure that you have a fresh copy of the descriptors for each call. The obvious way to do that is to use a structure copy: struct fd_set ref_set_rd; struct fd_set ref_set_wr; struct fd_set ref_set_er; ... ...code to set the reference fd_set_xx values... ... while (!done) { struct fd_set act_set_rd = ref_set_rd; struct fd_set act_set_wr = ref_set_wr; struct fd_set act_set_er = ref_set_er; int bits_set = select(max_fd, &act_set_rd, &act_set_wr, &act_set_er, &timeout); if (bits_set > 0) { ...process the output values of act_set_xx... } } My question: Are there any platforms where it is not safe to do a structure copy of the struct fd_set values as shown? I'm concerned lest there be hidden memory allocation or anything unexpected like that. (There are macros/functions FD_SET(), FD_CLR(), FD_ZERO() and FD_ISSET() to mask the internals from the application.) I can see that MacOS X (Darwin) is safe; other BSD-based systems are likely to be safe, therefore. You can help by documenting other systems that you know are safe in your answers. (I do have minor concerns about how well the struct fd_set would work with more than 8192 open file descriptors - the default maximum number of open files is only 256, but the maximum number is 'unlimited'. Also, since the structures are 1 KB, the copying code is not dreadfully efficient, but then running through a list of file descriptors to recreate the input mask on each cycle is not necessarily efficient either. Maybe you can't do select() when you have that many file descriptors open, though that is when you are most likely to need the functionality.) There's a related SO question - asking about 'poll() vs select()' which addresses a different set of issues from this question.

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  • How can I remove rows with unique values? As in only keeping rows with duplicate values?

    - by user1456405
    Here's the conundrum, I'm a complete and utter noob when it comes to programming. I understand the basics, but am still learning javascript. I have a spreadsheet of surveys, in which I need to see how particular users have varied over time. As such, I need to disregard all rows with unique values in a particular column. The data looks like this: Response Date Response_ID Account_ID Q.1 10/20/2011 12:03:43 PM 23655956 1168161 8 10/20/2011 03:52:57 PM 23660161 1168152 0 10/21/2011 10:55:54 AM 23672903 1166121 7 10/23/2011 04:28:16 PM 23694471 1144756 9 10/25/2011 06:30:52 AM 23732674 1167449 7 10/25/2011 07:52:28 AM 23734597 1087618 5 I've found a way to do so in VBA, which sucks as I have to use excel, per below: Sub Del_Unique() Application.ScreenUpdating = False Columns("B:B").Insert Shift:=xlToRight Columns("A:A").Copy Destination:=Columns("B:B") i = Application.CountIf(Range("A:A"), "<>") + 50 If i > 65536 Then i = 65536 Do If Application.CountIf(Range("B:B"), Range("A" & i)) = 1 Then Rows(i).Delete End If i = i - 1 Loop Until i = 0 Columns("B:B").Delete Application.ScreenUpdating = True End Sub But that requires mucking about. I'd really like to do it in Google Spreadsheets with a script that won't have to be changed. Closest I can get is retrieving all duplicate user ids from the range, but can't associate that with the row. That code follows: function findDuplicatesInSelection() { var activeRange = SpreadsheetApp.getActiveRange(); var values = activeRange.getValues(); // values that appear at least once var once = {}; // values that appear at least twice var twice = {}; // values that appear at least twice, stored in a pretty fashion! var final = []; for (var i = 0; i < values.length; i++) { var inner = values[i]; for (var j = 0; j < inner.length; j++) { var cell = inner[j]; if (cell == "") continue; if (once.hasOwnProperty(cell)) { if (!twice.hasOwnProperty(cell)) { final.push(cell); } twice[cell] = 1; } else { once[cell] = 1; } } } if (final.length == 0) { Browser.msgBox("No duplicates found"); } else { Browser.msgBox("Duplicates are: " + final); } } Anyhow, sorry if this is the wrong place or format, but half of what I've found so far has been from stack, I thought it was a good place to start. Thanks!

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  • Can MySQL reasonably perform queries on billions of rows?

    - by haxney
    I am planning on storing scans from a mass spectrometer in a MySQL database and would like to know whether storing and analyzing this amount of data is remotely feasible. I know performance varies wildly depending on the environment, but I'm looking for the rough order of magnitude: will queries take 5 days or 5 milliseconds? Input format Each input file contains a single run of the spectrometer; each run is comprised of a set of scans, and each scan has an ordered array of datapoints. There is a bit of metadata, but the majority of the file is comprised of arrays 32- or 64-bit ints or floats. Host system |----------------+-------------------------------| | OS | Windows 2008 64-bit | | MySQL version | 5.5.24 (x86_64) | | CPU | 2x Xeon E5420 (8 cores total) | | RAM | 8GB | | SSD filesystem | 500 GiB | | HDD RAID | 12 TiB | |----------------+-------------------------------| There are some other services running on the server using negligible processor time. File statistics |------------------+--------------| | number of files | ~16,000 | | total size | 1.3 TiB | | min size | 0 bytes | | max size | 12 GiB | | mean | 800 MiB | | median | 500 MiB | | total datapoints | ~200 billion | |------------------+--------------| The total number of datapoints is a very rough estimate. Proposed schema I'm planning on doing things "right" (i.e. normalizing the data like crazy) and so would have a runs table, a spectra table with a foreign key to runs, and a datapoints table with a foreign key to spectra. The 200 Billion datapoint question I am going to be analyzing across multiple spectra and possibly even multiple runs, resulting in queries which could touch millions of rows. Assuming I index everything properly (which is a topic for another question) and am not trying to shuffle hundreds of MiB across the network, is it remotely plausible for MySQL to handle this? UPDATE: additional info The scan data will be coming from files in the XML-based mzML format. The meat of this format is in the <binaryDataArrayList> elements where the data is stored. Each scan produces = 2 <binaryDataArray> elements which, taken together, form a 2-dimensional (or more) array of the form [[123.456, 234.567, ...], ...]. These data are write-once, so update performance and transaction safety are not concerns. My naïve plan for a database schema is: runs table | column name | type | |-------------+-------------| | id | PRIMARY KEY | | start_time | TIMESTAMP | | name | VARCHAR | |-------------+-------------| spectra table | column name | type | |----------------+-------------| | id | PRIMARY KEY | | name | VARCHAR | | index | INT | | spectrum_type | INT | | representation | INT | | run_id | FOREIGN KEY | |----------------+-------------| datapoints table | column name | type | |-------------+-------------| | id | PRIMARY KEY | | spectrum_id | FOREIGN KEY | | mz | DOUBLE | | num_counts | DOUBLE | | index | INT | |-------------+-------------| Is this reasonable?

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  • Hacking "Contact Form 7" code to Add A "Referred By" field

    - by Scott B
    I've got about 6 subdomains that have a "contact us" link and I'm sending all these links to a single form that uses "Contact Form 7". I add ?from=site-name to each of the links so that I can set a $referredFrom variable in the contact form. The only two things I'm missing are (1) the ability to insert this referredFrom variable into the email that I get whenever someone submits the form and (2) The ability to redirect the user back to the site they came from (stored in $referredFrom) Any ideas? Here's a bit of code from includes/classes.php that I thought might be part of the email insert but its not doing much... function mail() { global $referrer; $refferedfrom = $referrer; //HERE IS MY CUSTOM CODE $fes = $this->form_scan_shortcode(); foreach ( $fes as $fe ) { $name = $fe['name']; $pipes = $fe['pipes']; if ( empty( $name ) ) continue; $value = $_POST[$name]; if ( WPCF7_USE_PIPE && is_a( $pipes, 'WPCF7_Pipes' ) && ! $pipes->zero() ) { if ( is_array( $value) ) { $new_value = array(); foreach ( $value as $v ) { $new_value[] = $pipes->do_pipe( $v ); } $value = $new_value; } else { $value = $pipes->do_pipe( $value ); } } $this->posted_data[$name] = $value; $this->posted_data[$refferedfrom] = $referrer; //HERE IS MY CUSTOM CODE } I'm also thinking that I could insert the referredFrom code somewhere in this function as well... function compose_and_send_mail( $mail_template ) { $regex = '/\[\s*([a-zA-Z][0-9a-zA-Z:._-]*)\s*\]/'; $callback = array( &$this, 'mail_callback' ); $mail_subject = preg_replace_callback( $regex, $callback, $mail_template['subject'] ); $mail_sender = preg_replace_callback( $regex, $callback, $mail_template['sender'] ); $mail_body = preg_replace_callback( $regex, $callback, $mail_template['body'] ); $mail_recipient = preg_replace_callback( $regex, $callback, $mail_template['recipient'] ); $mail_headers = "From: $mail_sender\n"; if ( $mail_template['use_html'] ) $mail_headers .= "Content-Type: text/html\n"; $mail_additional_headers = preg_replace_callback( $regex, $callback, $mail_template['additional_headers'] ); $mail_headers .= trim( $mail_additional_headers ) . "\n"; if ( $this->uploaded_files ) { $for_this_mail = array(); foreach ( $this->uploaded_files as $name => $path ) { if ( false === strpos( $mail_template['attachments'], "[${name}]" ) ) continue; $for_this_mail[] = $path; } return @wp_mail( $mail_recipient, $mail_subject, $mail_body, $mail_headers, $for_this_mail ); } else { return @wp_mail( $mail_recipient, $mail_subject, $mail_body, $mail_headers ); } }

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  • How can I append and execute a script inside an iframe in a cross browser way (specifically IE!)?

    - by agmin
    Background: I need to load ad scripts after the DOM has loaded. Because many of the scripts use document.write() and other potentially bad functions to run after the DOM has loaded, I want to load the scripts inside an iframe. So when the ad needs to be shown, an event is triggered which does the following: var iframe = document.createElement('iframe'); iframe.setAttribute('id', 'iframeId'); iframe.setAttribute('src', 'about:blank'); var adContainer = document.getElementById('AdContainer'); adContainer.appendChild(iframe); var val = '<html><head></head><body>'; val += '<scr' + 'ipt type="text/javascript" src="' + url + '"></scr' + 'ipt>'; val += '</body></html>'; If I don't assign the html and body tags to val, the script automatically gets appended to the head of the iframe and fails to execute in FF. In IE, the script doesn't execute with or without the head/body/html tags. var doc = iframe.contentWindow || iframe.contentDocument; if (doc.document){ doc = doc.document } doc.open(); doc.write(val); doc.close(); I found this last bit of code here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1591135/why-does-appending-a-script-to-a-dynamically-created-iframe-seem-to-run-the-s. I do NOT want to load jquery in the iframe though, I just want to append a script and have it execute. My current solution seems to work great in FF and Webkit. However, IE doesn't execute the script. The script is written to the page, but doesn't start running. Is there a better way to append the script to the iframe so it will run cross browser? Or is it possible to tell IE to run the script? I know that I could load an external document with the ad script via the iframe, but I don't want to make the extra call to my server if I can do this dynamically. Also, I've tried using appendChild() on the iframe's body to insert the script, but since the script element is created outside the iframe's DOM this doesn't seem to work.

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  • How to infer the type of a derived class in base class?

    - by enzi
    I want to create a method that allows me to change arbitrary properties of classes that derive from my base class, the result should look like this: SetPropertyValue("size.height", 50); – where size is a property of my derived class and height is a property of size. I'm almost done with my implementation but there's one final obstacle that I want to solve before moving on, to describe this I will first have to explain my implementation a bit: Properties that can be modified are decorated with an attribute There's a method in my base class that searches for all derived classes and their decorated properties For each property I generate a "property modifier", a class that contains 2 delegates: one to set and one to get the value of the property. Property Modifiers are stored in a dictionary, with the name of the property as key In my base class, there is another dictionary that contains all property-modifier-dictionaries, with the Type of the respective class as key. What the SetPropertyValue method does is this: Get the correct property-modifier-dictionary, using the concrete type of the derived class (<- yet to solve) Get the property modifier of the property to change (e.g. of the property size) Use the get or set delegate to modify the property's value Some example code to clarify further: private static Dictionary<RuntimeTypeHandle, object> EditableTypes; //property-modifier-dictionary protected void SetPropertyValue<T>(EditablePropertyMap<T> map, string property, object value) { var property = map[property]; // get the property modifier property.Set((T)this, value); // use the set delegate (encapsulated in a method) } In the above code, T is the Type of the actual (derived) class. I need this type for the get/set delegates. The problem is how to get the EditablePropertyMap<T> when I don't know what T is. My current (ugly) solution is to pass the map in an overriden virtual method in the derived class: public override void SetPropertyValue(string property, object value) { base.SetPropertyValue((EditablePropertyMap<ExampleType>)EditableTypes[typeof(ExampleType)], property, value); } What this does is: get the correct dictionary containing the property modifiers of this class using the class's type, cast it to the appropiate type and pass it to the SetPropertyValue method. I want to get rid of the SetPropertyValue method in my derived class (since there are a lot of derived classes), but don't know yet how to accomplish that. I cannot just make a virtual GetEditablePropertyMap<T> method because I cannot infer a concrete type for T then. I also cannot acces my dictionary directly with a type and retrieve an EditablePropertyMap<T> from it because I cannot cast to it from object in the base class, since again I do not know T. I found some neat tricks to infere types (e.g. by adding a dummy T parameter), but cannot apply them to my specific problem. I'd highly appreciate any suggestions you may have for me.

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  • C# xml Class to substitute ini files

    - by Eduardo
    Hi guys, I am learning Windows Forms in C#.NET 2008 and i want to build a class to work with SIMPLE xml files (config file like INI files), but i just need a simple class (open, getvalue, setvalue, creategroup, save and close functions), to substitute of ini files. I already did something and it is working but I am having trouble when I need to create different groups, something like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <CONFIG> <General> <Field1>192.168.0.2</Field1> </General> <Data> <Field1>Joseph</Field1> <Field2>Locked</Field2> </Data> </CONFIG> how can i specify that i want to read the field1 of [data] group? note that i have same field name in both groups (Field1)! I am using System.Linq, something like this: To open document: XmlDocument xmlDoc = new XmlDocument(); xmlDoc.Load(FilePath); To save document: xmlDoc.Save(FilePath); To get value: public string getValue(string Field) { string result = ""; try { XmlNodeList xmlComum = xmlDoc.GetElementsByTagName(Field); if (xmlComum.Item(0) == null) result = ""; else result = xmlComum.Item(0).InnerText; } catch (Exception ex) { return ""; } return result; } To set value: public void setValue(string Group, string Field, string FieldValue) { try { XmlNodeList xmlComum = xmlDoc.GetElementsByTagName(Field); if (xmlComum.Item(0) == null) { xmlComum = xmlDoc.GetElementsByTagName(Group); if (xmlComum.Item(0) == null) { // create group createGroup(Group); xmlComum = xmlDoc.GetElementsByTagName(Group); } XmlElement xmlE = xmlDoc.CreateElement(Field); XmlText xmlT = xmlDoc.CreateTextNode(FieldValue); xmlE.AppendChild(xmlT); xmlComum.Item(0).AppendChild(xmlE); } else { // item already exists, just change its value xmlComum.Item(0).InnerText = Value; } xmlDoc.Save(FilePath); } catch (Exception ex) { } } The CreateGroup code: public void createGroup(string Group) { try { XmlElement xmlComum = xmlDoc.CreateElement(Group); xmlDoc.DocumentElement.AppendChild(xmlComum); xmlDoc.Save(FilePath); } catch (Exception ex) { } } Thank You!

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  • SWF (using XML) only working locally, not on home server or web hosting server

    - by Andy
    Hi, I use a main SWF file, which has some animations. It uses xml from a .php file which specifies several items, e.g. images and other SWFs to be used in the main SWF. Locally everything works perfectly, but when invoking it via my home server, or hosting provider it doesn't work anymore and I don't get why. All links are relative and correct. Somehow the main SWF doesn't load fully, or has problems with the XML from the .php file. I'm not sure, now I only get a black box that doesn't show any of the other content it's supposed to. check it out: http://deoshermes.ath.cx/cc-common/templates/dynamiclead/dynamic_leadee.swf the XML: <?xml version="1.0" ?><dynamic_content> <item blurb="Text 1" content_url="" content_source="" content_timer="8000" content_target="_self" tab_color="0x000000" tab_border_color="0x000000" tab_arrow_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_text_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_image="/template/images/dle_TOPmay06.jpg" cycle="true" content_border_color="0x" content_bg_image="" tab_hl_color="0x000000" tab_highlight_color="0x" tab_highlight_text_color="0x" tab_highlight_image="" > </item> <item blurb="Text 2" content_timer="5000" cycle="true" content_border_color="0x" content_bg_image="" tab_hl_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_border_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_arrow_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_text_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_image="/template/images/dle_MIDandBOTmay06.jpg" tab_highlight_color="0x" tab_highlight_text_color="0x" tab_highlight_image="" content_url="" content_source="" content_target="_self" > </item> <item blurb="Text 3" content_timer="5000" cycle="true" content_border_color="0x" content_bg_image="" tab_hl_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_border_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_arrow_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_text_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_image="/template/images/dle_MIDandBOTmay06.jpg" tab_highlight_color="0x" tab_highlight_text_color="0x" tab_highlight_image="" content_url="" content_source="" content_target="_self" > </item> </dynamic_content> this works like a charm when invoking the main SWF locally. The ActionScript from the main sWF can be found at samedomain as above/Actionscript_mainmovie.txt This also seems to work great. the function formattabs (line 68) uses some javascript. Locally the main SWF functions even without this hbx file which is located /cc-common/wss/hbx.js and use in the webpage actually. I haven't got a clue what's keeping the main SWF from working properly, because all other single SWFs work properly when invoked using a direct link. And this one just isn't working... Do I maybe need to add something in the php.ini file?? Any help would be appreciated!

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  • How should I organize my C# classes? [closed]

    - by oscar.fimbres
    I'm creating an email generator system. I'm creating some clases and I'm trying to make things right. By the time, I have created 5 classes. Look at the class diagram: I'm going to explain you each one. Person. It's not a big deal. Just have two constructors: Person(fname, lname1, lname2) and Person(token, fname, lname1, lname2). Note that email property stays without value. StringGenerator. This is a static class and it has only a public function: Generate. The function receives a Person class and it will return a list of patterns for the email. MySql. It contains all the necessary to connect to a database. Database. This class inherits from MySql class. It has particular functions for the database. This gets all the registries from a table (function GetPeople) and return a List. Each person from the list contains all data except Email. Also it can add records (List but this must contains an available email). An available email is when an email doesn't have another person. For that reason, I have a method named ExistsEmail. Container. This is the class which is causing me some problems. It's like a temporary container. It supposed to have a people list from GetPeople (in Database class) and for each person it adds, it must generate a list of possible names (StringGenerator.Generate), then it selects one of the list and it must check out if exists in the database or in the same container. As I told above this is temporal, it may none of the possible emails is available. So the user can modify or enter a custom email available and update the list in this container. When all the email's people are available, it sends a list to add in the database, It must have a Flush method, to insert all the people in the database. I'm trying to design correct class. I need a little help to improve or edite the classes, because I want to separate the logic and visual, and learn of you. I hope you've been able to understand me. Any question or doubt, please let me know. Anyway, I attached the solution here to better understand it: http://www.megaupload.com/?d=D94FH8GZ

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  • Why does the Ternary\Conditional operator seem significantly faster

    - by Jodrell
    Following on from this question, which I have partially answered. I compile this console app in x64 Release Mode, with optimizations on, and run it from the command line without a debugger attached. using System; using System.Diagnostics; class Program { static void Main() { var stopwatch = new Stopwatch(); var ternary = Looper(10, Ternary); var normal = Looper(10, Normal); if (ternary != normal) { throw new Exception(); } stopwatch.Start(); ternary = Looper(10000000, Ternary); stopWatch.Stop(); Console.WriteLine( "Ternary took {0}ms", stopwatch.ElapsedMilliseconds); stopwatch.Start(); normal = Looper(10000000, Normal); stopWatch.Stop(); Console.WriteLine( "Normal took {0}ms", stopwatch.ElapsedMilliseconds); if (ternary != normal) { throw new Exception(); } Console.ReadKey(); } static int Looper(int iterations, Func<bool, int, int> operation) { var result = 0; for (int i = 0; i < iterations; i++) { var condition = result % 11 == 4; var value = ((i * 11) / 3) % 5; result = operation(condition, value); } return result; } static int Ternary(bool condition, in value) { return value + (condition ? 2 : 1); } static int Normal(int iterations) { if (condition) { return = 2 + value; } return = 1 + value; } } I don't get any exceptions and the output to the console is somthing close to, Ternary took 107ms Normal took 230ms When I break down the CIL for the two logical functions I get this, ... Ternary ... { : ldarg.1 // push second arg : ldarg.0 // push first arg : brtrue.s T // if first arg is true jump to T : ldc.i4.1 // push int32(1) : br.s F // jump to F T: ldc.i4.2 // push int32(2) F: add // add either 1 or 2 to second arg : ret // return result } ... Normal ... { : ldarg.0 // push first arg : brfalse.s F // if first arg is false jump to F : ldc.i4.2 // push int32(2) : ldarg.1 // push second arg : add // add second arg to 2 : ret // return result F: ldc.i4.1 // push int32(1) : ldarg.1 // push second arg : add // add second arg to 1 : ret // return result } Whilst the Ternary CIL is a little shorter, it seems to me that the execution path through the CIL for either function takes 3 loads and 1 or 2 jumps and a return. Why does the Ternary function appear to be twice as fast. I underdtand that, in practice, they are both very quick and indeed, quich enough but, I would like to understand the discrepancy.

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  • vb.net how to start a folder monitor service at runtime and pass on the folder path to monitor?

    - by mazrabul
    hi, I have the following windows service file: Imports System.ServiceProcess Imports System.IO Public Class fswService Dim fsw As FileSystemWatcher Dim lf As StreamWriter Protected Overrides Sub OnStart(ByVal args As String()) ' Add code here to start your service. This method should set things ' in motion so your service can do its work. lf = New StreamWriter(Application.StartupPath & "\fsw_lg.log") fsw = New FileSystemWatcher() fsw.Path = args(0) fsw.IncludeSubdirectories = True fsw.Filter = ".txt" fsw.EnableRaisingEvents = True AddHandler fsw.Created, New FileSystemEventHandler(AddressOf file_created) AddHandler fsw.Changed, New FileSystemEventHandler(AddressOf file_changed) AddHandler fsw.Deleted, New FileSystemEventHandler(AddressOf file_deleted) End Sub Public Sub file_created(ByVal obj As Object, ByVal e As FileSystemEventArgs) lf.WriteLine(Now.ToShortDateString & "-" & Now.ToShortTimeString & "-" & e.FullPath & "-created") End Sub Public Sub file_changed(ByVal obj As Object, ByVal e As FileSystemEventArgs) lf.WriteLine(Now.ToShortDateString & "-" & Now.ToShortTimeString & "-" & e.FullPath & "-changed") End Sub Public Sub file_deleted(ByVal obj As Object, ByVal e As FileSystemEventArgs) lf.WriteLine(Now.ToShortDateString & "-" & Now.ToShortTimeString & "-" & e.FullPath & "-deleted") End Sub Protected Overrides Sub OnStop() lf.Close() End Sub End Class i have the ServiceName set to fswService (same as class name). When I added an installer I also set the ServiceName for the ServiceInstaller1 as fswService. I want to start this service at runtime based on the user setting the path of the folder to be watched. To achieve this I have the following: Dim fsw_controller As New ServiceProcess.ServiceController fsw_controller.Start(fswService) 2 problems: first, intellisense error saying: 'fswService' is a type and cannot be used as an expression. second, I can not figure out a way to pass on to the service the path of the folder to watch (which is stored at My.Settings.userPath). I really thought this is how you start a service. Am I missing something? Your help is, as always, appreciated. Thanks

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  • Copy image to BLOB from client pc aka Java function in Oracle

    - by mumich
    Hi guys, I've been stuck with this for past two days. I've go java function stored in Oracle system which is supposed to copy image from local drive do remote database and store it in BLOB - it's called CopyBLOB and looks like this: import java.sql.*; import oracle.sql.*; import java.io.*; public class CopyBLOB { static int id; static String fileName = null; static Connection conn = null; public CopyBLOB(int idz, String f) { id = idz; fileName = f; } public static void copy(int ident, String path) throws SQLException, FileNotFoundException { CopyBLOB cpB = new CopyBLOB(ident, path); cpB.getConnection(); cpB.callUpdate(id, fileName); } public void getConnection() throws SQLException { DriverManager.registerDriver (new oracle.jdbc.OracleDriver()); try { conn = DriverManager.getConnection("jdbc:oracle:thin:@oraserv.ms.mff.cuni.cz:1521:db", "xxx", "xxx"); } catch (SQLException sqlex) { System.out.println("SQLException while getting db connection: "+sqlex); if (conn != null) conn.close(); } catch (Exception ex) { System.out.println("Exception while getting db connection: "+ex); if (conn != null) conn.close(); } } public void callUpdate(int id, String file ) throws SQLException, FileNotFoundException { CallableStatement cs = null; try { conn.setAutoCommit(false); File f = new File(file); FileInputStream fin = new FileInputStream(f); cs = (CallableStatement) conn.prepareCall( "begin add_image(?,?); end;" ); cs.setInt(1, id ); cs.setBinaryStream(2, fin, (int) f.length()); cs.execute(); conn.setAutoCommit(true); } catch ( SQLException sqlex ) { System.out.println("SQLException in callUpdateUsingStream method of given status : " + sqlex.getMessage() ); } catch ( FileNotFoundException fnex ) { System.out.println("FileNotFoundException in callUpdateUsingStream method of given status : " + fnex.getMessage() ); } finally { try { if (cs != null) cs.close(); if (conn != null) conn.close(); } catch ( Exception ex ) { System.out.println("Some exception in callUpdateUsingStream method of given status : " + ex.getMessage( ) ); } } } } The wrapper function is defined in package "MyPackage" as folows: procedure image_adder( id varchar2, path varchar2 ) AS language java name 'CopyBLOB.copy(java.lang.String, java.lang.String)'; And the inserting function called image_add is as simple as this: procedure add_image( id numeric(10), pic blob) AS BEGIN insert into pictures values (seq_pic.nextval, id, pic); END add_image; Now the problem: When I type call MyPackage.image_adder(1, 'd:\samples\img.jpg'); I get the ORA-29531 Error: No method copy in class CopyBLOB. Can you help me, please?

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  • Changing the title of jQuery-UI dialog-box with in another dialog-box's function...

    - by Brian Ojeda
    Why doesn't doesn't the second jQuery-UI dialog box title change when popped. The first dialog box I change the title of the box with using the following .attr("title", "Confirm") -- it change the title of the first box to 'Confirm', like it should have. Now when the second box pops up it should change the title to 'Message' since did the same thing for the second box -- .attr("title", "Message"). Right? But it doesnt. It keep the title from before. However, the message change like it should have. I have tested in IE8, Chrome, and FF3.6. <div id="dialog-confirm" title=""></div> <-- This is the html before jQuery functions. Javascript / jQuery $('#userDelete').click(function() { $(function() { var dialogIcon = "<span class=\"ui-icon ui-icon-alert\"></span>"; var dialogMessage = dialogIcon + "Are you sure you want to delete?"; $("#dialog-confirm").attr("title", "Confirm").html(dialogMessage).dialog({ resizable: false, height: 125, width: 300, modal: true, buttons: { 'Delete': function() { $(this).dialog('close'); $.post('user_ajax.php', {action: 'delete', aId: $('[name=aId]').val() }, function(data) { if(data.success){ var dialogIcon = "<span class=\"ui-icon ui-icon-info\"></span>"; var dialogMessage = dialogIcon + data.message; $('#dialog-confirm').attr("title", "Message"); $('#dialog-confirm').html(dialogMessage); $('#dialog-confirm').dialog({ resizable: false, height: 125, width: 300, modal: true, buttons: { 'Okay': function() { $(this).dialog('close'); var url = $_httpaddress + "admin/index.php" $(location).attr('href',url); } // End of Okay Button Function } //--- End of Dialog Button Script });//--- End of Dialog Function } else { $_messageConsole.slideDown(); $_messageConsole.html(data.message); } }, 'json'); }, //--- End of Delete Button Function 'Cancel': function() { $(this).dialog('close'); } //--- End of Cancel Button Function } //--- End of Dialog Button Script }); //--- End of Dialog Script }); //--- End of Dialog Function return false; }); Thank you for you assistant, if you choose to help.

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  • How should I ethically approach user password storage for later plaintext retrieval?

    - by Shane
    As I continue to build more and more websites and web applications I am often asked to store user's passwords in a way that they can be retrieved if/when the user has an issue (either to email a forgotten password link, walk them through over the phone, etc.) When I can I fight bitterly against this practice and I do a lot of ‘extra’ programming to make password resets and administrative assistance possible without storing their actual password. When I can’t fight it (or can’t win) then I always encode the password in some way so that it at least isn’t stored as plaintext in the database—though I am aware that if my DB gets hacked that it won’t take much for the culprit to crack the passwords as well—so that makes me uncomfortable. In a perfect world folks would update passwords frequently and not duplicate them across many different sites—unfortunately I know MANY people that have the same work/home/email/bank password, and have even freely given it to me when they need assistance. I don’t want to be the one responsible for their financial demise if my DB security procedures fail for some reason. Morally and ethically I feel responsible for protecting what can be, for some users, their livelihood even if they are treating it with much less respect. I am certain that there are many avenues to approach and arguments to be made for salting hashes and different encoding options, but is there a single ‘best practice’ when you have to store them? In almost all cases I am using PHP and MySQL if that makes any difference in the way I should handle the specifics. Additional Information for Bounty I want to clarify that I know this is not something you want to have to do and that in most cases refusal to do so is best. I am, however, not looking for a lecture on the merits of taking this approach I am looking for the best steps to take if you do take this approach. In a note below I made the point that websites geared largely toward the elderly, mentally challenged, or very young can become confusing for people when they are asked to perform a secure password recovery routine. Though we may find it simple and mundane in those cases some users need the extra assistance of either having a service tech help them into the system or having it emailed/displayed directly to them. In such systems the attrition rate from these demographics could hobble the application if users were not given this level of access assistance, so please answer with such a setup in mind. Thanks to Everyone This has been a fun questions with lots of debate and I have enjoyed it. In the end I selected an answer that both retains password security (I will not have to keep plain text or recoverable passwords), but also makes it possible for the user base I specified to log into a system without the major drawbacks I have found from normal password recovery. As always there were about 5 answers that I would like to have marked correct for different reasons, but I had to choose the best one--all the rest got a +1. Thanks everyone!

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  • Cannot extend a class located in another file, PHP

    - by NightMICU
    I am trying to set up a class with commonly used tasks, such as preparing strings for input into a database and creating a PDO object. I would like to include this file in other class files and extend those classes to use the common class' code. However, when I place the common class in its own file and include it in the class it will be used in, I receive an error that states the second class cannot be found. For example, if the class name is foo and it is extending bar (the common class, located elsewhere), the error says that foo cannot be found. But if I place the code for class bar in the same file as foo, it works. Here are the classes in question - Common Class abstract class coreFunctions { protected $contentDB; public function __construct() { $this->contentDB = new PDO('mysql:host=localhost;dbname=db', 'username', 'password'); } public function cleanStr($string) { $cleansed = trim($string); $cleansed = stripslashes($cleansed); $cleansed = strip_tags($cleansed); return $cleansed; } } Code from individual class include $_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT'] . '/includes/class.core-functions.php'; $mode = $_POST['mode']; if (isset($mode)) { $gallery = new gallery; switch ($mode) { case 'addAlbum': $gallery->addAlbum($_POST['hash'], $_POST['title'], $_POST['description']); } } class gallery extends coreFunctions { private function directoryPath($string) { $path = trim($string); $path = strtolower($path); $path = preg_replace('/[^ \pL \pN]/', '', $path); $path = preg_replace('[\s+]', '', $path); $path = substr($path, 0, 18); return $path; } public function addAlbum($hash, $title, $description) { $title = $this->cleanStr($title); $description = $this->cleanStr($description); $path = $this->directoryPath($title); if ($title && $description && $hash) { $addAlbum = $this->contentDB->prepare("INSERT INTO gallery_albums (albumHash, albumTitle, albumDescription, albumPath) VALUES (:hash, :title, :description, :path)"); $addAlbum->execute(array('hash' => $hash, 'title' => $title, 'description' => $description, 'path' => $path)); } } } The error when I try it this way is Fatal error: Class 'gallery' not found in /home/opheliad/public_html/admin/photo-gallery/includes/class.admin_photo-gallery.php on line 10

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  • Can I use the [] operator in C++ to create virtual arrays

    - by Shane MacLaughlin
    I have a large code base, originally C ported to C++ many years ago, that is operating on a number of large arrays of spatial data. These arrays contain structs representing point and triangle entities that represent surface models. I need to refactor the code such that the specific way these entities are stored internally varies for specific scenarios. For example if the points lie on a regular flat grid, I don't need to store the X and Y coordinates, as they can be calculated on the fly, as can the triangles. Similarly, I want to take advantage of out of core tools such as STXXL for storage. The simplest way of doing this is replacing array access with put and get type functions, e.g. point[i].x = XV; becomes Point p = GetPoint(i); p.x = XV; PutPoint(i,p); As you can imagine, this is a very tedious refactor on a large code base, prone to all sorts of errors en route. What I'd like to do is write a class that mimics the array by overloading the [] operator. As the arrays already live on the heap, and move around with reallocs, the code already assumes that references into the array such as point *p = point + i; may not be used. Is this class feasible to write? For example writing the methods below in terms of the [] operator; void MyClass::PutPoint(int Index, Point p) { if (m_StorageStrategy == RegularGrid) { int xoffs,yoffs; ComputeGridFromIndex(Index,xoffs,yoffs); StoreGridPoint(xoffs,yoffs,p.z); } else m_PointArray[Index] = p; } } Point MyClass::GetPoint(int Index) { if (m_StorageStrategy == RegularGrid) { int xoffs,yoffs; ComputeGridFromIndex(Index,xoffs,yoffs); return GetGridPoint(xoffs,yoffs); // GetGridPoint returns Point } else return m_PointArray[Index]; } } My concern is that all the array classes I've seen tend to pass by reference, whereas I think I'll have to pass structs by value. I think it should work put other than performance, can anyone see any major pitfalls with this approach. n.b. the reason I have to pass by value is to get point[a].z = point[b].z + point[c].z to work correctly where the underlying storage type varies.

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  • Loosely coupled implicit conversion

    - by ltjax
    Implicit conversion can be really useful when types are semantically equivalent. For example, imagine two libraries that implement a type identically, but in different namespaces. Or just a type that is mostly identical, except for some semantic-sugar here and there. Now you cannot pass one type into a function (in one of those libraries) that was designed to use the other, unless that function is a template. If it's not, you have to somehow convert one type into the other. This should be trivial (or otherwise the types are not so identical after-all!) but calling the conversion explicitly bloats your code with mostly meaningless function-calls. While such conversion functions might actually copy some values around, they essentially do nothing from a high-level "programmers" point-of-view. Implicit conversion constructors and operators could obviously help, but they introduce coupling, so that one of those types has to know about the other. Usually, at least when dealing with libraries, that is not the case, because the presence of one of those types makes the other one redundant. Also, you cannot always change libraries. Now I see two options on how to make implicit conversion work in user-code: The first would be to provide a proxy-type, that implements conversion-operators and conversion-constructors (and assignments) for all the involved types, and always use that. The second requires a minimal change to the libraries, but allows great flexibility: Add a conversion-constructor for each involved type that can be externally optionally enabled. For example, for a type A add a constructor: template <class T> A( const T& src, typename boost::enable_if<conversion_enabled<T,A>>::type* ignore=0 ) { *this = convert(src); } and a template template <class X, class Y> struct conversion_enabled : public boost::mpl::false_ {}; that disables the implicit conversion by default. Then to enable conversion between two types, specialize the template: template <> struct conversion_enabled<OtherA, A> : public boost::mpl::true_ {}; and implement a convert function that can be found through ADL. I would personally prefer to use the second variant, unless there are strong arguments against it. Now to the actual question(s): What's the preferred way to associate types for implicit conversion? Are my suggestions good ideas? Are there any downsides to either approach? Is allowing conversions like that dangerous? Should library implementers in-general supply the second method when it's likely that their type will be replicated in software they are most likely beeing used with (I'm thinking of 3d-rendering middle-ware here, where most of those packages implement a 3D vector).

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  • C# Type Casting at Runtimefor Array.SetValue

    - by sprocketonline
    I'm trying to create an array using reflection, and insert values into it. I'm trying to do this for many different types so would like a createAndFillArray function capable of this : Type t1 = typeof(A); Type t2 = typeof(B); double exampleA = 22.5; int exampleB = 43; Array arrA = createAndFillArray(t1, exampleA); Array arrB = createAndFillArray(t2, exampleB); private Array createAndFillArray(Type t, object val){ Array arr = Array.CreateInstance( t, 1); //length 1 in this example only, real-world is of variable length. arr.SetValue( val, 0 ); //this causes the following error: "System.InvalidCastException : Object cannot be stored in an array of this type." return arr; } with the class A being as follows: public class A{ public A(){} private double val; public double Value{ get{ return val; } set{ this.val = value; } } public static implicit operator A(double d){ A a = new A(); a.Value = d; return a; } } and class B being very similar, but with int: public class B{ public B(){} private double val; public double Value{ get{ return val; } set{ this.val = value; } } public static implicit operator B(double d){ B b = new B(); b.Value = d; return b; } } I hoped that the implicit operator would have ensured that the double be converted to class A, or the int to class B, and the error avoided; but this is obviously not so. The above is used in a custom deserialization class, which takes data from a custom data format and fills in the corresponding .Net object properties. I'm doing this via reflection and at runtime, so I think both are unavoidable. I'm targeting the C# 2.0 framework. I've dozens, if not hundreds, of classes similar to A and B, so would prefer to find a solution which improved on the createAndFillArray method rather than a solution which altered these classes.

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  • Lift session valid ajax callback from a static javascript

    - by ChrisJamesC
    I am currently implementing a graph visualisation tool using lift on the server side and d3 ( a javascript visualisation framework) for all the visualisation. The problem I have is that in the script I want to get session dependent data from the server. So basically, my objective is to write lift-valid ajax callbacks in a static js script. Here is what I tried so far: What I have tried so far If you feel that the best solution is one that I already tried feel free to post a detailed answer telling me how to use it exactly and how it completely solves my problem. REST interface Usually what one would do to get data from a javascript function in lift is to create a REST interface. However this interface will not be linked to any session. This is the solution I got from my previous question: Get json data in d3 from lift snippet Give function as argument of script Another solution would be to give the ajaxcallback as an argument of the main script called to generate my graph. However I expect to have a lot of callbacks and I don't want to have to mess with the arguments of my script. Write the ajax callback in another script using lift and call it from the main script This solution, which is similar to a hidden text input is probably the more likely to work. However it is not elegant and it would mean that I would have to load a lot of scripts on load, which is not really conveniant. Write the whole script in lift and then serve it to the client This solution can be elegant, however my script is very long and I would really prefer that it remainss static. What I want On client side While reviewing the source code of my webpage I found that the callback for an ajaxSelect is: <select onchange="liftAjax.lift_ajaxHandler('F966066257023LYKF4=' + encodeURIComponent(this.value), null, null, null)" name="F96606625703QXTSWU" id="node_delete" class="input"> Moreover, there is a variable containing the state of the page in the end of the webpage: var lift_page = "F96606625700QRXLDO"; So, I am wondering if it is possible to simulate that my ajaxcall is valid using this liftAjax.lift_ajaxHandler function. However I don't know the exact synthax to use. On server side Since I "forged" a request on client side, I would now like to get the request on client side and to dispatch it to the correct function. This is where the LiftRules.dispatch object seems the best solution: when it is called, all the session management has been made (the request is authentified and linked to a session), however I don't know how to write the correct piece of code in the append function. Remark In lift all names of variables are changed to a random string in order to increase the security, I would like to have the same behavior in my application even if that will probably mean that I will have to "give" the javascript these values. However an array of 15 string values is still a better tradeoff than 15 functions as argument of a javascript function.

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  • jquery in ajax loaded content

    - by Kim Gysen
    My application is supposed to be a single page application and I have the following code that works fine: home.php: <div id="container"> </div> accordion.php: //Click functions: load content $('#parents').click(function(){ //Load parent in container $('#container').load('http://www.blabla.com/entities/parents/parents.php'); }); parents.php: <div class="entity_wrapper"> Some divs and selectors </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ //Some jQuery / javascript }); </script> So the content loads fine, while the scripts dynamically loaded execute fine as well. I apply this system repetitively and it continues to work smoothly. I've seen that there are a lot of frameworks available on SPA's (such as backbone.js) but I don't understand why I need them if this works fine. From the backbone.js website: When working on a web application that involves a lot of JavaScript, one of the first things you learn is to stop tying your data to the DOM. It's all too easy to create JavaScript applications that end up as tangled piles of jQuery selectors and callbacks, all trying frantically to keep data in sync between the HTML UI, your JavaScript logic, and the database on your server. For rich client-side applications, a more structured approach is often helpful. Well, I totally don't have the feeling that I'm going through the stuff they mention. Adding the javascript per page works really well for me. They are html containers with clear scope and the javascript is just related to that part. More over, the front end doesn't do that much, most of the logic is managed based on Ajax calls to external PHP scripts. Sometimes the js can be a bit more extended for some functionalities, but all just loads as smooth in less than a second. If you think that this is bad coding, please tell me why I cannot do this and more importantly, what is the alternative I should apply. At the moment, I really don't see a reason on why I would change this approach as it just works too well. I'm kinda stuck on this question because it just worries me sick as it seems to easy to be true. Why would people go through hard times if it would be as easy as this...

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  • Is there some way to make variables like $a and $b in regard to strict?

    - by Axeman
    In light of Michael Carman's comment, I have decided to rewrite the question. Note that 11 comments appear before this edit, and give credence to Michael's observation that I did not write the question in a way that made it clear what I was asking. Question: What is the standard--or cleanest way--to fake the special status that $a and $b have in regard to strict by simply importing a module? First of all some setup. The following works: #!/bin/perl use strict; print "\$a=$a\n"; print "\$b=$b\n"; If I add one more line: print "\$c=$c\n"; I get an error at compile time, which means that none of my dazzling print code gets to run. If I comment out use strict; it runs fine. Outside of strictures, $a and $b are mainly special in that sort passes the two values to be compared with those names. my @reverse_order = sort { $b <=> $a } @unsorted; Thus the main functional difference about $a and $b--even though Perl "knows their names"--is that you'd better know this when you sort, or use some of the functions in List::Util. It's only when you use strict, that $a and $b become special variables in a whole new way. They are the only variables that strict will pass over without complaining that they are not declared. : Now, I like strict, but it strikes me that if TIMTOWTDI (There is more than one way to do it) is Rule #1 in Perl, this is not very TIMTOWDI. It says that $a and $b are special and that's it. If you want to use variables you don't have to declare $a and $b are your guys. If you want to have three variables by adding $c, suddenly there's a whole other way to do it. Nevermind that in manipulating hashes $k and $v might make more sense: my %starts_upper_1_to_25 = skim { $k =~ m/^\p{IsUpper}/ && ( 1 <= $v && $v <= 25 ) } %my_hash ;` Now, I use and I like strict. But I just want $k and $v to be visible to skim for the most compact syntax. And I'd like it to be visible simply by use Hash::Helper qw<skim>; I'm not asking this question to know how to black-magic it. My "answer" below, should let you know that I know enough Perl to be dangerous. I'm asking if there is a way to make strict accept other variables, or what is the cleanest solution. The answer could well be no. If that's the case, it simply does not seem very TIMTOWTDI.

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