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  • assignment not working in a dll exported C++ class

    - by Jim Jones
    Using VS 2008 Have a C++ class in which I'm calling functions from a 3rd party dll. The definition in the header file is as follows: namespace OITImageExport { class ImageExport { private: SCCERR seResult; /* Error code returned. */ VTHDOC hDoc; /* Input doc handle returned by DAOpenDocument(). */ VTHEXPORT hExport; /* Handle to the export returned by EXOpenExport(). */ VTDWORD dwFIFlags; /* Used in setting the SCCOPT_FIFLAGS option. */ VTCHAR szError[256]; /* Error string buffer. */ VTDWORD dwOutputId; /* Output Format. */ VTDWORD dwSpecType; public: ImageExport(const char* outputId, const char* specType); void ProcessDocument(const char* inputPath, const char* outputPath); ~ImageExport(); }; } In the constructor I initialize two of the class fields having values which come from enumerations in the 3rd party dll: ImageExport::ImageExport(const char* outputId, const char* specType) { if(outputId == "jpeg") { dwOutputId = FI_JPEGFIF; } if(specType == "ansi") { dwSpecType = IOTYPE_ANSIPATH; } seResult = DAInit(); if (seResult != SCCERR_OK) { DAGetErrorString(seResult, szError, sizeof(szError)); fprintf(stderr, "DAInit() failed: %s (0x%04X)\n", szError, seResult); exit(seResult); } } When I use this class inside of a console app, with a main method in another file (all in the same namespace), instantiating the class object and calling the methods, it works like a champ. So, now that I know the basic code works, I open a dll project using the class header and code file. Course I have to add the dll macro, namely: #ifdef IMAGEDLL_EXPORTS #define DLL __declspec(dllexport) #else #define DLL __declspec(dllimport) #endif and changed the class definition to "class DLL ImageExport". Compiled nicely to a dll and .lib file (No errors, No warnings). Now to test this dll I open another console project using the same main method as before and linking to the (dll) lib file. Had problems, which when tracked down were the result of the two fields not being set; both had values of 0. Went back to the first console app and printed out the values: dwOutputId was 1535 (#define FI_JPEGFIF 1535) and dwSpecType was 2 (#define IOTYPE_ANSIPATH 2). Now if I was assigning these values outside of the class, I can see how the visibility could be different, but why is the assignment in the dll not working? Is it something about having a class in the dll?

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  • Cannot extend a class located in another file, PHP

    - by NightMICU
    I am trying to set up a class with commonly used tasks, such as preparing strings for input into a database and creating a PDO object. I would like to include this file in other class files and extend those classes to use the common class' code. However, when I place the common class in its own file and include it in the class it will be used in, I receive an error that states the second class cannot be found. For example, if the class name is foo and it is extending bar (the common class, located elsewhere), the error says that foo cannot be found. But if I place the code for class bar in the same file as foo, it works. Here are the classes in question - Common Class abstract class coreFunctions { protected $contentDB; public function __construct() { $this->contentDB = new PDO('mysql:host=localhost;dbname=db', 'username', 'password'); } public function cleanStr($string) { $cleansed = trim($string); $cleansed = stripslashes($cleansed); $cleansed = strip_tags($cleansed); return $cleansed; } } Code from individual class include $_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT'] . '/includes/class.core-functions.php'; $mode = $_POST['mode']; if (isset($mode)) { $gallery = new gallery; switch ($mode) { case 'addAlbum': $gallery->addAlbum($_POST['hash'], $_POST['title'], $_POST['description']); } } class gallery extends coreFunctions { private function directoryPath($string) { $path = trim($string); $path = strtolower($path); $path = preg_replace('/[^ \pL \pN]/', '', $path); $path = preg_replace('[\s+]', '', $path); $path = substr($path, 0, 18); return $path; } public function addAlbum($hash, $title, $description) { $title = $this->cleanStr($title); $description = $this->cleanStr($description); $path = $this->directoryPath($title); if ($title && $description && $hash) { $addAlbum = $this->contentDB->prepare("INSERT INTO gallery_albums (albumHash, albumTitle, albumDescription, albumPath) VALUES (:hash, :title, :description, :path)"); $addAlbum->execute(array('hash' => $hash, 'title' => $title, 'description' => $description, 'path' => $path)); } } } The error when I try it this way is Fatal error: Class 'gallery' not found in /home/opheliad/public_html/admin/photo-gallery/includes/class.admin_photo-gallery.php on line 10

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  • Flex bug?? Get messed up stacked ColumnChart with type="100%"

    - by Nir
    I am trying to do a stacked Column chart with type="100%" and a mixture of positive and negative values. When all the values are positive, is functions well, but when negative numbers come to the game, it looks totally messed up. When I also look at Adobe documentation (look here), I see the following code for stacked column chart involving negative numbers: <?xml version="1.0"?> <!-- charts/StackedNegative.mxml --> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml"> <mx:Script><![CDATA[ import mx.collections.ArrayCollection; [Bindable] public var expenses:ArrayCollection = new ArrayCollection([ {Month:"Jan", Profit:-2000, Expenses:-1500}, {Month:"Feb", Profit:1000, Expenses:-200}, {Month:"Mar", Profit:1500, Expenses:-500} ]); ]]></mx:Script> <mx:Panel title="Column Chart"> <mx:ColumnChart id="myChart" dataProvider="{expenses}" showDataTips="true"> <mx:horizontalAxis> <mx:CategoryAxis dataProvider="{expenses}" categoryField="Month" /> </mx:horizontalAxis> <mx:series> <mx:ColumnSet type="stacked" allowNegativeForStacked="true"> <mx:series> <mx:ColumnSeries xField="Month" yField="Profit" displayName="Profit" /> <mx:ColumnSeries xField="Month" yField="Expenses" displayName="Expenses" /> </mx:series> </mx:ColumnSet> </mx:series> </mx:ColumnChart> <mx:Legend dataProvider="{myChart}"/> </mx:Panel> </mx:Application> It works fine. But try to change: <mx:ColumnSet type="stacked" allowNegativeForStacked="true"> to: <mx:ColumnSet type="100%" allowNegativeForStacked="true"> and you'll see that it doesn't on January data, where both values are negative, the chart shows as if they are positive, and on the other two where one value is positive and the other is negative, it shows only the positive part as 100%... Isn't it a Flex Bug? I have my own case with such data and it behaves wrong the same way. I'd expect that if it has 800 stacked on -200, it will show 80% up and 20% down, totalling 100%. BTW: Using Flex 4, though these are all mx components. Thanks a lot and regards from Berlin, Germany, Nir.

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  • Why does the Ternary\Conditional operator seem significantly faster

    - by Jodrell
    Following on from this question, which I have partially answered. I compile this console app in x64 Release Mode, with optimizations on, and run it from the command line without a debugger attached. using System; using System.Diagnostics; class Program { static void Main() { var stopwatch = new Stopwatch(); var ternary = Looper(10, Ternary); var normal = Looper(10, Normal); if (ternary != normal) { throw new Exception(); } stopwatch.Start(); ternary = Looper(10000000, Ternary); stopWatch.Stop(); Console.WriteLine( "Ternary took {0}ms", stopwatch.ElapsedMilliseconds); stopwatch.Start(); normal = Looper(10000000, Normal); stopWatch.Stop(); Console.WriteLine( "Normal took {0}ms", stopwatch.ElapsedMilliseconds); if (ternary != normal) { throw new Exception(); } Console.ReadKey(); } static int Looper(int iterations, Func<bool, int, int> operation) { var result = 0; for (int i = 0; i < iterations; i++) { var condition = result % 11 == 4; var value = ((i * 11) / 3) % 5; result = operation(condition, value); } return result; } static int Ternary(bool condition, in value) { return value + (condition ? 2 : 1); } static int Normal(int iterations) { if (condition) { return = 2 + value; } return = 1 + value; } } I don't get any exceptions and the output to the console is somthing close to, Ternary took 107ms Normal took 230ms When I break down the CIL for the two logical functions I get this, ... Ternary ... { : ldarg.1 // push second arg : ldarg.0 // push first arg : brtrue.s T // if first arg is true jump to T : ldc.i4.1 // push int32(1) : br.s F // jump to F T: ldc.i4.2 // push int32(2) F: add // add either 1 or 2 to second arg : ret // return result } ... Normal ... { : ldarg.0 // push first arg : brfalse.s F // if first arg is false jump to F : ldc.i4.2 // push int32(2) : ldarg.1 // push second arg : add // add second arg to 2 : ret // return result F: ldc.i4.1 // push int32(1) : ldarg.1 // push second arg : add // add second arg to 1 : ret // return result } Whilst the Ternary CIL is a little shorter, it seems to me that the execution path through the CIL for either function takes 3 loads and 1 or 2 jumps and a return. Why does the Ternary function appear to be twice as fast. I underdtand that, in practice, they are both very quick and indeed, quich enough but, I would like to understand the discrepancy.

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  • Loading datasets from datastore and merge into single dictionary. Resource problem.

    - by fredrik
    Hi, I have a productdatabase that contains products, parts and labels for each part based on langcodes. The problem I'm having and haven't got around is a huge amount of resource used to get the different datasets and merging them into a dict to suit my needs. The products in the database are based on a number of parts that is of a certain type (ie. color, size). And each part has a label for each language. I created 4 different models for this. Products, ProductParts, ProductPartTypes and ProductPartLabels. I've narrowed it down to about 10 lines of code that seams to generate the problem. As of currently I have 3 Products, 3 Types, 3 parts for each type, and 2 languages. And the request takes a wooping 5500ms to generate. for product in productData: productDict = {} typeDict = {} productDict['productName'] = product.name cache_key = 'productparts_%s' % (slugify(product.key())) partData = memcache.get(cache_key) if not partData: for type in typeData: typeDict[type.typeId] = { 'default' : '', 'optional' : [] } ## Start of problem lines ## for defaultPart in product.defaultPartsData: for label in labelsForLangCode: if label.key() in defaultPart.partLabelList: typeDict[defaultPart.type.typeId]['default'] = label.partLangLabel for optionalPart in product.optionalPartsData: for label in labelsForLangCode: if label.key() in optionalPart.partLabelList: typeDict[optionalPart.type.typeId]['optional'].append(label.partLangLabel) ## end problem lines ## memcache.add(cache_key, typeDict, 500) partData = memcache.get(cache_key) productDict['parts'] = partData productList.append(productDict) I guess the problem lies in the number of for loops is too many and have to iterate over the same data over and over again. labelForLangCode get all labels from ProductPartLabels that match the current langCode. All parts for a product is stored in a db.ListProperty(db.key). The same goes for all labels for a part. The reason I need the some what complex dict is that I want to display all data for a product with it's default parts and show a selector for the optional one. The defaultPartsData and optionaPartsData are properties in the Product Model that looks like this: @property def defaultPartsData(self): return ProductParts.gql('WHERE __key__ IN :key', key = self.defaultParts) @property def optionalPartsData(self): return ProductParts.gql('WHERE __key__ IN :key', key = self.optionalParts) When the completed dict is in the memcache it works smoothly, but isn't the memcache reset if the application goes in to hibernation? Also I would like to show the page for first time user(memcache empty) with out the enormous delay. Also as I said above, this is only a small amount of parts/product. What will the result be when it's 30 products with 100 parts. Is one solution to create a scheduled task to cache it in the memcache every hour? It this efficient? I know this is alot to take in, but I'm stuck. I've been at this for about 12 hours straight. And can't figure out a solution. ..fredrik

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  • How can I append and execute a script inside an iframe in a cross browser way (specifically IE!)?

    - by agmin
    Background: I need to load ad scripts after the DOM has loaded. Because many of the scripts use document.write() and other potentially bad functions to run after the DOM has loaded, I want to load the scripts inside an iframe. So when the ad needs to be shown, an event is triggered which does the following: var iframe = document.createElement('iframe'); iframe.setAttribute('id', 'iframeId'); iframe.setAttribute('src', 'about:blank'); var adContainer = document.getElementById('AdContainer'); adContainer.appendChild(iframe); var val = '<html><head></head><body>'; val += '<scr' + 'ipt type="text/javascript" src="' + url + '"></scr' + 'ipt>'; val += '</body></html>'; If I don't assign the html and body tags to val, the script automatically gets appended to the head of the iframe and fails to execute in FF. In IE, the script doesn't execute with or without the head/body/html tags. var doc = iframe.contentWindow || iframe.contentDocument; if (doc.document){ doc = doc.document } doc.open(); doc.write(val); doc.close(); I found this last bit of code here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1591135/why-does-appending-a-script-to-a-dynamically-created-iframe-seem-to-run-the-s. I do NOT want to load jquery in the iframe though, I just want to append a script and have it execute. My current solution seems to work great in FF and Webkit. However, IE doesn't execute the script. The script is written to the page, but doesn't start running. Is there a better way to append the script to the iframe so it will run cross browser? Or is it possible to tell IE to run the script? I know that I could load an external document with the ad script via the iframe, but I don't want to make the extra call to my server if I can do this dynamically. Also, I've tried using appendChild() on the iframe's body to insert the script, but since the script element is created outside the iframe's DOM this doesn't seem to work.

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  • EXC_MEMORY_ACCESS when trying to delete from Core Data ($cash solution)

    - by llloydxmas
    I have an application that downloads an xml file, parses the file, and creates core data objects while doing so. In the parse code I have a function called 'emptydatacontext' that removes all items from Core Data before creating replacements items from the xml data. This method looks like this: -(void) emptyDataContext { NSFetchRequest * allCon = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; [allCon setEntity:[NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Condition" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]]; NSError * error = nil; NSArray * conditions = [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:allCon error:&error]; DebugLog(@"ERROR: %@",error); DebugLog(@"RETRIEVED: %@", conditions); [allCon release]; for (NSManagedObject * condition in conditions) { [managedObjectContext deleteObject:condition]; } // Update the data model effectivly removing the objects we removed above. //NSError *error; if (![managedObjectContext save:&error]) { DebugLog(@"%@", [error domain]); } } The first time this runs it deletes all objects and functions as it should - creating new objects from the xml file. I created a 'update' button that starts the exact same process of retrieving the file the proceeding with the parse & build. All is well until its time to delete the core data objects. This 'deleteObject' call creates a "EXC_BAD_ACCESS" error each time. This only happens on the second time through. Captured errors return null. If I log the 'conditions' array I get a list of NSManagedObjects on the first run. On the second this log request causes a crash exactly as the deleteObject call does. I have a feeling it is something very simple I'm missing or not doing correctly to cause this behavior. The data works great on my tableviews - its only when trying to update I get the crashes. I have spent days & days on this trying numerous alternative methods. Whats left of my hair is falling out. I'd be willing to ante up some cash for anyone willing to look at my code and see what I'm doing wrong. Just need to get past this hurdle. Thanks in advance for the help!

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  • Passing ViewModel for backbone.js from MVC3 Server-Side

    - by Roman
    In ASP.NET MVC there is Model, View and Controller. MODEL represents entities which are stored in database and essentially is all the data used in a application (for example, generated by EntityFramework, "DB First" approach). Not all data from model you want to show in the view (for example, hashs of passwords). So you create VIEW MODEL, each for every strongly-typed-razor-view you have in application. Like this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; namespace MyProject.ViewModels.SomeController.SomeAction { public class ViewModel { public ViewModel() { Entities1 = new List<ViewEntity1>(); Entities2 = new List<ViewEntity2>(); } public List<ViewEntity1> Entities1 { get; set; } public List<ViewEntity2> Entities2 { get; set; } } public class ViewEntity1 { //some properties from original DB-entity you want to show } public class ViewEntity2 { } } When you create complex client-side interfaces (I do), you use some pattern for javascript on client, MVC or MVVM (I know only these). So, with MVC on client you have another model (Backbone.Model for example), which is third model in application. It is a bit much. Why don`t we use the same ViewModel model on a client (in backbone.js or another framework)? Is there a way to transfer CS-coded model to JS-coded? Like in MVVM pattern, with knockout.js, when you can do like this: in SomeAction.cshtml: <div style="display: none;" id="view_model">@Json.Encode(Model)</div> after that in Javascript-code var ViewModel = ko.mapping.fromJSON($("#view_model").get(0).innerHTML); now you can extend your ViewModel with some actions, event handlers, etc: ko.utils.extend(ViewModel, { some_function: function () { //some code } }); So, we are not building the same view model on the client again, we are transferring existing view model from server. At least, data. But knockout.js is not suitable for me, you can`t build complex UI with it, it is just data-binding. I need something more structural, like backbone.js. The only way to build ViewModel for backbone.js I can see now is re-writing same ViewModel in JS from server with hands. Is there any ways to transfer it from server? To reuse the same viewmodel on server view and client view?

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  • Lift session valid ajax callback from a static javascript

    - by ChrisJamesC
    I am currently implementing a graph visualisation tool using lift on the server side and d3 ( a javascript visualisation framework) for all the visualisation. The problem I have is that in the script I want to get session dependent data from the server. So basically, my objective is to write lift-valid ajax callbacks in a static js script. Here is what I tried so far: What I have tried so far If you feel that the best solution is one that I already tried feel free to post a detailed answer telling me how to use it exactly and how it completely solves my problem. REST interface Usually what one would do to get data from a javascript function in lift is to create a REST interface. However this interface will not be linked to any session. This is the solution I got from my previous question: Get json data in d3 from lift snippet Give function as argument of script Another solution would be to give the ajaxcallback as an argument of the main script called to generate my graph. However I expect to have a lot of callbacks and I don't want to have to mess with the arguments of my script. Write the ajax callback in another script using lift and call it from the main script This solution, which is similar to a hidden text input is probably the more likely to work. However it is not elegant and it would mean that I would have to load a lot of scripts on load, which is not really conveniant. Write the whole script in lift and then serve it to the client This solution can be elegant, however my script is very long and I would really prefer that it remainss static. What I want On client side While reviewing the source code of my webpage I found that the callback for an ajaxSelect is: <select onchange="liftAjax.lift_ajaxHandler('F966066257023LYKF4=' + encodeURIComponent(this.value), null, null, null)" name="F96606625703QXTSWU" id="node_delete" class="input"> Moreover, there is a variable containing the state of the page in the end of the webpage: var lift_page = "F96606625700QRXLDO"; So, I am wondering if it is possible to simulate that my ajaxcall is valid using this liftAjax.lift_ajaxHandler function. However I don't know the exact synthax to use. On server side Since I "forged" a request on client side, I would now like to get the request on client side and to dispatch it to the correct function. This is where the LiftRules.dispatch object seems the best solution: when it is called, all the session management has been made (the request is authentified and linked to a session), however I don't know how to write the correct piece of code in the append function. Remark In lift all names of variables are changed to a random string in order to increase the security, I would like to have the same behavior in my application even if that will probably mean that I will have to "give" the javascript these values. However an array of 15 string values is still a better tradeoff than 15 functions as argument of a javascript function.

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  • Android Camera takePicture function does not call Callback function

    - by Tomáš 'Guns Blazing' Frcek
    I am working on a custom Camera activity for my application. I was following the instruction from the Android Developers site here: http://developer.android.com/guide/topics/media/camera.html Everything seems to works fine, except the Callback function is not called and the picture is not saved. Here is my code: public class CameraActivity extends Activity { private Camera mCamera; private CameraPreview mPreview; private static final String TAG = "CameraActivity"; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.camera); // Create an instance of Camera mCamera = getCameraInstance(); // Create our Preview view and set it as the content of our activity. mPreview = new CameraPreview(this, mCamera); FrameLayout preview = (FrameLayout) findViewById(R.id.camera_preview); preview.addView(mPreview); Button captureButton = (Button) findViewById(R.id.button_capture); captureButton.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View v) { Log.v(TAG, "will now take picture"); mCamera.takePicture(null, null, mPicture); Log.v(TAG, "will now release camera"); mCamera.release(); Log.v(TAG, "will now call finish()"); finish(); } }); } private PictureCallback mPicture = new PictureCallback() { @Override public void onPictureTaken(byte[] data, Camera camera) { Log.v(TAG, "Getting output media file"); File pictureFile = getOutputMediaFile(); if (pictureFile == null) { Log.v(TAG, "Error creating output file"); return; } try { FileOutputStream fos = new FileOutputStream(pictureFile); fos.write(data); fos.close(); } catch (FileNotFoundException e) { Log.v(TAG, e.getMessage()); } catch (IOException e) { Log.v(TAG, e.getMessage()); } } }; private static File getOutputMediaFile() { String state = Environment.getExternalStorageState(); if (!state.equals(Environment.MEDIA_MOUNTED)) { return null; } else { File folder_gui = new File(Environment.getExternalStorageDirectory() + File.separator + "GUI"); if (!folder_gui.exists()) { Log.v(TAG, "Creating folder: " + folder_gui.getAbsolutePath()); folder_gui.mkdirs(); } File outFile = new File(folder_gui, "temp.jpg"); Log.v(TAG, "Returnng file: " + outFile.getAbsolutePath()); return outFile; } } After clicking the Button, I get logs: "will now take picture", "will now release camera" and "will now call finish". The activity finishes succesfully, but the Callback function was not called during the mCamera.takePicture(null, null, mPicture); function (There were no logs from the mPicture callback or getMediaOutputFile functions) and there is no file in the location that was specified. Any ideas? :) Much thanks!

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  • Primary language - QtC++, C#, Java?

    - by Airjoe
    I'm looking for some input, but let me start with a bit of background (for tl;dr skip to end). I'm an IT major with a concentration in networking. While I'm not a CS major nor do I want to program as a vocation, I do consider myself a programmer and do pretty well with the concepts involved. I've been programming since about 6th grade, started out with a proprietary game creation language that made my transition into C++ at college pretty easy. I like to make programs for myself and friends, and have been paid to program for local businesses. A bit about that- I wrote some programs for a couple local businesses in my senior year in high school. I wrote management systems for local shops (inventory, phone/pos orders, timeclock, customer info, and more stuff I can't remember). It definitely turned out to be over my head, as I had never had any formal programming education. It was a great learning experience, but damn was it crappy code. Oh yeah, by the way, it was all vb6. So, I've used vb6 pretty extensively, I've used c++ in my classes (intro to programming up to algorithms), used Java a little bit in another class (had to write a ping client program, pretty easy) and used Java for some simple Project Euler problems to help learn syntax and such when writing the program for the class. I've also used C# a bit for my own simple personal projects (simple programs, one which would just generate an HTTP request on a list of websites and notify if one responded unexpectedly or not at all, and another which just held a list of things to do and periodically reminded me to do them), things I would've written in vb6 a year or two ago. I've just started using Qt C++ for some undergrad research I'm working on. Now I've had some formal education, I [think I] understand organization in programming a lot better (I didn't even use classes in my vb6 programs where I really should have), how it's important to structure code, split into functions where appropriate, document properly, efficiency both in memory and speed, dynamic and modular programming etc. I was looking for some input on which language to pick up as my "primary". As I'm not a "real programmer", it will be mostly hobby projects, but will include some 'real' projects I'm sure. From my perspective: QtC++ and Java are cross platform, which is cool. Java and C# run in a virtual machine, but I'm not sure if that's a big deal (something extra to distribute, possibly a bit slower? I think Qt would require additional distributables too, right?). I don't really know too much more than this, so I appreciate any help, thanks! TL;DR Am an avocational programmer looking for a language, want quick and straight forward development, liked vb6, will be working with database driven GUI apps- should I go with QtC++, Java, C#, or perhaps something else?

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  • Zend Framework-where should this root.php file go for MVC?

    - by Joel
    Hi guys, I'm converting over a web-app to use the MVC structure of Zend Framework. I have a root.php include file that contains most of the database info, and some static variables that are used in the program. I'm not sure if some of this should be in the application.ini of in a model that is called by the init() function in a controller, or in the bootstrap or what? Any help would be much appreciated! root.php (include file at the top of every php page): <?php /*** //Configuration file */ ## Site Configuration starts ## define("SITE_ROOT" , dirname(__FILE__)); define("SITE_URL" , "http://localhost/monkeycalendarapp/monkeycalendarapp/public"); define('DB_HOST', "localhost"); define('DB_USER', "root"); define('DB_PASS', "xxx"); define('DB_NAME', "xxxxx"); define("PROJECT_NAME" , "Monkey Mind Manager (beta 2.2)"); //site title define("CALENDAR_WIDTH" , "300"); //left mini calendar width define("CALENDAR_HEIGHT" , "150"); //left mini calendar height $page_title = 'Event List'; $stylesheet_name = 'style.css'; //default stylesheet define("SITE_URL_AJAX" , SITE_URL . "/ajax-tooltip"); define("JQUERY" , SITE_URL . "/jquery-ui-1.7.2"); $a_times = array("12:00","12:30","01:00","01:30","02:00","02:30","03:00","03:30","04:00","04:30","05:00","05:30","06:00","06:30","07:00","07:30","08:00","08:30","09:00","09:30","10:00","10:30","11:00","11:30"); //PTLType Promotional timeline type $a_ptlType= array(1=>"Gigs","To-Do","Completed"); $a_days = array("Su","Mo","Tu","We","Th","Fr","Sa"); $a_timesMerd = array("12:00am","12:30am","01:00am","01:30am","02:00am","02:30am","03:00am","03:30am","04:00am","04:30am","05:00am","05:30am","06:00am","06:30am","07:00am","07:30am","08:00am","08:30am","09:00am","09:30am","10:00am","10:30am","11:00am","11:30am","12:00pm","12:30pm","01:00pm","01:30pm","02:00pm","02:30pm","03:00pm","03:30pm","04:00pm","04:30pm","05:00pm","05:30pm","06:00pm","06:30pm","07:00pm","07:30pm","08:00pm","08:30pm","09:00pm","09:30pm","10:00pm","10:30pm","11:00pm","11:30pm"); //Setting stylesheet for this user. $AMPM=array("am"=>"am","pm"=>"pm"); include(SITE_ROOT . "/includes/functions/general.php"); include(SITE_ROOT . "/includes/db.php"); session_start(); if(isset($_SESSION['userData']['UserID'])) { $s_userID = $_SESSION['userData']['UserID']; } $stylesheet_name = stylesheet(); ini_set('date.timezone', 'GMT'); date_default_timezone_set('GMT'); if($s_userID) { ini_set('date.timezone', $_SESSION['userData']['timezone']); date_default_timezone_set($_SESSION['userData']['timezone']); } ?>

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  • What are the steps to convert this function to a model/controller in Zend Framework?

    - by Joel
    Hi guys, I'm learning Zend Framework MVC, and I have a website that is mainly static php pages. However one of the pages is using functions, etc, and I'm trying to figure out what the process is for converting this to an OOP setup. Within the <body> I have this function (and more, but this is the first function): function filterEventDetails($contentText) { $data = array(); foreach($contentText as $row) { if(strstr($row, 'When: ')) { ##cleaning "when" string to get date in the format "May 28, 2009"## $data['duration'] = str_replace('When: ','',$row); list($when, ) = explode(' to ',$data['duration']); $data['when'] = substr($when,4); if(strlen($data['when'])>13) $data['when'] = trim(str_replace(strrchr($data['when'], ' '),'',$data['when'])); $data['duration'] = substr($data['duration'], 0, strlen($data['duration'])-4); //trimming time zone identifier (UTC etc.) } if(strstr($row, 'Where: ')) { $data['where'] = str_replace('Where: ','',$row); //pr($row); //$where = strstr($row, 'Where: '); //pr($where); } if(strstr($row, 'Event Description: ')) { $event_desc = str_replace('Event Description: ','',$row); //$event_desc = strstr($row, 'Event Description: '); ## Filtering event description and extracting venue, ticket urls etc from it. //$event_desc = str_replace('Event Description: ','',$contentText[3]); $event_desc_array = explode('|',$event_desc); array_walk($event_desc_array,'get_desc_second_part'); //pr($event_desc_array); $data['venue_url'] = $event_desc_array[0]; $data['details'] = $event_desc_array[1]; $data['tickets_url'] = $event_desc_array[2]; $data['tickets_button'] = $event_desc_array[3]; $data['facebook_url'] = $event_desc_array[4]; $data['facebook_icon'] = $event_desc_array[5]; } } return $data; } ?> So right now I have this in my example.phtml view page. I understand this needs to be a model and acted on by the controller, but I'm really not sure where to start with this conversion? This is a function tht is taking info from a Google calendar and parsing it for the view. Thanks for any help!

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  • Are there any platforms where using structure copy on an fd_set (for select() or pselect()) causes p

    - by Jonathan Leffler
    The select() and pselect() system calls modify their arguments (the 'struct fd_set *' arguments), so the input value tells the system which file descriptors to check and the return values tell the programmer which file descriptors are currently usable. If you are going to call them repeatedly for the same set of file descriptors, you need to ensure that you have a fresh copy of the descriptors for each call. The obvious way to do that is to use a structure copy: struct fd_set ref_set_rd; struct fd_set ref_set_wr; struct fd_set ref_set_er; ... ...code to set the reference fd_set_xx values... ... while (!done) { struct fd_set act_set_rd = ref_set_rd; struct fd_set act_set_wr = ref_set_wr; struct fd_set act_set_er = ref_set_er; int bits_set = select(max_fd, &act_set_rd, &act_set_wr, &act_set_er, &timeout); if (bits_set > 0) { ...process the output values of act_set_xx... } } My question: Are there any platforms where it is not safe to do a structure copy of the struct fd_set values as shown? I'm concerned lest there be hidden memory allocation or anything unexpected like that. (There are macros/functions FD_SET(), FD_CLR(), FD_ZERO() and FD_ISSET() to mask the internals from the application.) I can see that MacOS X (Darwin) is safe; other BSD-based systems are likely to be safe, therefore. You can help by documenting other systems that you know are safe in your answers. (I do have minor concerns about how well the struct fd_set would work with more than 8192 open file descriptors - the default maximum number of open files is only 256, but the maximum number is 'unlimited'. Also, since the structures are 1 KB, the copying code is not dreadfully efficient, but then running through a list of file descriptors to recreate the input mask on each cycle is not necessarily efficient either. Maybe you can't do select() when you have that many file descriptors open, though that is when you are most likely to need the functionality.) There's a related SO question - asking about 'poll() vs select()' which addresses a different set of issues from this question.

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  • Hacking "Contact Form 7" code to Add A "Referred By" field

    - by Scott B
    I've got about 6 subdomains that have a "contact us" link and I'm sending all these links to a single form that uses "Contact Form 7". I add ?from=site-name to each of the links so that I can set a $referredFrom variable in the contact form. The only two things I'm missing are (1) the ability to insert this referredFrom variable into the email that I get whenever someone submits the form and (2) The ability to redirect the user back to the site they came from (stored in $referredFrom) Any ideas? Here's a bit of code from includes/classes.php that I thought might be part of the email insert but its not doing much... function mail() { global $referrer; $refferedfrom = $referrer; //HERE IS MY CUSTOM CODE $fes = $this->form_scan_shortcode(); foreach ( $fes as $fe ) { $name = $fe['name']; $pipes = $fe['pipes']; if ( empty( $name ) ) continue; $value = $_POST[$name]; if ( WPCF7_USE_PIPE && is_a( $pipes, 'WPCF7_Pipes' ) && ! $pipes->zero() ) { if ( is_array( $value) ) { $new_value = array(); foreach ( $value as $v ) { $new_value[] = $pipes->do_pipe( $v ); } $value = $new_value; } else { $value = $pipes->do_pipe( $value ); } } $this->posted_data[$name] = $value; $this->posted_data[$refferedfrom] = $referrer; //HERE IS MY CUSTOM CODE } I'm also thinking that I could insert the referredFrom code somewhere in this function as well... function compose_and_send_mail( $mail_template ) { $regex = '/\[\s*([a-zA-Z][0-9a-zA-Z:._-]*)\s*\]/'; $callback = array( &$this, 'mail_callback' ); $mail_subject = preg_replace_callback( $regex, $callback, $mail_template['subject'] ); $mail_sender = preg_replace_callback( $regex, $callback, $mail_template['sender'] ); $mail_body = preg_replace_callback( $regex, $callback, $mail_template['body'] ); $mail_recipient = preg_replace_callback( $regex, $callback, $mail_template['recipient'] ); $mail_headers = "From: $mail_sender\n"; if ( $mail_template['use_html'] ) $mail_headers .= "Content-Type: text/html\n"; $mail_additional_headers = preg_replace_callback( $regex, $callback, $mail_template['additional_headers'] ); $mail_headers .= trim( $mail_additional_headers ) . "\n"; if ( $this->uploaded_files ) { $for_this_mail = array(); foreach ( $this->uploaded_files as $name => $path ) { if ( false === strpos( $mail_template['attachments'], "[${name}]" ) ) continue; $for_this_mail[] = $path; } return @wp_mail( $mail_recipient, $mail_subject, $mail_body, $mail_headers, $for_this_mail ); } else { return @wp_mail( $mail_recipient, $mail_subject, $mail_body, $mail_headers ); } }

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  • Why did File::Find finish short of completely traversing a large directory?

    - by Stan
    A directory exists with a total of 2,153,425 items (according to Windows folder Properties). It contains .jpg and .gif image files located within a few subdirectories. The task was to move the images into a different location while querying each file's name to retrieve some relevant info and store it elsewhere. The script that used File::Find finished at 20462 files. Out of curiosity I wrote a tiny recursive function to count the items which returned a count of 1,734,802. I suppose the difference can be accounted for by the fact that it didn't count folders, only files that passed the -f test. The problem itself can be solved differently by querying for file names first instead of traversing the directory. I'm just wondering what could've caused File::Find to finish at a small fraction of all files. The data is stored on an NTFS file system. Here is the meat of the script; I don't think including DBI stuff would be relevant since I reran the script with nothing but a counter in process_img() which returned the same number. find(\&process_img, $path_from); sub process_img { eval { return if ($_ eq "." or $_ eq ".."); ## Omitted querying and composing new paths for brevity. make_path("$path_to\\img\\$dir_area\\$dir_address\\$type"); copy($File::Find::name, "$path_to\\img\\$dir_area\\$dir_address\\$type\\$new_name"); }; if ($@) { print STDERR "eval barks: $@\n"; return } } And here is another method I used to count files: count_images($path_from); sub count_images { my $path = shift; opendir my $images, $path or die "died opening $path"; while (my $item = readdir $images) { next if $item eq '.' or $item eq '..'; $img_counter++ && next if -f "$path/$item"; count_images("$path/$item") if -d "$path/$item"; } closedir $images or die "died closing $path"; } print $img_counter;

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  • choosing an image locally from http url and serving that image without a server round trip

    - by serverman
    Hi folks I am a complete novice to Flash (never created anything in flash). I am quite familiar with web applications (J2EE based) and have a reasonable expertise in Javascript. Here is my requirement. I want the user to select (via an html form) an image. Normally in the post, this image would be sent to server and may be stored there to be served later. I do not want that. I want to store this image locally and then serve it via HTTP to the user. So, the flow is: 1. Go to the "select image url":mywebsite.com/selectImage Browse the image and select the image This would transfer control locally to some code running on the client (Javascript or flash), which would then store the image locally at some place on the client machine. Go to the "show image url": mywebsite.com/showImage This would eventually result in some client code running on the browser that retrieves the image and renders it (without any server round trips.) I considered the following options: Use HTML5 local storage. Since I am a complete novice to flash, I looked into this. I found that it is fairly straightforward to store and retrieve images in javascript (only strings are allowed but I am hoping storing base64 encoded strings would work at least for small images). However, how do I serve the image via http url that points to my server without a server round trip? I saw the interesting article at http://hacks.mozilla.org/category/fileapi/ but that would work only in firefox and I need to work on all latest browsers (at least the ones supporting HTML5 local storage) Use flash SharedObjects. OK, this would have been good - the only thing is I am not sure where to start. Snippets of actionscripts to do this are scattered everywhere but I do not know how to use those scripts in an actual html page:) I do not need to create any movies or anything - just need to store an image and serve it locally. If I go this route, I would also use it to store other "strings" locally. If you suggest this, please give me the exact steps (could be pointers to other web sites) on how to do this. I would like to avoid paying for any flash development environment software ideally:) Thank you!

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  • making a password-only auth with bcrypt and mongoose

    - by user3081123
    I want to create service that let you login only with password. You type a password and if this password exists - you are logged in and if it's not - username is generated and password is encrypted. I'm having some misunderstandings and hope someone would help me to show where I'm mistaken. I guess, it would look somewhat like this in agularjs First we receive a password in login controller. $scope.signup = function() { var user = { password: $scope.password, }; $http.post('/auth/signup', user); }; Send it via http.post and get in in our node server file. We are provided with a compare password bcrypt function userSchema.methods.comparePassword = function(candidatePassword, cb) { bcrypt.compare(candidatePassword, this.password, function(err, isMatch) { if (err) return cb(err); cb(null, isMatch); }); }; So right now we are creating function to catch our http request app.post('/auth/signup', function(req, res, next) { Inside we use a compair password function to realize if such password exists or not yet. So we have to encrypt a password with bcrypt to make a comparison First we hash it same way as in .pre var encPass; bcrypt.genSalt(10, function(err, salt) { if (err) return next(err); bcrypt.hash(req.body.password, salt, function(err, hash) { if (err) return next(err); encPass=hash; )}; )}; We have encrypted password stored in encPass so now we follow to finding a user in database with this password User.findOne({ password: encPass }, function(err, user) { if (user) { //user exists, it means we should pass an ID of this user to a controller to display it in a view. I don't know how. res.send({user.name}) //like this? How should controller receive this? With $http.post? } else { and now if user doesn't exist - we should create it with user ID generated by my function var nUser = new User({ name: generId(), password: req.body.password }); nUser.save(function(err) { if (err) return next(err); )}; )}; )}; Am I doing anything right? I'm pretty new to js and angular. If so - how do I throw a username back at controller? If someone is interested - this service exists for 100+ symbol passphrases so possibility of entering same passphrase as someone else is miserable. And yeah, If someone logged in under 123 password - the other guy will log in as same user if he entered 123 password, but hey, you are warned to make a big passphrase. So I'm confident about the idea and I only need a help with understanding and realization.

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  • Webservice for uploading data: security considerations

    - by Philip Daubmeier
    Hi everyone! Im not sure about what authentification method I should use for my webservice. I've searched on SO, and found nothing that helped me. Preliminary Im building an application that uploads data from a local database to a server (running my webservice), where all records are merged and stored in a central database. I am currently binary serializing a DataTable, that holds a small fragment of the local database, where all uninteresting stuff is already filtered out. The byte[] (serialized DataTable), together with the userid and a hash of the users password is then uploaded to the webservice via SOAP. The application together with the webservice already work exactly like intended. The Problem The issue I am thinking about is now: What is if someone just sniffs the network traffic, 'steals' the users id and password hash to send his own SOAP message with modified data that corrupts my database? Options The approaches to solving that problem, I already thought of, are: Using ssl + certificates for establishing the connection: I dont really want to use ssl, I would prefer a simpler solution. After all, every information that is transfered to the webservice can be seen on the website later on. What I want to say is: there is no secret/financial/business-critical information, that has to be hidden. I think ssl would be sort of an overkill for that task. Encrypting the byte[]: I think that would be a performance killer, considering that the goal of the excercise was simply to authenticate the user. Hashing the users password together with the data: I kind of like the idea: Creating a checksum from the data, concatenating that checksum with the password-hash and hashing this whole thing again. That would assure the data was sent from this specific user, and the data wasnt modified. The actual question So, what do you think is the best approach in terms of meeting the following requirements? Rather simple solution (As it doesnt have to be super secure; no secret/business-critical information transfered) Easily implementable retrospectively (Dont want to write it all again :) ) Doesnt impact to much on performance What do you think of my prefered solution, the last one in the list above? Is there any alternative solution I didnt mention, that would fit better? You dont have to answer every question in detail. Just push me in the right direction. I very much appreciate every well-grounded opinion. Thanks in advance!

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  • is it possible that a greasemonkey script can work on one computer but not on another?

    - by plastic cloud
    i'm writing an greasemonkey script for somebody else. he is a moderator and i am not. and the script will help him do some moderating things. now the script works for me. as far as it can work for me.(as i am not a mod) but even those things that work for me are not working for him.. i checked his version of greasemonkey plugin and firefox and he is up to date. only thing that's really different is that i'm on a mac and he is pc, but i wouldn't think that would be any problem. this is one of the functions that is not working for him. he does gets the first and third GM_log message. but not the second one ("got some(1) .."). kmmh.trackNames = function(){ GM_log("starting to get names from the first "+kmmh.topAmount+" page(s) from leaderboard."); kmmh.leaderboardlist = []; for (var p=1; p<=(kmmh.topAmount); p++){ var page = "http://www.somegamesite.com/leaderboard?page="+ p; var boardHTML = ""; dojo.xhrGet({ url: page, sync: true, load: function(response){ boardHTML = response; GM_log("got some (1) => "+boardHTML.length); }, handleAs: "text" }); GM_log("got some (2) => "+boardHTML.length); //create dummy div and place leaderboard html in there var dummy = dojo.create('div', { innerHTML: boardHTML }); //search through it var searchN = dojo.query('.notcurrent', dummy).forEach(function(node,index){ if(index >= 10){ kmmh.leaderboardlist.push(node.textContent); // add names to array } }); } GM_log("all names from "+ kmmh.topAmount +" page(s) of leaderboard ==> "+ kmmh.leaderboardlist); does anyone have any idea what could be causing this ?? EDIT: i know i had to write according to what he would see on his mod screen. so i asked him to copy paste source of pages and so on. and besides that, this part of the script is not depending on being a mod or not. i got everything else working for him. just this function still doesn't on neither of his pc's.

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  • jquery in ajax loaded content

    - by Kim Gysen
    My application is supposed to be a single page application and I have the following code that works fine: home.php: <div id="container"> </div> accordion.php: //Click functions: load content $('#parents').click(function(){ //Load parent in container $('#container').load('http://www.blabla.com/entities/parents/parents.php'); }); parents.php: <div class="entity_wrapper"> Some divs and selectors </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ //Some jQuery / javascript }); </script> So the content loads fine, while the scripts dynamically loaded execute fine as well. I apply this system repetitively and it continues to work smoothly. I've seen that there are a lot of frameworks available on SPA's (such as backbone.js) but I don't understand why I need them if this works fine. From the backbone.js website: When working on a web application that involves a lot of JavaScript, one of the first things you learn is to stop tying your data to the DOM. It's all too easy to create JavaScript applications that end up as tangled piles of jQuery selectors and callbacks, all trying frantically to keep data in sync between the HTML UI, your JavaScript logic, and the database on your server. For rich client-side applications, a more structured approach is often helpful. Well, I totally don't have the feeling that I'm going through the stuff they mention. Adding the javascript per page works really well for me. They are html containers with clear scope and the javascript is just related to that part. More over, the front end doesn't do that much, most of the logic is managed based on Ajax calls to external PHP scripts. Sometimes the js can be a bit more extended for some functionalities, but all just loads as smooth in less than a second. If you think that this is bad coding, please tell me why I cannot do this and more importantly, what is the alternative I should apply. At the moment, I really don't see a reason on why I would change this approach as it just works too well. I'm kinda stuck on this question because it just worries me sick as it seems to easy to be true. Why would people go through hard times if it would be as easy as this...

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  • Wrong data retrieved from database

    - by holyredbeard
    So, I want to retrieve the order of the elements of a list. The order is set before by the user, and are stored in the table below. Because I also want to retrieve name and description of the list elements I need to combine two tables (see below). However, what is actually retrieved is an array containing 16 elements (should be four because it only exists four elements as for now). The array is too long to post here, but I put it in a phpFiddle to be found here if you're interested. Well, I have really tried to find what's wrong (probably something easy as always), but with no luck. Thanks a lot for your time and help! listModel.php: public function GetOrderedElements($userId, $listId) { // $userId = 46 // $listId = 1 $query = "SELECT le.listElemId, le.listElemName, le.listElemDesc, lo.listElemOrderPlace FROM listElement AS le INNER JOIN listElemOrder AS lo ON le.listId = lo.listId WHERE lo.userId = ? AND lo.listId = ? ORDER BY listElemId"; $stmt = $this->m_db->Prepare($query); $stmt->bind_param("ii", $userId, $listId); $listElements = $this->m_db->GetOrderedElements($stmt); return $listElements; } database.php: public function GetOrderedElements(\mysqli_stmt $stmt) { if ($stmt === FALSE) { throw new \Exception($this->mysqli->error); } if ($stmt->execute() == FALSE) { throw new \Exception($this->mysqli->error); } if ($stmt->bind_result($listElemId, $listElemName, $listElemDesc, $listElemOrderPlace) == FALSE) { throw new \Exception($this->mysqli->error); } $listElements = array(); while ($stmt->fetch()) { $listElements[] = array('listElemId' => $listElemId, 'listElemName' => $listElemName, 'listElemDesc' => $listElemDesc, 'listElemOrderPlace' => $listElemOrderPlace); } var_dump($listElements); $stmt->Close(); return $listElements; } from the database: listElemOrder: listElemOrderId | listId | listElemId | userId | listElemOrderPlace 1 1 1 46 1 2 1 2 46 4 3 1 3 46 2 4 1 4 46 3 listElement: listElemId | listElemName | listId | listElemDesc | listElemOrderPlace 1 Elem A 1 Derp NULL 2 Elem B 1 Herp NULL 3 Elem C 1 Lorum NULL 4 Elem D 1 Ipsum NULL Note: 'listElemOrderPlace' in the table listElement is the final order of the elements (all users average), not to be mixed with the one with the same name in the other table, that's only a specific user's order of the list elements (which is the interesting one in this case).

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  • C# Type Casting at Runtimefor Array.SetValue

    - by sprocketonline
    I'm trying to create an array using reflection, and insert values into it. I'm trying to do this for many different types so would like a createAndFillArray function capable of this : Type t1 = typeof(A); Type t2 = typeof(B); double exampleA = 22.5; int exampleB = 43; Array arrA = createAndFillArray(t1, exampleA); Array arrB = createAndFillArray(t2, exampleB); private Array createAndFillArray(Type t, object val){ Array arr = Array.CreateInstance( t, 1); //length 1 in this example only, real-world is of variable length. arr.SetValue( val, 0 ); //this causes the following error: "System.InvalidCastException : Object cannot be stored in an array of this type." return arr; } with the class A being as follows: public class A{ public A(){} private double val; public double Value{ get{ return val; } set{ this.val = value; } } public static implicit operator A(double d){ A a = new A(); a.Value = d; return a; } } and class B being very similar, but with int: public class B{ public B(){} private double val; public double Value{ get{ return val; } set{ this.val = value; } } public static implicit operator B(double d){ B b = new B(); b.Value = d; return b; } } I hoped that the implicit operator would have ensured that the double be converted to class A, or the int to class B, and the error avoided; but this is obviously not so. The above is used in a custom deserialization class, which takes data from a custom data format and fills in the corresponding .Net object properties. I'm doing this via reflection and at runtime, so I think both are unavoidable. I'm targeting the C# 2.0 framework. I've dozens, if not hundreds, of classes similar to A and B, so would prefer to find a solution which improved on the createAndFillArray method rather than a solution which altered these classes.

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  • Execution plan issue requires reset on SQL Server 2005, how to determine cause?

    - by Tony Brandner
    We have a web application that delivers training to thousands of corporate students running on top of SQL Server 2005. Recently, we started seeing that a single specific query in the application went from 1 second to about 30 seconds in terms of execution time. The application started throwing timeouts in that area. Our first thought was that we may have incorrect indexes, so we reviewed the tables and indexes. However, similar queries elsewhere in the application also run quickly. Reviewing the indexes showed us that they were configured as expected. We were able to narrow it down to a single query, not a stored procedure. Running this query in SQL Studio also runs quickly. We tried running the application in a different server environment. So a different web server with the same query, parameters and database. The query still ran slow. The query is a fairly large one related to determining a student's current list of training. It includes joins and left joins on a dozen tables and subqueries. A few of the tables are fairly large (hundreds of thousands of rows) and some of the other tables are small lookup tables. The query uses a grouping clause and a few where conditions. A few of the tables are quite active and the contents change often but the volume of added rows doesn't seem extreme. These symptoms led us to consider the execution plan. First off, as soon as we reset the execution plan cache with the SQL command 'DBCC FREEPROCCACHE', the problem went away. Unfortunately, the problem started to reoccur within a few days. The problem has continued to plague us for awhile now. It's usually the same query, but we did appear to see the problem occur in another single query recently. It happens enough to be a nuisance. We're having a heck of a time trying to fix it since we can't reproduce it in any other environment other than production. I have downloaded the High Availability guide from Red Gate and I read up more on execution plans. I hope to run the profiler on the live server, but I'm a bit concerned about impact. I would like to ask - what is the best way to figure out what is triggering this problem? Has anyone else seen this same issue?

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  • Copy image to BLOB from client pc aka Java function in Oracle

    - by mumich
    Hi guys, I've been stuck with this for past two days. I've go java function stored in Oracle system which is supposed to copy image from local drive do remote database and store it in BLOB - it's called CopyBLOB and looks like this: import java.sql.*; import oracle.sql.*; import java.io.*; public class CopyBLOB { static int id; static String fileName = null; static Connection conn = null; public CopyBLOB(int idz, String f) { id = idz; fileName = f; } public static void copy(int ident, String path) throws SQLException, FileNotFoundException { CopyBLOB cpB = new CopyBLOB(ident, path); cpB.getConnection(); cpB.callUpdate(id, fileName); } public void getConnection() throws SQLException { DriverManager.registerDriver (new oracle.jdbc.OracleDriver()); try { conn = DriverManager.getConnection("jdbc:oracle:thin:@oraserv.ms.mff.cuni.cz:1521:db", "xxx", "xxx"); } catch (SQLException sqlex) { System.out.println("SQLException while getting db connection: "+sqlex); if (conn != null) conn.close(); } catch (Exception ex) { System.out.println("Exception while getting db connection: "+ex); if (conn != null) conn.close(); } } public void callUpdate(int id, String file ) throws SQLException, FileNotFoundException { CallableStatement cs = null; try { conn.setAutoCommit(false); File f = new File(file); FileInputStream fin = new FileInputStream(f); cs = (CallableStatement) conn.prepareCall( "begin add_image(?,?); end;" ); cs.setInt(1, id ); cs.setBinaryStream(2, fin, (int) f.length()); cs.execute(); conn.setAutoCommit(true); } catch ( SQLException sqlex ) { System.out.println("SQLException in callUpdateUsingStream method of given status : " + sqlex.getMessage() ); } catch ( FileNotFoundException fnex ) { System.out.println("FileNotFoundException in callUpdateUsingStream method of given status : " + fnex.getMessage() ); } finally { try { if (cs != null) cs.close(); if (conn != null) conn.close(); } catch ( Exception ex ) { System.out.println("Some exception in callUpdateUsingStream method of given status : " + ex.getMessage( ) ); } } } } The wrapper function is defined in package "MyPackage" as folows: procedure image_adder( id varchar2, path varchar2 ) AS language java name 'CopyBLOB.copy(java.lang.String, java.lang.String)'; And the inserting function called image_add is as simple as this: procedure add_image( id numeric(10), pic blob) AS BEGIN insert into pictures values (seq_pic.nextval, id, pic); END add_image; Now the problem: When I type call MyPackage.image_adder(1, 'd:\samples\img.jpg'); I get the ORA-29531 Error: No method copy in class CopyBLOB. Can you help me, please?

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