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• Is it correct or incorrect for a Java JAR to contain its own dependencies?

  - by 4herpsand7derpsago

  I guess this is a two-part question. I am trying to write my own Ant task (MyFirstTask) that can be used in other project's build.xml buildfiles. To do this, I need to compile and package my Ant task inside its own JAR. Because this Ant task that I have written is fairly complicated, it has about 20 dependencies (other JAR files), such as using XStream for OX-mapping, Guice for DI, etc. I am currently writing the package task in the build.xml file inside the MyFirstTask project (the buildfile that will package myfirsttask.jar, which is the reusable Ant task). I am suddenly realizing that I don't fully understand the intention of a Java JAR. Is it that a JAR should not contain dependencies, and leave it to the runtime configuration (the app container, the runtime environment, etc.) to supply it with the dependencies it needs? I would assume if this is the case, an executable JAR is an exception to the rule, yes? Or, is it the intention for Java JARs to also include their dependencies? Either way, I don't want to be forcing my users to be copying-n-pasting 25+ JARs into their Ant libs; that's just cruel. I like the way WAR files are set up, where the classpath for dependencies is defined under the classes/ directory. I guess, ultimately, I'd like my JAR structure to look like: myfirsttask.jar/ com/ --> the root package of my compiled binaries config/ --> config files, XML, XSD, etc. classes/ --> all dependencies, guice-3.0.jar, xstream-1.4.3.jar, etc. META-INF/ MANIFEST.MF I assume that in order to accomplish this (and get the runtime classpath to also look into the classes/ directory), I'll need to modify the MANIFEST.MF somehow (I know there's a manifest attribute called ClassPath, I believe?). I'm just having a tough time putting everything together, and have a looming/lingering question about the very intent of JARs to begin with. Can someone please confirm whether Oracle intends for JARs to contain their dependencies or not? And, either way, what I would have to do in the manifest (or anywhere else) to make sure that, at runtime, the classpath can find the dependencies stored under the classes/ directory? Thanks in advance!

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• Specializing a template on a lambda in C++0x

  - by Tony A.

  I've written a traits class that lets me extract information about the arguments and type of a function or function object in C++0x (tested with gcc 4.5.0). The general case handles function objects: template <typename F> struct function_traits { template <typename R, typename... A> struct _internal { }; template <typename R, typename... A> struct _internal<R (F::*)(A...)> { // ... }; typedef typename _internal<decltype(&F::operator())>::<<nested types go here>>; }; Then I have a specialization for plain functions at global scope: template <typename R, typename... A> struct function_traits<R (*)(A...)> { // ... }; This works fine, I can pass a function into the template or a function object and it works properly: template <typename F> void foo(F f) { typename function_traits<F>::whatever ...; } int f(int x) { ... } foo(f); What if, instead of passing a function or function object into foo, I want to pass a lambda expression? foo([](int x) { ... }); The problem here is that neither specialization of function_traits<> applies. The C++0x draft says that the type of the expression is a "unique, unnamed, non-union class type". Demangling the result of calling typeid(...).name() on the expression gives me what appears to be gcc's internal naming convention for the lambda, main::{lambda(int)#1}, not something that syntactically represents a C++ typename. In short, is there anything I can put into the template here: template <typename R, typename... A> struct function_traits<????> { ... } that will allow this traits class to accept a lambda expression?

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• Execution plan issue requires reset on SQL Server 2005, how to determine cause?

  - by Tony Brandner

  We have a web application that delivers training to thousands of corporate students running on top of SQL Server 2005. Recently, we started seeing that a single specific query in the application went from 1 second to about 30 seconds in terms of execution time. The application started throwing timeouts in that area. Our first thought was that we may have incorrect indexes, so we reviewed the tables and indexes. However, similar queries elsewhere in the application also run quickly. Reviewing the indexes showed us that they were configured as expected. We were able to narrow it down to a single query, not a stored procedure. Running this query in SQL Studio also runs quickly. We tried running the application in a different server environment. So a different web server with the same query, parameters and database. The query still ran slow. The query is a fairly large one related to determining a student's current list of training. It includes joins and left joins on a dozen tables and subqueries. A few of the tables are fairly large (hundreds of thousands of rows) and some of the other tables are small lookup tables. The query uses a grouping clause and a few where conditions. A few of the tables are quite active and the contents change often but the volume of added rows doesn't seem extreme. These symptoms led us to consider the execution plan. First off, as soon as we reset the execution plan cache with the SQL command 'DBCC FREEPROCCACHE', the problem went away. Unfortunately, the problem started to reoccur within a few days. The problem has continued to plague us for awhile now. It's usually the same query, but we did appear to see the problem occur in another single query recently. It happens enough to be a nuisance. We're having a heck of a time trying to fix it since we can't reproduce it in any other environment other than production. I have downloaded the High Availability guide from Red Gate and I read up more on execution plans. I hope to run the profiler on the live server, but I'm a bit concerned about impact. I would like to ask - what is the best way to figure out what is triggering this problem? Has anyone else seen this same issue?

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• How do I map a one-to-one value type association in an joined-subclass?

  - by David Rubin

  I've got a class hierarchy mapped using table-per-subclass, and it's been working out great: class BasicReport { ... } class SpecificReport : BasicReport { ... } With mappings: <class name="BasicReport" table="reports"> <id name="Id" column="id">...</id> <!-- some common properties --> </class> <joined-subclass name="SpecificReport" table="specificReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <!-- some special properties --> </joined-subclass> So far, so good. The problem I'm struggling with is how to add a property to one of my subclasses that's both a value type for which I have an IUserType implemented and also mapped via an association: class OtherReport : BasicReport { public SpecialValue V { get; set; } } class SpecialValueUserType : IUserType { ... } What I'd like to do is: <joined-subclass name="OtherReport" table="otherReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <join table="rptValues" fetch="join"> <key column="rptId"/> <property name="V" column="value" type="SpecialValueUserType"/> </join> </joined-subclass> This accurately reflects the intent, and the pre-existing database schema I'm tied to: the SpecialValue instance is a property of the OtherReport, but is stored in a separate table ("rptValues"). Unfortunately, it seems as though I can't do this, because <join> elements can't be used in <joined-subclass> mappings. <one-to-one> would require creating a class mapping for SpecialValue, which doesn't make any sense given that SpecialValue is just a meaningful scalar. So what can I do? Do I have any options? Right now I'm playing a game with sets: class OtherReport : BasicReport { public SpecialValue V { get { return _values.Count() > 0 ? _values.First() : null; } set { _values.Clear(); _values.Add(value); } } private ICollection<SpecialValue> _values; } With mapping: <joined-subclass name="OtherReport" table="otherReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <set name="_values" access="field" table="rptValues" cascade="all-delete-orphan"> <key column="rptId" /> <element column="value" type="SpecialValueUserType"/> </set> </joined-subclass> Thanks in advance for the help! I've been banging my head into my desk for several days now.

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• Dynamically loaded jQuery with GreaseMonkey inconsistent on pages (refreshing seems to fix it)... do

  - by uprightnetizen

  Hi, I want a custom page analysis footer on every site I visit... so I've used a method to attach JQuery to unsafeWindow. I then create a floating footer on the page. I want to be able to call commands in a menu, do some processing, then put the results in the footer. Unfortunately it sometimes works, sometimes it doesn't. At least two alerts should happen in the printOutput function. Sometimes it only fires one, then it (crashes?) without error? On other pages, both alerts fire and it finds the element, but it doesn't add the extra text. (e.g. www.linode.com) Refreshing the page, then running the printOutput command again seems to always work. Does anyone know what's going on??? The userscript can be installed at: http://www.captionwizard.com/test/page_analysis.user.js // ==UserScript== // @name page_analysis // @namespace markspace // @description Page Analysis // @include http://*/* // ==/UserScript== (function() { // Add jQuery var GM_JQ = document.createElement('script'); GM_JQ.src = 'http://code.jquery.com/jquery-1.4.2.min.js'; GM_JQ.type = 'text/javascript'; document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0].appendChild(GM_JQ); var jqueryActive = false; //Check if jQuery's loaded function GM_wait() { if(typeof unsafeWindow.jQuery == 'undefined') { window.setTimeout(GM_wait,100); } else { $ = unsafeWindow.jQuery; letsJQuery(); } } GM_wait(); function letsJQuery() { jqueryActive = true; setupOutputFooter(); } /******************************* Analysis FOOTER Functions ******************************/ function printOutput(someText) { alert('printing output'); if($('div.analysis_footer').length) { alert('is here - appending'); $('div.analysis_footer').append('<br>' + someText); } else { alert('not here - trying again'); setupOutputFooter(); $('div.analysis_footer').append('<br>' + someText); } } GM_registerMenuCommand("Test Output", testOutput, "k", "control", "k" ); function testOutput() { printOutput('testing this'); } function setupOutputFooter() { $('<div class="analysis_footer">Page Analysis Footer:</div>').appendTo('body'); $('div.analysis_footer').css('position','fixed').css('bottom', '0px').css('background-color','#F8F8F8'); $('div.analysis_footer').css('width','100%').css('color','#3B3B3B').css('font-size', '0.8em'); $('div.analysis_footer').css('font-family', '"Myriad",Verdana,Arial,Helvetica,sans-serif').css('padding', '5px'); $('div.analysis_footer').css('border-top', '1px solid black').css('text-align', 'left'); } }());

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• Wrong data retrieved from database

  - by holyredbeard

  So, I want to retrieve the order of the elements of a list. The order is set before by the user, and are stored in the table below. Because I also want to retrieve name and description of the list elements I need to combine two tables (see below). However, what is actually retrieved is an array containing 16 elements (should be four because it only exists four elements as for now). The array is too long to post here, but I put it in a phpFiddle to be found here if you're interested. Well, I have really tried to find what's wrong (probably something easy as always), but with no luck. Thanks a lot for your time and help! listModel.php: public function GetOrderedElements($userId, $listId) { // $userId = 46 // $listId = 1 $query = "SELECT le.listElemId, le.listElemName, le.listElemDesc, lo.listElemOrderPlace FROM listElement AS le INNER JOIN listElemOrder AS lo ON le.listId = lo.listId WHERE lo.userId = ? AND lo.listId = ? ORDER BY listElemId"; $stmt = $this->m_db->Prepare($query); $stmt->bind_param("ii", $userId, $listId); $listElements = $this->m_db->GetOrderedElements($stmt); return $listElements; } database.php: public function GetOrderedElements(\mysqli_stmt $stmt) { if ($stmt === FALSE) { throw new \Exception($this->mysqli->error); } if ($stmt->execute() == FALSE) { throw new \Exception($this->mysqli->error); } if ($stmt->bind_result($listElemId, $listElemName, $listElemDesc, $listElemOrderPlace) == FALSE) { throw new \Exception($this->mysqli->error); } $listElements = array(); while ($stmt->fetch()) { $listElements[] = array('listElemId' => $listElemId, 'listElemName' => $listElemName, 'listElemDesc' => $listElemDesc, 'listElemOrderPlace' => $listElemOrderPlace); } var_dump($listElements); $stmt->Close(); return $listElements; } from the database: listElemOrder: listElemOrderId | listId | listElemId | userId | listElemOrderPlace 1 1 1 46 1 2 1 2 46 4 3 1 3 46 2 4 1 4 46 3 listElement: listElemId | listElemName | listId | listElemDesc | listElemOrderPlace 1 Elem A 1 Derp NULL 2 Elem B 1 Herp NULL 3 Elem C 1 Lorum NULL 4 Elem D 1 Ipsum NULL Note: 'listElemOrderPlace' in the table listElement is the final order of the elements (all users average), not to be mixed with the one with the same name in the other table, that's only a specific user's order of the list elements (which is the interesting one in this case).

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• codeIgniter: pass parameter to a select query from previous query

  - by krike

  I'm creating a little management tool for the browser game travian. So I select all the villages from the database and I want to display some content that's unique to each of the villages. But in order to query for those unique details I need to pass the id of the village. How should I do this? this is my code (controller): function members_area() { global $site_title; $this->load->model('membership_model'); if($this->membership_model->get_villages()) { $data['rows'] = $this->membership_model->get_villages(); $id = 1;//this should be dynamic, but how? if($this->membership_model->get_tasks($id)): $data['tasks'] = $this->membership_model->get_tasks($id); endif; } $data['title'] = $site_title." | Your account"; $data['main_content'] = 'account'; $this->load->view('template', $data); } and this is the 2 functions I'm using in the model: function get_villages() { $q = $this->db->get('villages'); if($q->num_rows() > 0) { foreach ($q->result() as $row) { $data[] = $row; } return $data; } } function get_tasks($id) { $this->db->select('name'); $this->db->from('tasks'); $this->db->where('villageid', $id); $q = $this->db->get(); if($q->num_rows() > 0) { foreach ($q->result() as $task) { $data[] = $task; } return $data; } } and of course the view: <?php foreach($rows as $r) : ?> <div class="village"> <h3><?php echo $r->name; ?></h3> <ul> <?php foreach($tasks as $task): ?> <li><?php echo $task->name; ?></li> <?php endforeach; ?> </ul> <?php echo anchor('site/add_village/'.$r->id.'', '+ add new task'); ?> </div> <?php endforeach; ?> ps: please do not remove the comment in the first block of code!

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• jQuery action being called when selector isn't met?

  - by dougoftheabaci

  I've been working on a prototype for a client's web site and I've run into a rather significant snag. You can view the prototype here. As you can see, the way it works is you can scroll a set of slides horizontally and, by clicking one, open a stack containing yet more slides. If you then click again on an image in that stack it opens up a lightbox. Clicking on another stack or the close button will close that stack (and open another, as case may be). That all works great. However you get some weird behavior if you do the following: Click to open any stack. Click to open an image's light box (this works best if you click on the image that's level with the main list). Close the light box and the stack either by clicking the close button or clicking on another stack. Click back to the first stack. Instead of reopening the stack, you get the lightbox. This confuses me as the light box should only ever be called if there is a class on the containing UL and that class is removed when the lightbox is closed. I've checked and double-checked this, it's definitely missing. Here are the respective functions: $("ul.hide a.lightbox").live("click",function(){ $("ul.show").removeClass("show").addClass("hide"); $(this).parent().parent().removeClass("hide").addClass("show"); $("ul.hide").animate({opacity: 0.2}); $("ul.show").animate({opacity: 1}); $("#next").animate({opacity: 0.2}); $("#prev").animate({opacity: 0.2}); return false; }); $("ul.show a.lightbox").live("click",function(){ $(this).fancybox().trigger("click"); return false; }); As you can see, in order for the lightbox to be called the containing UL has to have the class of show. However, if you check it with Firebug it won't. For those who are curious, the added .trigger("click"); is because the lightbox will require a double-click to launch otherwise. Any idea how I can fix this?

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• jquery in ajax loaded content

  - by Kim Gysen

  My application is supposed to be a single page application and I have the following code that works fine: home.php: <div id="container"> </div> accordion.php: //Click functions: load content $('#parents').click(function(){ //Load parent in container $('#container').load('http://www.blabla.com/entities/parents/parents.php'); }); parents.php: <div class="entity_wrapper"> Some divs and selectors </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ //Some jQuery / javascript }); </script> So the content loads fine, while the scripts dynamically loaded execute fine as well. I apply this system repetitively and it continues to work smoothly. I've seen that there are a lot of frameworks available on SPA's (such as backbone.js) but I don't understand why I need them if this works fine. From the backbone.js website: When working on a web application that involves a lot of JavaScript, one of the first things you learn is to stop tying your data to the DOM. It's all too easy to create JavaScript applications that end up as tangled piles of jQuery selectors and callbacks, all trying frantically to keep data in sync between the HTML UI, your JavaScript logic, and the database on your server. For rich client-side applications, a more structured approach is often helpful. Well, I totally don't have the feeling that I'm going through the stuff they mention. Adding the javascript per page works really well for me. They are html containers with clear scope and the javascript is just related to that part. More over, the front end doesn't do that much, most of the logic is managed based on Ajax calls to external PHP scripts. Sometimes the js can be a bit more extended for some functionalities, but all just loads as smooth in less than a second. If you think that this is bad coding, please tell me why I cannot do this and more importantly, what is the alternative I should apply. At the moment, I really don't see a reason on why I would change this approach as it just works too well. I'm kinda stuck on this question because it just worries me sick as it seems to easy to be true. Why would people go through hard times if it would be as easy as this...

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• EXC_MEMORY_ACCESS when trying to delete from Core Data ($cash solution)

  - by llloydxmas

  I have an application that downloads an xml file, parses the file, and creates core data objects while doing so. In the parse code I have a function called 'emptydatacontext' that removes all items from Core Data before creating replacements items from the xml data. This method looks like this: -(void) emptyDataContext { NSFetchRequest * allCon = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; [allCon setEntity:[NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Condition" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]]; NSError * error = nil; NSArray * conditions = [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:allCon error:&error]; DebugLog(@"ERROR: %@",error); DebugLog(@"RETRIEVED: %@", conditions); [allCon release]; for (NSManagedObject * condition in conditions) { [managedObjectContext deleteObject:condition]; } // Update the data model effectivly removing the objects we removed above. //NSError *error; if (![managedObjectContext save:&error]) { DebugLog(@"%@", [error domain]); } } The first time this runs it deletes all objects and functions as it should - creating new objects from the xml file. I created a 'update' button that starts the exact same process of retrieving the file the proceeding with the parse & build. All is well until its time to delete the core data objects. This 'deleteObject' call creates a "EXC_BAD_ACCESS" error each time. This only happens on the second time through. Captured errors return null. If I log the 'conditions' array I get a list of NSManagedObjects on the first run. On the second this log request causes a crash exactly as the deleteObject call does. I have a feeling it is something very simple I'm missing or not doing correctly to cause this behavior. The data works great on my tableviews - its only when trying to update I get the crashes. I have spent days & days on this trying numerous alternative methods. Whats left of my hair is falling out. I'd be willing to ante up some cash for anyone willing to look at my code and see what I'm doing wrong. Just need to get past this hurdle. Thanks in advance for the help!

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• Passing variables, creating instances, self, The mechanics and usage of classes: need explenation

  - by Baf

  I've been sitting over this the whole day and Im a little tired already so please excuse me being brief. Im new to python. I just rewrrote a working program, into a bunch of functions in a class and everzthings messed up. I dont know if its me but Im very surprised i couldn t find a beginners tutorial on how to handle classes on the web so I have a few questions. First of all, in the init section of the class i have declared a bunch of variables with self.variable=something. Is it correct that i should be able to access/modify these variables in every function of the class by using self.variable in that function? In other words by declaring self.variable i have made these variables, global variables in the scope of the class right? If not how do i handle self. ? Secondly how do i correctly pass arguments to the class? some example code would be cool. thirdly how do i call a function of the class outside of the class scope? some example code would be cool. fouthly how do I create an Instance of the class INITIALCLASS in another class OTHERCLASS, passing variables from OTHERCLASS to INITIALCLASS? some example code would be cool. I Want to call a function from OTHERCLASS with arguments from INITIALCLASS. What Ive done so far is. class OTHERCLASS(): def __init__(self,variable1,variable2,variable3): self.variable1=variable1 self.variable2=variable2 self.variable3=variable3 def someotherfunction(self): something=somecode(using self.variable3) self.variable2.append(something) print self.variable2 def somemorefunctions(self): self.variable2.append(variable1) class INITIALCLASS(): def __init__(self): self.variable1=value1 self.variable2=[] self.variable3='' self.DoIt=OTHERCLASS(variable1,variable2,variable3) def somefunction(self): variable3=Somecode #tried this self.DoIt.someotherfunctions() #and this DoIt.someotherfunctions() I clearly havent understood how to pass variables to classes or how to handle self, when to use it and when not, I probably also havent understood how to properly create an isntance of a class. In general i havent udnerstood the mechanics of classes So please help me and explain it to me like i have no Idea( which i dont it seems). Or point me to a thorough video, or readable tutorial. All i find on the web is super simple examples, that didnt help me much. Or just very short definitions of classes and class methods instances etc. I can send you my original code if you guys want, but its quite long. Thanks for the Help Much appreciated!

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• Unit Testing - Am I doing it right?

  - by baron

  Hi everyone, Basically I have been programing for a little while and after finishing my last project can fully understand how much easier it would have been if I'd have done TDD. I guess I'm still not doing it strictly as I am still writing code then writing a test for it, I don't quite get how the test becomes before the code if you don't know what structures and how your storing data etc... but anyway... Kind of hard to explain but basically lets say for example I have a Fruit objects with properties like id, color and cost. (All stored in textfile ignore completely any database logic etc) FruitID FruitName FruitColor FruitCost 1 Apple Red 1.2 2 Apple Green 1.4 3 Apple HalfHalf 1.5 This is all just for example. But lets say I have this is a collection of Fruit (it's a List<Fruit>) objects in this structure. And my logic will say to reorder the fruitids in the collection if a fruit is deleted (this is just how the solution needs to be). E.g. if 1 is deleted, object 2 takes fruit id 1, object 3 takes fruit id2. Now I want to test the code ive written which does the reordering, etc. How can I set this up to do the test? Here is where I've got so far. Basically I have fruitManager class with all the methods, like deletefruit, etc. It has the list usually but Ive changed hte method to test it so that it accepts a list, and the info on the fruit to delete, then returns the list. Unit-testing wise: Am I basically doing this the right way, or have I got the wrong idea? and then I test deleting different valued objects / datasets to ensure method is working properly. [Test] public void DeleteFruit() { var fruitList = CreateFruitList(); var fm = new FruitManager(); var resultList = fm.DeleteFruitTest("Apple", 2, fruitList); //Assert that fruitobject with x properties is not in list ? how } private static List<Fruit> CreateFruitList() { //Build test data var f01 = new Fruit {Name = "Apple",Id = 1, etc...}; var f02 = new Fruit {Name = "Apple",Id = 2, etc...}; var f03 = new Fruit {Name = "Apple",Id = 3, etc...}; var fruitList = new List<Fruit> {f01, f02, f03}; return fruitList; }

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• Loading datasets from datastore and merge into single dictionary. Resource problem.

  - by fredrik

  Hi, I have a productdatabase that contains products, parts and labels for each part based on langcodes. The problem I'm having and haven't got around is a huge amount of resource used to get the different datasets and merging them into a dict to suit my needs. The products in the database are based on a number of parts that is of a certain type (ie. color, size). And each part has a label for each language. I created 4 different models for this. Products, ProductParts, ProductPartTypes and ProductPartLabels. I've narrowed it down to about 10 lines of code that seams to generate the problem. As of currently I have 3 Products, 3 Types, 3 parts for each type, and 2 languages. And the request takes a wooping 5500ms to generate. for product in productData: productDict = {} typeDict = {} productDict['productName'] = product.name cache_key = 'productparts_%s' % (slugify(product.key())) partData = memcache.get(cache_key) if not partData: for type in typeData: typeDict[type.typeId] = { 'default' : '', 'optional' : [] } ## Start of problem lines ## for defaultPart in product.defaultPartsData: for label in labelsForLangCode: if label.key() in defaultPart.partLabelList: typeDict[defaultPart.type.typeId]['default'] = label.partLangLabel for optionalPart in product.optionalPartsData: for label in labelsForLangCode: if label.key() in optionalPart.partLabelList: typeDict[optionalPart.type.typeId]['optional'].append(label.partLangLabel) ## end problem lines ## memcache.add(cache_key, typeDict, 500) partData = memcache.get(cache_key) productDict['parts'] = partData productList.append(productDict) I guess the problem lies in the number of for loops is too many and have to iterate over the same data over and over again. labelForLangCode get all labels from ProductPartLabels that match the current langCode. All parts for a product is stored in a db.ListProperty(db.key). The same goes for all labels for a part. The reason I need the some what complex dict is that I want to display all data for a product with it's default parts and show a selector for the optional one. The defaultPartsData and optionaPartsData are properties in the Product Model that looks like this: @property def defaultPartsData(self): return ProductParts.gql('WHERE __key__ IN :key', key = self.defaultParts) @property def optionalPartsData(self): return ProductParts.gql('WHERE __key__ IN :key', key = self.optionalParts) When the completed dict is in the memcache it works smoothly, but isn't the memcache reset if the application goes in to hibernation? Also I would like to show the page for first time user(memcache empty) with out the enormous delay. Also as I said above, this is only a small amount of parts/product. What will the result be when it's 30 products with 100 parts. Is one solution to create a scheduled task to cache it in the memcache every hour? It this efficient? I know this is alot to take in, but I'm stuck. I've been at this for about 12 hours straight. And can't figure out a solution. ..fredrik

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• Improved way to build nested array of unique values in javascript

  - by dualmon

  The setup: I have a nested html table structure that displays hierarchical data, and the individual rows can be hidden or shown by the user. Each row has a dom id that is comprised of the level number plus the primary key for the record type on that level. I have to have both, because each level is from a different database table, so the primary key alone is not unique in the dom. example: id="level-1-row-216" I am storing the levels and rows of the visible elements in a cookie, so that when the page reloads the same rows the user had open are can be shown automatically. I don't store the full map of dom ids, because I'm concerned about it getting too verbose, and I want to keep my cookie under 4Kb. So I convert the dom ids to a compact json object like this, with one property for each level, and a unique array of primary keys under each level: { 1:[231,432,7656], 2:[234,121], 3:[234,2], 4:[222,423], 5:[222] } With this structure stored in a cookie, I feed it to my show function and restore the user's previous disclosure state when the page loads. The area for improvement: I'm looking for better option for reducing my map of id selectors down to this compact format. Here is my function: function getVisibleIds(){ // example dom id: level-1-row-216-sub var ids = $("tr#[id^=level]:visible").map(function() { return this.id; }); var levels = {}; for(var i in ids ) { var id = ids[i]; if (typeof id == 'string'){ if (id.match(/^level/)){ // here we extract the number for level and row var level = id.replace(/.*(level-)(\d*)(.*)/, '$2'); var row = id.replace(/.*(row-)(\d*)(.*)/, '$2'); // *** Improvement here? *** // This works, but it seems klugy. In PHP it's one line (see below): if(levels.hasOwnProperty(level)){ if($.inArray(parseInt(row, 10) ,levels[level]) == -1){ levels[level].push(parseInt(row, 10)); } } else { levels[level] = [parseInt(row, 10)]; } } } } return levels; } If I were doing it in PHP, I'd build the compact array like this, but I can't figure it out in javascript: foreach($ids as $id) { if (/* the criteria */){ $level = /* extract it from $id */; $row = /* extract it from $id */; $levels[$level][$row]; } }

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• How to refresh xmlDataProvider when xml document changes at runtime in WPF?

  - by Kajsa

  I am trying to make a image viewer/album creator in visual studio, wpf. The image paths for each album is stored in an xml document which i bind to to show the images from each album in a listbox. The problem is when i add a image or an album at runtime and write it to the xml document. I can't seem to make the bindings to the xml document update so they show the new images and albums aswell. Calling Refresh() on the XmlDataProvider doesn't change anything. I don't wish to redo the binding of the XmlDataProvider, just make it read from the same source again. XAML: ... <Grid.DataContext> <XmlDataProvider x:Name="Images" Source="Data/images.xml" XPath="/albums/album[@name='no album']/image" /> </Grid.DataContext> ... <Label Grid.Row="1" Grid.Column="0" HorizontalAlignment="Right" VerticalAlignment="Bottom" Padding="0" Margin="0,0,0,5" Content="{x:Static resx:Resource.AddImageLabel}"/> <TextBox Grid.Row="1" Grid.Column="1" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" VerticalAlignment="Bottom" Name="newImagePath" Margin="0" /> <Button Grid.Row="1" Grid.Column="2" HorizontalAlignment="Left" VerticalAlignment="Bottom" Name="newImagePathButton" Content="{x:Static resx:Resource.BrowseImageButton}" Click="newImagePathButton_Click" /> ... <ListBox Grid.Column="0" Grid.ColumnSpan="4" Grid.Row="3" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" Name="thumbnailList" VerticalAlignment="Bottom" IsSynchronizedWithCurrentItem="True" ItemsSource="{Binding BindingGroupName=Images}" SelectedIndex="0" Background="#FFE0E0E0" Height="110"> ... Code behind: private void newImagePathButton_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { string imagePath = newImagePath.Text; albumCreator.addImage(imagePath, null); //Reset import image elements to default newImagePath.Text = ""; //Refresh thumbnail listbox Images.Refresh(); Console.WriteLine("Image added!"); } public void addImage(string source, XmlElement parent) { if (parent == null) { //Use default album parent = (XmlElement)root.FirstChild; } //Create image element with source element within XmlElement newImage = xmlDoc.CreateElement(null, "image", null); XmlElement newSource = xmlDoc.CreateElement(null, "source", null); newSource.InnerText = source; newImage.AppendChild(newSource); //Add image element to parent parent.AppendChild(newImage); xmlDoc.Save(xmlFile); } Thank you very much for any help!

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• Passing ViewModel for backbone.js from MVC3 Server-Side

  - by Roman

  In ASP.NET MVC there is Model, View and Controller. MODEL represents entities which are stored in database and essentially is all the data used in a application (for example, generated by EntityFramework, "DB First" approach). Not all data from model you want to show in the view (for example, hashs of passwords). So you create VIEW MODEL, each for every strongly-typed-razor-view you have in application. Like this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; namespace MyProject.ViewModels.SomeController.SomeAction { public class ViewModel { public ViewModel() { Entities1 = new List<ViewEntity1>(); Entities2 = new List<ViewEntity2>(); } public List<ViewEntity1> Entities1 { get; set; } public List<ViewEntity2> Entities2 { get; set; } } public class ViewEntity1 { //some properties from original DB-entity you want to show } public class ViewEntity2 { } } When you create complex client-side interfaces (I do), you use some pattern for javascript on client, MVC or MVVM (I know only these). So, with MVC on client you have another model (Backbone.Model for example), which is third model in application. It is a bit much. Why don`t we use the same ViewModel model on a client (in backbone.js or another framework)? Is there a way to transfer CS-coded model to JS-coded? Like in MVVM pattern, with knockout.js, when you can do like this: in SomeAction.cshtml: <div style="display: none;" id="view_model">@Json.Encode(Model)</div> after that in Javascript-code var ViewModel = ko.mapping.fromJSON($("#view_model").get(0).innerHTML); now you can extend your ViewModel with some actions, event handlers, etc: ko.utils.extend(ViewModel, { some_function: function () { //some code } }); So, we are not building the same view model on the client again, we are transferring existing view model from server. At least, data. But knockout.js is not suitable for me, you can`t build complex UI with it, it is just data-binding. I need something more structural, like backbone.js. The only way to build ViewModel for backbone.js I can see now is re-writing same ViewModel in JS from server with hands. Is there any ways to transfer it from server? To reuse the same viewmodel on server view and client view?

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• assignment not working in a dll exported C++ class

  - by Jim Jones

  Using VS 2008 Have a C++ class in which I'm calling functions from a 3rd party dll. The definition in the header file is as follows: namespace OITImageExport { class ImageExport { private: SCCERR seResult; /* Error code returned. */ VTHDOC hDoc; /* Input doc handle returned by DAOpenDocument(). */ VTHEXPORT hExport; /* Handle to the export returned by EXOpenExport(). */ VTDWORD dwFIFlags; /* Used in setting the SCCOPT_FIFLAGS option. */ VTCHAR szError[256]; /* Error string buffer. */ VTDWORD dwOutputId; /* Output Format. */ VTDWORD dwSpecType; public: ImageExport(const char* outputId, const char* specType); void ProcessDocument(const char* inputPath, const char* outputPath); ~ImageExport(); }; } In the constructor I initialize two of the class fields having values which come from enumerations in the 3rd party dll: ImageExport::ImageExport(const char* outputId, const char* specType) { if(outputId == "jpeg") { dwOutputId = FI_JPEGFIF; } if(specType == "ansi") { dwSpecType = IOTYPE_ANSIPATH; } seResult = DAInit(); if (seResult != SCCERR_OK) { DAGetErrorString(seResult, szError, sizeof(szError)); fprintf(stderr, "DAInit() failed: %s (0x%04X)\n", szError, seResult); exit(seResult); } } When I use this class inside of a console app, with a main method in another file (all in the same namespace), instantiating the class object and calling the methods, it works like a champ. So, now that I know the basic code works, I open a dll project using the class header and code file. Course I have to add the dll macro, namely: #ifdef IMAGEDLL_EXPORTS #define DLL __declspec(dllexport) #else #define DLL __declspec(dllimport) #endif and changed the class definition to "class DLL ImageExport". Compiled nicely to a dll and .lib file (No errors, No warnings). Now to test this dll I open another console project using the same main method as before and linking to the (dll) lib file. Had problems, which when tracked down were the result of the two fields not being set; both had values of 0. Went back to the first console app and printed out the values: dwOutputId was 1535 (#define FI_JPEGFIF 1535) and dwSpecType was 2 (#define IOTYPE_ANSIPATH 2). Now if I was assigning these values outside of the class, I can see how the visibility could be different, but why is the assignment in the dll not working? Is it something about having a class in the dll?

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• C# Type Casting at Runtimefor Array.SetValue

  - by sprocketonline

  I'm trying to create an array using reflection, and insert values into it. I'm trying to do this for many different types so would like a createAndFillArray function capable of this : Type t1 = typeof(A); Type t2 = typeof(B); double exampleA = 22.5; int exampleB = 43; Array arrA = createAndFillArray(t1, exampleA); Array arrB = createAndFillArray(t2, exampleB); private Array createAndFillArray(Type t, object val){ Array arr = Array.CreateInstance( t, 1); //length 1 in this example only, real-world is of variable length. arr.SetValue( val, 0 ); //this causes the following error: "System.InvalidCastException : Object cannot be stored in an array of this type." return arr; } with the class A being as follows: public class A{ public A(){} private double val; public double Value{ get{ return val; } set{ this.val = value; } } public static implicit operator A(double d){ A a = new A(); a.Value = d; return a; } } and class B being very similar, but with int: public class B{ public B(){} private double val; public double Value{ get{ return val; } set{ this.val = value; } } public static implicit operator B(double d){ B b = new B(); b.Value = d; return b; } } I hoped that the implicit operator would have ensured that the double be converted to class A, or the int to class B, and the error avoided; but this is obviously not so. The above is used in a custom deserialization class, which takes data from a custom data format and fills in the corresponding .Net object properties. I'm doing this via reflection and at runtime, so I think both are unavoidable. I'm targeting the C# 2.0 framework. I've dozens, if not hundreds, of classes similar to A and B, so would prefer to find a solution which improved on the createAndFillArray method rather than a solution which altered these classes.

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• [NHibernate and ASP.NET MVC] How can I implement a robust session-per-request pattern in my project,

  - by Guillaume Gervais

  I'm currently building an ASP.NET MVC project, with NHibernate as its persistance layer. For now, some functionnalities have been implemented, but only use local NHibernate sessions: each method that accessed the database (read or write) needs to instanciate its own NHibernate session, with the "using()" directive. The problem is that I want to leverage NHibernate's Lazy-Loading capabilities to improve the performance of my project. This implies an open NHibernate session per request until the view is rendered. Furthermore, simultaneous request must be supported (multiple Sessions at the same time). How can I achieve that as cleanly as possible? I searched the Web a little bit and learned about the session-per-request pattern. Most of the implementations I saw used some sort of Http* (HttpContext, etc.) object to store the session. Also, using the Application_BeginRequest/Application_EndRequest functions is complicated, since they get fired for each HTTP request (aspx files, css files, js files, etc.), when I only want to instanciate a session once per request. The concern that I have is that I don't want my views or controllers to have access to NHibernate sessions (or, more generally, NHibernate namespaces and code). That means that I do not want to handle sessions at the controller level nor the view one. I have a few options in mind. Which one seems the best ? Use interceptors (like in GRAILS) that get triggered before and after the controller action. These would open and close sessions/transactions. Is it possible in the ASP.NET MVC world? Use the CurrentSessionContext Singleton provided by NHibernate in a Web context. Using this page as an example, I think this is quite promising, but that still requires filters at the controller level. Use the HttpContext.Current.Items to store the request session. This, coupled with a few lines of code in Global.asax.cs, can easily provide me with a session on the request level. However, it means that dependencies will be injected between NHibernate and my views (HttpContext). Thank you very much!

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• Primary language - QtC++, C#, Java?

  - by Airjoe

  I'm looking for some input, but let me start with a bit of background (for tl;dr skip to end). I'm an IT major with a concentration in networking. While I'm not a CS major nor do I want to program as a vocation, I do consider myself a programmer and do pretty well with the concepts involved. I've been programming since about 6th grade, started out with a proprietary game creation language that made my transition into C++ at college pretty easy. I like to make programs for myself and friends, and have been paid to program for local businesses. A bit about that- I wrote some programs for a couple local businesses in my senior year in high school. I wrote management systems for local shops (inventory, phone/pos orders, timeclock, customer info, and more stuff I can't remember). It definitely turned out to be over my head, as I had never had any formal programming education. It was a great learning experience, but damn was it crappy code. Oh yeah, by the way, it was all vb6. So, I've used vb6 pretty extensively, I've used c++ in my classes (intro to programming up to algorithms), used Java a little bit in another class (had to write a ping client program, pretty easy) and used Java for some simple Project Euler problems to help learn syntax and such when writing the program for the class. I've also used C# a bit for my own simple personal projects (simple programs, one which would just generate an HTTP request on a list of websites and notify if one responded unexpectedly or not at all, and another which just held a list of things to do and periodically reminded me to do them), things I would've written in vb6 a year or two ago. I've just started using Qt C++ for some undergrad research I'm working on. Now I've had some formal education, I [think I] understand organization in programming a lot better (I didn't even use classes in my vb6 programs where I really should have), how it's important to structure code, split into functions where appropriate, document properly, efficiency both in memory and speed, dynamic and modular programming etc. I was looking for some input on which language to pick up as my "primary". As I'm not a "real programmer", it will be mostly hobby projects, but will include some 'real' projects I'm sure. From my perspective: QtC++ and Java are cross platform, which is cool. Java and C# run in a virtual machine, but I'm not sure if that's a big deal (something extra to distribute, possibly a bit slower? I think Qt would require additional distributables too, right?). I don't really know too much more than this, so I appreciate any help, thanks! TL;DR Am an avocational programmer looking for a language, want quick and straight forward development, liked vb6, will be working with database driven GUI apps- should I go with QtC++, Java, C#, or perhaps something else?

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• What are the steps to convert this function to a model/controller in Zend Framework?

  - by Joel

  Hi guys, I'm learning Zend Framework MVC, and I have a website that is mainly static php pages. However one of the pages is using functions, etc, and I'm trying to figure out what the process is for converting this to an OOP setup. Within the <body> I have this function (and more, but this is the first function): function filterEventDetails($contentText) { $data = array(); foreach($contentText as $row) { if(strstr($row, 'When: ')) { ##cleaning "when" string to get date in the format "May 28, 2009"## $data['duration'] = str_replace('When: ','',$row); list($when, ) = explode(' to ',$data['duration']); $data['when'] = substr($when,4); if(strlen($data['when'])>13) $data['when'] = trim(str_replace(strrchr($data['when'], ' '),'',$data['when'])); $data['duration'] = substr($data['duration'], 0, strlen($data['duration'])-4); //trimming time zone identifier (UTC etc.) } if(strstr($row, 'Where: ')) { $data['where'] = str_replace('Where: ','',$row); //pr($row); //$where = strstr($row, 'Where: '); //pr($where); } if(strstr($row, 'Event Description: ')) { $event_desc = str_replace('Event Description: ','',$row); //$event_desc = strstr($row, 'Event Description: '); ## Filtering event description and extracting venue, ticket urls etc from it. //$event_desc = str_replace('Event Description: ','',$contentText[3]); $event_desc_array = explode('|',$event_desc); array_walk($event_desc_array,'get_desc_second_part'); //pr($event_desc_array); $data['venue_url'] = $event_desc_array[0]; $data['details'] = $event_desc_array[1]; $data['tickets_url'] = $event_desc_array[2]; $data['tickets_button'] = $event_desc_array[3]; $data['facebook_url'] = $event_desc_array[4]; $data['facebook_icon'] = $event_desc_array[5]; } } return $data; } ?> So right now I have this in my example.phtml view page. I understand this needs to be a model and acted on by the controller, but I'm really not sure where to start with this conversion? This is a function tht is taking info from a Google calendar and parsing it for the view. Thanks for any help!

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• Why did File::Find finish short of completely traversing a large directory?

  - by Stan

  A directory exists with a total of 2,153,425 items (according to Windows folder Properties). It contains .jpg and .gif image files located within a few subdirectories. The task was to move the images into a different location while querying each file's name to retrieve some relevant info and store it elsewhere. The script that used File::Find finished at 20462 files. Out of curiosity I wrote a tiny recursive function to count the items which returned a count of 1,734,802. I suppose the difference can be accounted for by the fact that it didn't count folders, only files that passed the -f test. The problem itself can be solved differently by querying for file names first instead of traversing the directory. I'm just wondering what could've caused File::Find to finish at a small fraction of all files. The data is stored on an NTFS file system. Here is the meat of the script; I don't think including DBI stuff would be relevant since I reran the script with nothing but a counter in process_img() which returned the same number. find(\&process_img, $path_from); sub process_img { eval { return if ($_ eq "." or $_ eq ".."); ## Omitted querying and composing new paths for brevity. make_path("$path_to\\img\\$dir_area\\$dir_address\\$type"); copy($File::Find::name, "$path_to\\img\\$dir_area\\$dir_address\\$type\\$new_name"); }; if ($@) { print STDERR "eval barks: $@\n"; return } } And here is another method I used to count files: count_images($path_from); sub count_images { my $path = shift; opendir my $images, $path or die "died opening $path"; while (my $item = readdir $images) { next if $item eq '.' or $item eq '..'; $img_counter++ && next if -f "$path/$item"; count_images("$path/$item") if -d "$path/$item"; } closedir $images or die "died closing $path"; } print $img_counter;

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• Calling managed code from unmanaged win32 assembly dll - crash

  - by JustGreg

  I'm developing a serial port dll in win32 assembly (MASM32). It has its own thread checking multiple events and at a specified buffer treshold it'd notify the managed main application by calling a callback function. It just a call with no arguments/return value. At startup the main application stores the callback function's address by calling a function in the dll: pCallBackFunction dd 0 SetCallBackPointer proc pcb:DWORD mov eax, pcb mov pCallBackFunction, eax call DWORD ptr pCallBackFunction ; verify it immediately ret SetCallBackPointer endp The upper function immediately calls back the managed application callback routine for verification purposes. It is working fine. However, when I place the call instruction to other functions in the dll it crashes the application. It doesn't matter if the call is in a simple function or in the threadproc of the dll. For example: OpenPort proc pn:byte,br:dword, inputbuffersize: dword, outputbuffersize:dword, tresholdsize: dword LOCAL dcb: DCB LOCAL SerialTimeOuts: COMMTIMEOUTS call DWORD ptr pCallBackFunction xor eax, eax mov al, pn mov [com_port+3],al etc. etc. will crash at call DWORD ptr pCallBackFunction always. Since I call SetCallBackPointer first to store a valid address in pCallBackFunction, it should have a valid address. My managed app is written in C# and the relevant part is: public partial class Form1 : Form { public delegate void CallBackDelegate(); public static CallBackDelegate mydelegate; [DllImport("serialport.dll")] private static extern void SetCallBackPointer(CallBackDelegate Delegate); [DllImport("serialport.dll")] public static extern int OpenPort(byte com, uint br, uint inbufsize, uint outbufsize, uint treshsize); public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); mydelegate =new CallBackDelegate(CallbackFunction); SetCallBackPointer(mydelegate); unsafe { int sysstat; int hResult; hResult = OpenPort(Convert.ToByte('5'), 9600, 306, 4, 4); } } public static void CallbackFunction() { MessageBox.Show( "CallBack Function Called by Windows DLL"); } The VS debugger reported that the dll had tried to read/write from/to a protected memory address. But when calling SetCallBackPointer there is no such problem. What am I doing wrong here? Any tips would be great!

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• Webservice for uploading data: security considerations

  - by Philip Daubmeier

  Hi everyone! Im not sure about what authentification method I should use for my webservice. I've searched on SO, and found nothing that helped me. Preliminary Im building an application that uploads data from a local database to a server (running my webservice), where all records are merged and stored in a central database. I am currently binary serializing a DataTable, that holds a small fragment of the local database, where all uninteresting stuff is already filtered out. The byte[] (serialized DataTable), together with the userid and a hash of the users password is then uploaded to the webservice via SOAP. The application together with the webservice already work exactly like intended. The Problem The issue I am thinking about is now: What is if someone just sniffs the network traffic, 'steals' the users id and password hash to send his own SOAP message with modified data that corrupts my database? Options The approaches to solving that problem, I already thought of, are: Using ssl + certificates for establishing the connection: I dont really want to use ssl, I would prefer a simpler solution. After all, every information that is transfered to the webservice can be seen on the website later on. What I want to say is: there is no secret/financial/business-critical information, that has to be hidden. I think ssl would be sort of an overkill for that task. Encrypting the byte[]: I think that would be a performance killer, considering that the goal of the excercise was simply to authenticate the user. Hashing the users password together with the data: I kind of like the idea: Creating a checksum from the data, concatenating that checksum with the password-hash and hashing this whole thing again. That would assure the data was sent from this specific user, and the data wasnt modified. The actual question So, what do you think is the best approach in terms of meeting the following requirements? Rather simple solution (As it doesnt have to be super secure; no secret/business-critical information transfered) Easily implementable retrospectively (Dont want to write it all again :) ) Doesnt impact to much on performance What do you think of my prefered solution, the last one in the list above? Is there any alternative solution I didnt mention, that would fit better? You dont have to answer every question in detail. Just push me in the right direction. I very much appreciate every well-grounded opinion. Thanks in advance!

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• Use multiple inheritance to discriminate useage roles?

  - by Arne

  Hi fellows, it's my flight simulation application again. I am leaving the mere prototyping phase now and start fleshing out the software design now. At least I try.. Each of the aircraft in the simulation have got a flight plan associated to them, the exact nature of which is of no interest for this question. Sufficient to say that the operator way edit the flight plan while the simulation is running. The aircraft model most of the time only needs to read-acess the flight plan object which at first thought calls for simply passing a const reference. But ocassionally the aircraft will need to call AdvanceActiveWayPoint() to indicate a way point has been reached. This will affect the Iterator returned by function ActiveWayPoint(). This implies that the aircraft model indeed needs a non-const reference which in turn would also expose functions like AppendWayPoint() to the aircraft model. I would like to avoid this because I would like to enforce the useage rule described above at compile time. Note that class WayPointIter is equivalent to a STL const iterator, that is the way point can not be mutated by the iterator. class FlightPlan { public: void AppendWayPoint(const WayPointIter& at, WayPoint new_wp); void ReplaceWayPoint(const WayPointIter& ar, WayPoint new_wp); void RemoveWayPoint(WayPointIter at); (...) WayPointIter First() const; WayPointIter Last() const; WayPointIter Active() const; void AdvanceActiveWayPoint() const; (...) }; My idea to overcome the issue is this: define an abstract interface class for each usage role and inherit FlightPlan from both. Each user then only gets passed a reference of the appropriate useage role. class IFlightPlanActiveWayPoint { public: WayPointIter Active() const =0; void AdvanceActiveWayPoint() const =0; }; class IFlightPlanEditable { public: void AppendWayPoint(const WayPointIter& at, WayPoint new_wp); void ReplaceWayPoint(const WayPointIter& ar, WayPoint new_wp); void RemoveWayPoint(WayPointIter at); (...) }; Thus the declaration of FlightPlan would only need to be changed to: class FlightPlan : public IFlightPlanActiveWayPoint, IFlightPlanEditable { (...) }; What do you think? Are there any cavecats I might be missing? Is this design clear or should I come up with somethink different for the sake of clarity? Alternatively I could also define a special ActiveWayPoint class which would contain the function AdvanceActiveWayPoint() but feel that this might be unnecessary. Thanks in advance!

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