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  • Passing variables from a thread to another form using C#

    - by kirstom14
    Hi, I am trying to pass 2 variables from a thread, in the MainForm, to another form, but when doing so an error occurs. private void TrackingThread( ) { float targetX = 0; float targetY = 0; while ( true ) { camera1Acquired.WaitOne( ); camera2Acquired.WaitOne( ); lock ( this ) { // stop the thread if it was signaled if ( ( x1 == -1 ) && ( y1 == -1 ) && ( x2 == -1 ) && ( y2 == -1 ) ) { break; } // get middle point targetX = ( x1 + x2 ) / 2; targetY = ( y1 + y2 ) / 2; } if (directionForm != null) { directionForm.RunMotors(targetX, targetY); } } } In the form, directionForm, I am simply displaying the variables targetX and targetY. The code for the directionForm.RunMotors() is the following: public void RunMotors(float x, float y) { label1.Text = "X-ordinate " + x.ToString(); label2.Text = "Y-ordinate " + y.ToString(); } The error happen when I am trying to display the two variables: "InvalidOperationException was unhandled Cross-threading operation not valid: Control label1 accessed from a thread other than . the thread it was created on" What shall I do??? Thanks in advance

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  • Ruby : UTF-8 IO

    - by subtenante
    I use ruby 1.8.7. I try to parse some text files containing greek sentences, encoded in UTF-8. (I can't much paste here sample files, because they are subject to copyright. Really just some greek text encoded in UTF-8.) I want, for each file, to parse the file, extract all the words, and make a list of each new word found in this file. All that saved to one big index file. Here is my code : #!/usr/bin/ruby -KU def prepare_line(l) l.gsub(/^\s*[ST]\d+\s*:\s*|\s+$|\(\d+\)\s*/u, "") end def tokenize(l) l.split /['·.;!:\s]+/u end $dict = {} $cpt = 0 $out = File.new 'out.txt', 'w' def lesson(file) $cpt = $cpt + 1 file.readlines.each do |l| $out.puts l l = prepare_line l tokenize(l).each do |t| unless $dict[t] $dict[t] = $cpt $out.puts " #{t}\n" end end end end Dir.new('etc/').each do |filename| f = File.new("etc/#{filename}") unless File.directory? f lesson f end end Here is part of my output : ?@???†?†?????????? ?...[snip very long hangul/hanzi mishmash]... ????????†? ???N2 : ?e?te?? (2) µ???µa (Note that the puts l part seems to work fine, at the end of the given output line.) Any idea what is wrong with my code ? (General comments about ruby idioms I could use are very welcome, I'm really a beginner.)

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  • My jQuery and PHP give different results on the same thing?

    - by Stefan
    Hey all, Annoying brain numbing problem. I have two functions to check the length of a string (primarily, the js one truncates as well) heres the one in Javascript: $('textarea#itemdescription').keyup(function() { var charLength = $(this).val().length; // Displays count $('span#charCount').css({'color':'#666'}); $('span#charCount').html(255 - charLength); if($(this).val().length >= 240){ $('span#charCount').css({'color':'#FF0000'}); } // Alerts when 250 characters is reached if($(this).val().length >= 255){ $('span#charCount').css({'color':'#FF0000'}); $('span#charCount').html('<strong>0</strong>'); var text = $('textarea#itemdescription').val().substring(0,255) $('textarea#itemdescription').val(text); } }); And here is my PHP to double check: if(strlen($_POST["description"])>255){ echo "Description must be less than ".strlen($_POST["description"])." characters"; exit(); } I'm using jQuery Ajax to post the values from the textarea. However my php validation says the strlen() is longer than my js is essentially saying. So for example if i type a solid string and it says 0 or 3 chars left till 255. I then click save and the php gives me the length as being 261. Any ideas? Is it to do with special characters, bit sizes that js reads differently or misses out? Or is it to do with something else? Maybe its ill today!... :P Thanks, Stefan

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  • How to let one external stylsheet selectively overrule the other

    - by Ferdy
    I'm stunned by a simple thing that I want to accomplish but does not work. I have a website and I want it to support themes, which are a named set of CSS + images. No matter which theme is selected, I always include the main CSS file, which is the default theme. On top of that I'm loading a second stylesheet, the one that is theme-specific, like so: <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="css/main.css" title=main" media="screen" /> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="themes/<?= $style ?>/css/<?= $style ?>.css" title="<?= $style ?>" media="screen" /> My idea is that the theme specific css should not be a full copy of the main css file. Instead, it should only contain CSS rules that overrule those of the main.css file. This makes themes much smaller and easier to maintain. I thought I could simply load two external stylesheets after each other and that for conflicting rules it will always use the theme specific css, the second file. However, it does not seem to work. If I make a dramatic styling change in the theme file then it has no effect. If I then comment the main CSS file, the theme CSS does have effect. Was I too naive in expecting this to work like this? I know I can use inline styles to overrule anything, but I prefer a setup like this if possible.

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  • cURL gets Internal Server Error when posting to aspx page

    - by Mihai
    I have a big problem. I have some applications made on an unix based system, and I use PHP with cURL to post an XML question to an IIS server with asp.net. Every time I ask the server something I get error: HTTP/1.1 500 Internal Server Error Date: Tue, 04 May 2010 07:36:08 GMT Server: Microsoft-IIS/6.0 X-Powered-By: ASP.NET X-AspNet-Version: 2.0.50727 Cache-Control: private Content-Type: text/html; charset=utf-8 Content-Length: 3032 But if I ask same question on another server, almost identically to this one (BOTH configured by me) I get results like it should and the headers: HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Tue, 04 May 2010 07:39:37 GMT Server: Microsoft-IIS/6.0 X-Powered-By: ASP.NET X-AspNet-Version: 2.0.50727 Cache-Control: private Content-Type: text/html; charset=utf-8 Content-Length: 9169 I tried everything, searched hundreds of forums, but i don't find anything. In IIS logs I only get: 2010-05-04 07:36:08 W3SVC1657587027 80.xx.xx.xx POST /XML_SERV/XmlAPI.aspx - 80 - 80.xx.xx.xx Mozilla/4.0+(compatible;+MSIE+6.0;+Windows+NT+5.1 500 0 0 any ideas where to look what is going on? I forgot to mention! If I use an XML request software, and ask same question, it works.

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  • What do I have to change in my PHP/CURL code to retrieve data from a https:// URL?

    - by Edward Tanguay
    I have a PHP file using CURL that accepts a Google Doc URL as a parameter, then returns the plain text of the Google Doc. It worked well until recently when apparently a redirect was added so that the http:// address redirects to the equivalent https:// address, as in this example: http://docs.google.com/View?id=dc7gj86r_20dn2csqg3 So I changed my code to access the https:// address, but it just returns blank. What do I have to change my CURL code so that I can get the HTML text from the https:// address? $url = filter_input(INPUT_GET, 'url',FILTER_SANITIZE_STRING); $validUrlPrefixes[] = "https://docs.google.com"; if(beginsWithOneOfThese($url, $validUrlPrefixes)) { $user_agent = 'Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.2.3) Gecko/20100401 Firefox/3.6.3 (.NET CLR 3.5.30729)'; $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEJAR, "/tmp/cookie"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEFILE, "/tmp/cookie"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url ); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_FAILONERROR, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION, 0); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER,1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 15); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, $user_agent); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_VERBOSE, 0); $rawData = curl_exec($ch); $rawData = cleanText($rawData); if(beginsWith($url, "https://docs.google.com")) { echo qstr::convertGoogleDocContentToText($rawData); die; } echo $rawData; die;

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  • search form in php via ajax

    - by fusion
    i've a search form wherein the database query has been coded in php and the html file calls this php file via ajax to display the results in the search form. the problem is, i would like the result to be displayed in the same form as search.html; yet while the ajax works, it goes to search.php to display the results. search.html: <!DOCTYPE html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"> <script src="scripts/search_ajax.js" type="text/javascript"></script> </head> <body> <form id="submitForm" method="post"> <div class="wrapper"> <div class="field"> <input name="search" id="search" /> </div><br /> <input id="button1" type="submit" value="Submit" class="submit" onclick="run_query();" /><br /> </div> <div id="searchContainer"> </div> </form> </body> </html> if i add action="search.php" to the form tag, it displays the result but on search.php. i'd like it to display on the same form [i.e search.html, and not search.php] if i just add the javascript function [as done above], it displays nothing on search.html

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  • How to access different domain data using Java script

    - by shoaibmohammed
    Hello there, Here is the issue. Suppose there is a DOMAIN A which is going to be the server containing a PHP Script file. The data from Domain A is to be accessed by a Client at DOMAIN B. I know it cannot be accessed directly using JavaScript. So what I did is, in Domain A I created a a JavaScript file as front-end for the PHP Script which AJAXes the PHP and returns the data. But unfortunately it din't work I came across an example having PHP as a Middle Man in the client side. But I donot want to keep any server side PHP code as a middle man in the client side. I just want to give out the Javascript to the client domain. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/578095/how-to-get-data-with-javascript-from-another-server DOMAIN A PHP - data.php <?php echo "Server returns data"; ?> JS - example.js Does the Ajax to the PHP function getData() { //assume ajax is done for data.php and data is retrieved, now return the data return ajaxed_data; } Domain B JS Client includes the example.js file from Domain A in his HTML <script type="text/javascript" src="http://www.DomainA.com/example.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> alert(getData()); </script> I hope I have made myself understandable ! Can this be established ? Its something like Google friend connect, what I mean is, just provide JavaScript to the client and thats it. Every thing carried out in server side Thankx for providing this forum

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  • A potentially dangerous Request.Form value was detected: Dealing with these errors proactively, or a

    - by Albert
    I'm noticing this error more and more in my error logs. I've read through the questions here talking about this error, but they don't address what I would like to do (see below). I'm considering three options, in the order of preference: 1) When submitting a form (I use formviews almost exclusively, if that helps), if potentially dangerous characters are detected, automatically strip them out and submit. 2) When submitting a form, if potentially dangerous characters are detected, alert the user and let them fix it before trying again. 3) After the exception is generated, deal with it and alert the user. I'm hoping one of the first two options might be able to do somewhat globally...I know for the 3rd I'd have to alter a TON of Try-Catch blocks I already have in place. Doable, but labor intensive. I'd rather be proactive about it if at all possible and avoid the exception all together. Perhaps one approach to #1 would be to write a block of code that could loop through all text entry fields in a formview, during the insert/update event, and strip the characters out. I'm ok with that, but I'd rather not have to heavily alter all my Insert/Update events to accomplish this. Or maybe I just create a different class to do the text checking/deleting, and only insert 1 line of code in each Insert/Update event. If anyone can come up with some example code of any of these approaches that would be a help. Thanks for any ideas or information. I'm definitely open to other solutions too; these are only the 3 that came to mind. I can say that I don't want to turn request validation off though.

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  • jQuery weirdness. Div becomes attached to chained element markup?

    - by Scott B
    I've got a div in my app that is displayed each time my theme options panel is "saved". The markup is... <form method="post"> <?php if ( $_REQUEST['saved']) { ?> <div id="message" class="updated fade"><p>Sweet! The settings were saved :)</p></div> <script type="text/javascript"> $('#message').delay(3000).fadeOut(3000);</script> <?php }?> This has the effect of showing the div (which is absolutely positioned to overlay the interface). I'm also using jQuery to fade the message offscreen after 3 seconds. This works fine, however, when I add a bit of script to my jQuery chain (see the commented out block below), the message div is only visible when the jPicker popup appears. $(function() { $("#carousel").jCarouselLite ( { btnNext: ".next", btnPrev: ".prev", visible: 6, speed: 700 } ); $('#carousel').show(); $('#myTheme').change ( function() { var myImage = $('#myTheme :selected').text(); $('.selectedImage img').attr('src','../wp-content/themes/myTheme/styles/'+myImage+'/screenshot.jpg'); } ); $('#carousel ul li').click ( function(e) { var myOption = $(this).children('img').attr('title'); $("#myTheme option[value='"+myOption+"']").attr('selected', 'selected'); $("#myTheme").css('backgroundColor', '#A9A9A9').animate({backgroundColor: "#ffffff"}, 'slow'); } ); $('#carousel ul li').hover ( function(e) { var img_src = $(this).children('img').attr('src'); $('.selectedImage img').attr('src',img_src); } ,function() { $('.selectedImage img').attr('src', '<?php echo $selectedThumb; ?>'); } ); /* $('#myTheme_sidebar_color').jPicker ( {}, function(color) { $(this).val(color.get_Hex()); }, function(color) { $(this).val(color.get_Hex()); } ); */ });

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  • Firefox extension: How to inject javascript into page and run it?

    - by el griz
    I'm writing a Firefox extension to allow users to annotate any page with text and/or drawings and then save an image of the page including the annotations. Use cases would be clients reviewing web pages, adding feedback to the page, saving the image of this and emailing it back to the web developer or testers taking annotated screenshots of GUI bugs etc. I wrote the annotation/drawing functionality in javascript before developing the extension. This script adds a <canvas> element to the page to draw upon as well as a toolbar (in a <div>) that contains buttons (each <canvas> elements) for the different draw tools e.g. line, box, ellipse, text, etc. This works fine when manually included in a page. I now need a way for the extension to: Inject this script into any page including pages I don't control. This needs to occur when the user invokes the extension, which can be after the page has loaded. Once injected the init() function in this script that adds the canvas and toolbar elements etc. needs to be run somehow, but I can't determine how to call this from the extension. Note that once injected I don't need this script to interact with the extension (as the extension just takes a screenshot of the entire document (and removes the added page elements) when the user presses the save button in the extension chrome).

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  • css: make background repeat-y with growing child content?

    - by mikemikemike
    I Have a three column layout. The center div is a container which holds all of my content. The outer columns is just a .png that fades into the body's background (left and right respectively). I want the .png to repeat-y to grow with the center container's content. It will only print the image once, and ignores the repeat-y. If I specify a height to the outside columns, it will print, but only to the specified height. I tried height: 100%, which does not work. Here is my code: #ultra_contain { text-align:left; width:900px; padding: 0px; position:relative; margin:0px auto; margin-top:0px; /*border:1px dashed #996;*/ } #gradientleft { float:left; position:relative; background: url("../i/gradient_left.png") repeat-y; /*border:1px dashed #996;*/ } #gradientright { float:right; position:relative; background: url("../i/gradient_right.png") repeat-y; /*border:1px dashed #996;*/ } #container { text-align:left; width:700px; position:relative; margin:5px auto; margin-top:0px; background:#fff; /*border:1px dashed #996;*/ }

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  • How to call a function from another class file

    - by Guy Parker
    I am very familiar with writing VB based applications but am new to Xcode (and Objective C). I have gone through numerous tutorials on the web and understand the basics and how to interact with Interface Builder etc. However, I am really struggling with some basic concepts of the C language and would be grateful for any help you can offer. Heres my problem… I have a simple iphone app which has a view controller (FirstViewController) and a subview (SecondViewController) with associated header and class files. In the FirstViewController.m have a function defined @implementation FirstViewController (void) writeToServer:(const uint8_t ) buf { [oStream write:buf maxLength:strlen((char)buf)]; } It doesn't really matter what the function is. I want to use this function in my SecondViewController, so in SecondViewController.m I import FirstViewController.h import "SecondViewController.h" import "FirstViewController.h" @implementation SecondViewController -(IBAction) SetButton: (id) sender { NSString *s = [@"Fill:" stringByAppendingString: FillLevelValue.text]; NSString *strToSend = [s stringByAppendingString: @":"]; const uint8_t *str = (uint8_t *) [strToSend cStringUsingEncoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding]; FillLevelValue.text = strToSend; [FirstViewController writeToServer:str]; } This last line is where my problem is. XCode tells me that FirstViewController may not respond to writeToServer. And when I try to run the application it crashes when this function is called. I guess I don't fully understand how to share functions and more importantly, the relationship between classes. In an ideal world I would create a global class to place my functions in and call them as required. Any advice gratefully received.

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  • Getting values from the html to the controller

    - by tina
    Hi, I'm trying to access the values a user introduces in a table from my controller. This table is NOT part of the model, and the view source code is something like: <table id="tableSeriales" summary="Seriales" class="servicesT" cellspacing="0" style="width: 100%"> <tr> <td class="servHd">Seriales</td> </tr> <tr id="t0"> <td class="servBodL"> <input id="0" type="text" value="1234" onkeypress = "return handleKeyPress(event, this.id);"/> <input id="1" type="text" value="578" onkeypress = "return handleKeyPress(event, this.id);"/> . . . </td> </tr> </table> How can I get those values (1234, 578) from the controller? Receiving a formcollection doesn't work since it does not get the table... Thank you.

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  • Font advance calculation problem on Blackberry OS 5.0

    - by John
    I am currently working on my own implementation of a tab bar for a BlackBerry app, where each tab bar has a title that is right aligned (i.e. the last character in each should be the same distance from the right hand side of the screen). To work out where to draw the text I am using the following calculation: screen width - advance of title - indent. The font I am using is 'BBAlpha Sans' (height 28). Using BlackBerry OS 4.6 everything seems to be calculated properly and the text is aligned when I move between tabs, however I am finding that when I use OS 5.0 it doesn't calculate the advance properly and as a result the alignment is off by maybe 5 pixels or so. With the default font (also BBAlpha Sans, but height 24 - for OS 5.0 at least) it works fine in both versions.. but I don't necessarily always want to use the default font/size, so any ideas what could be going wrong? Is this a bug in the 5.0 API? Thanks. Code: public class TitleBarBackground extends Background { .. public void draw(Graphics graphics, XYRect rect) { graphics.pushRegion(rect); .. Font titleBarFont = FontFamily.forName("BBAlpha Sans").getFont(Font.PLAIN, 28); ... int textWidth = titleBarFont.getAdvance(title); graphics.drawText(title, rect.width - textWidth - TITLE_OFFSET, textYOffset); graphics.popContext(); } .. }

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  • sizer.replace() paints "over" old sizercontent

    - by elbenfreund
    hi. I am rather new to wx/python so please excuse if this is stupid or ill described. I am substituting a nested sizer with a new one as shown in the snippet below. after some tinkering everything seems to work out but the re-drawing of the parent-sizer. the content of the old nested sizer remains and gets "painted" over with the new sizer content despite my sizer.Layout() system setup: - python 2.5.5.2 and 2.6.4 - wxpython 2.8 -- coding: utf8 -- import wx class Frame(wx.Frame): def init(self): wx.Frame.init(self, None, wx.ID_ANY, title='test') class Test(wx.App): def OnInit(self): frame = Frame() self.panel = wx.Panel(frame) self.panel.SetBackgroundColour('red') self.sizer = wx.BoxSizer(wx.VERTICAL) button = wx.Button(self.panel, wx.ID_ANY, 'TEST') self.hsizer = wx.BoxSizer(wx.HORIZONTAL) self.hsizer.Add(wx.StaticText(self.panel, wx.ID_ANY, 'nacknack')) self.sizer.Add(button) self.Bind(wx.EVT_BUTTON, self.on_test_button, button) self.text = wx.StaticText(self.panel, wx.ID_ANY, 'FOOO') self.sizer.Add(self.text) self.sizer.Add(self.hsizer) self.panel.SetSizer(self.sizer) frame.Show() return True def on_test_button(self, evt): tmpsizer = wx.BoxSizer(wx.VERTICAL) tmpsizer.Add(self.makesizer()) tmpitem = tmpsizer.GetChildren()[0] self.sizer.Replace(2, tmpitem) self.sizer.Layout() def makesizer(self): testsizer = wx.BoxSizer(wx.HORIZONTAL) testsizer.Add(wx.StaticText(self.panel, wx.ID_ANY, 'testsizer')) return testsizer if __name__ == '__main__': app = Test() app.MainLoop()

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  • why libxml2 quotes starting double slash in CDATA with javascript

    - by Vincenzo
    This is my code: <?php $data = <<<EOL <?xml version="1.0"?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html> <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ var a = 123; // JS code //]]> </script> </html> EOL; $dom = new DOMDocument(); $dom->preserveWhiteSpace = false; $dom->formatOutput = false; $dom->loadXml($data); echo '<pre>' . htmlspecialchars($dom->saveXML()) . '</pre>'; This is result: <?xml version="1.0"?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <script type="text/javascript"><![CDATA[ //]]><![CDATA[ var a = 123; // JS code //]]><![CDATA[ ]]></script></html> If and when I remove the DOCTYPE notation from XML document, CDATA works properly and leading/trailing double slash is not turned into CDATA. What is the problem here? Bug in libxml2? PHP version is 5.2.13 on Linux. Thanks.

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  • Get a selected radio button value after POST to set other fields enabled/disabled

    - by Redeemed1
    I have an MVC application with a simple control to all selection of All Dates or selecting a Date Range. The radio buttons have an onclick handler to enable/disable the dat pickers. All work well so far. When I try to set the correct context state for the datepickers after doing a POST I cannot get the jQuery selector to return the radio buttons checked value. The code is as follows: <%= Html.RadioButton("DateSelection.AllDates", "AllDates", Model.AllDates == "AllDates", new { onclick = "setReadOnly(this);" })%>ALL Dates&nbsp; <%= Html.RadioButton("DateSelection.AllDates", "Selection", Model.AllDates == "Selection", new { onclick = "setReadOnly(this);" })%>Selection <%= Html.DatePicker("DateSelection.startdate", Model.StartDate, "", "") %> &nbsp;To&nbsp;<%= Html.DatePicker("DateSelection.enddate", Model.EndDate, "", "") %><br /> The javascript is as follows: <script type="text/jscript" > function setReadOnly(obj) { if (obj.value == "Selection") { $('#DateSelection_startdate').css('backgroundColor', '#ffffff') .removeAttr('readonly') .datepicker('enable'); $('#DateSelection_enddate').css('backgroundColor', '#ffffff') .removeAttr('readonly') .datepicker('enable'); } else { $('#DateSelection_startdate').css('backgroundColor', '#eeeeee') .attr('readonly', 'readonly') .val('') .datepicker('disable'); $('#DateSelection_enddate').css('backgroundColor', '#eeeeee') .attr('readonly', 'readonly') .val('') .datepicker('disable'); } } <script type="text/jscript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('#DateSelection_startdate').datepicker('disable').css('backgroundColor', '#eeeeee') .attr('readonly', 'readonly') .val(''); $('#DateSelection_enddate').datepicker('disable').css('backgroundColor', '#eeeeee') .attr('readonly', 'readonly') .val(''); var selected = $('#DateSelection_AllDates:checked'); setReadOnly(selected); }); The javascript line that is causing the problem is var selected = $('#DateSelection_AllDates:checked'); which will NOT return the checked radio button. Using var selected = $('#DateSelection_AllDates'); will return the first radio button value as expected i.e. applying the ':checked' filter ALWAYS returns undefined. Can anyone see anything wrong here?

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  • document.write Not working when loading external Javascript source

    - by jadent
    I'm trying to load an external JavaScript file dynamically into an HTML element to preview an ad tag. The script loads and executes but the script contains "document.write" which has an issue executing properly but there are no errors. <html> <head> <script src="//ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/2.0.3/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { source = 'http://ib.adnxs.com/ttj?id=555281'; // DOM Insert Approach // ----------------------------------- var script = document.createElement('script'); script.setAttribute('type', 'text/javascript'); script.setAttribute('src', source); document.body.appendChild(script); }); </script> </head> <body> </body> </html> I can get it to work if If i move the the source to the same domain for testing If the script was modified to use document.createElement and appendChild instead of document.write like the code above. I don't have the ability to modify the script since it being generated and hosted by a 3rd party. Does anyone know why the document.write will not work correctly? And is there a way to get around this? Thanks for the help!

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  • IE6 ignoring active link CSS style

    - by Leah
    The CSS active link style is being correctly applied in IE7, FF, and Safari but is not applied IE6. .side_nav a.active { color:#FFFFFF; background-color:#9F1F63; } Interestingly the background color (background-color:#9F1F63;) is being applied in IE6 but not the font color (color:#FFFFFF;) Any ideas on why this is happening and how I can fix it appreciated. The complete styling for the nav below: .side_nav { text-align : left; margin-left: -10px; } .side_nav ul { list-style-type: none; list-style-position:inside; margin-left:0px; } .side_nav li { margin-top: 10px; display: list-item; list-style-type:none; } .side_nav a, .side_nav a:visited { text-decoration: none; color : #9F1F63; font-weight : bold; padding: 5px 10px 5px 10px; } .side_nav a:hover { color:#B26D7F; } .side_nav a.active { color:#FFFFFF; background-color:#9F1F63; } EDIT: Thanks but the suggestions haven't helped. When I change to a:active the active effect does not work in any browser. I think this might be due to how I have applied the style in the HTML. <div class="side_nav"> <a class="active" href="Page1.aspx">Page1</a><br /> <a href="Page2.aspx">Page2</a><br /> <a href="Page3.aspx">Page3</a><br /> </div>

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  • How to use AJAX to populate state list depending on Country list?

    - by jasondavis
    I have the code below that will change a state dropdown list when you change the country list. How can I make it change the state list ONLY when country ID number 2234 and 224 are selected? If another country is selected is should change into this text input box <input type="text" name="othstate" value="" class="textBox"> The form <form method="post" name="form1"> <select style="background-color: #ffffa0" name="country" onchange="getState(this.value)"> <option>Select Country</option> <option value="223">USA</option> <option value="224">Canada</option> <option value="225">England</option> <option value="226">Ireland</option> </select> <select style="background-color: #ffffa0" name="state"> <option>Select Country First</option> </select> The javascript <script> function getState(countryId) { var strURL="findState.php?country="+countryId; var req = getXMLHTTP(); if (req) { req.onreadystatechange = function() { if (req.readyState == 4) { // only if "OK" if (req.status == 200) { document.getElementById('statediv').innerHTML=req.responseText; } else { alert("There was a problem while using XMLHTTP:\n" + req.statusText); } } } req.open("GET", strURL, true); req.send(null); } } </script>

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  • ASP.NET Response Filter to Reformat the rendered output of ASPX pages?

    - by PropellerHead
    I've created a simple HttpModule and response stream to reformat the rendered output of web pages (see code snippets below). In the HttpModule I set the Response.Filter to my PageStream: m_Application.Context.Response.Filter = new PageStream(m_Application.Context); In the PageStream I overwrite the Write method in order to do my reformatting of the rendered output: public override void Write(byte[] buffer, int offset, int count) { string html = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8.GetString(buffer); //Do some string resplace operations here... byte[] input = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(html); m_DefaultStream.Write(input, 0, input.Length); } And this work fine when using it on simple HTML pages (.html), but when I use this method on ASPX pages (.aspx), the Write method is called several times, splitting up the reformatting into different steps, and potentially destroying the string replacement operations. How do I solve this? Is there a way to let the ASPX page NOT call Write several times, e.g. by changing its buffer size, or have I chosen the wrong approach entirely, by using this Response.Filter method to manipulate the rendered output?

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  • Organizing multiple embed codes with jQuery

    - by Nimbuz
    I have several embed codes on my website, for example: Embed Code #1: <object width="480" height="385"><param name="movie" value="http://www.youtube.com/v/f8Lp2ssd5A9ErAc&hl=en_US&fs=1&"></param><param name="allowFullScreen" value="true"></param><param name="allowscriptaccess" value="always"></param><embed src="http://www.youtube.com/v/f8Lp2A9ErAc&hl=en_US&fs=1&" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" allowscriptaccess="always" allowfullscreen="true" width="480" height="385"></embed></object> Embed Code #2: <script type="text/javascript"> _qoptions={ qacct:"p-3asdb5E0g6" }; </script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://edge.quantserve.com/quant.js"></script> <noscript> <a href="http://www.quantcast.com/p-3asdb5E0g6" target="_blank"><img src="http://pixel.quantserve.com/pixel/p-3asdb5E0g6.gif" style="display: none;" border="0" height="1" width="1" alt="Quantcast"/></a> </noscript> and so on.. How do organize them and separate them into an external single js file to keep the markup clean? Thanks for your help!

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  • Extract the vb code associated with a macro attached to an Action button in PowerPoint

    - by Patricker
    I have about 25 PowerPoint presentations, each with at least 45 slides. On each slide is a question with four possible answers and a help button which provides a hint relevant to the question. Each of the answers and the help button is a PowerPoint Action button that launches a macro. I am attempting to migrate all the questions/answers/hints into a SQL Database. I've worked with Office.Interop before when working with Excel and Word and I have plenty of SQL DB experience, so I don't foresee any issues with actually extracting the text portion of the question and answer and putting it into the db. What I have no idea how to do is given an object on a slide - get the action button info - Get the macro name - and finally get the macro's vb code. From there I can figure out how to parse out which is the correct answer and what the text of the hint is. Any help/ideas would be greatly appreciated. The guy I'm doing this for said he is willing to do it by hand... but that would take a while.

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  • Why does my javascript file sometimes compressed while sometimes not?(IIS Gzip problem)

    - by Kevin Yang
    i enable gzip for javascript file in my iis settings, here 's the corresponding config section. <httpCompression directory="%SystemDrive%\inetpub\temp\IIS Temporary Compressed Files"> <scheme name="gzip" dll="%Windir%\system32\inetsrv\gzip.dll" staticCompressionLevel="10" dynamicCompressionLevel="8" /> <dynamicTypes> <add mimeType="text/*" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="message/*" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="application/soap+msbin1" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="*/*" enabled="false" /> </dynamicTypes> <staticTypes> <add mimeType="text/*" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="message/*" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="application/javascript" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="application/x-javascript" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="*/*" enabled="false" /> </staticTypes> </httpCompression> currently, when i download my js file, it seems that sometimes server return the gzip one, and sometimes not. i dont know why, and how to debug that. If a file is already gzipped, it should be cached in local disk, and next time someone visit that file again, iis kernel should return the cache gzip file directly without compressing it again. Is that right?

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