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  • Can a class inherit from LambdaExpression in .NET? Or is this not recommended?

    - by d.
    Consider the following code (C# 4.0): public class Foo : LambdaExpression { } This throws the following design-time error: Foo does not implement inherited abstract member System.Linq.Expressions.LambdaExpression.Accept(System.Linq.Expressions.Compiler.StackSpiller) There's absolutely no problem with public class Foo : Expression { } but, out of curiosity and for the sake of learning, I've searched in Google System.Linq.Expressions.LambdaExpression.Accept(System.Linq.Expressions.Compiler.StackSpiller) and guess what: zero results returned (when was the last time you saw that?). Needless to say, I haven't found any documentation on this method anywhere else. As I said, one can easily inherit from Expression; on the other hand LambdaExpression, while not marked as sealed (Expression<TDelegate> inherits from it), seems to be designed to prevent inheriting from it. Is this actually the case? Does anyone out there know what this method is about? EDIT (1): More info based on the first answers - If you try to implement Accept, the editor (C# 2010 Express) automatically gives you the following stub: protected override Expression Accept(System.Linq.Expressions.ExpressionVisitor visitor) { return base.Accept(visitor); } But you still get the same error. If you try to use a parameter of type StackSpiller directly, the compiler throws a different error: System.Linq.Expressions.Compiler.StackSpiller is inaccessible due to its protection level. EDIT (2): Based on other answers, inheriting from LambdaExpression is not possible so the question as to whether or not it is recommended becomes irrelevant. I wonder if, in cases like this, the error message should be Foo cannot implement inherited abstract member System.Linq.Expressions.LambdaExpression.Accept(System.Linq.Expressions.Compiler.StackSpiller) because [reasons go here]; the current error message (as some answers prove) seems to tell me that all I need to do is implement Accept (which I can't do).

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  • strange behavior in python

    - by fsm
    The tags might not be accurate since I am not sure where the problem is. I have a module where I am trying to read some data from a socket, and write the results into a file (append) It looks something like this, (only relevant parts included) if __name__ == "__main__": <some init code> for line in file: t = Thread(target=foo, args=(line,)) t.start() while nThreads > 0: time.sleep(1) Here are the other modules, def foo(text): global countLock, nThreads countLock.acquire() nThreads += 1 countLock.release() """connect to socket, send data, read response""" writeResults(text, result) countLock.acquire() nThreads -= 1 countLock.release() def writeResults(text, result): """acquire file lock""" """append to file""" """release file lock""" Now here's the problem. Initially, I had a typo in the function 'foo', where I was passing the variable 'line' to writeResults instead of 'text'. 'line' is not defined in the function foo, it's defined in the main block, so I should have seen an error, but instead, it worked fine, except that the data was appended to the file multiple times, instead of being written just once, which is the required behavior, which I got when I fixed the typo. My question is, 1) Why didn't I get an error? 2) Why was the writeResults function being called multiple times?

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  • How does the destructor know when to activate itself? Can it be relied upon?

    - by Robert Mason
    Say for example i have the following code (pure example): class a { int * p; public: a() { p = new int; ~a() { delete p; } }; a * returnnew() { a retval; return(&retval); } int main() { a * foo = returnnew(); return 0; } In returnnew(), would retval be destructed after the return of the function (when retval goes out of scope)? Or would it disable automatic destruction after i returned the address and i would be able to say delete foo; at the end of main()? Or, in a similar vein (pseudocode): void foo(void* arg) { bar = (a*)arg; //do stuff exit_thread(); } int main() { while(true) { a asdf; create_thread(foo, (void*)&asdf); } return 0; } where would the destructor go? where would i have to say delete? or is this undefined behavior? Would the only possible solution be to use the STL referenced-counted pointers? how would this be implemented? Thank you- i've used C++ for a while but never quite been in this type of situation, and don't want to create memory leaks.

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  • Need help with WCF design

    - by Jason
    I have been tasked with creating a set of web services. We are a Microsoft shop, so I will be using WCF for this project. There is an interesting design consideration that I haven't been able to figure out a solution for yet. I'll try to explain it with an example: My WCF service exposes a method named Foo(). 10 different users call Foo() at roughly the same time. I have 5 special resources called R1, R2, R3, R4, and R5. We don't really need to know what the resource is, other than the fact that a particular resource can only be in use by one caller at a time. Foo() is responsible to performing an action using one of these special resources. So, in a round-robin fashion, Foo() needs to find a resource that is not in use. If no resources are available, it must wait for one to be freed up. At first, this seems like an easy task. I could maybe create a singleton that keeps track of which resources are currently in use. The big problem is the fact that I need this solution to be viable in a web farm scenario. I'm sure there is a good solution to this problem, but I've just never run across this scenario before. I need some sort of resource tracker / provider that can be shared between multiple WCF hosts. Any ideas from the architects out there would be greatly appreciated!

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  • explicit template instantiations

    - by user323422
    see following code and please clear doubts1. as ABC is template why it not showing error when we put defination of ABC class member function in test.cpp 2.if i put test.cpp code in test.h and remve 2 , then it working fine. // test.h template <typename T> class ABC { public: void foo( T& ); void bar( T& ); }; // test.cpp template <typename T> void ABC<T>::foo( T& ) {} // definition template <typename T> void ABC<T>::bar( T& ) {} // definition template void ABC<char>::foo( char & ); // 1 template class ABC<char>; // 2 // main.cpp #include "test.h" int main() { ABC<char> a; a.foo(); // valid with 1 or 2 a.bar(); // link error if only 1, valid with 2 }

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  • CSS opacity and child elements

    - by Rob
    <style type="text/css"> div#foo { background: #0000ff; width: 200px; height: 200px; opacity: 0.30; filter: alpha(opacity = 30); } div#foo>div { color: black; opacity:1; filter: alpha(opacity = 100); } </style> <div id="foo"> <div>Lorem</div> <div>ipsum</div> <div>dolor</div> </div> In the above example, the opacity of div#foo is inherited by child elements, causing the text to become nearly unreadable. I suppose it's wrong to say it is inherited, the opacity is applied to the parent div and the children are part of that, so attempting to override it for the child elements doesn't work because technically they are opaque. I typically just use an alpha png background image in such cases, but today i'm wondering if there's a better way to make a background of a div semi-transparent without affecting the contents.

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  • Best practice - When to evaluate conditionals of function execution

    - by Tesserex
    If I have a function called from a few places, and it requires some condition to be met for anything it does to execute, where should that condition be checked? In my case, it's for drawing - if the mouse button is held down, then execute the drawing logic (this is being done in the mouse movement handler for when you drag.) Option one says put it in the function so that it's guaranteed to be checked. Abstracted, if you will. public function Foo() { DoThing(); } private function DoThing() { if (!condition) return; // do stuff } The problem I have with this is that when reading the code of Foo, which may be far away from DoThing, it looks like a bug. The first thought is that the condition isn't being checked. Option two, then, is to check before calling. public function Foo() { if (condition) DoThing(); } This reads better, but now you have to worry about checking from everywhere you call it. Option three is to rename the function to be more descriptive. public function Foo() { DoThingOnlyIfCondition(); } private function DoThingOnlyIfCondition() { if (!condition) return; // do stuff } Is this the "correct" solution? Or is this going a bit too far? I feel like if everything were like this function names would start to duplicate their code. About this being subjective: of course it is, and there may not be a right answer, but I think it's still perfectly at home here. Getting advice from better programmers than I is the second best way to learn. Subjective questions are exactly the kind of thing Google can't answer.

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  • Viewing namespaced global variables in Visual Studio debugger?

    - by Chris
    When debugging a non-managed C++ project in Visual Studio 2008, I occasionally want to see the value of a global variable. We don't have a lot of these but those that are there all declared within a namespace called 'global'. e.g. namespace global { int foo; bool bar; ... } The problem is that when the code is stopped at a breakpoint, the default debugging tooltip (from pointing at the variable name) and quickwatch (shift-f9 on the variable name) don't take the namespace into consideration and hence won't work. So for example I can point at 'foo' and nothing comes up. If I shift-f9 on foo, it will bring up the quickwatch, which then says 'CXX0017: Error: symbol "foo" not found'. I can get around that by manually editing the variable name in the quickwatch window to prefix it with "global::" (which is cumbersome considering you have to do it each time you want to quickwatch), but there is no fix for the tooltip that I can work out. Setting the 'default namespace' of the project properties doesn't help. How can I tell the VS debugger to use the namespace that it already knows the variable is declared in (since it has the declaration right there), or, alternatively, tell it a default namespace to look for variables in if it doesn't find them? My google-fu has failed to find an answer. This report lists the same problem, with MS saying it's "by design", but even so I am hoping there is some way to work around it (perhaps with clever use of autoexp.dat?)

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  • If the address of a function can not be resolved during deduction, is it SFINAE or a compiler error?

    - by Faisal Vali
    In C++0x SFINAE rules have been simplified such that any invalid expression or type that occurs in the "immediate context" of deduction does not result in a compiler error but rather in deduction failure (SFINAE). My question is this: If I take the address of an overloaded function and it can not be resolved, is that failure in the immediate-context of deduction? (i.e is it a hard error or SFINAE if it can not be resolved)? Here is some sample code: struct X { // template T* foo(T,T); // lets not over-complicate things for now void foo(char); void foo(int); }; template struct S { template struct size_map { typedef int type; }; // here is where we take the address of a possibly overloaded function template void f(T, typename size_map::type* = 0); void f(...); }; int main() { S s; // should this cause a compiler error because 'auto T = &X::foo' is invalid? s.f(3); } Gcc 4.5 states that this is a compiler error, and clang spits out an assertion violation. Here are some more related questions of interest: Does the FCD-C++0x clearly specify what should happen here? Are the compilers wrong in rejecting this code? Does the "immediate-context" of deduction need to be defined a little better? Thanks!

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  • Dynamic memory inside a struct

    - by Maximilien
    Hello, I'm editing a piece of code, that is part of a big project, that uses "const's" to initialize a bunch of arrays. Because I want to parametrize these const's I have to adapt the code to use "malloc" in order to allocate the memory. Unfortunately there is a problem with structs: I'm not able to allocate dynamic memory in the struct itself. Doing it outside would cause to much modification of the original code. Here's a small example: int globalx,globaly; struct bigStruct{ struct subStruct{ double info1; double info2; bool valid; }; double data; //subStruct bar[globalx][globaly]; subStruct ** bar=(subStruct**)malloc(globalx*sizeof(subStruct*)); for(int i=0;i<globalx;i++) bar[i]=(*subStruct)malloc(globaly*sizeof(subStruct)); }; int main(){ globalx=2; globaly=3; bigStruct foo; for(int i=0;i<globalx;i++) for(int j=0;j<globaly;j++){ foo.bar[i][j].info1=i+j; foo.bar[i][j].info2=i*j; foo.bar[i][j].valid=(i==j); } return 0; } Note: in the program code I'm editing globalx and globaly were const's in a specified namespace. Now I removed the "const" so they can act as parameters that are set exactly once. Summarized: How can I properly allocate memory for the substruct inside the struct? Thank you very much! Max

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  • Spring-MVC Problem using @Controller on controller implementing an interface

    - by layne
    I'm using spring 2.5 and annotations to configure my spring-mvc web context. Unfortunately, I am unable to get the following to work. I'm not sure if this is a bug (seems like it) or if there is a basic misunderstanding on how the annotations and interface implementation subclassing works. For example, @Controller @RequestMapping("url-mapping-here") public class Foo { @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.GET) public void showForm() { ... } @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.POST) public String processForm() { ... } } works fine. When the context starts up, the urls this handler deals with are discovered, and everything works great. This however does not: @Controller @RequestMapping("url-mapping-here") public class Foo implements Bar { @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.GET) public void showForm() { ... } @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.POST) public String processForm() { ... } } When I try to pull up the url, I get the following nasty stack trace: javax.servlet.ServletException: No adapter for handler [com.shaneleopard.web.controller.RegistrationController@e973e3]: Does your handler implement a supported interface like Controller? org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet.getHandlerAdapter(DispatcherServlet.java:1091) org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet.doDispatch(DispatcherServlet.java:874) org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet.doService(DispatcherServlet.java:809) org.springframework.web.servlet.FrameworkServlet.processRequest(FrameworkServlet.java:571) org.springframework.web.servlet.FrameworkServlet.doGet(FrameworkServlet.java:501) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:627) However, if I change Bar to be an abstract superclass and have Foo extend it, then it works again. @Controller @RequestMapping("url-mapping-here") public class Foo extends Bar { @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.GET) public void showForm() { ... } @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.POST) public String processForm() { ... } } This seems like a bug. The @Controller annotation should be sufficient to mark this as a controller, and I should be able to implement one or more interfaces in my controller without having to do anything else. Any ideas?

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  • How can I find out if two arguments are instances of the same, but unknown class?

    - by Ingmar
    Let us say we have a method which accepts two arguments o1 and o2 of type Object and returns a boolean value. I want this method to return true only when the arguments are instances of the same class, e.g.: foo(new Integer(4),new Integer(5)); Should return true, however: foo(new SomeClass(), new SubtypeSomeClass()); should return false and also: foo(new Integer(3),"zoo"); should return false. I believe one way is to compare the fully qualified class names: public boolean foo(Object o1, Object o2){ Class<? extends Object> c1 = o1.getClass(); Class<? extends Object> c2 = o2.getClass(); if(c1.getName().equals(c2.getName()){ return true;} return false; } An alternative conditional statement would be : if (c1.isAssignableFrom(c2) && c2.isAssignableFrom(c1)){ return true; } The latter alternative is rather slow. Are there other alternatives to this problem?

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  • Does Perl auto-vivify variables used as references in subroutine calls?

    - by FM
    I've declared 2010 to be the year of higher-order programming, so I'm learning Haskell. The introduction has a slick quick-sort demo, and I thought, "Hey, that's easy to do in Perl". It turned to be easier than I expected. Note that I don't have to worry about whether my partitions ($less and $more) are defined. Normally you can't use an undefined value as an array reference. use strict; use warnings; use List::MoreUtils qw(part); my @data = (5,6,7,4,2,9,10,9,5,1); my @sorted = qsort(@data); print "@sorted\n"; sub qsort { return unless @_; my $pivot = shift @_; my ($less, $more) = part { $_ < $pivot ? 0 : 1 } @_; # Works, even though $less and $more are sometimes undefined. return qsort(@$less), $pivot, qsort(@$more); } As best I can tell, Perl will auto-vivify a variable that you try to use as a reference -- but only if you are passing it to a subroutine. For example, my call to foo() works, but not the attempted print. use Data::Dumper qw(Dumper); sub foo { print "Running foo(@_)\n" } my ($x); print Dumper($x); # Fatal: Can't use an undefined value as an ARRAY reference. # print @$x, "\n"; # But this works. foo(@$x); # Auto-vivification: $x is now []. print Dumper($x); My questions: Am I understanding this behavior correctly? What is the explanation or reasoning behind why Perl does this? Is this behavior explained anywhere in the docs?

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  • Parsing Strings ( .crt files )

    - by user1661521
    Base Knowledge : I have a .crt file ( certification authoritie file ) and he is composed of many fields but in one line that resumes this question i have this : Certificate: ...(alot of stuff before)... Subject: C=US, ST=Maryland, L=Pasadena, O=Brent Baccala, OU=FreeSoft, CN=www.freesoft.org/[email protected] Subject Public Key Info: ...(alot of stuff after) and i need to parse the file to populate a .csv file and i have that done the problem that i need help is, i need to get the field: CN=www.fresoft.org but when i get this kind of CN=...(Value instead of the ...) with alot of slashes i get a error in the parsing like the raw string is: CN=foo/bar/the/hell/emailAddress=blablabla and i need only: foo/bar/the/hell and for a moment i got that in the correct column but when i dont have the emailAddress something just fail in my parsing and i then get in my CN .csv column the information wrong instead of |CN| foo/bar/the/hell i get: |CN| OU=FreeSoft, foo/bar/the/hell. I have this code doing the CN parsing: #!/bin/bash subject_line=$(echo $cert | grep -o "Subject:.*Subject Public Key Info") cn=$(echo $subject_line | grep -o "CN=.*" ) if [ $(echo $cn | grep -c ".*email.*") -gt 0 ]; then end_cn=$(echo $cn | grep -b -o emailAddress) end_cn_idx=$(echo $end_cn | grep -o .*:) final_end_cn=${end_cn_idx:0:-1} common_name=${cn:3:$final_end_cn-4} echo $common_name else end_cn=$(echo $cn | grep -b -o "Subject Public Key Info") end_cn_idx=$(echo $end_cn | grep -o .*:) final_end_cn=${end_cn_idx:0:-1} common_name=${cn:3:$final_end_cn-5} echo $common_name fi

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  • Selecting a whole database over an individual table to output to file

    - by Daniel Wrigley
    :::::::: EDIT :::::::: New code for people to have a look at, one question I have with this is where do I set were the *.gz file is saved? $backupFile = $dbname . date("Y-m-d-H-i-s") . '.gz'; $command = "mysqldump --opt -h $dbhost -u $dbuser -p $dbpass $dbname | gzip > $backupFile"; system($command); Also why the hell can you not reply yo your own post with answering it? :( :::::::: EDIT :::::::: Ok Im having trouble finding out how to select a full database for backup as an *.sql file rather than only an individual table. On the localhost I have several databases with one named "foo" and it is that which I want to backup and not any of the individual tables inside the database "foo". The code to connect to the database; //Database Information $dbhost = "localhost"; $dbname = "foo"; $dbuser = "bar"; $dbpass = "rulz"; //Connect to database mysql_connect ($dbhost, $dbuser, $dbpass) or die("Could not connect: ".mysql_error()); mysql_select_db($dbname) or die(mysql_error()); The code to backup the database; // Grab the time to know when this post was submitted $time = date('Y-m-d-H-i-s'); $tableName = 'foo'; $backupFile = '/sql/backup/'. $time .'.sql'; $query = "SELECT * INTO OUTFILE '". $backupFile ."' FROM ". $tableName .""; $result = mysql_query($query)or die("Database query died: " . mysql_error()); My brain is hurting near to the end of the day so no doubts i've missed something out very obvious. Thanks in advance to anyone helping me out.

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  • How to pass a function in a function?

    - by SoulBeaver
    That's an odd title. I would greatly appreciate it if somebody could clarify what exactly I'm asking because I'm not so sure myself. I'm watching the Stanford videos on Programming Paradigms(that teacher is awesome) and I'm up to video five when he started doing this: void *lSearch( void* key, void* base, int elemSize, int n, int (*cmpFn)(void*, void*)) Naturally, I thought to myself, "Oi, I didn't know you could declare a function and define it later!". So I created my own C++ test version. int foo(int (*bar)(void*, void*)); int bar(void* a, void* b); int main(int argc, char** argv) { int *func = 0; foo(bar); cin.get(); return 0; } int foo(int (*bar)(void*, void*)) { int c(10), d(15); int *a = &c; int *b = &d; bar(a, b); return 0; } int bar(void* a, void* b) { cout << "Why hello there." << endl; return 0; } The question about the code is this: it fails if I declare function int *bar as a parameter of foo, but not int (*bar). Why!? Also, the video confuses me in the fact that his lSearch definition void* lSearch( /*params*/ , int (*cmpFn)(void*, void*)) is calling cmpFn in the definition, but when calling the lSearch function lSearch( /*params*/, intCmp ); also calls the defined function int intCmp(void* elem1, void* elem2); and I don't get how that works. Why, in lSearch, is the function called cmpFn, but defined as intCmp, which is of type int, not int* and still works? And why does the function in lSearch not have to have defined parameters?

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  • How to create instances of a class from a static method?

    - by Pierre
    Hello. Here is my problem. I have created a pretty heavy readonly class making many database calls with a static "factory" method. The goal of this method is to avoid killing the database by looking in a pool of already-created objects if an identical instance of the same object (same type, same init parameters) already exists. If something was found, the method will just return it. No problem. But if not, how may I create an instance of the object, in a way that works with inheritance? >>> class A(Object): >>> @classmethod >>> def get_cached_obj(self, some_identifier): >>> # Should do something like `return A(idenfier)`, but in a way that works >>> class B(A): >>> pass >>> A.get_cached_obj('foo') # Should do the same as A('foo') >>> A().get_cached_obj('foo') # Should do the same as A('foo') >>> B.get_cached_obj('bar') # Should do the same as B('bar') >>> B().get_cached_obj('bar') # Should do the same as B('bar') Thanks.

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  • File.Move does not inherit permissions from target directory?

    - by Joseph Kingry
    In case something goes wrong in creating a file, I've been writing to a temporary file and then moving to the destination. Something like: var destination = @"C:\foo\bar.txt"; var tempFile = Path.GetTempFileName(); using (var stream = File.OpenWrite(tempFile)) { // write to file here here } string backupFile = null; try { var dir = Path.GetDirectoryName(destination); if (!Directory.Exists(dir)) { Directory.CreateDirectory(dir); Util.SetPermissions(dir); } if (File.Exists(destination)) { backupFile = Path.Combine(Path.GetTempPath(), new Guid().ToString()); File.Move(destination, backupFile); } File.Move(tempFile, destination); if (backupFile != null) { File.Delete(backupFile); } } catch(IOException) { if(backupFile != null && !File.Exists(destination) && File.Exists(backupFile)) { File.Move(backupFile, destination); } } The problem is that the new "bar.txt" in this case does not inherit permissions from the "C:\foo" directory. Yet if I create a file via explorer/notepad etc directly in the "C:\foo" there's no issues, so I believe the permissions are correctly set on "C:\foo". Update Found Inherited permissions are not automatically updated when you move folders, maybe it applies to folders as well. Now looking for a way to force an update of file permissions. Is there a better way overall of doing this?

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  • Paperclip failing to upload on specific scaffold, yet works on others

    - by Saifis
    I know there are tons of questions about paperclip, but I failed to find the answer to my problem. I know its prob just something simple, but I I'm running out of hair to pull out. I have paperclip working on other parts of my project, they work with no problem, however, a certain scaffold fails to upload, all the attributes to the uploaded file are nil. Here are the relevant information. Model: has_attached_file :foo, :styles => { :thumb => "140x140>" }, :url => "/data/:id/:style/:basename.:extension", :path => ":rails_root/public/data/:id/:style/:basename.:extension" View: <% form_for(@bar, :html => { :multipart => true }) do |f| %> <%= f.error_messages %> ---------- <li><%= f.label :top %> <%= f.file_field :foo %></li> ---------- <ul><%= f.submit "Save" %></ul> <% end %> Also, comparing the logs to the parts that work, the :foo attribute seems to be passing different values than in the ones that work. In the logs, when the paperclip function works, it looks like this "image"=>#<File:/var/folders/M5/M5HEb+WhFxmqNDGH5s-pNE+++TI/-Tmp-/RackMultipart20100512-1302-5e2e6e-0> when it does not, it seems to pass the file name directly "foo"=>"foo_image.png" I am developing locally on MacOSX using local rails and ruby libs.

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  • Silverlight MVVM Confusion: Updating Image Based on State

    - by senfo
    I'm developing a Silverlight application and I'm trying to stick to the MVVM principals, but I'm running into some problems changing the source of an image based on the state of a property in the ViewModel. For all intents and purposes, you can think of the functionality I'm implementing as a play/pause button for an audio app. When in the "Play" mode, IsActive is true in the ViewModel and the "Pause.png" image on the button should be displayed. When paused, IsActive is false in the ViewModel and "Play.png" is displayed on the button. Naturally, there are two additional images to handle when the mouse hovers over the button. I thought I could use a Style Trigger, but apparently they're not supported in Silverlight. I've been reviewing a forum post with a question similar to mine where it's suggested to use the VisualStateManager. While this might help with changing the image for hover/normal states, the part missing (or I'm not understanding) is how this would work with a state set via the view model. The post seems to apply only to events rather than properties of the view model. Having said that, I also haven't successfully completed the normal/hover affects, either. Below is my Silverlight 4 XAML. It should also probably be noted I'm working with MVVM Light. <UserControl x:Class="Foo.Bar.MyUserControl" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" xmlns:i="clr-namespace:System.Windows.Interactivity;assembly=System.Windows.Interactivity" mc:Ignorable="d" d:DesignHeight="100" d:DesignWidth="200"> <UserControl.Resources> <Style x:Key="MyButtonStyle" TargetType="Button"> <Setter Property="IsEnabled" Value="true"/> <Setter Property="IsTabStop" Value="true"/> <Setter Property="Background" Value="#FFA9A9A9"/> <Setter Property="Foreground" Value="#FF000000"/> <Setter Property="MinWidth" Value="5"/> <Setter Property="MinHeight" Value="5"/> <Setter Property="Margin" Value="0"/> <Setter Property="HorizontalAlignment" Value="Left" /> <Setter Property="HorizontalContentAlignment" Value="Center"/> <Setter Property="VerticalAlignment" Value="Top" /> <Setter Property="VerticalContentAlignment" Value="Center"/> <Setter Property="Cursor" Value="Hand"/> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="Button"> <Grid> <Image Source="/Foo.Bar;component/Resources/Icons/Bar/Play.png"> <VisualStateManager.VisualStateGroups> <VisualStateGroup x:Name="Active"> <VisualState x:Name="MouseOver"> <Storyboard> <ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames Storyboard.TargetProperty="Source" Storyboard.TargetName="/Foo.Bar;component/Resources/Icons/Bar/Play_Hover.png" /> </Storyboard> </VisualState> </VisualStateGroup> </VisualStateManager.VisualStateGroups> </Image> </Grid> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> </UserControl.Resources> <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot" Background="White"> <Button Style="{StaticResource MyButtonStyle}" Command="{Binding ChangeStatus}" Height="30" Width="30" /> </Grid> </UserControl> What is the proper way to update images on buttons with the state determined by the view model? Update I changed my Button to a ToggleButton hoping I could use the Checked state to differentiate between play/pause. I practically have it, but I ran into one additional problem. I need to account for two states at the same time. For example, Checked Normal/Hover and Unchecked Normal/Hover. Following is my updated XAML: <UserControl x:Class="Foo.Bar.MyUserControl" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" xmlns:i="clr-namespace:System.Windows.Interactivity;assembly=System.Windows.Interactivity" mc:Ignorable="d" d:DesignHeight="100" d:DesignWidth="200"> <UserControl.Resources> <Style x:Key="MyButtonStyle" TargetType="ToggleButton"> <Setter Property="IsEnabled" Value="true"/> <Setter Property="IsTabStop" Value="true"/> <Setter Property="Background" Value="#FFA9A9A9"/> <Setter Property="Foreground" Value="#FF000000"/> <Setter Property="MinWidth" Value="5"/> <Setter Property="MinHeight" Value="5"/> <Setter Property="Margin" Value="0"/> <Setter Property="HorizontalAlignment" Value="Left" /> <Setter Property="HorizontalContentAlignment" Value="Center"/> <Setter Property="VerticalAlignment" Value="Top" /> <Setter Property="VerticalContentAlignment" Value="Center"/> <Setter Property="Cursor" Value="Hand"/> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="ToggleButton"> <Grid> <VisualStateManager.VisualStateGroups> <VisualStateGroup x:Name="CommonStates"> <VisualState x:Name="Normal"> <Storyboard> <ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames Storyboard.TargetProperty="(UIElement.Visibility)" Storyboard.TargetName="Pause"> <DiscreteObjectKeyFrame KeyTime="0"> <DiscreteObjectKeyFrame.Value> <Visibility>Collapsed</Visibility> </DiscreteObjectKeyFrame.Value> </DiscreteObjectKeyFrame> </ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames> </Storyboard> </VisualState> <VisualState x:Name="MouseOver"> <Storyboard> <ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames Storyboard.TargetProperty="(UIElement.Visibility)" Storyboard.TargetName="PlayHover"> <DiscreteObjectKeyFrame KeyTime="0"> <DiscreteObjectKeyFrame.Value> <Visibility>Visible</Visibility> </DiscreteObjectKeyFrame.Value> </DiscreteObjectKeyFrame> </ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames> <ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames Storyboard.TargetProperty="(UIElement.Visibility)" Storyboard.TargetName="Play"> <DiscreteObjectKeyFrame KeyTime="0"> <DiscreteObjectKeyFrame.Value> <Visibility>Collapsed</Visibility> </DiscreteObjectKeyFrame.Value> </DiscreteObjectKeyFrame> </ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames> </Storyboard> </VisualState> </VisualStateGroup> <VisualStateGroup x:Name="CheckStates"> <VisualState x:Name="Checked"> <Storyboard> <ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames Storyboard.TargetProperty="(UIElement.Visibility)" Storyboard.TargetName="Pause"> <DiscreteObjectKeyFrame KeyTime="0"> <DiscreteObjectKeyFrame.Value> <Visibility>Visible</Visibility> </DiscreteObjectKeyFrame.Value> </DiscreteObjectKeyFrame> </ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames> <ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames Storyboard.TargetProperty="(UIElement.Visibility)" Storyboard.TargetName="Play"> <DiscreteObjectKeyFrame KeyTime="0"> <DiscreteObjectKeyFrame.Value> <Visibility>Collapsed</Visibility> </DiscreteObjectKeyFrame.Value> </DiscreteObjectKeyFrame> </ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames> <ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames Storyboard.TargetProperty="(UIElement.Visibility)" Storyboard.TargetName="PlayHover"> <DiscreteObjectKeyFrame KeyTime="0"> <DiscreteObjectKeyFrame.Value> <Visibility>Collapsed</Visibility> </DiscreteObjectKeyFrame.Value> </DiscreteObjectKeyFrame> </ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames> </Storyboard> </VisualState> <VisualState x:Name="Unchecked" /> </VisualStateGroup> </VisualStateManager.VisualStateGroups> <Image x:Name="Play" Source="/Foo.Bar;component/Resources/Icons/Bar/Play.png" /> <Image x:Name="Pause" Source="/Foo.Bar;component/Resources/Icons/Bar/Pause.png" Visibility="Collapsed" /> <Image x:Name="PlayHover" Source="/Foo.Bar;component/Resources/Icons/Bar/Play_Hover.png" Visibility="Collapsed" /> <Image x:Name="PauseHover" Source="/Foo.Bar;component/Resources/Icons/Bar/Pause_Hover.png" Visibility="Collapsed" /> </Grid> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> </UserControl.Resources> <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot" Background="White"> <ToggleButton Style="{StaticResource MyButtonStyle}" IsChecked="{Binding IsPlaying}" Command="{Binding ChangeStatus}" Height="30" Width="30" /> </Grid> </UserControl>

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  • Visual C++ overrides/mock objects for unit testing?

    - by Mark
    When I'm running unit tests, I want to be able to "stub out" or create a mock object, but I'm running into DLL Hell. For example: There are two DLL libraries built: A.dll and B.dll -- Classes in A.dll have calls to classes in B.dll so when A.dll was built, the link line was using B.lib for the defintions. My test driver (Foo.exe) is testing classes in A.dll, so it links against A.lib. However, I want to "stub out" some of the calls A.dll makes to B.dll with simple versions (return basic value, no DB look up, etc). I can't build an Override.dll that just overrides the needed methods (not entire classes) and replace B.dll because Foo.exe will A) complain that B.dll is missing if I just remove it and put Override.dll in it's place or B) if I rename Override.dll to B.dll, Foo.exe complains that there are unresolved symbols because Override.dll is not a complete implementation of B.dll. Is there a way to do this? Is there a way to statically link Foo.exe with A.lib, B.lib and Override.lib such that it will work without having to completely rebuild A.lib and B.lib to remove the __delcspec(dllexport)? Is there another option?

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  • How can I pass a const array or a variable array to a function in C?

    - by CSharperWithJava
    I have a simple function Bar that uses a set of values from a data set that is passed in in the form of an Array of data structures. The data can come from two sources: a constant initialized array of default values, or a dynamically updated cache. The calling function determines which data is used and should be passed to Bar. Bar doesn't need to edit any of the data and in fact should never do so. How should I declare Bar's data parameter so that I can provide data from either set? union Foo { long _long; int _int; } static const Foo DEFAULTS[8] = {1,10,100,1000,10000,100000,1000000,10000000}; static Foo Cache[8] = {0}; void Bar(Foo* dataSet, int len);//example function prototype Note, this is C, NOT C++ if that makes a difference; Edit Oh, one more thing. When I use the example prototype I get a type qualifier mismatch warning, (because I'm passing a mutable reference to a const array?). What do I have to change for that?

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  • Best practices for deploying an MVC application on IIS7

    - by gsiler
    I'm not a web admin, and I'm new to IIS. So, I'm looking for advice. My MVC application (e.g. fooapp) is the default application for my site (e.g. foo.bar). I used IIS Manager to add the site to IIS7. When I import the application, IIS Manager wants to put it in it's own directory (/foo), and tells me I shouldn't put it in the base (site) directory. This means that to get to my default MVC view, I have to enter the URL http://foo.bar/fooapp/. Needless to say, I want to get there via http://foo.bar/ I see 2 possible solutions: Add a default page to the site directory that redirects to the MVC app. Ignore the IIS admonition and load the app into the site directory. My IIS7 knowledge is limited. I have played around with some options (such as HTTP Redirect). Since nothing changed, I obviously don't understand what I'm doing. Anyway, if there are some considered "best practices" and/or other suggestions, please let me know.

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  • rspec and ruby 1.9.1: problem with dummy controller and routes

    - by giorgian
    I want to test a module that basically executes some verify statements, to ensure that actions are invoked with the correct method. # /lib/rest_verification.rb module RestVerification def self.included(base) # :nodoc: base.extend(ClassMethods) end module ClassMethods def verify_rest_actions verify :method => :post, :only => [:create], :redirect_to => { :action => :new } ... end end end I tried this: describe RestVerification do class FooController < ActionController::Base include RestVerification verify_rest_actions def new ; end def index ; end def create ; end def edit ; end def update ; end def destroy ; end end # controller_name 'foo' # this only works with ruby 1.8.7 : 1.9.1 says "uninitialized constant FooController" tests FooController # this works with both before(:each) do ActionController::Routing::Routes.draw do |map| map.resources :foo end end after(:each) do ActionController::Routing::Routes.reload! end it ':create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb' do [:get, :put, :delete].each do |verb| send verb, :create response.should redirect_to(new_foo_url) end end ... end When testing: $ ruby -v ruby 1.8.7 (2010-01-10 patchlevel 249) [i486-linux] $ rake RestVerification :create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb Finished in 0.175586 seconds $ rvm use 1.9.1 Using ruby 1.9.1 p378 $ rake RestVerification :create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb (FAILED - 1) 1) 'RestVerification :create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb' FAILED expected redirect to "http://test.host/foo/new", got redirect to "http://test.host/spec/rails/example/controller_example_group/subclass_1/foo/new" Is this a known issue? Is there a workaround?

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  • Conditional column values in NSTableView?

    - by velocityb0y
    I have an NSTableView that binds via an NSArrayController to an NSMutableArray. What's in the array are derived classes; the first few columns of the table are bound to properties that exist on the base class. That all works fine. Where I'm running into problem is a column that should only be populated if the row maps to one specific subclass. The property that column is meant to display only exists in that subclass, since it makes no sense in terms of the base class. The user will know, from the first two columns, why the third column's cell is populated/editable or not. The binding on the third column's value is on arrangedObjects, with a model path of something like "foo.name" where foo is the property on the subclass. However, this doesn't work, as the other subclasses in the hierarchy are not key-value compliant for foo. It seems like my only choice is to have foo be a property on the base class so everybody responds to it, but this clutters up the interfaces of the model objects. Has anyone come up with a clean design for this situation? It can't be uncommon (I'm a relative newcomer to Cocoa and I'm just learning the ins and outs of bindings.)

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