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  • Generic ASP.NET MVC Route Conflict

    - by Donn Felker
    I'm working on a Legacy ASP.NET system. I say legacy because there are NO tests around 90% of the system. I'm trying to fix the routes in this project and I'm running into a issue I wish to solve with generic routes. I have the following routes: routes.MapRoute( "DefaultWithPdn", "{controller}/{action}/{pdn}", new { controller = "", action = "Index", pdn = "" }, null ); routes.MapRoute( "DefaultWithClientId", "{controller}/{action}/{clientId}", new { controller = "", action = "index", clientid = "" }, null ); The problem is that the first route is catching all of the traffic for what I need to be routed to the second route. The route is generic (no controller is defined in the constraint in either route definition) because multiple controllers throughout the entire app share this same premise (sometimes we need a "pdn" sometimes we need a "clientId"). How can I map these generic routes so that they go to the proper controller and action, yet not have one be too greedy? Or can I at all? Are these routes too generic (which is what I'm starting to believe is the case). My only option at this point (AFAIK) is one of the following: In the contraints, apply a regex to match the action values like: (foo|bar|biz|bang) and the same for the controller: (home|customer|products) for each controller. However, this has a problem in the fact that I may need to do this: ~/Foo/Home/123 // Should map to "DefaultwithPdn" ~/Foo/Home/abc // Should map to "DefaultWithClientId" Which means that if the Foo Controller has an action that takes a pdn and another action that takes a clientId (which happens all the time in this app), the wrong route is chosen. To hardcode these contstraints into each possible controller/action combo seems like a lot of duplication to me and I have the feeling I've been looking at the problem for too long so I need another pair of eyes to help out. Can I have generic routes to handle this scenario? Or do I need to have custom routes for each controller with constraints applied to the actions on those routes? Thanks

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  • Controlling shell command line wildcard expansion in C or C++

    - by Adrian McCarthy
    I'm writing a program, foo, in C++. It's typically invoked on the command line like this: foo *.txt My main() receives the arguments in the normal way. On many systems, argv[1] is literally *.txt, and I have to call system routines to do the wildcard expansion. On Unix systems, however, the shell expands the wildcard before invoking my program, and all of the matching filenames will be in argv. Suppose I wanted to add a switch to foo that causes it to recurse into subdirectories. foo -a *.txt would process all text files in the current directory and all of its subdirectories. I don't see how this is done, since, by the time my program gets a chance to see the -a, then shell has already done the expansion and the user's *.txt input is lost. Yet there are common Unix programs that work this way. How do they do it? In Unix land, how can I control the wildcard expansion? (Recursing through subdirectories is just one example. Ideally, I'm trying to understand the general solution to controlling the wildcard expansion.)

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  • Problem in printing array of char pointer passing from Python

    - by Yan Cheng CHEOK
    My following C code works quite well, till my Python code trying to pass an array of char pointer to it. The output I obtain is The file_name is python-file Another 3 string is not being printed out. Anything I had missed out? C Code #include <iostream> #include "c_interface.h" int foo(const char* file_name, const char** names) { std::cout << "The file_name is " << file_name << std::endl; while (*names) { std::cout << "The name is " << *names << std::endl; names++; } return 0; } /* int main() { const char *c[] = {"123gh", "456443432", "789", 0}; foo("hello", c); getchar(); } */ Python Code #!c:/Python27/python.exe -u from ctypes import * name0 = "NAME0" name1 = "NAME1" name2 = "NAME2" names = ((c_char_p * 1024) * 4)() names[0].value = name0 names[1].value = name1 names[2].value = name2 names[3].value = 0 libc = CDLL("foo.dll") libc.foo("python-file", names)

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  • Scope of "library" methods

    - by JS
    Hello, I'm apparently laboring under a poor understanding of Python scoping. Perhaps you can help. Background: I'm using the 'if name in "main"' construct to perform "self-tests" in my module(s). Each self test makes calls to the various public methods and prints their results for visual checking as I develop the modules. To keep things "purdy" and manageable, I've created a small method to simplify the testing of method calls: def pprint_vars(var_in): print("%s = '%s'" % (var_in, eval(var_in))) Calling pprint_vars with: pprint_vars('some_variable_name') prints: some_variable_name = 'foo' All fine and good. Problem statement: Not happy to just KISS, I had the brain-drizzle to move my handy-dandy 'pprint_vars' method into a separate file named 'debug_tools.py' and simply import 'debug_tools' whenever I wanted access to 'pprint_vars'. Here's where things fall apart. I would expect import debug_tools foo = bar debug_tools.pprint_vars('foo') to continue working its magic and print: foo = 'bar' Instead, it greets me with: NameError: name 'some_var' is not defined Irrational belief: I believed (apparently mistakenly) that import puts imported methods (more or less) "inline" with the code, and thus the variable scoping rules would remain similar to if the method were defined inline. Plea for help: Can someone please correct my (mis)understanding of scoping regards imports? Thanks, JS

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  • "Special case" records for foreign key constraints

    - by keithjgrant
    Let's say I have a mysql table, called foo with a foreign key option_id constrained to the option table. When I create a foo record, the user may or may not have selected an option, and 'no option' is a viable selection. What is the best way to differentiate between 'null' (i.e. the user hasn't made a selection yet) and 'no option' (i.e. the user selected 'no option')? Right now, my plan is to insert a special record into the option table. Let's say that winds up with an id of 227 (this table already has a number of records at this point, so '1' isn't available). I have no need to access this record at a database level, and it would act as nothing more than a placeholder that the foreign key in the foo table can reference. So do I just hard-code '227' in my codebase when I'm creating 'foo' records where the user has selected 'no option'? The hard-coded id seems sloppy, and leaves room for error as the code is maintained down the road, but I'm not really sure of another approach.

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  • Formatting associative array declaration

    - by Drew Stephens
    When declaring an associative array, how do you handle the indentation of the elements of the array? I've seen a number of different styles (PHP syntax, since that's what I've been in lately). This is a pretty picky and trivial thing, so move along if you're interested in more serious pursuits. 1) Indent elements one more level: $array = array( 'Foo' => 'Bar', 'Baz' => 'Qux' ); 2) Indent elements two levels: $array = array( 'Foo' => 'Bar', 'Baz' => 'Qux' ); 3) Indent elements beyond the array constructor, with closing brace aligned with the start of the constructor: $array = array( 'Foo' => 'Bar', 'Baz' => 'Qux' ); 4) Indent elements beyond the array construct, with closing brace aligned with opening brace: $array = array( 'Foo' => 'Bar', 'Baz' => 'Qux' ); Personally, I like #3—the broad indentation makes it clear that we're at a break point in the code (constructing the array), and having the closing brace floating a bit to the left of all of the array's data makes it clear that this declaration is done.

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  • Multi-Column Join in Hibernate/JPA Annotations

    - by bowsie
    I have two entities which I would like to join through multiple columns. These columns are shared by an @Embeddable object that is shared by both entities. In the example below, Foo can have only one Bar but Bar can have multiple Foos (where AnEmbeddableObject is a unique key for Bar). Here is an example: @Entity @Table(name = "foo") public class Foo { @Id @Column(name = "id") @GeneratedValue(generator = "seqGen") @SequenceGenerator(name = "seqGen", sequenceName = "FOO_ID_SEQ", allocationSize = 1) private Long id; @Embedded private AnEmbeddableObject anEmbeddableObject; @ManyToOne(targetEntity = Bar.class, fetch = FetchType.LAZY) @JoinColumns( { @JoinColumn(name = "column_1", referencedColumnName = "column_1"), @JoinColumn(name = "column_2", referencedColumnName = "column_2"), @JoinColumn(name = "column_3", referencedColumnName = "column_3"), @JoinColumn(name = "column_4", referencedColumnName = "column_4") }) private Bar bar; // ... rest of class } And the Bar class: @Entity @Table(name = "bar") public class Bar { @Id @Column(name = "id") @GeneratedValue(generator = "seqGen") @SequenceGenerator(name = "seqGen", sequenceName = "BAR_ID_SEQ", allocationSize = 1) private Long id; @Embedded private AnEmbeddableObject anEmbeddableObject; // ... rest of class } Finally the AnEmbeddedObject class: @Embeddable public class AnEmbeddedObject { @Column(name = "column_1") private Long column1; @Column(name = "column_2") private Long column2; @Column(name = "column_3") private Long column3; @Column(name = "column_4") private Long column4; // ... rest of class } Obviously the schema is poorly normalised, it is a restriction that AnEmbeddedObject's fields are repeated in each table. The problem I have is that I receive this error when I try to start up Hibernate: org.hibernate.AnnotationException: referencedColumnNames(column_1, column_2, column_3, column_4) of Foo.bar referencing Bar not mapped to a single property I have tried marking the JoinColumns are not insertable and updatable, but with no luck. Is there a way to express this with Hibernate/JPA annotations? Thank you.

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  • C++ STL type_traits question.

    - by Kim Sun-wu
    I was watching the latest C9 lecture and noticed something interesting.. In his introduction to type_traits, Stephan uses the following (as he says, contrived) example: template <typename T> void foo(T t, true_type) { std::cout << t << " is integral"; } template <typename T> void foo(T t, false_type) { std::cout << t << " is not integral"; } template <typename T> void bar(T t) { foo(t, typename is_integral<T>::type()); } This seems to be far more complicated than: template <typename T> void foo(T t) { if(std::is_integral<T>::value) std::cout << "integral"; else std::cout << "not integral"; } Is there something wrong with the latter way of doing it? Is his way better? Why? Thanks.

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  • Passing optional parameter by reference in c++

    - by Moomin
    I'm having a problem with optional function parameter in C++ What I'm trying to do is to write function with optional parameter which is passed by reference, so that I can use it in two ways (1) and (2), but on (2) I don't really care what is the value of mFoobar. I've tried such a code: void foo(double &bar, double &foobar = NULL) { bar = 100; foobar = 150; } int main() { double mBar(0),mFoobar(0); foo(mBar,mFoobar); // (1) cout << mBar << mFoobar; mBar = 0; mFoobar = 0; foo(mBar); // (2) cout << mBar << mFoobar; return 0; } but it crashes at void foo(double &bar, double &foobar = NULL) with message : error: default argument for 'double& foobar' has type 'int' Is it possible to solve it without function overloading? Thanks in advance for any suggestions. Pawel

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  • Index an array expression directly in PostgreSQL

    - by wich
    I'm trying to insert data into a table from a template table. I need to rewrite one of the columns for which I wanted to use a directly indexed array expression, but I can't seem to find how to do this, if it is even possible. The scenario: create table template ( id integer, index integer, foo integer); insert into template values (0, 1, 23), (0, 2, 18), (0, 3, 16), (0, 4, 7), (1, 1, 17), (1, 2, 26), (1, 3, 11), (1, 4, 3); create table data ( data_id integer, foo integer); Now what I'd like to do is the following: insert into data select (array[3,7,5,2])[index], foo from template where id = 1; But this doesn't work, the (array[3,7,5,2])[index] syntax isn't valid. I tried a few variants, but was unable to get anything working and wasn't able to find the correct syntax in the docs, nor even whether this is at all possible or not. As a current workaround I've devised the following, but it is less than ideal, from an elegance perspective at least, but it may also be a performance hit, I haven't looked into that yet. insert into data select arr[index], foo from template, (select array[3,7,5,2] as arr) as q where id = 1; If anyone could suggest a (better) alternative to accomplish this I'd like to hear that as well.

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  • Semi-generic function

    - by Fredrik Ullner
    I have a bunch of overloaded functions that operate on certain data types such as int, double and strings. Most of these functions perform the same action, where only a specific set of data types are allowed. That means I cannot create a simple generic template function as I lose type safety (and potentially incurring a run-time problem for validation within the function). Is it possible to create a "semi-generic compile time type safe function"? If so, how? If not, is this something that will come up in C++0x? An (non-valid) idea; template <typename T, restrict: int, std::string > void foo(T bar); ... foo((int)0); // OK foo((std::string)"foobar"); // OK foo((double)0.0); // Compile Error Note: I realize I could create a class that has overloaded constructors and assignment operators and pass a variable of that class instead to the function.

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  • Django: DatabaseError column does not exist

    - by Rosarch
    I'm having a problem with Django 1.2.4. Here is a model: class Foo(models.Model): # ... ftw = models.CharField(blank=True) bar = models.ForeignKey(Bar) Right after flushing the database, I use the shell: Python 2.6.6 (r266:84292, Sep 15 2010, 15:52:39) [GCC 4.4.5] on linux2 Type "help", "copyright", "credits" or "license" for more information. (InteractiveConsole) >>> from apps.foo.models import Foo >>> Foo.objects.all() Traceback (most recent call last): File "<console>", line 1, in <module> File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/models/query.py", line 67, in __repr__ data = list(self[:REPR_OUTPUT_SIZE + 1]) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/models/query.py", line 82, in __len__ self._result_cache.extend(list(self._iter)) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/models/query.py", line 271, in iterator for row in compiler.results_iter(): File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/models/sql/compiler.py", line 677, in results_iter for rows in self.execute_sql(MULTI): File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/models/sql/compiler.py", line 732, in execute_sql cursor.execute(sql, params) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/backends/util.py", line 15, in execute return self.cursor.execute(sql, params) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/backends/postgresql_psycopg2/base.py", line 44, in execute return self.cursor.execute(query, args) DatabaseError: column foo_foo.bar_id does not exist LINE 1: ...t_omg", "foo_foo"."ftw", "foo_foo... What am I doing wrong here?

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  • PowerShell function arguments: Can the first one be optional first?

    - by Johannes Rössel
    I have an advanced function in PowerShell, which roughly looks like this: function Foo { [CmdletBinding] param ( [int] $a = 42, [int] $b ) } The idea is that it can be run with either two, one or no arguments. However, the first argument to become optional is the first one. So the following scenarios are possible to run the function: Foo a b # the normal case, both a and b are defined Foo b # a is omitted Foo # both a and b are omitted However, normally PowerShell tries to fit the single argument into a. So I thought about specifying the argument positions explicitly, where a would have position 0 and b position 1. However, to allow for only b specified I tried putting a into a parameter set. But then b would need a different position depending on the currently-used parameter set. Any ideas how to solve this properly? I'd like to retain the parameter names (which aren't a and b actually), so using $args is probably a last resort. I probably could define two parameter sets, one with two mandatory parameters and one with a single optional one, but I guess the parameter names have to be different in that case, then, right?

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  • GNU C++ how to check when -std=c++0x is in effect?

    - by TerryP
    My system compiler (gcc42) works fine with the TR1 features that I want, but trying to support newer compiler versions other than the systems, trying to accessing TR1 headers an #error demanding the -std=c++0x option because of how it interfaces with library or some hub bub like that. /usr/local/lib/gcc45/include/c++/bits/c++0x_warning.h:31:2: error: #error This file requires compiler and library support for the upcoming ISO C++ standard, C++0x. This support is currently experimental, and must be enabled with the -std=c++0x or -std=gnu++0x compiler options. Having to supply an extra switch is no problem, to support GCC 4.4 and 4.5 under this system (FreeBSD), but obviously it changes the picture! Using my system compiler (g++ 4.2 default dialect): #include <tr1/foo> using std::tr1::foo; Using newer (4.5) versions of the compiler with -std=c++0x: #include <foo> using std::foo; Is there anyway using the pre processor, that I can tell if g++ is running with C++0x features enabled? Something like this is what I'm looking for: #ifdef __CXX0X_MODE__ #endif but I have not found anything in the manual or off the web. At this rate, I'm starting to think that life would just be easier, to use Boost as a dependency, and not worry about a new language standard arriving before TR4... hehe.

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  • Ensuring that all callbacks were completed before sending a new request through a DuplexChannel usin

    - by Etan
    I am experiencing some issues when using a Callback in a WCF project. First, the server invokes some function Foo on the client which then forwards the request to a Windows Forms GUI: GUI CLASS delegate void DoForward(); public void ForwardToGui() { if (this.cmdSomeButton.InvokeRequired) { DoForward d = new DoForward(ForwardToGui); this.Invoke(d); } else { Process(); // sets result variable in callback class as soon as done } } } CALLBACK CLASS object _m = new object(); private int _result; public int result { get { return _result; } set { _result = value; lock(_m) { Monitor.PulseAll(_m); } } } [OperationContract] public int Foo() { result = 0; Program.Gui.ForwardToGui(); lock(_m) { Monitor.Wait(_m, 30000); } return result; } The problem now is that the user should be able to cancel the process, which doesn't work properly: SERVER INTERFACE [OperationContract] void Cleanup(); GUI CLASS private void Gui_FormClosed(object sender, EventArgs e) { Program.callbackclass.nextAction = -1; // so that the monitor pulses and Foo() returns Program.server.Cleanup(); } The problem with this is that Cleanup() hangs. However, when I close the form when Process() is not running, it works properly. The source seems to be that the Cleanup() is called before the monitor pulses etc and therefore a new request is sent to the server before the last request from the server has not yet been responded. How can I solve this problem? How can I ensure before calling Cleanup() that no Foo() is currently being executed?

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  • Putting all methods in class definition

    - by Amnon
    When I use the pimpl idiom, is it a good idea to put all the methods definitions inside the class definition? For example: // in A.h class A { class impl; boost::scoped_ptr<impl> pimpl; public: A(); int foo(); } // in A.cpp class A::impl { // method defined in class int foo() { return 42; } // as opposed to only declaring the method, and defining elsewhere: float bar(); }; A::A() : pimpl(new impl) { } int A::foo() { return pimpl->foo(); } As far as I know, the only problems with putting a method definition inside a class definition is that (1) the implementation is visible in files that include the class definition, and (2) the compiler may make the method inline. These are not problems in this case since the class is defined in a private file, and inlining has no effect since the methods are called in only one place. The advantage of putting the definition inside the class is that you don't have to repeat the method signature. So, is this OK? Are there any other issues to be aware of?

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  • implementing a read/write field for an interface that only defines read

    - by PaulH
    I have a C# 2.0 application where a base interface allows read-only access to a value in a concrete class. But, within the concrete class, I'd like to have read/write access to that value. So, I have an implementation like this: public abstract class Base { public abstract DateTime StartTime { get; } } public class Foo : Base { DateTime start_time_; public override DateTime StartTime { get { return start_time_; } internal set { start_time_ = value; } } } But, this gives me the error: Foo.cs(200,22): error CS0546: 'Foo.StartTime.set': cannot override because 'Base.StartTime' does not have an overridable set accessor I don't want the base class to have write access. But, I do want the concrete class to provide read/write access. Is there a way to make this work? Thanks, PaulH Unfortunately, Base can't be changed to an interface as it contains non-abstract functionality also. Something I should have thought to put in the original problem description. public abstract class Base { public abstract DateTime StartTime { get; } public void Buzz() { // do something interesting... } } My solution is to do this: public class Foo : Base { DateTime start_time_; public override DateTime StartTime { get { return start_time_; } } internal void SetStartTime { start_time_ = value; } } It's not as nice as I'd like, but it works.

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  • A public struct inside a class

    - by Koning Baard
    I am new to C++, and let's say I have two classes: Creature and Human: /* creature.h */ class Creature { private: public: struct emotion { /* All emotions are percentages */ char joy; char trust; char fear; char surprise; char sadness; char disgust; char anger; char anticipation; char love; }; }; /* human.h */ class Human : Creature { }; And I have this in my main function in main.cpp: Human foo; My question is: how can I set foo's emotions? I tried this: foo->emotion.fear = 5; But GCC gives me this compile error: error: base operand of '-' has non-pointer type 'Human' This: foo.emotion.fear = 5; Gives: error: 'struct Creature::emotion' is inaccessible error: within this context error: invalid use of 'struct Creature::emotion' Can anyone help me? Thanks P.S. No I did not forget the #includes

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  • "Forced constness" in std::map<std::vector<int>,double> > ?

    - by Peter Jansson
    Consider this program: #include <map> #include <vector> typedef std::vector<int> IntVector; typedef std::map<IntVector,double> Map; void foo(Map& m,const IntVector& v) { Map::iterator i = m.find(v); i->first.push_back(10); }; int main() { Map m; IntVector v(10,10); foo(m,v); return 0; } Using g++ 4.4.0, I get his compilation error: test.cpp: In function 'void foo(Map&, const IntVector&)': test.cpp:8: error: passing 'const std::vector<int, std::allocator<int> >' as 'this' argument of 'void std::vector<_Tp, _Alloc>::push_back(const _Tp&) [with _Tp = int, _Alloc = std::allocator<int>]' discards qualifiers I would expect this error if I was using Map::const_iterator inside foo but not using a non-const iterator. What am I missing, why do I get this error?

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  • Why does Python sometimes upgrade a string to unicode and sometimes not?

    - by samtregar
    I'm confused. Consider this code working the way I expect: >>> foo = u'Émilie and Juañ are turncoats.' >>> bar = "foo is %s" % foo >>> bar u'foo is \xc3\x89milie and Jua\xc3\xb1 are turncoats.' And this code not at all working the way I expect: >>> try: ... raise Exception(foo) ... except Exception as e: ... foo2 = e ... >>> bar = "foo2 is %s" % foo2 ------------------------------------------------------------ Traceback (most recent call last): File "<ipython console>", line 1, in <module> UnicodeEncodeError: 'ascii' codec can't encode characters in position 0-1: ordinal not in range(128) Can someone explain what's going on here? Why does it matter whether the unicode data is in a plain unicode string or stored in an Exception object? And why does this fix it: >>> bar = u"foo2 is %s" % foo2 >>> bar u'foo2 is \xc3\x89milie and Jua\xc3\xb1 are turncoats.' I am quite confused! Thanks for the help! UPDATE: My coding buddy Randall has added to my confusion in an attempt to help me! Send in the reinforcements to explain how this is supposed to make sense: >>> class A: ... def __str__(self): return "string" ... def __unicode__(self): return "unicode" ... >>> "%s %s" % (u'niño', A()) u'ni\xc3\xb1o unicode' >>> "%s %s" % (A(), u'niño') u'string ni\xc3\xb1o' Note that the order of the arguments here determines which method is called!

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  • Checking when two headers are included at the same time.

    - by fortran
    Hi, I need to do an assertion based on two related macro preprocessor #define's declared in different header files... The codebase is huge and it would be nice if I could find a place to put the assertion where the two headers are already included, to avoid polluting namespaces unnecessarily. Checking just that a file includes both explicitly might not suffice, as one (or both) of them might be included in an upper level of a nesting include's hierarchy. I know it wouldn't be too hard to write an script to check that, but if there's already a tool that does the job, the better. Example: file foo.h #define FOO 0xf file bar.h #define BAR 0x1e I need to put somewhere (it doesn't matter a lot where) something like this: #if (2*FOO) != BAR #error "foo is not twice bar" #endif Yes, I know the example is silly, as they could be replaced so one is derived from the other, but let's say that the includes can be generated from different places not under my control and I just need to check that they match at compile time... And I don't want to just add one include after the other, as it might conflict with previous code that I haven't written, so that's why I would like to find a file where both are already present. In brief: how can I find a file that includes (direct or indirectly) two other files? Thanks!

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  • Using block around a static/singleton resource reference

    - by byte
    This is interesting (to me anyway), and I'd like to see if anyone has a good answer and explanation for this behavior. Say you have a singleton database object (or static database object), and you have it stored in a class Foo. public class Foo { public static SqlConnection DBConn = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["BAR"].ConnectionString); } Then, lets say that you are cognizant of the usefulness of calling and disposing your connection (pretend for this example that its a one-time use for purposes of illustration). So you decide to use a 'using' block to take care of the Dispose() call. using (SqlConnection conn = Foo.DBConn) { conn.Open(); using (SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand()) { cmd.Connection = conn; cmd.CommandType = System.Data.CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.CommandText = "SP_YOUR_PROC"; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } conn.Close(); } This fails, with an error stating that the "ConnectionString property is not initialized". It's not an issue with pulling the connection string from the app.config/web.config. When you investigate in a debug session you see that Foo.DBConn is not null, but contains empty properties. Why is this?

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  • How to test routes that don't include controller?

    - by Darren Green
    I'm using minitest in Rails to do testing, but I'm running into a problem that I hope a more seasoned tester can help me out with because I've tried looking everywhere for the answer, but it doesn't seem that anyone has run into this problem or if they have, they opted for an integration test. Let's say I have a controller called Foo and action in it called bar. So the foo_controller.rb file looks like this: class FooController < ApplicationController def bar render 'bar', :layout => 'application' end end The thing is that I don't want people to access the "foo/bar" route directly. So I have a route that is get 'baz' => 'foo#bar'. Now I want to test the FooController: require 'minitest_helper' class FooControllerTest < ActionController::TestCase def test_should_get_index get '/baz' end end But the test results in an error that No route matches {:controller=>"foo", :action=>"/baz"}. How do I specify the controller for the GET request? Sorry if this is a dumb question. It's been very hard for me to find the answer.

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  • Progressive enhancement of anchor tags to avoid onclick="return false;"

    - by Chris Beck
    Unobtrusive JS suggests that we don't have any onclick attributes in our HTML templates. <a href="/controller/foo/1">View Foo 1</a> A most basic progressive enhancement is to convert an that anchor tag to use XHR to retrieve a DOM fragment. So, I write JS to add an event listener for a."click" then make an XHR to a.href. Alas, the browser still wants to navigate to "/controller/foo". So, I write JS to dynamically inject a.onclick = "return false;". Still unobtrusive (I guess), but now I'm paying the the cost of an extra event handler. To avoid the cost of 2 event listeners, I could shove my function call into the onclick attribute <a href="/controller/foo/1" onclick="myXHRFcn(); return false;"> But that's grodo for all sorts of reasons. To make it more interesting, I might have 100 anchor tags that I want to enhance. A better pattern is a single listener on a parent node that relies on event bubbling. That's cool, but how do I short circuit the browser from navigating to the URL without this on every anchor node? onclick="return false;" Manipulating the href is not an option. It must stay intact so the context menu options to copy or open in new page work as expected.

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  • Multiple submits in an HTML form

    - by StackOverflowNewbie
    I have an HTML form that needs multiple submit buttons, like this: <input type="submit" name="foo" value="1"/> <input type="submit" name="foo" value="2"/> <input type="submit" name="foo" value="3"/> The problem is that I want it to display on the button something other than what is in the value attribute (in the example above: 1, 2, 3). For example, I want to show "Bar" for the button with value="1". Is this possible? I've considered using the <button> tag, like this: <button name="foo" value="1">Bar</button> The problem with using <button> (from w3schools): If you use the element in an HTML form, different browsers may submit different values. Internet Explorer, prior version 9, will submit the text between the and tags, while other browsers will submit the content of the value attribute. Use the element to create buttons in an HTML form. Thoughts?

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